ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE- PAGE 5
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE MCQs- PAGE 5
1. In which part of the atmosphere the momentum, heat flux and moisture content are conserved?
(A) Surface Boundary Layer
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Stratosphere
Ans: A
2. The soil type which is good for agriculture is
(A) Podozols
(B) Latosols
(C) Serpent soil
(D) Solonachak
Ans: B
3. A local laboratory analyzed a water sample and determined that it contained a total solid (TS) content of 132 mg/L and a conductivity of 112 μS/cm. The total suspended solid (TSS) content (mg/L) of water will be
(A) ~ 57
(B) ~ 75
(C) ~ 32
(D) ~ 120
Ans: A
4. The settling of discreet, non-flocculating particle in a dilute suspension is known as
(A) Class-I sedimentation
(B) Class-II sedimentation
(C) Class-III sedimentation
(D) Compression
Ans: A
5. The theoretical oxygen demand for a solution containing 500 mg/L of phenol will be
(A) 298 mg/L
(B) 596 mg/L
(C) 1191 mg/L
(D) 2382 mg/L
Ans: C
6. The compound p-dichlorobenze has been found to have KOM = 625. For a soil containing 1.6% organic matter, the distribution coefficient (Kd) will be
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 20
Ans: C
7. Which one of the following is the single most important reactive intermediate species in atmospheric chemical processes?
(A) OH.
(B) O2.–
(C) ROO.
(D) OH–
Ans: A
8. As per Indian Standards (BIS) for drinking water desirable limit for total hardness as CaCO3 is
(A) 100 mg/l
(B) 200 mg/l
(C) 300 mg/l
(D) 400 mg/l
Ans: C
9. Flue gas laden with fine particles from a thermal power plant with a volume flow rate of 100 m3/second passes through an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) having 5000 m2 of collector plate area. If the particle collection efficiency of the ESP is 98%, the drift velocity of the flue gas must be
(A) ~ 0.052 m/s
(B) ~ 0.078 m/s
(C) ~ 0.15 m/s
(D) ~ 1.5 m/s
Ans: B
10. The geometric mean of the following data:4, 10, 25, 10 is
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 12.25
(D) 100/49
Ans: A
11. Removal of top fertile soil by water is called
(A) Leaching
(B) Siltation
(C) Weathering of soil
(D) Soil erosion
Ans: D
12. The rate of settling of air-borne particles in the atmosphere varies with their aerodynamic diameter (d)as
(A) α d
(B) α d2
(C) α d3
(D) α d½
Ans: B
13. The smokestack plumes exhibit ‘coning’ behaviour when
(A) Stable atmospheric conditions exist
(B) Atmosphere is unstable
(C) The height of the stack is below the inversion layer
(D) Inversion exists right from the ground surface above
Ans: A
14. Among total dissolved matter in marine water, chlorine accounts for
(A) 30%
(B) 55%
(C) 12%
(D) 6%
Ans: B
15. Photodissociation of NO2 occurs in the presence of photons of wavelength,
(A) < 0.39 μm
(B) 0.5 – 0.6 μm
(C) 0.6 – 0.65 μm
(D) 0.65 – 0.7 μm
Ans: A
16. Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) is formed by oxidation of
(i) Hydrocarbons
(ii) Isoprene
(iii) Terpene
(iv) Arsenic
Choose the correct answer from the codes:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
17. The evolution of genetic resistance to antibiotics among disease-carrying bacteria is an example of
(A) Directional natural selection
(B) Stabilizing natural selection
(C) Diversifying natural selection
(D) Convergent natural selection
Ans: A
18. Pulmonary oedema is caused by
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Methane
Ans: C
19. What is the half-life of 131I?
(A) 60 days
(B) 8 days
(C) 12 years
(D) 30 days
Ans: B
20. Which one of the following makes blood toxic, after combining with haemoglobin?
(A) CO2
(B) CO
(C) SO2
(D) CH4
Ans: B
21. Respiratory electron transport chain can be inhibited by
(A) ADP
(B) Phosphate
(C) H2S
(D) CO2
Ans: C
22. Assertion (A): Oil slick in the ocean causes mass scale death of fish.
Reason (R): The gills of fish get clogged.
Point out the correct one of the following:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true with (R) being the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: A
23. Chaparral, Maquis, Encinous, Melleseab are important areas of
(A) Tropical evergreen woodland
(B) Temperate evergreen woodland
(C) Tropical deciduous woodland
(D) Temperate deciduous woodland
Ans: A
24. The Keystone predator species maintain diversity in a community by
(A) Preying on community’s dominant species
(B) Allowing immigration of other predators
(C) Competitively excluding other predators
(D) Coevolving with their prey
Ans: A
25. Which of the following is not an external factor controlling an ecosystem?
(A) Climate
(B) Topography
(C) Parent material forming soil
(D) Microbes
Ans: D
26. Which of the following food chain is correct?
(A) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Turtle → Crabs
(B) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Crab → Turtle
(C) Turtle → Crab → Zooplankton → Phytoplankton
(D) Zooplankton → Turtle → Crab → Phytoplankton
Ans: B
27. Which of the following is not categorized as an internal factor of an ecosystem?
(A) Decomposition
(B) Succession
(C) Root competition
(D) Bedrock
Ans: D
28. Two species cannot remain in same place according to
(A) Allen’s law
(B) Gause hypothesis
(C) Doll’s rule
(D) Weismann’s theory
Ans: B
29. Identify the correct pair:
(A) Ecotope – Transition between two ecosystems.
(B) Edaphic – Saline soil
(C) Heliophytes – Photophilic plants
(D) Ecotone – Particular type of soil
Ans: A
30. Based on the number arrange the following group of endemic vertebrate species of India in descending order:
(i) Mammals
(ii) Birds
(iii) Reptiles
(iv) Amphibians
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(A) Amphibians, Reptiles, Birds and Mammals.
(B) Reptiles, Amphibians, Birds and Mammals.
(C) Mammals, Birds, Amphibians and Reptiles.
(D) Birds, Mammals, Reptiles and Amphibians
Ans: B
31. Freshwater ecosystems are nutritionally limited by
(A) Phosphorous and Iron
(B) Phosphorous and Carbon
(C) Iron and Nitrogen
(D) Nitrogen and Calcium
Ans: A
32. ‘Threshold of Security’ refers to the population level at which
(A) Parasites damage the host body but do not cause immediate mortality.
(B) Predators no longer find it profitable to hunt for the prey species.
(C) Functional response of the predator is very high.
(D) The balance between parasite and host is disturbed as the host produces antibodies.
Ans: B
33. “Bermuda grass allergy” is a type of
(A) Airborne allergy
(B) Contact allergy
(C) Hydroborne allergy
(D) Soilborne allergy
Ans: A
34. Parasites which initiate production of antibodies within hosts are termed as
(A) Endoparasites
(B) Pathogenic parasites
(C) Zooparasites
(D) Homoparasites
Ans: B
35. Which of the following material is not easily broken down?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Hemicellulose
(C) Chitin
(D) Amino acids
Ans: C
36. Melting of polar ice is expected to cover a sea level rise of approximately
(A) 10 metre
(B) 20 metre
(C) 60 metre
(D) 100 metre
Ans: C
37. Pleistocene represents period of
(A) Cold climate
(B) Warm climate
(C) Alteration of cold and warm climate with high proportion of cold period
(D) Alteration of cold and warm climate with very high proportion of warm period
Ans: C
38. GIS is applied to study
(A) View shed analysis
(B) Environmental Impact Assessment
(C) Wildlife habitat analysis and migration routes planning
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
39. Which of the following species in the atmosphere is called atmospheric detergent?
(A) Chlorine radical
(B) Hydroxyl radical
(C) Methyl radical
(D) Ozone radical
Ans: B
40. The POH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 13
Ans: C
41. Identify the pair (element-health effect) which is correctly matched:
(A) Lead – Methaemoglobinemia
(B) Arsenic – Kidney damage
(C) Mercury – Nervous disorder
(D) PAN – Hypoxemia
Ans: D
42. Which of the following organisms can act as primary consumer, secondary consumer, tertiary consumer or scavenger in different types of food chains?
(A) Raven
(B) Tiger
(C) Snake
(D) Phytoplanktones
Ans: A
43. The tendency of biological systems to resist change and to remain in a state of equilibrium is called
(A) Homeostatis
(B) Feedback mechanism
(C) Ecological efficiency
(D) Carrying capacity
Ans: A
44. If different categories of threatened species are written in a sequence, what is the correct order?
(A) Extinct-> Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered
(B) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered -> Extinct
(C) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Extinct -> Endangered
(D) Rare -> Vulnerable -> Endangered -> Extinct
Ans: B
45. Which of the following is not a type of ex situ conservation method?
(A) Botanical garden
(B) Zoological park
(C) Wildlife sanctuaries
(D) Gene banks
Ans: C
46. If ‘a’ is the fractional wind speed decrease at the wind turbine, the maximum extraction of power from the wind occurs when ‘a’ is equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1
(D) 3/5
Ans: B
47. Which of the following fuels has highest carbon intensity?
(A) Natural gas
(B) Oil
(C) Bituminous coal
(D) Biomass
Ans: C
48. Assertion (A): Natural gas is a very attractive eco friendly fuel.
Reason (R): It produces few pollutants and less carbon dioxide per unit energy than any other fossil fuel on combustion.
Identify the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
49. Assertion (A): Solar photovoltaic cells are expensive.
Reason (R): Solar photovoltaic cells are fabricated from crystalline silicon and operate only at 10-12% efficiency.
Identify the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
50. The Motor Vehicles Act 1938 was amended in which year?
(A) 1972
(B) 1980
(C) 1988
(D) 1986
Ans: C
(A) Surface Boundary Layer
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Stratosphere
Ans: A
2. The soil type which is good for agriculture is
(A) Podozols
(B) Latosols
(C) Serpent soil
(D) Solonachak
Ans: B
3. A local laboratory analyzed a water sample and determined that it contained a total solid (TS) content of 132 mg/L and a conductivity of 112 μS/cm. The total suspended solid (TSS) content (mg/L) of water will be
(A) ~ 57
(B) ~ 75
(C) ~ 32
(D) ~ 120
Ans: A
4. The settling of discreet, non-flocculating particle in a dilute suspension is known as
(A) Class-I sedimentation
(B) Class-II sedimentation
(C) Class-III sedimentation
(D) Compression
Ans: A
5. The theoretical oxygen demand for a solution containing 500 mg/L of phenol will be
(A) 298 mg/L
(B) 596 mg/L
(C) 1191 mg/L
(D) 2382 mg/L
Ans: C
6. The compound p-dichlorobenze has been found to have KOM = 625. For a soil containing 1.6% organic matter, the distribution coefficient (Kd) will be
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 20
Ans: C
7. Which one of the following is the single most important reactive intermediate species in atmospheric chemical processes?
(A) OH.
(B) O2.–
(C) ROO.
(D) OH–
Ans: A
8. As per Indian Standards (BIS) for drinking water desirable limit for total hardness as CaCO3 is
(A) 100 mg/l
(B) 200 mg/l
(C) 300 mg/l
(D) 400 mg/l
Ans: C
9. Flue gas laden with fine particles from a thermal power plant with a volume flow rate of 100 m3/second passes through an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) having 5000 m2 of collector plate area. If the particle collection efficiency of the ESP is 98%, the drift velocity of the flue gas must be
(A) ~ 0.052 m/s
(B) ~ 0.078 m/s
(C) ~ 0.15 m/s
(D) ~ 1.5 m/s
Ans: B
10. The geometric mean of the following data:4, 10, 25, 10 is
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 12.25
(D) 100/49
Ans: A
11. Removal of top fertile soil by water is called
(A) Leaching
(B) Siltation
(C) Weathering of soil
(D) Soil erosion
Ans: D
12. The rate of settling of air-borne particles in the atmosphere varies with their aerodynamic diameter (d)as
(A) α d
(B) α d2
(C) α d3
(D) α d½
Ans: B
13. The smokestack plumes exhibit ‘coning’ behaviour when
(A) Stable atmospheric conditions exist
(B) Atmosphere is unstable
(C) The height of the stack is below the inversion layer
(D) Inversion exists right from the ground surface above
Ans: A
14. Among total dissolved matter in marine water, chlorine accounts for
(A) 30%
(B) 55%
(C) 12%
(D) 6%
Ans: B
15. Photodissociation of NO2 occurs in the presence of photons of wavelength,
(A) < 0.39 μm
(B) 0.5 – 0.6 μm
(C) 0.6 – 0.65 μm
(D) 0.65 – 0.7 μm
Ans: A
16. Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) is formed by oxidation of
(i) Hydrocarbons
(ii) Isoprene
(iii) Terpene
(iv) Arsenic
Choose the correct answer from the codes:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
17. The evolution of genetic resistance to antibiotics among disease-carrying bacteria is an example of
(A) Directional natural selection
(B) Stabilizing natural selection
(C) Diversifying natural selection
(D) Convergent natural selection
Ans: A
18. Pulmonary oedema is caused by
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Methane
Ans: C
19. What is the half-life of 131I?
(A) 60 days
(B) 8 days
(C) 12 years
(D) 30 days
Ans: B
20. Which one of the following makes blood toxic, after combining with haemoglobin?
(A) CO2
(B) CO
(C) SO2
(D) CH4
Ans: B
21. Respiratory electron transport chain can be inhibited by
(A) ADP
(B) Phosphate
(C) H2S
(D) CO2
Ans: C
22. Assertion (A): Oil slick in the ocean causes mass scale death of fish.
Reason (R): The gills of fish get clogged.
Point out the correct one of the following:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true with (R) being the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: A
23. Chaparral, Maquis, Encinous, Melleseab are important areas of
(A) Tropical evergreen woodland
(B) Temperate evergreen woodland
(C) Tropical deciduous woodland
(D) Temperate deciduous woodland
Ans: A
24. The Keystone predator species maintain diversity in a community by
(A) Preying on community’s dominant species
(B) Allowing immigration of other predators
(C) Competitively excluding other predators
(D) Coevolving with their prey
Ans: A
25. Which of the following is not an external factor controlling an ecosystem?
(A) Climate
(B) Topography
(C) Parent material forming soil
(D) Microbes
Ans: D
26. Which of the following food chain is correct?
(A) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Turtle → Crabs
(B) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Crab → Turtle
(C) Turtle → Crab → Zooplankton → Phytoplankton
(D) Zooplankton → Turtle → Crab → Phytoplankton
Ans: B
27. Which of the following is not categorized as an internal factor of an ecosystem?
(A) Decomposition
(B) Succession
(C) Root competition
(D) Bedrock
Ans: D
28. Two species cannot remain in same place according to
(A) Allen’s law
(B) Gause hypothesis
(C) Doll’s rule
(D) Weismann’s theory
Ans: B
29. Identify the correct pair:
(A) Ecotope – Transition between two ecosystems.
(B) Edaphic – Saline soil
(C) Heliophytes – Photophilic plants
(D) Ecotone – Particular type of soil
Ans: A
30. Based on the number arrange the following group of endemic vertebrate species of India in descending order:
(i) Mammals
(ii) Birds
(iii) Reptiles
(iv) Amphibians
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(A) Amphibians, Reptiles, Birds and Mammals.
(B) Reptiles, Amphibians, Birds and Mammals.
(C) Mammals, Birds, Amphibians and Reptiles.
(D) Birds, Mammals, Reptiles and Amphibians
Ans: B
31. Freshwater ecosystems are nutritionally limited by
(A) Phosphorous and Iron
(B) Phosphorous and Carbon
(C) Iron and Nitrogen
(D) Nitrogen and Calcium
Ans: A
32. ‘Threshold of Security’ refers to the population level at which
(A) Parasites damage the host body but do not cause immediate mortality.
(B) Predators no longer find it profitable to hunt for the prey species.
(C) Functional response of the predator is very high.
(D) The balance between parasite and host is disturbed as the host produces antibodies.
Ans: B
33. “Bermuda grass allergy” is a type of
(A) Airborne allergy
(B) Contact allergy
(C) Hydroborne allergy
(D) Soilborne allergy
Ans: A
34. Parasites which initiate production of antibodies within hosts are termed as
(A) Endoparasites
(B) Pathogenic parasites
(C) Zooparasites
(D) Homoparasites
Ans: B
35. Which of the following material is not easily broken down?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Hemicellulose
(C) Chitin
(D) Amino acids
Ans: C
36. Melting of polar ice is expected to cover a sea level rise of approximately
(A) 10 metre
(B) 20 metre
(C) 60 metre
(D) 100 metre
Ans: C
37. Pleistocene represents period of
(A) Cold climate
(B) Warm climate
(C) Alteration of cold and warm climate with high proportion of cold period
(D) Alteration of cold and warm climate with very high proportion of warm period
Ans: C
38. GIS is applied to study
(A) View shed analysis
(B) Environmental Impact Assessment
(C) Wildlife habitat analysis and migration routes planning
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
39. Which of the following species in the atmosphere is called atmospheric detergent?
(A) Chlorine radical
(B) Hydroxyl radical
(C) Methyl radical
(D) Ozone radical
Ans: B
40. The POH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 13
Ans: C
41. Identify the pair (element-health effect) which is correctly matched:
(A) Lead – Methaemoglobinemia
(B) Arsenic – Kidney damage
(C) Mercury – Nervous disorder
(D) PAN – Hypoxemia
Ans: D
42. Which of the following organisms can act as primary consumer, secondary consumer, tertiary consumer or scavenger in different types of food chains?
(A) Raven
(B) Tiger
(C) Snake
(D) Phytoplanktones
Ans: A
43. The tendency of biological systems to resist change and to remain in a state of equilibrium is called
(A) Homeostatis
(B) Feedback mechanism
(C) Ecological efficiency
(D) Carrying capacity
Ans: A
44. If different categories of threatened species are written in a sequence, what is the correct order?
(A) Extinct-> Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered
(B) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered -> Extinct
(C) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Extinct -> Endangered
(D) Rare -> Vulnerable -> Endangered -> Extinct
Ans: B
45. Which of the following is not a type of ex situ conservation method?
(A) Botanical garden
(B) Zoological park
(C) Wildlife sanctuaries
(D) Gene banks
Ans: C
46. If ‘a’ is the fractional wind speed decrease at the wind turbine, the maximum extraction of power from the wind occurs when ‘a’ is equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1
(D) 3/5
Ans: B
47. Which of the following fuels has highest carbon intensity?
(A) Natural gas
(B) Oil
(C) Bituminous coal
(D) Biomass
Ans: C
48. Assertion (A): Natural gas is a very attractive eco friendly fuel.
Reason (R): It produces few pollutants and less carbon dioxide per unit energy than any other fossil fuel on combustion.
Identify the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
49. Assertion (A): Solar photovoltaic cells are expensive.
Reason (R): Solar photovoltaic cells are fabricated from crystalline silicon and operate only at 10-12% efficiency.
Identify the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
50. The Motor Vehicles Act 1938 was amended in which year?
(A) 1972
(B) 1980
(C) 1988
(D) 1986
Ans: C
51. Solid waste treatment by pyrolysis involves
(A) Autoclaving
(B) Heating in presence of air
(C) Heating in presence of acetic acid
(D) Heating in absence of air
Ans: D
52. In which year Wildlife Protection Act was enacted?
(A) 1962
(B) 1972
(C) 1982
(D) 1992
Ans: B
53. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards, the annual average concentration of Sulphur dioxide in residential areas in India is
(A) 20 μg/m3
(B) 40 μg/m3
(C) 60 μg/m3
(D) 80 μg/m3
Ans: C
54. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of Environmental Impact Assessment?
(A) The process considers broad range of potential alternatives.
(B) It provides early warning of cumulative effects.
(C) Focuses on sustainability agenda.
(D) Focuses on standard agenda.
Ans: D
55. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Components) (Dimensions)
(a) Equitable utilization of natural resources (i) Social dimensions
(b) Benefit to disadvantaged group (ii) Economic dimensions
(c) Creation of additional value (iii) Environmental dimensions
(d) Elimination of toxic substances (iv) Political dimensions
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: A
56. Among the following, which one does not belong to EIA process?
(A) Establishment of base line environmental condition.
(B) Identification, Prediction and assessment of impact.
(C) Suggesting the mitigation measures.
(D) Developing EMS auditing procedures.
Ans: D
57. According to Gaussian Plume Model, the ground level concentration (C) of a pollutant varies with effective height (H) as (σ is the vertical dispersion coefficient):
(A) C ∝1/H
(B) C ∝ e– H2 /σ2
(C) C ∝ e– H/σ
(D) C ∝ H–2
Ans: B
58. In a multiple regression analysis, an examination of variances revealed that explained sum of squares per degree of freedom and residual sum of squares per degree of freedom were 250 and 100, respectively. What is the F-ratio?
(A) 6.25
(B) 5.25
(C) 0.4
(D) 2.5
Ans: D
59. Which combination of radioactive fluxes plays the all important role in climate change?
(A) Visible and infrared
(B) Visible and UV
(C) Visible, UV and infrared
(D) UV, microwaves and infrared
Ans: A
60. The climate sensitivity parameter is defined as the rate of change of
(A) Surface temperature with albedo of earth
(B) Surface temperature with CO2 concentration in atmosphere
(C) Precipitation with earth’s temperature
(D) Surface temperature with radioactive forcing.
Ans: D
61. A sample of 17 measurements of the diameter of a spherical particle gave a mean = 5 μm and a standard deviation = 0.5 μm. Assuming t-statistic for 16 degrees of freedom t0.05 ≈ 2, the 95% confidence limits of actual diameter are
(A) 4.75 and 5.25 μm.
(B) 4.00 and 6.00 μm.
(C) 4.9 and 5.1 μm.
(D) 4.5 and 5.5 μm.
Ans: A
62. “Hot spots” are areas,
(i) Extremely rich in species
(ii) With high endemism
(iii) Extremely scarce in species
(iv) Under constant threat
Choose the correct answer from the codes:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Ans: D
63. A paddy field is an example of
(A) Fresh water ecosystem
(B) Terrestrial ecosystem
(C) Auto ecosystem
(D) Engineered ecosystem
Ans: D
64. Which pyramid cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem?
(A) Pyramid of energy
(B) Pyramid of biomass
(C) Pyramid of number
(D) Pyramid of dry weight
Ans: A
65. Which one of the following environmental factors is responsible for cyclomorphism in animals?
(A) Moisture
(B) Temperature
(C) Photoperiod
(D) Wind
Ans: B
66. In case of magneto hydrodynamic power generation, for maximum power output, the efficiency is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.4
Ans: B
67. Which one of the following is a neurotoxic?
(A) Organophosphate
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) 2, 4-D
(D) Cuprous oxide
Ans: A
68. Gasification is(A) The high temperature (~ 750 – c850 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into flammable gas mixtures.
(B) The high temperature (~ 750 – 850 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into liquid.
(C) The low temperature (~ 250 – 350 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into flammable gas mixture.
(D) The low temperature (~ 250 – 350 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into liquid.
Ans: A
69. Which bacterium found in soil is anaerobic?
(A) Clostridium Sp
(B) Azatobacter Sp
(C) Bacillus Sp
(D) Thiobacillus Sp
Ans: A
70. Particles of sizes < 1 μm are most efficiently removed by
(A) Cyclones
(B) Scrubbers
(C) Bag filter
(D) Electrostatic Precipitator
Ans: D
71. What is common feature among the following?
Abiesdelavayi
Aconitum diennorrhzum
Adinandragriffthii
Aglaiaperviridis
(A) All have been extinct.
(B) All are gymnosperms.
(C) All are identified as endangered species.
(D) All are angiosperms.
Ans: C
72. Raunkiaer’s normal biological spectrum for phanerogamic flora of the world exhibits one of the following sequences of occurrence (%) of different life forms.
(A) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes.
(B) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Chaemophytes, Cryptophytes.
(C) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes, Therophytes.
(D) Phanerophytes, Chaemophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Therophytes.
Ans: B
73. One of the following categories of earthworms is most suitable for wasteland reclamation.
(A) Epigeic
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
74. How many mega-bio-diverse countries have been identified in the world?
(A) 2
(B) 12
(C) 17
(D) 35
Ans: C
75. Which one of the following is an Exsitu method of biodiversity conservation?
(A) Seed storage
(B) DNA Bank
(C) Tissue culture
(D) All the above
Ans: D
76. Which one of the following is a methyl isocyanate (MIC) based pesticide?
(A) Sevin (Carbaryl)
(B) Temix (Aldicarb)
(C) Furadon (Carbofuran)
(D) All the above
Ans: D
77. The sequence of fossil fuels in the order of higher to lower heating value is as follows:
(A) Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Hydrogen.
(B) Hydrogen, Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal.
(C) Hydrogen, Coal, Natural Gas, Petroleum.
(D) Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal, Hydrogen.
Ans: B
78. Natural ore of radioactive materials does not contain which one of the following isotope?
(A) U235
(B) Pu239
(C) U238
(D) Th232
Ans: B
79. The process of splitting bigger hydrocarboninto smaller hydrocarbonmolecules is called
(A) Pyrolysis
(B) Thermal decomposition
(C) Cracking
(D) Combustion
Ans: C
80. Which one of the following is a complex in organic fertilizer?
(A) Urea
(B) Super phosphate
(C) Potash
(D) NPK
Ans: D
81. The sequence of ease of decomposition of organic compounds in soil is
(A) Lignin – Hemicellulose – Starch – Crude protein – Fat
(B) Crude protein – Starch – Fat – Lignin – Hemicellulose
(C) Starch – Crude protein – Hemicellulose – Fat – Lignin
(D) Fat – Starch – Lignin – Hemicellulose – Crude protein
Ans: C
82. Which one of the following radionuclides has the lowest half life period?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Ans: C
83. Match the rules mentioned in Column – I with year of enforcement mentioned in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
a. Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 1. 2000
b. Biomedical Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules. 2. 1978
c. Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 3. 1989
d. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Rules 4. 1998
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans: A
84. Average composition of biodegradable waste in Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) of India is
(A) 30 – 35%
(B) 40 – 45%
(C) 55 – 65%
(D) 60 – 70%
Ans: B
85. The treatment method recommended for the human anatomical waste generated from hospitals is
(A) Chemical disinfection
(B) Autoclaving
(C) Incineration
(D) All the above
Ans: C
86. Match the waste class mentioned in Column – I with Color Code of the Collection Container mentioned in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
a. Human Anatomical Waste 1. Blue
b. Waste Scrap 2. Green
c. Discarded glass ware 3. Red
d. Disposable plastics 4. White
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans: D
87. Which of the following is true when frequency of occurrence of risk is remote but possible?
(A) Risk is acceptable.
(B) Risk reduction measures should be implemented.
(C) Risk is unacceptable.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true.
Ans: A
88. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Indirect impacts are more difficult to measure, but can ultimately be more important.
Reason (R): In areas where wildlife is plentiful, such as Africa, new roads often lead to the rapid depletion of animals.
Choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
89. An earthquake measuring over 8 on Richter scale is rated as
(A) Destructive
(B) Major
(C) Great
(D) Damaging
Ans: C
90. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): It is difficult to judge how changes in localized gas samples represent more general conditions in the Volcano.
Reason (R): The composition of the juvenile gases emitted from volcanic vents offen show considerable variation over short periods and distances.
Choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
91. In a false – color set, human visual perception is limited to how many independent coordinates?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) One
(D) Five
Ans: A
92. If D = Detector Dimension, F = Focal Length, H = Flying Height, then Ground Resolution Element (GRE) is equal to
(A) (D/F) X H
(B) D/F
(C) H/F
(D) D/H
Ans: A
93. Darkest level of the associated color (RGB) would have brightness value equal to
(A) 0
(B) 256
(C) 255
(D) 2047
Ans: A
94. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Constituents of Particulate matter) (Sources)
a. Si 1. Natural Resources
b. PAH 2. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.
c. SO2-4 3. Elements largely introduced by Human Activities.
d. Pb 4. Reactions of a gas in atmosphere.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans: A
95. Scale lengths associated with synoptic scale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
(A) 10 – 100 km
(B) 200 – 40,000 km
(C) 10,000 – 100,000 km
(D) 1 – 10 km
Ans: B
96. Assume that the atmosphere is isothermal at 25 C and the estimated maximum daily surface temperature is 35 C, the mixing height is (take adiabatic lapse rate to be 1 C per 100 m)
(A) 3.5 km
(B) 2.5 km
(C) 1.5 km
(D) 1 km
Ans: D
97. The wavelengths of UV-A radiations are in the range
(A) 200 – 240 nm
(B) 240 – 280 nm
(C) 280 – 320 nm
(D) 320 – 400 nm
Ans: D
98. Two sounds of 80 dB and 85 Db superimpose at a location. What is the resultant sound at that location?
(A) ~ 82 dB
(B) ~ 87 dB
(C) ~ 91 dB
(D) ~ 165 dB
Ans: A
99. The highest seismic domain in India is
(A) The Himalayas
(B) The Western Ghats
(C) The Indogenetic plains
(D) The Dhār war craton
Ans: A
100. Earth’s core is mainly composed of
(A) Iron
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon
(D) Magnesium
Ans: A
(A) Autoclaving
(B) Heating in presence of air
(C) Heating in presence of acetic acid
(D) Heating in absence of air
Ans: D
52. In which year Wildlife Protection Act was enacted?
(A) 1962
(B) 1972
(C) 1982
(D) 1992
Ans: B
53. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards, the annual average concentration of Sulphur dioxide in residential areas in India is
(A) 20 μg/m3
(B) 40 μg/m3
(C) 60 μg/m3
(D) 80 μg/m3
Ans: C
54. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of Environmental Impact Assessment?
(A) The process considers broad range of potential alternatives.
(B) It provides early warning of cumulative effects.
(C) Focuses on sustainability agenda.
(D) Focuses on standard agenda.
Ans: D
55. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Components) (Dimensions)
(a) Equitable utilization of natural resources (i) Social dimensions
(b) Benefit to disadvantaged group (ii) Economic dimensions
(c) Creation of additional value (iii) Environmental dimensions
(d) Elimination of toxic substances (iv) Political dimensions
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: A
56. Among the following, which one does not belong to EIA process?
(A) Establishment of base line environmental condition.
(B) Identification, Prediction and assessment of impact.
(C) Suggesting the mitigation measures.
(D) Developing EMS auditing procedures.
Ans: D
57. According to Gaussian Plume Model, the ground level concentration (C) of a pollutant varies with effective height (H) as (σ is the vertical dispersion coefficient):
(A) C ∝1/H
(B) C ∝ e– H2 /σ2
(C) C ∝ e– H/σ
(D) C ∝ H–2
Ans: B
58. In a multiple regression analysis, an examination of variances revealed that explained sum of squares per degree of freedom and residual sum of squares per degree of freedom were 250 and 100, respectively. What is the F-ratio?
(A) 6.25
(B) 5.25
(C) 0.4
(D) 2.5
Ans: D
59. Which combination of radioactive fluxes plays the all important role in climate change?
(A) Visible and infrared
(B) Visible and UV
(C) Visible, UV and infrared
(D) UV, microwaves and infrared
Ans: A
60. The climate sensitivity parameter is defined as the rate of change of
(A) Surface temperature with albedo of earth
(B) Surface temperature with CO2 concentration in atmosphere
(C) Precipitation with earth’s temperature
(D) Surface temperature with radioactive forcing.
Ans: D
61. A sample of 17 measurements of the diameter of a spherical particle gave a mean = 5 μm and a standard deviation = 0.5 μm. Assuming t-statistic for 16 degrees of freedom t0.05 ≈ 2, the 95% confidence limits of actual diameter are
(A) 4.75 and 5.25 μm.
(B) 4.00 and 6.00 μm.
(C) 4.9 and 5.1 μm.
(D) 4.5 and 5.5 μm.
Ans: A
62. “Hot spots” are areas,
(i) Extremely rich in species
(ii) With high endemism
(iii) Extremely scarce in species
(iv) Under constant threat
Choose the correct answer from the codes:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Ans: D
63. A paddy field is an example of
(A) Fresh water ecosystem
(B) Terrestrial ecosystem
(C) Auto ecosystem
(D) Engineered ecosystem
Ans: D
64. Which pyramid cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem?
(A) Pyramid of energy
(B) Pyramid of biomass
(C) Pyramid of number
(D) Pyramid of dry weight
Ans: A
65. Which one of the following environmental factors is responsible for cyclomorphism in animals?
(A) Moisture
(B) Temperature
(C) Photoperiod
(D) Wind
Ans: B
66. In case of magneto hydrodynamic power generation, for maximum power output, the efficiency is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.4
Ans: B
67. Which one of the following is a neurotoxic?
(A) Organophosphate
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) 2, 4-D
(D) Cuprous oxide
Ans: A
68. Gasification is(A) The high temperature (~ 750 – c850 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into flammable gas mixtures.
(B) The high temperature (~ 750 – 850 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into liquid.
(C) The low temperature (~ 250 – 350 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into flammable gas mixture.
(D) The low temperature (~ 250 – 350 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into liquid.
Ans: A
69. Which bacterium found in soil is anaerobic?
(A) Clostridium Sp
(B) Azatobacter Sp
(C) Bacillus Sp
(D) Thiobacillus Sp
Ans: A
70. Particles of sizes < 1 μm are most efficiently removed by
(A) Cyclones
(B) Scrubbers
(C) Bag filter
(D) Electrostatic Precipitator
Ans: D
71. What is common feature among the following?
Abiesdelavayi
Aconitum diennorrhzum
Adinandragriffthii
Aglaiaperviridis
(A) All have been extinct.
(B) All are gymnosperms.
(C) All are identified as endangered species.
(D) All are angiosperms.
Ans: C
72. Raunkiaer’s normal biological spectrum for phanerogamic flora of the world exhibits one of the following sequences of occurrence (%) of different life forms.
(A) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes.
(B) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Chaemophytes, Cryptophytes.
(C) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes, Therophytes.
(D) Phanerophytes, Chaemophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Therophytes.
Ans: B
73. One of the following categories of earthworms is most suitable for wasteland reclamation.
(A) Epigeic
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
74. How many mega-bio-diverse countries have been identified in the world?
(A) 2
(B) 12
(C) 17
(D) 35
Ans: C
75. Which one of the following is an Exsitu method of biodiversity conservation?
(A) Seed storage
(B) DNA Bank
(C) Tissue culture
(D) All the above
Ans: D
76. Which one of the following is a methyl isocyanate (MIC) based pesticide?
(A) Sevin (Carbaryl)
(B) Temix (Aldicarb)
(C) Furadon (Carbofuran)
(D) All the above
Ans: D
77. The sequence of fossil fuels in the order of higher to lower heating value is as follows:
(A) Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Hydrogen.
(B) Hydrogen, Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal.
(C) Hydrogen, Coal, Natural Gas, Petroleum.
(D) Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal, Hydrogen.
Ans: B
78. Natural ore of radioactive materials does not contain which one of the following isotope?
(A) U235
(B) Pu239
(C) U238
(D) Th232
Ans: B
79. The process of splitting bigger hydrocarboninto smaller hydrocarbonmolecules is called
(A) Pyrolysis
(B) Thermal decomposition
(C) Cracking
(D) Combustion
Ans: C
80. Which one of the following is a complex in organic fertilizer?
(A) Urea
(B) Super phosphate
(C) Potash
(D) NPK
Ans: D
81. The sequence of ease of decomposition of organic compounds in soil is
(A) Lignin – Hemicellulose – Starch – Crude protein – Fat
(B) Crude protein – Starch – Fat – Lignin – Hemicellulose
(C) Starch – Crude protein – Hemicellulose – Fat – Lignin
(D) Fat – Starch – Lignin – Hemicellulose – Crude protein
Ans: C
82. Which one of the following radionuclides has the lowest half life period?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Ans: C
83. Match the rules mentioned in Column – I with year of enforcement mentioned in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
a. Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 1. 2000
b. Biomedical Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules. 2. 1978
c. Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 3. 1989
d. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Rules 4. 1998
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans: A
84. Average composition of biodegradable waste in Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) of India is
(A) 30 – 35%
(B) 40 – 45%
(C) 55 – 65%
(D) 60 – 70%
Ans: B
85. The treatment method recommended for the human anatomical waste generated from hospitals is
(A) Chemical disinfection
(B) Autoclaving
(C) Incineration
(D) All the above
Ans: C
86. Match the waste class mentioned in Column – I with Color Code of the Collection Container mentioned in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
a. Human Anatomical Waste 1. Blue
b. Waste Scrap 2. Green
c. Discarded glass ware 3. Red
d. Disposable plastics 4. White
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans: D
87. Which of the following is true when frequency of occurrence of risk is remote but possible?
(A) Risk is acceptable.
(B) Risk reduction measures should be implemented.
(C) Risk is unacceptable.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true.
Ans: A
88. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Indirect impacts are more difficult to measure, but can ultimately be more important.
Reason (R): In areas where wildlife is plentiful, such as Africa, new roads often lead to the rapid depletion of animals.
Choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
89. An earthquake measuring over 8 on Richter scale is rated as
(A) Destructive
(B) Major
(C) Great
(D) Damaging
Ans: C
90. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): It is difficult to judge how changes in localized gas samples represent more general conditions in the Volcano.
Reason (R): The composition of the juvenile gases emitted from volcanic vents offen show considerable variation over short periods and distances.
Choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
91. In a false – color set, human visual perception is limited to how many independent coordinates?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) One
(D) Five
Ans: A
92. If D = Detector Dimension, F = Focal Length, H = Flying Height, then Ground Resolution Element (GRE) is equal to
(A) (D/F) X H
(B) D/F
(C) H/F
(D) D/H
Ans: A
93. Darkest level of the associated color (RGB) would have brightness value equal to
(A) 0
(B) 256
(C) 255
(D) 2047
Ans: A
94. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Constituents of Particulate matter) (Sources)
a. Si 1. Natural Resources
b. PAH 2. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.
c. SO2-4 3. Elements largely introduced by Human Activities.
d. Pb 4. Reactions of a gas in atmosphere.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans: A
95. Scale lengths associated with synoptic scale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
(A) 10 – 100 km
(B) 200 – 40,000 km
(C) 10,000 – 100,000 km
(D) 1 – 10 km
Ans: B
96. Assume that the atmosphere is isothermal at 25 C and the estimated maximum daily surface temperature is 35 C, the mixing height is (take adiabatic lapse rate to be 1 C per 100 m)
(A) 3.5 km
(B) 2.5 km
(C) 1.5 km
(D) 1 km
Ans: D
97. The wavelengths of UV-A radiations are in the range
(A) 200 – 240 nm
(B) 240 – 280 nm
(C) 280 – 320 nm
(D) 320 – 400 nm
Ans: D
98. Two sounds of 80 dB and 85 Db superimpose at a location. What is the resultant sound at that location?
(A) ~ 82 dB
(B) ~ 87 dB
(C) ~ 91 dB
(D) ~ 165 dB
Ans: A
99. The highest seismic domain in India is
(A) The Himalayas
(B) The Western Ghats
(C) The Indogenetic plains
(D) The Dhār war craton
Ans: A
100. Earth’s core is mainly composed of
(A) Iron
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon
(D) Magnesium
Ans: A