ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE- PAGE 4
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE MCQs- PAGE 4
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20, the population and sample means are 35 and 33, respectively and the t-statistic at 95% confidence level is 2.5, the sample size is
(A) 100
(B) 125
(C) 250
(D) 625
Ans: D
2. For 5 degrees of freedom, the variance of c2 distribution is
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 16
(D) 4
Ans: A
3. Identify the random sampling method among the following:
(A) Judgement sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Convenience sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Ans: A
4. Which of the following rivers has maximum melt water component in its discharge?
(A) Indus
(B) Ganges
(C) Brahmaputra
(D) Narmada
Ans: A
5. At higher pH, majority of iron is present as
(A) Fe2+
(B) Fe3+
(C) Fe2+ and Fe3+
(D) Fe(OH)2 and Fe(OH)3
Ans: D
6. In living organisms phosphorous is largely associated with
(A) Carbohydrate
(B) Lipids
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Proteins
Ans: C
7. The mean of a data following Poisson distribution is 4.The second moment of the distribution is:
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans: A
8. pOH of 0.001 M solution of HCl is
(A) 0.1
(B) 1
(C) 10
(D) 11
Ans: D
9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5. The quantity of DDT required to prepare one litre of 10 ppm DDT solution is
(A) 10 mg
(B) 35.45 mg
(C) 354.5 mg
(D) 354.5 μg
Ans: A
10. Which one of the following is referred to as superoxide radical?
(A) O
(B) O2
(C) O° –2
(D) O3
Ans: C
11. The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is
(A) the gross primary productivity minus plant respiration
(B) the primary productivity at herbivore level
(C) the primary productivity at consumer level
(D) the productivity at top consumer level minus respiration at all levels
Ans: A
12. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots?
(A) The Eastern Ghats
(B) The Western Ghats
(C) North-Eastern Hills
(D) South-Eastern Hills
Ans: D
13. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and research and no biotic interference, is known as
(A) Undisturbed zone
(B) Buffer zone
(C) Core zone
(D) Principal zone
Ans: C
14. When a mixture of Azospirillum, Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to rhizosphere, fixation of atmospheric nitrogen was increased. It was due to activity of
(A) All the three
(B) Azospirillum and Vibrio
(C) Azotobacter and Vibrio
(D) Azotobacter and Azospirillum
Ans: D
15. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of Himalayas and Nilgiri?
(A) Dry deciduous forest
(B) Moist tropical forest
(C) Temperate forest
(D) Tropical moist deciduous forest
Ans: C
16. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows:
(A) Nudation – Colonisation – Ecesis – Aggregation
(B) Aggregation – Colonization – Ecesis – Nudation
(C) Ecesis – Nudation – Aggregation – Colonization
(D) Nudation – Ecesis – Colonization – Aggregation
Ans: D
17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, five different frequency classes (A, B, C, D and E) in a natural undisturbed community exhibit one of the following relationship:
(A) A < B > C >=< D < E
(B) A > B > C >=< D < E
(C) A < B > C >=< D > E
(D) A < B < C >=< D > E
Ans: B
18. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting?
(A) Epigeic
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic
(D) All the above
Ans: A
19. Which one of the following is an in situ method of biodiversity conservation?
(A) Reserve forest
(B) National parks
(C) Sanctuaries
(D) All the above
Ans: D
20. Match the contaminant in Column – I with the disease in Column – II:
Column – I Column – II
(i) Mercury 1. Methamoglobinemia
(ii) Nitrate Nitrogen 2. Itai Itai
(iii) Cadmium 3. Silicosis
(iv) Coal 4. Minamata
Choose the correct code:
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans: D
21. Which of the following types of coal contains higher percentage of volatile matter?
(A) Peat
(B) Lignite
(C) Bituminous
(D) Anthracite
Ans: A
22. Carbon dioxide evolved from soil mainly comes from
(A) Microbial respiration
(B) Root respiration
(C) Soil animals respiration
(D) All the above
Ans: A
23. Which one of the following pesticides persists for a long period in soil?
(A) Lindane
(B) Monocrotophos
(C) Carbaryl
(D) Parathion
Ans: A
24. Organic matter (OM) content of soil can be calculated from organic carbon (OC) by using the formula
(A) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.724
(B) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.247
(C) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.472
(D) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.427
Ans: A
25. The problem of thermal pollution can be alleviated by using
(A) Cooling ponds
(B) Cooling towers
(C) More efficient electricity generating plants
(D) All the above
Ans: D
26. According to Recycled Plastics (Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, the minimum thickness of carry bags shall not be less than
(A) 10 microns
(B) 20 microns
(C) 30 microns
(D) 50 microns
Ans: B
27. Match the Act mentioned in Column – I with the year of enactment mentioned in Column – II:
Column – I Column – II
(i) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1. 2002
(ii) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 2. 1986
(iii) The Environmental (Protection) Act 3. 1974
(iv) The Biological Diversity Act 4. 1981
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans: C
28. Which one of the following is not an energy recovery method of solid waste management?
(A) Pelletisation
(B) Biomethanation
(C) Pyrolysis
(D) Composting
Ans: D
29. The colour code of the container for collection of waste scrap generated from Hospitals is
(A) Red
(B) Blue
(C) White
(D) Green
Ans: B
30. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): When quantitative probabilistic risk assessment is performed on hazardous waste sites they usually turn out to be of relatively low threats.
Reason (R): In hazardous waste sites the chance of exposure is low because of isolation of drinking water supplies and prevention of access.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
31. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining project after environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years?
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 2 years
Ans: C
32. An increase of one unit of Richter Scale represents an increase in amplitude by a factor of
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 1000
(D) 2
Ans: A
33. Which rare earth element is not present in the earth’s crust but for commercial purpose comes from the Nuclear reactors?
(A) Promethium
(B) Lanthanum
(C) Cerium
(D) Samarium
Ans: A
34. To display green colour in the monitor the amount of RGB should be
(A) 255 : 0 : 0
(B) 255 : 255 : 255
(C) 0 : 0 : 0
(D) 0 : 255 : 0
Ans: D
35. When the temperature range in geothermal resource is generally low, electrical power generation from such resources require the use of secondary low boiling point fluid. This is generally known as
(A) Rankine cycle
(B) Production well cycle
(C) Flash stem cycle
(D) Hard Dry Rock cycle
Ans: A
36. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is the least for which of the following greenhouse gases ?
(A) CH4
(B) CO2
(C) N2O
(D) SF6
Ans: B
37. The maximum specific power output (p) from a MHD power generator varies with the velocity (u) of hot ionized gas as
(A) pµ u
(B) p µ u2
(C) p µ u3/2
(D) p µ u3
Ans: B
38. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can be harmful if not operated properly.
Reason (R): Corona discharge in ESPs produces ozone.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
39. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Vegetation hedges are the best way to control noise.
Reason (R): Vegetation hedges scatter noise. Choose the correct answer.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and saturation mixing ratio respectively; T and Td are the ambient temperature and dew point temperature respectively, then identify the correct expression of relative humidity (RH).
(A) RH = (w at Td) / (w at T)
(B) RH = (w at T) / (w at Td)
(C) RH = (ws at Td) / (ws at T)
(D) RH = (ws at T) / (ws at Td)
Ans: C
41. Identify mesoscale phenomenon.
(A) Tornado
(B) Sea breeze
(C) Cyclone
(D) Eddies
Ans: B
42. For elevations less than few hundred metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2 at elevations z1 and z2 respectively, the following equation holds u1/ u2 = (z1/ z2)p. The value of the exponent p is
(A) < 0.6
(B) = 1
(C) > 0.6
(D) negative
Ans: A
43. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Noise gets attenuated more in dry atmosphere. Reason (R) : Moist air is less denser than dry air.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
44. OH • =radicals in atmosphere play a role of
(A) scavenger
(B) acidifier
(C) reducing agent
(D) greenhouse gas
Ans: A
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear fission with U235 have energies of the order of
(A) 0.25 MeV
(B) 0.15 MeV
(C) 0.25 eV
(D) 0.025 eV
Ans: D
46. The most suitable range of wind speeds for wind power generation is
(A) 1 – 5 m/s
(B) 4 – 12 m/s
(C) 10 – 20 m/s
(D) 20 – 50 m/s
Ans: B
47. For energy to be produced from nuclear fusion of Deuterium (D) and Tritium (T), the mixture of D + T has to be heated up to energies of at least
(A) 1 KeV
(B) 10 KeV(C) 500 eV
(D) 1 MeV
Ans: B
48. Element contaminating the water body is determined and quantified by using one of the following methods:
(A) Colorimeter
(B) Spectrophotometer
(C) Atomic absorption spectrometer
(D) All the above
Ans: D
49. In which type of chromatography four modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion exchange and exclusion, are present?
(A) HPLC
(B) Liquid-liquid chromatography
(C) Ion-exchange chromatography
(D) Adsorption chromatography
Ans: A
50. The metal which is generally absorbed by plants along with Zn and causes “Ouch Ouch” disease in human beings is
(A) Pb
(B) Cd
(C) Hg
(D) Cr
Ans: B
(A) 100
(B) 125
(C) 250
(D) 625
Ans: D
2. For 5 degrees of freedom, the variance of c2 distribution is
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 16
(D) 4
Ans: A
3. Identify the random sampling method among the following:
(A) Judgement sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Convenience sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Ans: A
4. Which of the following rivers has maximum melt water component in its discharge?
(A) Indus
(B) Ganges
(C) Brahmaputra
(D) Narmada
Ans: A
5. At higher pH, majority of iron is present as
(A) Fe2+
(B) Fe3+
(C) Fe2+ and Fe3+
(D) Fe(OH)2 and Fe(OH)3
Ans: D
6. In living organisms phosphorous is largely associated with
(A) Carbohydrate
(B) Lipids
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Proteins
Ans: C
7. The mean of a data following Poisson distribution is 4.The second moment of the distribution is:
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans: A
8. pOH of 0.001 M solution of HCl is
(A) 0.1
(B) 1
(C) 10
(D) 11
Ans: D
9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5. The quantity of DDT required to prepare one litre of 10 ppm DDT solution is
(A) 10 mg
(B) 35.45 mg
(C) 354.5 mg
(D) 354.5 μg
Ans: A
10. Which one of the following is referred to as superoxide radical?
(A) O
(B) O2
(C) O° –2
(D) O3
Ans: C
11. The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is
(A) the gross primary productivity minus plant respiration
(B) the primary productivity at herbivore level
(C) the primary productivity at consumer level
(D) the productivity at top consumer level minus respiration at all levels
Ans: A
12. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots?
(A) The Eastern Ghats
(B) The Western Ghats
(C) North-Eastern Hills
(D) South-Eastern Hills
Ans: D
13. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and research and no biotic interference, is known as
(A) Undisturbed zone
(B) Buffer zone
(C) Core zone
(D) Principal zone
Ans: C
14. When a mixture of Azospirillum, Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to rhizosphere, fixation of atmospheric nitrogen was increased. It was due to activity of
(A) All the three
(B) Azospirillum and Vibrio
(C) Azotobacter and Vibrio
(D) Azotobacter and Azospirillum
Ans: D
15. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of Himalayas and Nilgiri?
(A) Dry deciduous forest
(B) Moist tropical forest
(C) Temperate forest
(D) Tropical moist deciduous forest
Ans: C
16. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows:
(A) Nudation – Colonisation – Ecesis – Aggregation
(B) Aggregation – Colonization – Ecesis – Nudation
(C) Ecesis – Nudation – Aggregation – Colonization
(D) Nudation – Ecesis – Colonization – Aggregation
Ans: D
17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, five different frequency classes (A, B, C, D and E) in a natural undisturbed community exhibit one of the following relationship:
(A) A < B > C >=< D < E
(B) A > B > C >=< D < E
(C) A < B > C >=< D > E
(D) A < B < C >=< D > E
Ans: B
18. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting?
(A) Epigeic
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic
(D) All the above
Ans: A
19. Which one of the following is an in situ method of biodiversity conservation?
(A) Reserve forest
(B) National parks
(C) Sanctuaries
(D) All the above
Ans: D
20. Match the contaminant in Column – I with the disease in Column – II:
Column – I Column – II
(i) Mercury 1. Methamoglobinemia
(ii) Nitrate Nitrogen 2. Itai Itai
(iii) Cadmium 3. Silicosis
(iv) Coal 4. Minamata
Choose the correct code:
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans: D
21. Which of the following types of coal contains higher percentage of volatile matter?
(A) Peat
(B) Lignite
(C) Bituminous
(D) Anthracite
Ans: A
22. Carbon dioxide evolved from soil mainly comes from
(A) Microbial respiration
(B) Root respiration
(C) Soil animals respiration
(D) All the above
Ans: A
23. Which one of the following pesticides persists for a long period in soil?
(A) Lindane
(B) Monocrotophos
(C) Carbaryl
(D) Parathion
Ans: A
24. Organic matter (OM) content of soil can be calculated from organic carbon (OC) by using the formula
(A) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.724
(B) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.247
(C) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.472
(D) OM (%) = OC (%) × 1.427
Ans: A
25. The problem of thermal pollution can be alleviated by using
(A) Cooling ponds
(B) Cooling towers
(C) More efficient electricity generating plants
(D) All the above
Ans: D
26. According to Recycled Plastics (Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, the minimum thickness of carry bags shall not be less than
(A) 10 microns
(B) 20 microns
(C) 30 microns
(D) 50 microns
Ans: B
27. Match the Act mentioned in Column – I with the year of enactment mentioned in Column – II:
Column – I Column – II
(i) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1. 2002
(ii) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 2. 1986
(iii) The Environmental (Protection) Act 3. 1974
(iv) The Biological Diversity Act 4. 1981
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans: C
28. Which one of the following is not an energy recovery method of solid waste management?
(A) Pelletisation
(B) Biomethanation
(C) Pyrolysis
(D) Composting
Ans: D
29. The colour code of the container for collection of waste scrap generated from Hospitals is
(A) Red
(B) Blue
(C) White
(D) Green
Ans: B
30. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): When quantitative probabilistic risk assessment is performed on hazardous waste sites they usually turn out to be of relatively low threats.
Reason (R): In hazardous waste sites the chance of exposure is low because of isolation of drinking water supplies and prevention of access.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
31. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining project after environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years?
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 2 years
Ans: C
32. An increase of one unit of Richter Scale represents an increase in amplitude by a factor of
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 1000
(D) 2
Ans: A
33. Which rare earth element is not present in the earth’s crust but for commercial purpose comes from the Nuclear reactors?
(A) Promethium
(B) Lanthanum
(C) Cerium
(D) Samarium
Ans: A
34. To display green colour in the monitor the amount of RGB should be
(A) 255 : 0 : 0
(B) 255 : 255 : 255
(C) 0 : 0 : 0
(D) 0 : 255 : 0
Ans: D
35. When the temperature range in geothermal resource is generally low, electrical power generation from such resources require the use of secondary low boiling point fluid. This is generally known as
(A) Rankine cycle
(B) Production well cycle
(C) Flash stem cycle
(D) Hard Dry Rock cycle
Ans: A
36. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is the least for which of the following greenhouse gases ?
(A) CH4
(B) CO2
(C) N2O
(D) SF6
Ans: B
37. The maximum specific power output (p) from a MHD power generator varies with the velocity (u) of hot ionized gas as
(A) pµ u
(B) p µ u2
(C) p µ u3/2
(D) p µ u3
Ans: B
38. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can be harmful if not operated properly.
Reason (R): Corona discharge in ESPs produces ozone.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
39. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Vegetation hedges are the best way to control noise.
Reason (R): Vegetation hedges scatter noise. Choose the correct answer.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and saturation mixing ratio respectively; T and Td are the ambient temperature and dew point temperature respectively, then identify the correct expression of relative humidity (RH).
(A) RH = (w at Td) / (w at T)
(B) RH = (w at T) / (w at Td)
(C) RH = (ws at Td) / (ws at T)
(D) RH = (ws at T) / (ws at Td)
Ans: C
41. Identify mesoscale phenomenon.
(A) Tornado
(B) Sea breeze
(C) Cyclone
(D) Eddies
Ans: B
42. For elevations less than few hundred metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2 at elevations z1 and z2 respectively, the following equation holds u1/ u2 = (z1/ z2)p. The value of the exponent p is
(A) < 0.6
(B) = 1
(C) > 0.6
(D) negative
Ans: A
43. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Noise gets attenuated more in dry atmosphere. Reason (R) : Moist air is less denser than dry air.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
44. OH • =radicals in atmosphere play a role of
(A) scavenger
(B) acidifier
(C) reducing agent
(D) greenhouse gas
Ans: A
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear fission with U235 have energies of the order of
(A) 0.25 MeV
(B) 0.15 MeV
(C) 0.25 eV
(D) 0.025 eV
Ans: D
46. The most suitable range of wind speeds for wind power generation is
(A) 1 – 5 m/s
(B) 4 – 12 m/s
(C) 10 – 20 m/s
(D) 20 – 50 m/s
Ans: B
47. For energy to be produced from nuclear fusion of Deuterium (D) and Tritium (T), the mixture of D + T has to be heated up to energies of at least
(A) 1 KeV
(B) 10 KeV(C) 500 eV
(D) 1 MeV
Ans: B
48. Element contaminating the water body is determined and quantified by using one of the following methods:
(A) Colorimeter
(B) Spectrophotometer
(C) Atomic absorption spectrometer
(D) All the above
Ans: D
49. In which type of chromatography four modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion exchange and exclusion, are present?
(A) HPLC
(B) Liquid-liquid chromatography
(C) Ion-exchange chromatography
(D) Adsorption chromatography
Ans: A
50. The metal which is generally absorbed by plants along with Zn and causes “Ouch Ouch” disease in human beings is
(A) Pb
(B) Cd
(C) Hg
(D) Cr
Ans: B
51. Assertion (A): Urban heat islands contribute to build up of pollutants in cities.
Reason (R): Urban heat islands produce a somewhat stable air mass in the city’s atmosphere.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
52. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Analytical functions) (Activity under the function)
(a) Defining scope of EIA i. Critical Assessment of impacts
(b) Identification of impacts ii. Estimation of the probability that a particular impact will occur
(c) Prediction of Impacts iii. Description of the existing environment system
(d) Impact Evaluation and Analysis iv. Deciding important issues and concerns
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iv iii
Ans: B
53. A drawback of checklists is
(A) Preliminary analysis is available in scaling checklist
(B) Checklists are too general or incomplete
(C) Checklists summarises information to make it available to experts
(D) Ecosystem functions can be clearly understood from weighting methods
Ans: B
54. The lichen and moss stages occur in
(A) Lithosere
(B) Psamosere
(C) Hydrosere
(D) Hydrarch
Ans: A
55. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Scales used in EIA methods) (Example)
(a) Nominal i. Temperature (degrees)
(b) Ordinal ii. Species classification
(c) Interval iii. Map scale
(d) Ratio iv. Worst to best
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: D
56. Risk assessment in EIA does not involve
(A) Maximum credible analysis
(B) Hazard and operability studies
(C) Preparation of disaster management plan
(D) Assessment of economic benefit arising out of a project
Ans: D
57. In a gravity flow autoclave, medical waste is subjected to a temperature
(A) > 120 °C
(B) < 100 °C
(C) > 300 °C
(D) > 800 °C
Ans: A
58. Hierarchy of priorities in hazardous waste management is
(A) Eliminate generation → Reduce generation → Recycle / Reuse → Treatment → Disposal
(B) Reduce generation → Eliminate generation → Recycle/Reuse → Treatment → Disposal
(C) Eliminate generation → Reduce generation → Treatment → Recycle/Reuse → Disposal
(D) Reduce generation → Eliminate generation → Treatment → Recycle/Reuse → Disposal
Ans: A
59. Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in the year
(A) 1991
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1997
Ans: A
60. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Convention) (Year)
(a) Convention for the protection of the ozone layer i. 1979
(b) Conservation of migratory species of wild animals ii. 1985
(c) Kyoto protocol iii. 1982
(d) UN Convention on the law of the sea iv. 1997
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: A
61. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Acts) (Year when enacted)
(a) Wildlife Protection Act i. 1980
(b) Forest Conservation Act ii. 1972
(c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iii. 1974
(d) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iv. 1981
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv iii ii i
Ans: A
62. Assertion (A): χ2 distribution is a non-parametric distribution.
Reason (R): χ2 is a sample statistic having no corresponding population parameter.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
63. In a simple regression analysis of y on x, the standard error of estimate of y on x, Syx = 5, number of observations N is 30, and ∑ y2 = 2000. The unexplained variance is
(A) 1500
(B) 750
(C) 500
(D) 250
Ans: B
64. Two normal populations have variances σ21 = 10 and σ22 = 20. Two random samples of sizes 25 and 20, independently selected from these populations have variances of S21 = 8 and S22 = 15, respectively. What is the F(24, 19) statistic?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 2.81
(D) 3.6
Ans: A
65. Assertion (A): A matrix is nonsingular if and only if none of its eigen values is zero.
Reason (R): The product of the eigen values equals the determinant of a matrix.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
66. In Gaussian Plume Model assume σz = cx where c is a constant and ratio of σy to σz to be a constant. If H is the effective height of the stack, the maximum concentration at a distance (x) from the stack is proportional to
(A) H–1
(B) H–2
(C) exp (–H2)
(D) H–3/2
Ans: B
67. The Pearson Linear correlation coefficient (r) for the following paired data (x, y): (2, 1.4) (4, 1.8), (8, 2.1), (8, 2.3), (9, 2.6) is
(A) 0.623
(B) – 0.572
(C) 0.957
(D) 0.823
Ans: C
68. In a rough terrain the wind speed at a height of 10 m is 2.5 m/s. The wind speed at an elevation of 300 m will be
(A) 4.9 m/s
(B) 1.2 m/s
(C) 3.6 m/s
(D) 7.9 m/s
Ans: A
69. In the context of REDD+ initiatives the land clearing in forest areas is primarily concerned with
(A) Physical resources of the area
(B) Ecology of the area
(C) Carbon budget of the area
(D) Water resources of the area
Ans: C
70. What was the objective of Basel Convention (1989) under UNEP?
I. Minimize generation of hazardous wastes in terms of quantity and hazardousness
II. Disposal of hazardous wastes as close to the source of generation as possible.
III. Reduce the movement of hazardous wastes.
Choose the correct code:
(A) I and II only.
(B) II and III only.
(C) I, II and III.
(D) I only.
Ans: C
71. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a comparison of global warming impact between
(A) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of methane
(B) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CO2
(C) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of N2O
(D) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CFC-11
Ans: B
72. Which of the following mixture of gases is called biogas?
(A) CO2, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
(B) CO, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
(C) CO2, CH4, N2O, NH3, H2O (vapour)
(D) CO2, NOx, H2O, CH4
Ans: A
73. Environmental ethics deal with moral relationship of human beings to
(A) the value and moral status of the environment and its nonhuman contents
(B) the values that is important to development and economic growth
(C) the conservation values of selected species
(D) the development of genetically modified organisms
Ans: A
74. The major source of BaP (Benzo-apyrene) in atmospheric environment is
(A) residential wood burning
(B) gasoline
(C) coal tar
(D) cooked meat
Ans: A
75. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Materials) (Applications)
(a) Trichloroethylene 1. Gasoline
(b) Toluene 2. Wood treatment
(c) Zinc 3. Dry cleaning
(d) Phenol 4. Mining
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans: A
76. Assertion (A): Every country should integrate the principles of sustainable development into its policies and programmes.
Reason (R): Environmental resources are a Nation’s wealth.
Choose the correct code from the following:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
77. Wind rose represents statistical distribution of
(A) Wind velocity in vector form
(B) Wind speeds in scalar form
(C) Wind speeds in π diagram
(D) Wind speeds in the form of histograms
Ans: A
78. If soil in a given area is wetted and allowed to drain till percolation is stopped, the amount of water thus retained is called
(A) Storage capacity
(B) Capillary capacity
(C) Hygroscopic capacity
(D) Field capacity
Ans: D
79. Quantity of 5M HCl required for preparing 1000 ml of 0.1 M HCl is,
(A) 20 ml
(B) 2 ml
(C) 200 ml
(D) 100 ml
Ans: A
80. The method which can be used for the softening of water having high calcium, high magnesium-carbonate hardness and some noncarbonated hardness
(A) single-stage line process.
(B) Excess lime process.
(C) Single stage lime-soda ash process.
(D) Excess lime-soda ash process.
Ans: D
81. Spotted deer, Asiatic wild ass, Black buck are,
(A) Endangered species
(B) Vulnerable species
(C) Threatened species
(D) Key species
Ans: B
82. Specific mortality of members of a population is expressed by
(A) Life table
(B) Survivorship curve
(C) Rate of mortality
(D) Rate of fecundity
Ans: B
83. Which group of vertebrate comprises maximum number of endangered species?
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibia
(C) Reptiles
(D) Birds
Ans: D
84. Under anaerobic condition denitrifying Pseudomonas changes,
(A) Nitrate to molecular nitrogen
(B) Nitrate to ammonia
(C) Nitrate to Nitrite
(D) Nitrite to Nitrate
Ans: A
85. The Phenomenon of having higher number of species in Eco tone is called
(A) Dominance effect
(B) Edge effect
(C) Abundance
(D) Frequency
Ans: B
86. Which specific common feature is not found in zooplankton and rabbit?
(A) Both are animals
(B) Both are primary consumers
(C) Both are carnivores
(D) Both are herbivores
Ans: C
87. The following exogenous and endogenous factors are the cause of extinction of animal species:
I. Ecological niche
II. Decrease in reproductive potency.
III. Lesser adaptability to fluctuating environment.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) I, II and III
Ans: D
88. Positive mass balance of glaciers has been recently reported from
(A) Eastern Himalayas
(B) Nepal Himalayas
(C) Western Himalayas
(D) Karakoram
Ans: D
89. Which of the following will lead to reduction in greenhouse gases in atmosphere?
(A) Increased chemical weathering of rocks.
(B) Volcanic eruption
(C) Lowering of mean sea level
(D) An increase in melting of glacial ice
Ans: A
90. The unconsolidated material with highest permeability is
(A) Landslide with clayey component
(B) Altered volcanic ash
(C) Well sorted alluvial sand
(D) Buried mud flows
Ans: C
91. Which of the following component of cryosphere has the longest life?
(A) Sea ice
(B) Icebergs
(C) Valley glaciers
(D) Ice sheets
Ans: D
92. Aerobic bacteria is most active in
(A) Moist and saturated soil
(B) Moist and non-saturated soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) Permafrost
Ans: B
93. Andisols are formed by
(A) Biological activity
(B) Erosion by wind
(C) Erosion by waves
(D) Volcanoes
Ans: D
94. In case of photovoltaic cell, the maximum theoretical efficiency of conversion is
(A) ~ 45 %
(B) ~ 30 %
(C) ~ 25 %
(D) ~ 50 %
Ans: A
95. Consider an ideal wind power generator of the wind speed increases 3 times, the power output would increase by how many times?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 27
(D) 81
Ans: C
96. Identify the correct sequence in increasing order of total CO2 emissions from various countries at present.
(A) Britain < India < China < USA
(B) India < Britain < China < USA
(C) Britain < USA < India < China
(D) Britain < India < USA < China
Ans: D
97. Arsenic compounds cause
(A) Dwarfism
(B) Dermatitis
(C) Thyrotoxicosis
(D) Wilson’s disease
Ans: B
98. Assertion (A): Chronic exposure to ozone is a possible contributor to forest decline.
Reason (R): Surface ozone is a greenhouse gas.
Identify the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
99. The attenuation of sound by reactive type silencers is based on
(A) Absorption of sound waves
(B) Scattering of sound waves
(C) Impedance discontinuity
(D) Interference of sound waves
Ans: C
100. “Farmer’s lung” is a classic example for
(A) Psittacosis
(B) Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
(C) Legionnaire’s disease
(D) Aspergillosis
Ans: B
Reason (R): Urban heat islands produce a somewhat stable air mass in the city’s atmosphere.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
52. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Analytical functions) (Activity under the function)
(a) Defining scope of EIA i. Critical Assessment of impacts
(b) Identification of impacts ii. Estimation of the probability that a particular impact will occur
(c) Prediction of Impacts iii. Description of the existing environment system
(d) Impact Evaluation and Analysis iv. Deciding important issues and concerns
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i ii iv iii
Ans: B
53. A drawback of checklists is
(A) Preliminary analysis is available in scaling checklist
(B) Checklists are too general or incomplete
(C) Checklists summarises information to make it available to experts
(D) Ecosystem functions can be clearly understood from weighting methods
Ans: B
54. The lichen and moss stages occur in
(A) Lithosere
(B) Psamosere
(C) Hydrosere
(D) Hydrarch
Ans: A
55. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Scales used in EIA methods) (Example)
(a) Nominal i. Temperature (degrees)
(b) Ordinal ii. Species classification
(c) Interval iii. Map scale
(d) Ratio iv. Worst to best
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: D
56. Risk assessment in EIA does not involve
(A) Maximum credible analysis
(B) Hazard and operability studies
(C) Preparation of disaster management plan
(D) Assessment of economic benefit arising out of a project
Ans: D
57. In a gravity flow autoclave, medical waste is subjected to a temperature
(A) > 120 °C
(B) < 100 °C
(C) > 300 °C
(D) > 800 °C
Ans: A
58. Hierarchy of priorities in hazardous waste management is
(A) Eliminate generation → Reduce generation → Recycle / Reuse → Treatment → Disposal
(B) Reduce generation → Eliminate generation → Recycle/Reuse → Treatment → Disposal
(C) Eliminate generation → Reduce generation → Treatment → Recycle/Reuse → Disposal
(D) Reduce generation → Eliminate generation → Treatment → Recycle/Reuse → Disposal
Ans: A
59. Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in the year
(A) 1991
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1997
Ans: A
60. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Convention) (Year)
(a) Convention for the protection of the ozone layer i. 1979
(b) Conservation of migratory species of wild animals ii. 1985
(c) Kyoto protocol iii. 1982
(d) UN Convention on the law of the sea iv. 1997
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: A
61. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Acts) (Year when enacted)
(a) Wildlife Protection Act i. 1980
(b) Forest Conservation Act ii. 1972
(c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iii. 1974
(d) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iv. 1981
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv iii ii i
Ans: A
62. Assertion (A): χ2 distribution is a non-parametric distribution.
Reason (R): χ2 is a sample statistic having no corresponding population parameter.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
63. In a simple regression analysis of y on x, the standard error of estimate of y on x, Syx = 5, number of observations N is 30, and ∑ y2 = 2000. The unexplained variance is
(A) 1500
(B) 750
(C) 500
(D) 250
Ans: B
64. Two normal populations have variances σ21 = 10 and σ22 = 20. Two random samples of sizes 25 and 20, independently selected from these populations have variances of S21 = 8 and S22 = 15, respectively. What is the F(24, 19) statistic?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 2.81
(D) 3.6
Ans: A
65. Assertion (A): A matrix is nonsingular if and only if none of its eigen values is zero.
Reason (R): The product of the eigen values equals the determinant of a matrix.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
66. In Gaussian Plume Model assume σz = cx where c is a constant and ratio of σy to σz to be a constant. If H is the effective height of the stack, the maximum concentration at a distance (x) from the stack is proportional to
(A) H–1
(B) H–2
(C) exp (–H2)
(D) H–3/2
Ans: B
67. The Pearson Linear correlation coefficient (r) for the following paired data (x, y): (2, 1.4) (4, 1.8), (8, 2.1), (8, 2.3), (9, 2.6) is
(A) 0.623
(B) – 0.572
(C) 0.957
(D) 0.823
Ans: C
68. In a rough terrain the wind speed at a height of 10 m is 2.5 m/s. The wind speed at an elevation of 300 m will be
(A) 4.9 m/s
(B) 1.2 m/s
(C) 3.6 m/s
(D) 7.9 m/s
Ans: A
69. In the context of REDD+ initiatives the land clearing in forest areas is primarily concerned with
(A) Physical resources of the area
(B) Ecology of the area
(C) Carbon budget of the area
(D) Water resources of the area
Ans: C
70. What was the objective of Basel Convention (1989) under UNEP?
I. Minimize generation of hazardous wastes in terms of quantity and hazardousness
II. Disposal of hazardous wastes as close to the source of generation as possible.
III. Reduce the movement of hazardous wastes.
Choose the correct code:
(A) I and II only.
(B) II and III only.
(C) I, II and III.
(D) I only.
Ans: C
71. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a comparison of global warming impact between
(A) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of methane
(B) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CO2
(C) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of N2O
(D) 1 kg of GHG and 1 kg of CFC-11
Ans: B
72. Which of the following mixture of gases is called biogas?
(A) CO2, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
(B) CO, CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)
(C) CO2, CH4, N2O, NH3, H2O (vapour)
(D) CO2, NOx, H2O, CH4
Ans: A
73. Environmental ethics deal with moral relationship of human beings to
(A) the value and moral status of the environment and its nonhuman contents
(B) the values that is important to development and economic growth
(C) the conservation values of selected species
(D) the development of genetically modified organisms
Ans: A
74. The major source of BaP (Benzo-apyrene) in atmospheric environment is
(A) residential wood burning
(B) gasoline
(C) coal tar
(D) cooked meat
Ans: A
75. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Materials) (Applications)
(a) Trichloroethylene 1. Gasoline
(b) Toluene 2. Wood treatment
(c) Zinc 3. Dry cleaning
(d) Phenol 4. Mining
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans: A
76. Assertion (A): Every country should integrate the principles of sustainable development into its policies and programmes.
Reason (R): Environmental resources are a Nation’s wealth.
Choose the correct code from the following:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
77. Wind rose represents statistical distribution of
(A) Wind velocity in vector form
(B) Wind speeds in scalar form
(C) Wind speeds in π diagram
(D) Wind speeds in the form of histograms
Ans: A
78. If soil in a given area is wetted and allowed to drain till percolation is stopped, the amount of water thus retained is called
(A) Storage capacity
(B) Capillary capacity
(C) Hygroscopic capacity
(D) Field capacity
Ans: D
79. Quantity of 5M HCl required for preparing 1000 ml of 0.1 M HCl is,
(A) 20 ml
(B) 2 ml
(C) 200 ml
(D) 100 ml
Ans: A
80. The method which can be used for the softening of water having high calcium, high magnesium-carbonate hardness and some noncarbonated hardness
(A) single-stage line process.
(B) Excess lime process.
(C) Single stage lime-soda ash process.
(D) Excess lime-soda ash process.
Ans: D
81. Spotted deer, Asiatic wild ass, Black buck are,
(A) Endangered species
(B) Vulnerable species
(C) Threatened species
(D) Key species
Ans: B
82. Specific mortality of members of a population is expressed by
(A) Life table
(B) Survivorship curve
(C) Rate of mortality
(D) Rate of fecundity
Ans: B
83. Which group of vertebrate comprises maximum number of endangered species?
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibia
(C) Reptiles
(D) Birds
Ans: D
84. Under anaerobic condition denitrifying Pseudomonas changes,
(A) Nitrate to molecular nitrogen
(B) Nitrate to ammonia
(C) Nitrate to Nitrite
(D) Nitrite to Nitrate
Ans: A
85. The Phenomenon of having higher number of species in Eco tone is called
(A) Dominance effect
(B) Edge effect
(C) Abundance
(D) Frequency
Ans: B
86. Which specific common feature is not found in zooplankton and rabbit?
(A) Both are animals
(B) Both are primary consumers
(C) Both are carnivores
(D) Both are herbivores
Ans: C
87. The following exogenous and endogenous factors are the cause of extinction of animal species:
I. Ecological niche
II. Decrease in reproductive potency.
III. Lesser adaptability to fluctuating environment.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) I, II and III
Ans: D
88. Positive mass balance of glaciers has been recently reported from
(A) Eastern Himalayas
(B) Nepal Himalayas
(C) Western Himalayas
(D) Karakoram
Ans: D
89. Which of the following will lead to reduction in greenhouse gases in atmosphere?
(A) Increased chemical weathering of rocks.
(B) Volcanic eruption
(C) Lowering of mean sea level
(D) An increase in melting of glacial ice
Ans: A
90. The unconsolidated material with highest permeability is
(A) Landslide with clayey component
(B) Altered volcanic ash
(C) Well sorted alluvial sand
(D) Buried mud flows
Ans: C
91. Which of the following component of cryosphere has the longest life?
(A) Sea ice
(B) Icebergs
(C) Valley glaciers
(D) Ice sheets
Ans: D
92. Aerobic bacteria is most active in
(A) Moist and saturated soil
(B) Moist and non-saturated soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) Permafrost
Ans: B
93. Andisols are formed by
(A) Biological activity
(B) Erosion by wind
(C) Erosion by waves
(D) Volcanoes
Ans: D
94. In case of photovoltaic cell, the maximum theoretical efficiency of conversion is
(A) ~ 45 %
(B) ~ 30 %
(C) ~ 25 %
(D) ~ 50 %
Ans: A
95. Consider an ideal wind power generator of the wind speed increases 3 times, the power output would increase by how many times?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 27
(D) 81
Ans: C
96. Identify the correct sequence in increasing order of total CO2 emissions from various countries at present.
(A) Britain < India < China < USA
(B) India < Britain < China < USA
(C) Britain < USA < India < China
(D) Britain < India < USA < China
Ans: D
97. Arsenic compounds cause
(A) Dwarfism
(B) Dermatitis
(C) Thyrotoxicosis
(D) Wilson’s disease
Ans: B
98. Assertion (A): Chronic exposure to ozone is a possible contributor to forest decline.
Reason (R): Surface ozone is a greenhouse gas.
Identify the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
99. The attenuation of sound by reactive type silencers is based on
(A) Absorption of sound waves
(B) Scattering of sound waves
(C) Impedance discontinuity
(D) Interference of sound waves
Ans: C
100. “Farmer’s lung” is a classic example for
(A) Psittacosis
(B) Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
(C) Legionnaire’s disease
(D) Aspergillosis
Ans: B