ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE- PAGE 3
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE MCQs- PAGE 6
1. Photolysis of NO2 occurs due to radiations of wavelength
(A) < 600 nm
(B) < 550 nm
(C) < 480 nm
(D) < 390 nm
Ans: D
2. The efficiency of removing SO2 from the flue gas by limestone in wet scrubbers can be as high as
(A) 30%
(B) 50%
(C) 70%
(D) 90%
Ans: D
3. The depth of the oxidation ponds is typically
(A) 1 – 2 m
(B) 2 – 5 m
(C) 5 – 10 m
(D) 10 – 20 m
Ans: A
4. In EIA the baseline data describes
(A) The environmental consequences by mapping
(B) Existing environmental status of the identified study area
(C) Assessment of risk on the basis of proposal
(D) Demographic and socioeconomic data
Ans: B
5. Which one of the following does not belong to EIA methods used for assessing the impacts of developmental activities on the environment?
(A) Checklist
(B) Adhoc
(C) Network
(D) Flexible
Ans: D
6. The EIA report of a hydropower project would be valid upto how many years after the environmental clearance of the project?
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years
Ans: D
7. If in the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a developmental project is not discernible, then what step should be adopted?
(A) Scoping stage is to be followed.
(B) A rapid EIA study is to be conducted.
(C) Detail EIA study is to be conducted.
(D) The project should be given Environmental Clearance.
Ans: B
8. The Committee which reviews the Environmental Impact Assessment and Environmental Management plan reports of a developmental project in Ministry of Environment and Forest is called
(A) Project Assessment Committee
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(C) Project Evaluation Committee
(D) Project Estimate Committee
Ans: B
9. In a typical municipal solid waste, least percentage of Ash is found in
(A) Textiles
(B) Plastic
(C) Leather
(D) Rubber
Ans: A
10. Highly inflammable liquid/chemicals have flash point
(A) Lower than 23 °C
(B) Between 23 and 26 °C
(C) Between 27 and 31 °C
(D) Between 32 and 40 °C
Ans: A
11. Which one of the following does not contribute to climate change?
(A) NO
(B) O3
(C) SF6
(D) HFCs
Ans: A
12. A population (X) in an ecosystem follows logistic growth curve. If the carrying capacity of the system is K, the growth realisation factor is
(A) (K – X) / X
(B) (K – X) / K
(C) (K – X) / K2
(D) (K – X)
Ans: B
13. Which one of the following conditions would indicate that the dataset is not bell shaped?
(A) The mean is much smaller than median
(B) The range is equal to five times the standard deviation.
(C) The range is larger than interquartile range.
(D) The range is twice the standard deviation.
Ans: A
14. For degrees of freedom (df) > 1, the mean (μ) of the t-distribution is
(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) Depends on df
(D) 2
Ans: A
15. Suppose a 70 kg person drinks 2L of water every day for 70 years with a chloroform concentration of 0.10 mg/L (the drinking water standard), upper bound cancer risk for these individual will be
(A) 17 in 1 million
(B) 25 in 1 million
(C) 37 in 1 million
(D) 5 in 1 million
Ans: A
16. What is Eco mark?
(A) Label given to recycled products
(B) Label given to an environment friendly products
(C) Land mark indicating the boundaries of bio-parks
(D) Label given to non-recyclable products
Ans: B
17. An important source of Arsenic in Municipal Solid Water (MSW) is
(A) Pigments in plastics
(B) Rubber products
(C) Batteries
(D) Household pesticides
Ans: D
18. Which of the following is not a non-formal Environment Education and Awareness Programme?
(A) Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment (GLOBE).
(B) National Environment Awareness Campaign (NEAC).
(C) Eco-clubs
(D) Environmental Education in School System
Ans: D
19. REDD stands for
(A) Recurring Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
(B) Reducing Environmental Degradation and Forest Degradation
(C) Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
(D) Reducing Emissions from Degradable Deposits of Wastes
Ans: C
20. Match the List – I with List – II; choose the correct answer from the given codes:
List – I List – II
(Plants) (Family)
(a) Camellia caduca i. Orchidaceae
(b) Picea brachytyla ii. Theaceae
(c) Colchicumluteum iii. Pinaceae
(d) Arachnantha clarkei iv. Liliaceae
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iii iv I
Ans: D
21. Vegetation cover shows maximum reflectance in which of the following regions of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum?
(A) Ultraviolet
(B) Near infrared
(C) Middle infrared
(D) Visible
Ans: B
22. During remote sensing of the vegetation cover, the spectral reflection of vegetation over electromagnetic radiation spectrum depends upon
(A) Pigmentation in the leaf
(B) Structure of the leaf
(C) Moisture content of the leaf
(D) All the above characters
Ans: D
23. Given below are statements in the context of biogeochemical cycles:
(i) Ecosystems are black boxes for many of the processes that take place within them.
(ii) Ecosystem boundaries are permeable to some degree or other.
(iii) The energy and nutrients can be transferred to and from one ecosystem to another via imports and exports.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) & (ii) only
(B) (ii) & (iii) only
(C) (i) & (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
24. The volume of ejecta and the column height for a volcano are 108.5 m3 and 24 km, respectively. What is its volcanic explosivity index value?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans: D
25. In the context of material balance in hydrological cycle, which of the following equations is correct for oceans?
(A) Input + change in storage = output
(B) Precipitation + inflow = evaporation
(C) Input – change in storage = output
(D) Precipitation – inflow = evaporation
Ans: B
26. In disaster management which steps are followed in post-disaster recovery phase?
(A) Relief, rehabilitation, reconstruction, learning – review
(B) Risk Assessment, mitigation, preparedness, emergency plans.
(C) Relief, mitigation, emergency plans.
(D) Learning – review, emergency plans, preparedness.
Ans: A
27. Permafrost represents
(A) Permanently frozen subsurface soil
(B) Frozen leaves of Oak trees
(C) Frozen needles of pine trees
(D) Temporarily frozen subsurface soil
Ans: A
28. Assertion (A): Estuaries are productive ecosystems.
Reason (R): Large amounts of nutrients are introduced into the basin from the rivers that run into them.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: A
29. A confined aquifer of thickness 25 m has two wells 200 m apart along the direction of flow of water. The difference in their hydraulic heads is 1 m. If hydraulic conductivity is 50 m/day, the rate of flow of water per day per metre of distance perpendicular to the flow of water is
(A) 25 m3/day per metre
(B) 50 m3/day per metre
(C) 5 m3/day per metre
(D) 1 m3/day per metre
Ans: C
30. Which of the following material has the highest hydraulic conductivity?
(A) Clay
(B) Sandstone
(C) Limestone
(D) Quartzite
Ans: B
31. Which of the following energy sources is not renewable on human time scale?
(A) Solar
(B) Hydrothermal
(C) Geothermal
(D) Biomass
Ans: C
32. For a solar flat plate collector the following data is given: Useful heat gain = 28 watts/m2 per hour, solar radiation intensity = 350 watts/m2 per hour and the factor to convert beam radiation to that on the plane of the collector = 1.2. The collector efficiency is
(A) ~ 6.6 %
(B) ~ 4.8 %
(C) ~ 12.2 %
(D) ~ 15.2 %
Ans: A
33. For the reaction in a hydrogen oxygen fuel cell,
H2 + 1/2 O2 = H2O (l)
Given ΔG° = 240 kJ/gm – mole of H2 and Faraday’s constant = 96,500 Coulomb/gm mole.
The developed voltage in the fuel cell will be
(A) ~ 1.13 Volts
(B) ~ 2.13 Volts
(C) ~ 1.51 Volts
(D) ~ 1.24 Volts
Ans: D
34. Identify the correct sequence of the fuels in order of their increasing carbon intensity:
(A) Natural gas < Oil < Bituminous coal < Nuclear
(B) Oil < Coal < Natural gas <Nuclear
(C) Nuclear < Coal < Natural gas <Oil
(D) Nuclear < Natural gas < Oil <Bituminous coal
Ans: D
35. In nuclear thermal reactors, which of the following is not used as moderator?
(A) Normal water
(B) Heavy water
(C) Graphite
(D) Liquid Helium
Ans: D
36. The minimum temperature gradient (°C/km) required for OTEC is about
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 40
(D) 60
Ans: A
37. A solar pond has electricity generating capacity of 600 MWe. If the efficiency of solar energy to electric generation process was 2% and solar energy supply rate was 300 W/m2, what is the area of solar pond?
(A) 100 km2
(B) 90 km2
(C) 60 km2
(D) 180 km2
Ans: A
38. Which of the following causes warming of atmosphere but cooling of the earth’s surface?
(A) Ozone
(B) Black carbon aerosols
(C) All Greenhouse gases
(D) Sulphates and nitrates
Ans: B
39. Assertion (A): For noise level surveys in urban areas, weighting A is used for measurements.
Reason (R): Weighting a filters out unwanted signals.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: C
40. Noise levels of 80 dB refers to a sound pressure level of
(A) 0.2 Pa
(B) 0.02 Pa
(C) 20 Pa
(D) 200 Pa
Ans: A
41. Asphyxiation is caused by
(A) HCN, COCl2
(B) NOx
(C) CHCl3
(D) AsH3
Ans: A
42. Sequence of a typical sewage treatment plant operation process will be
(A) Aeration → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Recarbonation → Filtration → Disinfection
(B) Aeration → Sedimentation → Flocculation → Filtration → Recarbonation → Disinfection
(C) Flocculation → Aeration →Recarbonation → Sedimentation → Filtration → Disinfection
(D) Sedimentation → Flocculation → Aeration → Filtration → Recarbonation → Disinfection
Ans: A
43. Which one of the following isotopes has maximum half-life period?
(A) Rn222
(B) Pb210
(C) Ti210
(D) Bi210
Ans: B
44. Match the List – I with List – II and identify the correct answer from given codes:
List – I List – II
(Aerosols) (Constituents)
(a) Dust i. Small gas borne particles resulting from combustion
(b) Mist ii. Black carbon
(c) Smoke iii. Suspended small liquid droplets
(d) Atmospheric Brown Cloud iv. Solid suspended particles
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: A
45. Assertion (A): Chlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.
Reason (R): These compounds contain chlorine, bromine and fluorine.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
46. Which of the following organic compounds is not of biogenic origin?
(A) Isoprene
(B) α-pinene
(C) Myrcene
(D) Acrolein
Ans: D
47. Which of the following is used as plant indicator for detection of presence of SO2 and HF in air?
(A) Lichen
(B) Orchid
(C) Apricot
(D) Tobacco
Ans: A
48. Integrated Gasification Combined Cycle (IGCC) technology is best at removing
(A) NO2 and CO
(B) CO and SO2
(C) Particulates and sulphur
(D) NO2 and SO2
Ans: C
49. A wastewater treatment plant in a city treats 50,000 m3 wastewater generated per day. For an average flow rate of 25 m3 per day per sq. metre, what should be the diameter of the circular primary settling tank?
(A) 50.4 m
(B) 30.6 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 25.8 m
Ans: A
50. An Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) with collector plate area = 5000 m2 treats a flue gas with drift velocity = 0.12 m/s with 98% efficiency. The volumetric flow rate (m3/s) of the flue gas is
(A) ~ 175.2
(B) ~ 213.5
(C) ~ 153.4
(D) ~ 198.9
Ans: C
(A) < 600 nm
(B) < 550 nm
(C) < 480 nm
(D) < 390 nm
Ans: D
2. The efficiency of removing SO2 from the flue gas by limestone in wet scrubbers can be as high as
(A) 30%
(B) 50%
(C) 70%
(D) 90%
Ans: D
3. The depth of the oxidation ponds is typically
(A) 1 – 2 m
(B) 2 – 5 m
(C) 5 – 10 m
(D) 10 – 20 m
Ans: A
4. In EIA the baseline data describes
(A) The environmental consequences by mapping
(B) Existing environmental status of the identified study area
(C) Assessment of risk on the basis of proposal
(D) Demographic and socioeconomic data
Ans: B
5. Which one of the following does not belong to EIA methods used for assessing the impacts of developmental activities on the environment?
(A) Checklist
(B) Adhoc
(C) Network
(D) Flexible
Ans: D
6. The EIA report of a hydropower project would be valid upto how many years after the environmental clearance of the project?
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years
Ans: D
7. If in the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a developmental project is not discernible, then what step should be adopted?
(A) Scoping stage is to be followed.
(B) A rapid EIA study is to be conducted.
(C) Detail EIA study is to be conducted.
(D) The project should be given Environmental Clearance.
Ans: B
8. The Committee which reviews the Environmental Impact Assessment and Environmental Management plan reports of a developmental project in Ministry of Environment and Forest is called
(A) Project Assessment Committee
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(C) Project Evaluation Committee
(D) Project Estimate Committee
Ans: B
9. In a typical municipal solid waste, least percentage of Ash is found in
(A) Textiles
(B) Plastic
(C) Leather
(D) Rubber
Ans: A
10. Highly inflammable liquid/chemicals have flash point
(A) Lower than 23 °C
(B) Between 23 and 26 °C
(C) Between 27 and 31 °C
(D) Between 32 and 40 °C
Ans: A
11. Which one of the following does not contribute to climate change?
(A) NO
(B) O3
(C) SF6
(D) HFCs
Ans: A
12. A population (X) in an ecosystem follows logistic growth curve. If the carrying capacity of the system is K, the growth realisation factor is
(A) (K – X) / X
(B) (K – X) / K
(C) (K – X) / K2
(D) (K – X)
Ans: B
13. Which one of the following conditions would indicate that the dataset is not bell shaped?
(A) The mean is much smaller than median
(B) The range is equal to five times the standard deviation.
(C) The range is larger than interquartile range.
(D) The range is twice the standard deviation.
Ans: A
14. For degrees of freedom (df) > 1, the mean (μ) of the t-distribution is
(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) Depends on df
(D) 2
Ans: A
15. Suppose a 70 kg person drinks 2L of water every day for 70 years with a chloroform concentration of 0.10 mg/L (the drinking water standard), upper bound cancer risk for these individual will be
(A) 17 in 1 million
(B) 25 in 1 million
(C) 37 in 1 million
(D) 5 in 1 million
Ans: A
16. What is Eco mark?
(A) Label given to recycled products
(B) Label given to an environment friendly products
(C) Land mark indicating the boundaries of bio-parks
(D) Label given to non-recyclable products
Ans: B
17. An important source of Arsenic in Municipal Solid Water (MSW) is
(A) Pigments in plastics
(B) Rubber products
(C) Batteries
(D) Household pesticides
Ans: D
18. Which of the following is not a non-formal Environment Education and Awareness Programme?
(A) Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the Environment (GLOBE).
(B) National Environment Awareness Campaign (NEAC).
(C) Eco-clubs
(D) Environmental Education in School System
Ans: D
19. REDD stands for
(A) Recurring Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
(B) Reducing Environmental Degradation and Forest Degradation
(C) Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
(D) Reducing Emissions from Degradable Deposits of Wastes
Ans: C
20. Match the List – I with List – II; choose the correct answer from the given codes:
List – I List – II
(Plants) (Family)
(a) Camellia caduca i. Orchidaceae
(b) Picea brachytyla ii. Theaceae
(c) Colchicumluteum iii. Pinaceae
(d) Arachnantha clarkei iv. Liliaceae
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iii iv I
Ans: D
21. Vegetation cover shows maximum reflectance in which of the following regions of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum?
(A) Ultraviolet
(B) Near infrared
(C) Middle infrared
(D) Visible
Ans: B
22. During remote sensing of the vegetation cover, the spectral reflection of vegetation over electromagnetic radiation spectrum depends upon
(A) Pigmentation in the leaf
(B) Structure of the leaf
(C) Moisture content of the leaf
(D) All the above characters
Ans: D
23. Given below are statements in the context of biogeochemical cycles:
(i) Ecosystems are black boxes for many of the processes that take place within them.
(ii) Ecosystem boundaries are permeable to some degree or other.
(iii) The energy and nutrients can be transferred to and from one ecosystem to another via imports and exports.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) & (ii) only
(B) (ii) & (iii) only
(C) (i) & (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
24. The volume of ejecta and the column height for a volcano are 108.5 m3 and 24 km, respectively. What is its volcanic explosivity index value?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans: D
25. In the context of material balance in hydrological cycle, which of the following equations is correct for oceans?
(A) Input + change in storage = output
(B) Precipitation + inflow = evaporation
(C) Input – change in storage = output
(D) Precipitation – inflow = evaporation
Ans: B
26. In disaster management which steps are followed in post-disaster recovery phase?
(A) Relief, rehabilitation, reconstruction, learning – review
(B) Risk Assessment, mitigation, preparedness, emergency plans.
(C) Relief, mitigation, emergency plans.
(D) Learning – review, emergency plans, preparedness.
Ans: A
27. Permafrost represents
(A) Permanently frozen subsurface soil
(B) Frozen leaves of Oak trees
(C) Frozen needles of pine trees
(D) Temporarily frozen subsurface soil
Ans: A
28. Assertion (A): Estuaries are productive ecosystems.
Reason (R): Large amounts of nutrients are introduced into the basin from the rivers that run into them.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: A
29. A confined aquifer of thickness 25 m has two wells 200 m apart along the direction of flow of water. The difference in their hydraulic heads is 1 m. If hydraulic conductivity is 50 m/day, the rate of flow of water per day per metre of distance perpendicular to the flow of water is
(A) 25 m3/day per metre
(B) 50 m3/day per metre
(C) 5 m3/day per metre
(D) 1 m3/day per metre
Ans: C
30. Which of the following material has the highest hydraulic conductivity?
(A) Clay
(B) Sandstone
(C) Limestone
(D) Quartzite
Ans: B
31. Which of the following energy sources is not renewable on human time scale?
(A) Solar
(B) Hydrothermal
(C) Geothermal
(D) Biomass
Ans: C
32. For a solar flat plate collector the following data is given: Useful heat gain = 28 watts/m2 per hour, solar radiation intensity = 350 watts/m2 per hour and the factor to convert beam radiation to that on the plane of the collector = 1.2. The collector efficiency is
(A) ~ 6.6 %
(B) ~ 4.8 %
(C) ~ 12.2 %
(D) ~ 15.2 %
Ans: A
33. For the reaction in a hydrogen oxygen fuel cell,
H2 + 1/2 O2 = H2O (l)
Given ΔG° = 240 kJ/gm – mole of H2 and Faraday’s constant = 96,500 Coulomb/gm mole.
The developed voltage in the fuel cell will be
(A) ~ 1.13 Volts
(B) ~ 2.13 Volts
(C) ~ 1.51 Volts
(D) ~ 1.24 Volts
Ans: D
34. Identify the correct sequence of the fuels in order of their increasing carbon intensity:
(A) Natural gas < Oil < Bituminous coal < Nuclear
(B) Oil < Coal < Natural gas <Nuclear
(C) Nuclear < Coal < Natural gas <Oil
(D) Nuclear < Natural gas < Oil <Bituminous coal
Ans: D
35. In nuclear thermal reactors, which of the following is not used as moderator?
(A) Normal water
(B) Heavy water
(C) Graphite
(D) Liquid Helium
Ans: D
36. The minimum temperature gradient (°C/km) required for OTEC is about
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 40
(D) 60
Ans: A
37. A solar pond has electricity generating capacity of 600 MWe. If the efficiency of solar energy to electric generation process was 2% and solar energy supply rate was 300 W/m2, what is the area of solar pond?
(A) 100 km2
(B) 90 km2
(C) 60 km2
(D) 180 km2
Ans: A
38. Which of the following causes warming of atmosphere but cooling of the earth’s surface?
(A) Ozone
(B) Black carbon aerosols
(C) All Greenhouse gases
(D) Sulphates and nitrates
Ans: B
39. Assertion (A): For noise level surveys in urban areas, weighting A is used for measurements.
Reason (R): Weighting a filters out unwanted signals.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: C
40. Noise levels of 80 dB refers to a sound pressure level of
(A) 0.2 Pa
(B) 0.02 Pa
(C) 20 Pa
(D) 200 Pa
Ans: A
41. Asphyxiation is caused by
(A) HCN, COCl2
(B) NOx
(C) CHCl3
(D) AsH3
Ans: A
42. Sequence of a typical sewage treatment plant operation process will be
(A) Aeration → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Recarbonation → Filtration → Disinfection
(B) Aeration → Sedimentation → Flocculation → Filtration → Recarbonation → Disinfection
(C) Flocculation → Aeration →Recarbonation → Sedimentation → Filtration → Disinfection
(D) Sedimentation → Flocculation → Aeration → Filtration → Recarbonation → Disinfection
Ans: A
43. Which one of the following isotopes has maximum half-life period?
(A) Rn222
(B) Pb210
(C) Ti210
(D) Bi210
Ans: B
44. Match the List – I with List – II and identify the correct answer from given codes:
List – I List – II
(Aerosols) (Constituents)
(a) Dust i. Small gas borne particles resulting from combustion
(b) Mist ii. Black carbon
(c) Smoke iii. Suspended small liquid droplets
(d) Atmospheric Brown Cloud iv. Solid suspended particles
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: A
45. Assertion (A): Chlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.
Reason (R): These compounds contain chlorine, bromine and fluorine.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
46. Which of the following organic compounds is not of biogenic origin?
(A) Isoprene
(B) α-pinene
(C) Myrcene
(D) Acrolein
Ans: D
47. Which of the following is used as plant indicator for detection of presence of SO2 and HF in air?
(A) Lichen
(B) Orchid
(C) Apricot
(D) Tobacco
Ans: A
48. Integrated Gasification Combined Cycle (IGCC) technology is best at removing
(A) NO2 and CO
(B) CO and SO2
(C) Particulates and sulphur
(D) NO2 and SO2
Ans: C
49. A wastewater treatment plant in a city treats 50,000 m3 wastewater generated per day. For an average flow rate of 25 m3 per day per sq. metre, what should be the diameter of the circular primary settling tank?
(A) 50.4 m
(B) 30.6 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 25.8 m
Ans: A
50. An Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) with collector plate area = 5000 m2 treats a flue gas with drift velocity = 0.12 m/s with 98% efficiency. The volumetric flow rate (m3/s) of the flue gas is
(A) ~ 175.2
(B) ~ 213.5
(C) ~ 153.4
(D) ~ 198.9
Ans: C
51. The mean and standard deviation of a Binomial distribution are 9 and 1, respectively. The first moment of the distribution is
(A) 9
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans: D
52. Which one of the following is used in manufacturing flexible plastic bags and sheets?
(A) Polystyrene (PS)
(B) Polyethylene terephthalate (PET)
(C) Low density polyethylene (LDPE)
(D) TEFLON
Ans: C
53. Which one of the following is a non-formal environment education and awareness programme?
(A) Environmental appreciation courses.
(B) National Environment Awareness Campaign.
(C) Environmental Education in school system.
(D) Environmental Management Business Studies.
Ans: B
54. Bio parks are conceived, developed and managed with a goal of conservation of biodiversity through,
(i) Development of educational and scientific activities.
(ii) Promoting silviculture and monoculture.
(iii) Promoting local community welfare without harming the natural habitat.
Choose the correct answer from the codes:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: C
55. In about a 7 metre deep pond the series of vegetation development will be
(A) Submerged → Floating → Reed → Herb
(B) Floating → Submerged → Reed → Herb
(C) Floating → Reed → Submerged → Herb
(D) Submerged → Reed → Floating → Herb
Ans: A
56. In terrestrial ecosystems, roughly how much NPP ends up being broken down by decomposers?
(A) 90 %
(B) 70 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 10 %
Ans: A
57. Which of the following BOD level waste water is permitted to be released inlands by industries under water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974?
(A) 30 mg/l
(B) 80 mg/l
(C) 100 mg/l
(D) 150 mg/l
Ans: A
58. Hydraulic conductivity is a function of
(A) medium alone
(B) Fluid alone
(C) Either fluid or medium
(D) Both fluid and medium
Ans: D
59. Dachigan sanctuary is associated with
(A) Hangul
(B) Rhinoceros
(C) Barking deer
(D) Leopard
Ans: A
60. Rio+20 summit was held in
(A) Durban
(B) Johannesburg
(C) Rio de Janeiro
(D) Cancun
Ans: C
61. Most of the day to day weatherchanges are associated with which scale in meteorology?
(A) Micro scale
(B) Meso scale
(C) Synoptic scale
(D) Planetary scale
Ans: C
62. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Date) (Event)
(a) 5th June (i) National Pollution Prevention Day
(b) 2nd December (ii) World Environment Day
(c) 22nd May (iii) World Forest Day
(d) 21st March (iv) Bio-diversity Day
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Ans: A
63. ‘Fanning’ smokestack plumes are observed when
(A) There is an inversion above the ground surface.
(B) There is unstable atmosphere.
(C) There is neutrally stable atmosphere.
(D) The stack height is below an inversion layer.
Ans: A
64. The cyclonic winds are generated by the approximate balance between
(A) Pressure gradient force and coriolis force
(B) Centrifugal force and coriolis force
(C) Centrifugal force, coriolis force and frictional drag force.
(D) Centrifugal force and pressure gradient force.
Ans: D
65. Mixing height is determined by
(A) Adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate.
(B) Vertical profile of wind speeds and adiabatic lapse rate.
(C) Vertical profiles of wind speedsand ambient temperature.
(D) Wind speeds and solar insolation.
Ans: A
66. United Nations has declared “UN Decade of Education for sustainable Development” and the decade identified for this education is
(A) 2006 – 2015
(B) 2005 – 2014
(C) 2011 – 2020
(D) 2012 – 2021
Ans: B
67. Halon – 1301 is a
(A) Fire extinguisher
(B) Solvent
(C) Refrigerant
(D) Aerosol propellant
Ans: A
68. Which of the following is a primary pollutant in atmospheric air?
(A) Cl2
(B) SO3
(C) Nitrates
(D) Sulphates
Ans: A
69. Hardness is expressed on the Mohs scale, which ranges from
(A) 1 to 10
(B) 1 to 14
(C) –14 to 14
(D) 1 to 100
Ans: A
70. The halon H-1211 has the following chemical composition:
(A) CF2 Cl Br
(B) CCl2 FBr
(C) CCl2 F2
(D) CBr2 Cl F
Ans: A
71. The most toxic among the chlorinated hydrocarbons is
(A) Aldrin
(B) DDT
(C) Endrin
(D) Heptachlor
Ans: C
72. Agent orange is a
(A) Weedicide
(B) Fungicide
(C) Nematicide
(D) Rodenticide
Ans: A
73. Major source of SO2 is
(A) Cement Industry
(B) Forest fires
(C) Thermal Power Stations
(D) Volcanic activity
Ans: D
74. Reverse Osmosis (RO) operated at 200–1200 psig removes particles ranging from
(A) 0.0001 to 0.001 μm
(B) 0.01 to 10 μm
(C) 0.1 to 1.0 μm
(D) 0.1 to 2.0 μm
Ans: A
75. Coagulation is a chemical process, in which charged particles or colloids undergo
(A) Stabilization
(B) Destabilization
(C) Attraction
(D) Precipitation
Ans: B
76. Two water samples were collected. Sample # 1: pH = 9, but no carbonate or other dissolved proton donors or acceptors.
Sample # 2: pH = 8.3, but it contains dissolved NaHCO3 at a concentration of 0.01/mg/l
Which of the following is true based on the above observations.
(A) Sample # 1 will have more alkalinity.
(B) Sample # 2 will have more alkalinity.
(C) Sample # 1 and sample # 2 will have exactly same alkalinity.
(D) Alkalinity cannot be estimated.
Ans: B
77. Two soil samples, A and B, at different soil moisture levels are placed in contact with each other. Water will more likely move from soil A to soil B if their water potential, expressed in kPa, is:
(A) A = –5; B = +5
(B) A = –5; B = –5
(C) A = –20; B = –10
(D) A = –30; B = – 40
Ans: D
78. Blue baby syndrome is caused by
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitrate
(C) Fluoride
(D) Mercury
Ans: B
79. Assertion (A): For solar cell fabrication, those semiconducting materials which have band-gap energies in the range 1-1.8 eV are most suitable.
Reason (R): The maximum solar irradiance is around a wavelength corresponding to 1.5 eV.
Identify the correct Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
80. Assertion (A): State factors (external factors) control the overall structure of an ecosystem and the way things work within it.
Reason (R): The state factors are not themselves influenced by the ecosystem.
Identify the correct code:
(A) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
Ans: B
81. Assertion (A): When energy is transferred between trophic levels, the successive level in the pathway has lesser available energy compared to the preceding level.
Reason (R): Whenever energy is transformed, there is loss of energy through the release of heat.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
82. Assertion (A): The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to construction of a dam.
Reason (R): The area gets inundated with large volume of water.
Identify the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: B
83. Assertion (A): Soils rich in clay minerals have high levels of organic matter.
Reason (R): Clay soils tend to have low decomposition rates.
Identify the correct answer:
(A) Both statements are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both statements are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) Statement (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) Statement (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Ans: A
84. Assertion (A): Nitrogen cycle is an endogenic biogeochemical cycle.
Reason (R): Atmospheric N2 can be fixed by certain prokaryotes in the soil.
Choose correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
85. Match the following:
Column – I Column – II
(a) Nekton (i) Associated with surface film water
(b) Neuston (ii) Found at the bottom of an aquatic ecosystem.
(c) Benthos (iii) Active swimmer, against water current.
(d) Plankton (iv) Incapable of independent movement.
Choose the correct answer from the Codes:
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: C
86. Which of the following is not a major biome of India?
(A) Tropical rain forest biomes
(B) Tropical deciduous forest biomes
(C) Temperate needle leaf forestbiomes
(D) Mountains and glaciers
Ans: D
87. To survive and avoid competition for the same resources, a species usually occupies only part of its fundamental niche in a particular community orecosystem. This is called
(A) Geographic isolation
(B) Mutualism
(C) Realized Niche
(D) Broad Niche
Ans: C
88. Acid drainage is more in mining of
(A) Granite
(B) Bauxite
(C) Lime stone
(D) Base metal sulphide
Ans: C
89. Geothermal gradient in Earth is
(A) Uniform throughout.
(B) Higher in continental lithosphere.
(C) Higher in subduction zones.
(D) Lower at mid oceanic ridges.
Ans: B
90. Coal mining areas are affected by
(i) Land subsidence
(ii) Fire hazard
(iii) Radioactive waste
(iv) Air pollution
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
91. Radioactive elements are concentrated in
(A) Earth’s core
(B) Earth’s mantle
(C) Mid-Oceanic ridges
(D) Earth’s crust
Ans: D
92. Which of the following food chain is correct?
(A) Krill → Adelie Penguins → Emperor Penguins → Leopard Seal
(B) Krill → Crab eater Seal → Leopard Seal → Killer Whale
(C) Krill → Leopard Seal → Emperor Penguins → Killer Whale
(D) Krill → Crab eater Seal → Killer Whale → Leopard Seal
Ans: B
93. The observation that individuals of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that
(A) Density of population is low.
(B) Resources are distributed unevenly.
(C) The members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another.
(D) The members of the population are competing for access to a resource.
Ans: D
94. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
(A) Tropical forests – nearly constant day length and temperature
(B) Tundra – long summers, mild winters
(C) Savannah – cool temperature year-round, uniform precipitation during the year
(D) Temperate grasslands – relatively short growing season, mild winters.
Ans: A
95. Cellulose and hemicellulose are not resistant to decay but are broken down more slowly. They are considered
(A) Labile
(B) Moderately labile
(C) Recalcitrant
(D) Nonlabile
Ans: B
96. The parasitic gall formation is related to
(A) Host-specific antibodies
(B) Parasite specific cysts
(C) Parasite specific enzymes
(D) Host specific hormones
Ans: C
97. What is the estimate of volume of water yield for saturated pond aquifer of 1 metre width and 2 metre depth and length of 4 metre? Consider the porosity of sand to be 35% and specific yield to be 25%?
(A) 2.8 m3
(B) 28 m3
(C) 0.28 m3
(D) 280 m3
Ans: A
98. Arrange the following climate proxies in ascending order of time scales:
(i) Lithological records
(ii) Pollens
(iii) Tree rings
(iv) Historical records
(A) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(D) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
Ans: B
99. The geometric mean of 4, 8 and 16 is
(A) 9.3
(B) 8.0
(C) 4.8
(D) 10.2
Ans: B
100. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of community?
(A) Populations of different species occupying a particular place.
(B) Complex interacting network of plants, animals and microbes.
(C) Different species interacting with one another and with their environment of matter and energy.
(D) Groups of interacting individuals of different species.
Ans: C
(A) 9
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans: D
52. Which one of the following is used in manufacturing flexible plastic bags and sheets?
(A) Polystyrene (PS)
(B) Polyethylene terephthalate (PET)
(C) Low density polyethylene (LDPE)
(D) TEFLON
Ans: C
53. Which one of the following is a non-formal environment education and awareness programme?
(A) Environmental appreciation courses.
(B) National Environment Awareness Campaign.
(C) Environmental Education in school system.
(D) Environmental Management Business Studies.
Ans: B
54. Bio parks are conceived, developed and managed with a goal of conservation of biodiversity through,
(i) Development of educational and scientific activities.
(ii) Promoting silviculture and monoculture.
(iii) Promoting local community welfare without harming the natural habitat.
Choose the correct answer from the codes:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: C
55. In about a 7 metre deep pond the series of vegetation development will be
(A) Submerged → Floating → Reed → Herb
(B) Floating → Submerged → Reed → Herb
(C) Floating → Reed → Submerged → Herb
(D) Submerged → Reed → Floating → Herb
Ans: A
56. In terrestrial ecosystems, roughly how much NPP ends up being broken down by decomposers?
(A) 90 %
(B) 70 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 10 %
Ans: A
57. Which of the following BOD level waste water is permitted to be released inlands by industries under water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974?
(A) 30 mg/l
(B) 80 mg/l
(C) 100 mg/l
(D) 150 mg/l
Ans: A
58. Hydraulic conductivity is a function of
(A) medium alone
(B) Fluid alone
(C) Either fluid or medium
(D) Both fluid and medium
Ans: D
59. Dachigan sanctuary is associated with
(A) Hangul
(B) Rhinoceros
(C) Barking deer
(D) Leopard
Ans: A
60. Rio+20 summit was held in
(A) Durban
(B) Johannesburg
(C) Rio de Janeiro
(D) Cancun
Ans: C
61. Most of the day to day weatherchanges are associated with which scale in meteorology?
(A) Micro scale
(B) Meso scale
(C) Synoptic scale
(D) Planetary scale
Ans: C
62. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Date) (Event)
(a) 5th June (i) National Pollution Prevention Day
(b) 2nd December (ii) World Environment Day
(c) 22nd May (iii) World Forest Day
(d) 21st March (iv) Bio-diversity Day
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Ans: A
63. ‘Fanning’ smokestack plumes are observed when
(A) There is an inversion above the ground surface.
(B) There is unstable atmosphere.
(C) There is neutrally stable atmosphere.
(D) The stack height is below an inversion layer.
Ans: A
64. The cyclonic winds are generated by the approximate balance between
(A) Pressure gradient force and coriolis force
(B) Centrifugal force and coriolis force
(C) Centrifugal force, coriolis force and frictional drag force.
(D) Centrifugal force and pressure gradient force.
Ans: D
65. Mixing height is determined by
(A) Adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate.
(B) Vertical profile of wind speeds and adiabatic lapse rate.
(C) Vertical profiles of wind speedsand ambient temperature.
(D) Wind speeds and solar insolation.
Ans: A
66. United Nations has declared “UN Decade of Education for sustainable Development” and the decade identified for this education is
(A) 2006 – 2015
(B) 2005 – 2014
(C) 2011 – 2020
(D) 2012 – 2021
Ans: B
67. Halon – 1301 is a
(A) Fire extinguisher
(B) Solvent
(C) Refrigerant
(D) Aerosol propellant
Ans: A
68. Which of the following is a primary pollutant in atmospheric air?
(A) Cl2
(B) SO3
(C) Nitrates
(D) Sulphates
Ans: A
69. Hardness is expressed on the Mohs scale, which ranges from
(A) 1 to 10
(B) 1 to 14
(C) –14 to 14
(D) 1 to 100
Ans: A
70. The halon H-1211 has the following chemical composition:
(A) CF2 Cl Br
(B) CCl2 FBr
(C) CCl2 F2
(D) CBr2 Cl F
Ans: A
71. The most toxic among the chlorinated hydrocarbons is
(A) Aldrin
(B) DDT
(C) Endrin
(D) Heptachlor
Ans: C
72. Agent orange is a
(A) Weedicide
(B) Fungicide
(C) Nematicide
(D) Rodenticide
Ans: A
73. Major source of SO2 is
(A) Cement Industry
(B) Forest fires
(C) Thermal Power Stations
(D) Volcanic activity
Ans: D
74. Reverse Osmosis (RO) operated at 200–1200 psig removes particles ranging from
(A) 0.0001 to 0.001 μm
(B) 0.01 to 10 μm
(C) 0.1 to 1.0 μm
(D) 0.1 to 2.0 μm
Ans: A
75. Coagulation is a chemical process, in which charged particles or colloids undergo
(A) Stabilization
(B) Destabilization
(C) Attraction
(D) Precipitation
Ans: B
76. Two water samples were collected. Sample # 1: pH = 9, but no carbonate or other dissolved proton donors or acceptors.
Sample # 2: pH = 8.3, but it contains dissolved NaHCO3 at a concentration of 0.01/mg/l
Which of the following is true based on the above observations.
(A) Sample # 1 will have more alkalinity.
(B) Sample # 2 will have more alkalinity.
(C) Sample # 1 and sample # 2 will have exactly same alkalinity.
(D) Alkalinity cannot be estimated.
Ans: B
77. Two soil samples, A and B, at different soil moisture levels are placed in contact with each other. Water will more likely move from soil A to soil B if their water potential, expressed in kPa, is:
(A) A = –5; B = +5
(B) A = –5; B = –5
(C) A = –20; B = –10
(D) A = –30; B = – 40
Ans: D
78. Blue baby syndrome is caused by
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitrate
(C) Fluoride
(D) Mercury
Ans: B
79. Assertion (A): For solar cell fabrication, those semiconducting materials which have band-gap energies in the range 1-1.8 eV are most suitable.
Reason (R): The maximum solar irradiance is around a wavelength corresponding to 1.5 eV.
Identify the correct Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
80. Assertion (A): State factors (external factors) control the overall structure of an ecosystem and the way things work within it.
Reason (R): The state factors are not themselves influenced by the ecosystem.
Identify the correct code:
(A) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
Ans: B
81. Assertion (A): When energy is transferred between trophic levels, the successive level in the pathway has lesser available energy compared to the preceding level.
Reason (R): Whenever energy is transformed, there is loss of energy through the release of heat.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
82. Assertion (A): The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to construction of a dam.
Reason (R): The area gets inundated with large volume of water.
Identify the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: B
83. Assertion (A): Soils rich in clay minerals have high levels of organic matter.
Reason (R): Clay soils tend to have low decomposition rates.
Identify the correct answer:
(A) Both statements are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both statements are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) Statement (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) Statement (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Ans: A
84. Assertion (A): Nitrogen cycle is an endogenic biogeochemical cycle.
Reason (R): Atmospheric N2 can be fixed by certain prokaryotes in the soil.
Choose correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
85. Match the following:
Column – I Column – II
(a) Nekton (i) Associated with surface film water
(b) Neuston (ii) Found at the bottom of an aquatic ecosystem.
(c) Benthos (iii) Active swimmer, against water current.
(d) Plankton (iv) Incapable of independent movement.
Choose the correct answer from the Codes:
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: C
86. Which of the following is not a major biome of India?
(A) Tropical rain forest biomes
(B) Tropical deciduous forest biomes
(C) Temperate needle leaf forestbiomes
(D) Mountains and glaciers
Ans: D
87. To survive and avoid competition for the same resources, a species usually occupies only part of its fundamental niche in a particular community orecosystem. This is called
(A) Geographic isolation
(B) Mutualism
(C) Realized Niche
(D) Broad Niche
Ans: C
88. Acid drainage is more in mining of
(A) Granite
(B) Bauxite
(C) Lime stone
(D) Base metal sulphide
Ans: C
89. Geothermal gradient in Earth is
(A) Uniform throughout.
(B) Higher in continental lithosphere.
(C) Higher in subduction zones.
(D) Lower at mid oceanic ridges.
Ans: B
90. Coal mining areas are affected by
(i) Land subsidence
(ii) Fire hazard
(iii) Radioactive waste
(iv) Air pollution
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
91. Radioactive elements are concentrated in
(A) Earth’s core
(B) Earth’s mantle
(C) Mid-Oceanic ridges
(D) Earth’s crust
Ans: D
92. Which of the following food chain is correct?
(A) Krill → Adelie Penguins → Emperor Penguins → Leopard Seal
(B) Krill → Crab eater Seal → Leopard Seal → Killer Whale
(C) Krill → Leopard Seal → Emperor Penguins → Killer Whale
(D) Krill → Crab eater Seal → Killer Whale → Leopard Seal
Ans: B
93. The observation that individuals of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that
(A) Density of population is low.
(B) Resources are distributed unevenly.
(C) The members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another.
(D) The members of the population are competing for access to a resource.
Ans: D
94. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
(A) Tropical forests – nearly constant day length and temperature
(B) Tundra – long summers, mild winters
(C) Savannah – cool temperature year-round, uniform precipitation during the year
(D) Temperate grasslands – relatively short growing season, mild winters.
Ans: A
95. Cellulose and hemicellulose are not resistant to decay but are broken down more slowly. They are considered
(A) Labile
(B) Moderately labile
(C) Recalcitrant
(D) Nonlabile
Ans: B
96. The parasitic gall formation is related to
(A) Host-specific antibodies
(B) Parasite specific cysts
(C) Parasite specific enzymes
(D) Host specific hormones
Ans: C
97. What is the estimate of volume of water yield for saturated pond aquifer of 1 metre width and 2 metre depth and length of 4 metre? Consider the porosity of sand to be 35% and specific yield to be 25%?
(A) 2.8 m3
(B) 28 m3
(C) 0.28 m3
(D) 280 m3
Ans: A
98. Arrange the following climate proxies in ascending order of time scales:
(i) Lithological records
(ii) Pollens
(iii) Tree rings
(iv) Historical records
(A) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(D) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
Ans: B
99. The geometric mean of 4, 8 and 16 is
(A) 9.3
(B) 8.0
(C) 4.8
(D) 10.2
Ans: B
100. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of community?
(A) Populations of different species occupying a particular place.
(B) Complex interacting network of plants, animals and microbes.
(C) Different species interacting with one another and with their environment of matter and energy.
(D) Groups of interacting individuals of different species.
Ans: C