MICROBIOLOGY (MEDICAL EDUCATION)
MICROBIOLOGY (MEDICAL EDUCATION)
1:-Genotype of Hepatitis C Virus with poor response to treatment
A:-Genotype 1b B:-Genotype 1a
C:-Genotype 2 D:-Genotype 3
Ans: A
2:-Highest mortality in pregnancy is associated with
A:-Hepatitis A B:-Hepatitis B
C:-Hepatitis E D:-Hepatitis D
Ans: C
3:-All are true about Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis except
A:-Strains similar to oral polio virus B:-Seen in places where OPV is used extensively
C:-Common serotype Sabin type 3 D:-High level genetic divergence from OPV strain
Ans: D
4:-True about Antigenic drift
A:-Point mutation B:-Results in pandemics
C:-Occurs in influenza A virus D:-Occurs every 10-20 years
Ans: A
5:-Koplik's spots are pathognomonic of
A:-Measles B:-Mumps C:-Rubella D:-Chicken pox
Ans: A
6:-Nipah virus belongs to
A:-Paramyxovirus B:-Orthomyxovirus C:-Picorna virus D:-Enterovirus
Ans: A
7:-All are true about Negri bodies except
A:-Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions B:-Common in cerebellum, hippocampus
C:-2-10 µ size D:-Its absence rule out diagnosis of Rabies
Ans: D
8:-Rabies vaccine is prepared from
A:-Street virus B:-Fixed virus
C:-Live virus D:-Wild virus
Ans: B
9:-All are human prion disease except
A:-Kuru B:-Classical Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
C:-Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis D:-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
Ans: C
10:-All are Epstein Barr Virus associated malignancy except
A:-Burkitt's lymphoma B:-Hodgkin's lymphoma
C:-Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D:-Hepatocellular carcinoma
Ans: D
11:-All are true about chickenpox in pregnancy except
A:-Not terratogenic B:-Mothers at risk of varicella pneumonia
C:-Congenital infection more in 2nd half D:-Congenital infections rare in 1st half
Ans: A
12:-Characteristic cytopathic effect of herpes simplex
A:-Diffuse roundening and ballooning B:-Syncitium or multinucleated giant cells
C:-Crenation and degeneration D:-Cytoplasmic vacoulation
Ans: A
13:-Which serotype of Dengue virus is more dangerous?
A:-Serotype 1 B:-Serotype 2 C:-Serotype 3 D:-Serotype 4
Ans: B
14:-All the following are the genotypes of chikungunea virus except
A:-West African B:-East African
C:-Asian D:-North American
Ans: D
15:-Commonest clinical presentation of mumps
A:-Aseptic meningitis B:-Bilateral parotitis
C:-Epididymo orchitis D:-Pancreatitis
Ans: B
16:-Suckling mouse can be used for viral isolation of
A:-Coxsackie virus B:-Mumps virus
C:-Measles virus D:-Influenza virus
Ans: A
17:-All are true about chicken pox vaccine except
A:-Live vaccine B:-One dose for adults
C:-Oka strain given D:-2 doses for children
Ans: B
18:-Germ tube test is positive for
A:-Candida albicans B:-Candida glabrata
C:-Candida krusei D:-Candida tropicalis
Ans: A
19:-Following are true about Cryptococcus except
A:-Serotypes of Cryptococcus - A, B, C, D B:-C.neoformans seen in pigeon droppings
C:-Capsule is main virulence factor D:-C.neoformans inhabits in eucalyptus tree
Ans: D
20:-Virus producing haemorrhagic fever
A:-Kyasanur forest disease virus B:-Japanese B.encephalitis virus
C:-Chandipura virus D:-West Nile virus
Ans: A
21:-Decreasing order of ability of antibodies to fix complement is
A:-IgM > IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2 B:-IgG1 > IgG2 > IgM > IgG3
C:-IgG1 > IgM > IgG2 > IgG3 D:-IgG3 > IgG2 > IgG1 > IgM
Ans: A
22:-The test used for screening pregnant women for antibodies that may cause haemolytic disease of new born is
A:-Neutralisation test B:-Direct coombs test
C:-Indirect coombs test D:-Immunohistochemistry
Ans: C
23:-All are true about Type IV hypersensitivity except
A:-Delayed type of hypersensitivity B:-Immune mechanism against intracellular microorganisms
C:-`T_{DTH}` cells are the principal mediators D:-Radio-immunosorbent test for serum IgE helps in diagnosis
Ans: D
24:-Elek's gel precipitation test is an example of
A:-Oudine procedure B:-Ouchterlony procedure
C:-Oakley-Fulthrop procedure D:-Rocket electrophoresis
Ans: B
25:-C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency leads to
A:-Recurrent pyogenic infections B:-Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
C:-Collagen vascular diseases D:-Heriditary angioneurotic oedema
Ans: D
26:-Type II hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by
A:-IgG B:-Antigen-antibody complex
C:-IgA D:-IgE
Ans: A
27:-Which of the following is an antibody dependent pathway?
A:-Classical pathway B:-Alternate pathway
C:-Lectin pathway D:-None of the above
Ans: A
28:-Most common bacteria causing neonatal meningitis is
A:-Streptococcus pneumonia B:-Haemophilus influenza
C:-Neisseria meningitidis D:-Escherichia coli
Ans: D
29:-AIIR is needed in
A:-Droplet precautions B:-Airborne precautions
C:-Contact precautions D:-None of the above
Ans: B
30:-According to Biomedical waste management 2018, metallic body implants should be segregated in
A:-White container (puncture proof box) B:-Yellow bag with biohazard symbol
C:-Blue container (puncture proof box) D:-Red bag with biohazard symbol
Ans: C
31:-Bundle care approach for prevention of CAUTI is
A:-Drainage bag must be always above the bladder level B:-Closed drainage system should be maintained
C:-Silastic catheters is associated with increased chance of urethritis D:-Routine prophylactic antimicrobial therapy is advised
Ans: B
32:-Bundle care of VAP includes all except
A:-Elevation of head end of the bed to 30-45° B:-Change ventilator tubings frequently
C:-Daily interruption of sedation D:-Prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease
Ans: B
33:-Lymphogranuloma Venereum is caused by
A:-Haemophilus ducreyi B:-Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
C:-Chlamydia trachomatis D:-Gardnerella vaginalis
Ans: C
34:-All are true about Mucormycosis EXCEPT
A:-Major risk factor is uncontrolled diabetes mellitus B:-Posaconazole is effective
C:-Angioinvasive D:-Septate hyphae with branched sporangiophores, rhizoids absent
Ans: D
35:-True about CBNAAT is
A:-Detects INH resistance B:-Detection limit of `"10^{4}"` bacilli/ml sputum
C:-Detects mutations of the rpo B gene D:-Can further speciate MTB complex
Ans: C
36:-Modified Faine's criteria is used for the diagnosis of
A:-Rheumatic fever B:-Bacterial vaginosis
C:-Systemic lupus erythematosis D:-Leptospirosis
Ans: D
37:-Sorbitol Mac Conkey agar is used for laboratry diagnosis of
A:-EHEC B:-ETEC C:-EPEC D:-EIEC
Ans: A
38:-All are true about Gluteraldehyde as disinfectant except
A:-Exposure monitoring not required B:-Bactericidal, Virucidal, Sporicidal
C:-Alkaline solution is active D:-Not stains skin proteins
Ans: A
39:-Flash sterilization is
A:-Can be used as a routine substituite for autoclave
B:-Holding period is 132° C at 27-28 lbs for 3-4 minutes
C:-Can be used for wrapped items
D:-All of the above
Ans: B
40:-Concentration of Orthophthaldehyde as chemical sterilant
A:-3%-6% B:-2% C:-0.55% D:-10%
Ans: C
41:-Sequence of removing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
A:-Gloves, Gown, Goggles, Mask B:-Glove, Mask, Goggles, Gown
C:-Gloves, Goggles, Gown, Mask D:-Gown, Mask, Gloves, Goggles
Ans: C
42:-Most sensitive indicator of carbapenemase production is non-susceptibility to
A:-Meropenem B:-Doripenem
C:-Imipenem D:-Ertapenem
Ans: D
43:-Which is not a Back End Strategy of Antimicrobial Stewardship programme
A:-Sustainable than Front end strategy B:-Prospective audit and feedback is an example
C:-Formulary restriction D:-It is labour intensive than Front-end strategy
Ans: C
44:-Types of EQA methods include
A:-Proficiency testing
B:-Rechecking or Retesting
C:-On-site evaluation
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
45:-True about TSI agar is
A:-Ratio of sucrose to glucose is 1:10
B:-It can be used only when testing a bacterial species selected from a single colony recovered on primary or selective agar plates
C:-It is better than KIA for screening stool specimens for Yersinia enterocolitica
D:-It is more sensitive in the detection of hydrogen sulphide than SIM
Ans: B
46:-Choose the correct statement about toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus:
A:-Panton Valentine toxin is associated with HA-MRSA
B:-β hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus is also known as synergohymenotropic toxin
C:-Hot-cold phenomenon is exhibited by α hemolysin
D:-Enterotoxin is a pyrogenic exotoxin superantigen
Ans: D
47:-Ideally blood levels of vancomycin has to be monitored while treating MRSA infection. What is the trough level of Vancomycin? A:-4-10 μg/mL
B:-10-20 μg/mL
C:-20-30 μg/mL
D:-30-40 μg/mL
Ans: B
48:-All the tests listed below are useful in differentiating Streptococcus pneumoniae from Viridans streptococci except:
A:-Bacitracin sensitivity
B:-Bile solubility
C:-Inulin fermentation
D:-Optochin sensitivity
Ans: A
49:-Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for which bacterium?
A:-Streptococcus pyogenes
B:-Bacillus cereus
C:-Bacteroides fragilis
D:-Haemophilus ducreyi
Ans: A
50:-Resistance in Streptococcus pneumonia against β lactams is due to:
A:-Presence of penicillinase enzymes
B:-Efflux pumps
C:-Altered penicillin binding proteins
D:-Decreased permeability across cell wall
Ans: C
A:-Genotype 1b B:-Genotype 1a
C:-Genotype 2 D:-Genotype 3
Ans: A
2:-Highest mortality in pregnancy is associated with
A:-Hepatitis A B:-Hepatitis B
C:-Hepatitis E D:-Hepatitis D
Ans: C
3:-All are true about Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis except
A:-Strains similar to oral polio virus B:-Seen in places where OPV is used extensively
C:-Common serotype Sabin type 3 D:-High level genetic divergence from OPV strain
Ans: D
4:-True about Antigenic drift
A:-Point mutation B:-Results in pandemics
C:-Occurs in influenza A virus D:-Occurs every 10-20 years
Ans: A
5:-Koplik's spots are pathognomonic of
A:-Measles B:-Mumps C:-Rubella D:-Chicken pox
Ans: A
6:-Nipah virus belongs to
A:-Paramyxovirus B:-Orthomyxovirus C:-Picorna virus D:-Enterovirus
Ans: A
7:-All are true about Negri bodies except
A:-Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions B:-Common in cerebellum, hippocampus
C:-2-10 µ size D:-Its absence rule out diagnosis of Rabies
Ans: D
8:-Rabies vaccine is prepared from
A:-Street virus B:-Fixed virus
C:-Live virus D:-Wild virus
Ans: B
9:-All are human prion disease except
A:-Kuru B:-Classical Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
C:-Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis D:-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
Ans: C
10:-All are Epstein Barr Virus associated malignancy except
A:-Burkitt's lymphoma B:-Hodgkin's lymphoma
C:-Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D:-Hepatocellular carcinoma
Ans: D
11:-All are true about chickenpox in pregnancy except
A:-Not terratogenic B:-Mothers at risk of varicella pneumonia
C:-Congenital infection more in 2nd half D:-Congenital infections rare in 1st half
Ans: A
12:-Characteristic cytopathic effect of herpes simplex
A:-Diffuse roundening and ballooning B:-Syncitium or multinucleated giant cells
C:-Crenation and degeneration D:-Cytoplasmic vacoulation
Ans: A
13:-Which serotype of Dengue virus is more dangerous?
A:-Serotype 1 B:-Serotype 2 C:-Serotype 3 D:-Serotype 4
Ans: B
14:-All the following are the genotypes of chikungunea virus except
A:-West African B:-East African
C:-Asian D:-North American
Ans: D
15:-Commonest clinical presentation of mumps
A:-Aseptic meningitis B:-Bilateral parotitis
C:-Epididymo orchitis D:-Pancreatitis
Ans: B
16:-Suckling mouse can be used for viral isolation of
A:-Coxsackie virus B:-Mumps virus
C:-Measles virus D:-Influenza virus
Ans: A
17:-All are true about chicken pox vaccine except
A:-Live vaccine B:-One dose for adults
C:-Oka strain given D:-2 doses for children
Ans: B
18:-Germ tube test is positive for
A:-Candida albicans B:-Candida glabrata
C:-Candida krusei D:-Candida tropicalis
Ans: A
19:-Following are true about Cryptococcus except
A:-Serotypes of Cryptococcus - A, B, C, D B:-C.neoformans seen in pigeon droppings
C:-Capsule is main virulence factor D:-C.neoformans inhabits in eucalyptus tree
Ans: D
20:-Virus producing haemorrhagic fever
A:-Kyasanur forest disease virus B:-Japanese B.encephalitis virus
C:-Chandipura virus D:-West Nile virus
Ans: A
21:-Decreasing order of ability of antibodies to fix complement is
A:-IgM > IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2 B:-IgG1 > IgG2 > IgM > IgG3
C:-IgG1 > IgM > IgG2 > IgG3 D:-IgG3 > IgG2 > IgG1 > IgM
Ans: A
22:-The test used for screening pregnant women for antibodies that may cause haemolytic disease of new born is
A:-Neutralisation test B:-Direct coombs test
C:-Indirect coombs test D:-Immunohistochemistry
Ans: C
23:-All are true about Type IV hypersensitivity except
A:-Delayed type of hypersensitivity B:-Immune mechanism against intracellular microorganisms
C:-`T_{DTH}` cells are the principal mediators D:-Radio-immunosorbent test for serum IgE helps in diagnosis
Ans: D
24:-Elek's gel precipitation test is an example of
A:-Oudine procedure B:-Ouchterlony procedure
C:-Oakley-Fulthrop procedure D:-Rocket electrophoresis
Ans: B
25:-C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency leads to
A:-Recurrent pyogenic infections B:-Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
C:-Collagen vascular diseases D:-Heriditary angioneurotic oedema
Ans: D
26:-Type II hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by
A:-IgG B:-Antigen-antibody complex
C:-IgA D:-IgE
Ans: A
27:-Which of the following is an antibody dependent pathway?
A:-Classical pathway B:-Alternate pathway
C:-Lectin pathway D:-None of the above
Ans: A
28:-Most common bacteria causing neonatal meningitis is
A:-Streptococcus pneumonia B:-Haemophilus influenza
C:-Neisseria meningitidis D:-Escherichia coli
Ans: D
29:-AIIR is needed in
A:-Droplet precautions B:-Airborne precautions
C:-Contact precautions D:-None of the above
Ans: B
30:-According to Biomedical waste management 2018, metallic body implants should be segregated in
A:-White container (puncture proof box) B:-Yellow bag with biohazard symbol
C:-Blue container (puncture proof box) D:-Red bag with biohazard symbol
Ans: C
31:-Bundle care approach for prevention of CAUTI is
A:-Drainage bag must be always above the bladder level B:-Closed drainage system should be maintained
C:-Silastic catheters is associated with increased chance of urethritis D:-Routine prophylactic antimicrobial therapy is advised
Ans: B
32:-Bundle care of VAP includes all except
A:-Elevation of head end of the bed to 30-45° B:-Change ventilator tubings frequently
C:-Daily interruption of sedation D:-Prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease
Ans: B
33:-Lymphogranuloma Venereum is caused by
A:-Haemophilus ducreyi B:-Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
C:-Chlamydia trachomatis D:-Gardnerella vaginalis
Ans: C
34:-All are true about Mucormycosis EXCEPT
A:-Major risk factor is uncontrolled diabetes mellitus B:-Posaconazole is effective
C:-Angioinvasive D:-Septate hyphae with branched sporangiophores, rhizoids absent
Ans: D
35:-True about CBNAAT is
A:-Detects INH resistance B:-Detection limit of `"10^{4}"` bacilli/ml sputum
C:-Detects mutations of the rpo B gene D:-Can further speciate MTB complex
Ans: C
36:-Modified Faine's criteria is used for the diagnosis of
A:-Rheumatic fever B:-Bacterial vaginosis
C:-Systemic lupus erythematosis D:-Leptospirosis
Ans: D
37:-Sorbitol Mac Conkey agar is used for laboratry diagnosis of
A:-EHEC B:-ETEC C:-EPEC D:-EIEC
Ans: A
38:-All are true about Gluteraldehyde as disinfectant except
A:-Exposure monitoring not required B:-Bactericidal, Virucidal, Sporicidal
C:-Alkaline solution is active D:-Not stains skin proteins
Ans: A
39:-Flash sterilization is
A:-Can be used as a routine substituite for autoclave
B:-Holding period is 132° C at 27-28 lbs for 3-4 minutes
C:-Can be used for wrapped items
D:-All of the above
Ans: B
40:-Concentration of Orthophthaldehyde as chemical sterilant
A:-3%-6% B:-2% C:-0.55% D:-10%
Ans: C
41:-Sequence of removing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
A:-Gloves, Gown, Goggles, Mask B:-Glove, Mask, Goggles, Gown
C:-Gloves, Goggles, Gown, Mask D:-Gown, Mask, Gloves, Goggles
Ans: C
42:-Most sensitive indicator of carbapenemase production is non-susceptibility to
A:-Meropenem B:-Doripenem
C:-Imipenem D:-Ertapenem
Ans: D
43:-Which is not a Back End Strategy of Antimicrobial Stewardship programme
A:-Sustainable than Front end strategy B:-Prospective audit and feedback is an example
C:-Formulary restriction D:-It is labour intensive than Front-end strategy
Ans: C
44:-Types of EQA methods include
A:-Proficiency testing
B:-Rechecking or Retesting
C:-On-site evaluation
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
45:-True about TSI agar is
A:-Ratio of sucrose to glucose is 1:10
B:-It can be used only when testing a bacterial species selected from a single colony recovered on primary or selective agar plates
C:-It is better than KIA for screening stool specimens for Yersinia enterocolitica
D:-It is more sensitive in the detection of hydrogen sulphide than SIM
Ans: B
46:-Choose the correct statement about toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus:
A:-Panton Valentine toxin is associated with HA-MRSA
B:-β hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus is also known as synergohymenotropic toxin
C:-Hot-cold phenomenon is exhibited by α hemolysin
D:-Enterotoxin is a pyrogenic exotoxin superantigen
Ans: D
47:-Ideally blood levels of vancomycin has to be monitored while treating MRSA infection. What is the trough level of Vancomycin? A:-4-10 μg/mL
B:-10-20 μg/mL
C:-20-30 μg/mL
D:-30-40 μg/mL
Ans: B
48:-All the tests listed below are useful in differentiating Streptococcus pneumoniae from Viridans streptococci except:
A:-Bacitracin sensitivity
B:-Bile solubility
C:-Inulin fermentation
D:-Optochin sensitivity
Ans: A
49:-Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for which bacterium?
A:-Streptococcus pyogenes
B:-Bacillus cereus
C:-Bacteroides fragilis
D:-Haemophilus ducreyi
Ans: A
50:-Resistance in Streptococcus pneumonia against β lactams is due to:
A:-Presence of penicillinase enzymes
B:-Efflux pumps
C:-Altered penicillin binding proteins
D:-Decreased permeability across cell wall
Ans: C
51:-Which among the following serogroup of Neisseria menigitidis is not associated with invasive disease?
A:-A B:-B
C:-C D:-D
Ans: D
52:-Auxotyping is done for:
A:-Meningococci B:-Streptococci C:-Gonococci D:-Enterococci
Ans: C
53:-Choose the false statement regarding diphtheria toxin:
A:-The receptor for diphtheria toxin is heparin binding epidermal growth factor
B:-0.1 μg/kg toxin can be lethal to susceptible individual
C:-Anti diphtheria antibody titres of ≥ 0.01 U/mL is protective
D:-Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum produces diphtheria like toxin
Ans: D
54:-Shanghai fever is caused by:
A:-Burkholderia cepacia B:-Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
C:-Pseudomonas auruginosa D:-Corynebacterium jeikeium
Ans: C
55:-Which secretion system is responsible for the secretion of Exotoxin A by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A:-Type I B:-Type II C:-Type III D:-Type IV
Ans: B
56:-δ-aminolevulinic acid agar test for Haemophilus influenzae is used to:
A:-Detect requirement of X factor B:-Select out H.influenzae
C:-Detect requirement of V factor D:-Enhance capsule formation
Ans: A
57:-Acinetobacter baumannii is an established hospital pathogen. All the following statements are true regarding this agent EXCEPT: A:-A.baumannii can be transmitted by airborne route
B:-Most important mechanism for drug resistance is by expression of β lactamases
C:-Sulbactum has intrinsic activity against A.baumannii
D:-Meropenem and ertapenem are effective in treating A.baumannii infections
Ans: D
58:-Vibrio cholera toxin acts by
A:-Glycosylate GTP binding protein B:-Elevated intracellular cGMP
C:-ADP ribosylation of G protein D:-Inhibition of cAMP
Ans: C
59:-Twenty two year old male who was severely injured following a road traffic accident was brought to casualty. He has completed the course of tetanus toxoid (TT) 10 years back. He should receive:
A:-TT 1 dose + HTIG B:-TT 1 dose
C:-TT complete dose D:-TT complete dose + HTIG
Ans: A
60:-Preferred test to confirm H.pylori eradication is:
A:-Culture B:-Urea breath test C:-Rapid urease test D:-Antibody detection
Ans: B
61:-Colicin typing is done for:
A:-S.dysenteriae B:-S.flexneri C:-S.boydii D:-S.sonnei
Ans: D
62:-Screening for chronic carrier state following S.typhi infection is carried out by:
A:-Widal test B:-Demonstrating Vi antigen C:-Detection of Vi antibodies D:-Nested PCR of serum sample
Ans: C
63:-XDR TB is defined as:
A:-Resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin irrespective of resistance to any other drug
B:-Resistance to more than one drug other than co resistance to INH and rifampicin
C:-MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one injectable second-line drugs
D:-MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second line drugs or fluoroquinolones
Ans: C
64:-Choose the correct statement about the tests used for diagnosis of syphilis:
A:-RPR and USR tests do not require a microscope to detect flocculation
B:-In TPPA, tanned RBCs are coated with T.pallidum antigens
C:-TPHA fails to detect CSF antibodies
D:-Non treponemal tests are recommended to monitor treatment response
Ans: D
65:-True about Leptospira interrogans:
A:-It is a facultative anaerobe
B:-Semisolid Fletcher's medium is useful in cultivating this bacterium
C:-Levaditi staining is used to demonstrate L.interrogans
D:-Serovar specific PCR tests are available
Ans: B
66:-Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K causes:
A:-Genital chlamydiasis B:-Interstitial pneumonia
C:-Atherosclerosis D:-Lymphogranuloma venereum
Ans: A
67:-Choose the true statement regarding Mycoplasma pneumoniae:
A:-Obligate intracellular parasites
B:-Mycoplasmas are L forms
C:-Lung biopsy specimen typically lacks signs of inflammation
D:-Hydrogen peroxide plays a major role in pathogenesis
Ans: D
68:-All the following are true with regards to Coxiella burnetii EXCEPT:
A:-Most common mode of transmission is by aerosol route
B:-Endocarditis is a major feature of chronic Q fever
C:-Anti-phase II IgG titre of > 6400 is diagnostic of chronic Q fever
D:-Doxycycline + hydroxychoroquine is used for treating Q fever
Ans: C
69:-Transovarian transmission in vectors is seen in:
A:-Scrub typhus B:-Endemic typhus C:-Epidemic typhus D:-Trench fever
Ans: A
70:-How do catalase test for mycobacteria differ from that done for other bacteria?
A:-30% `"H_2O_2"` + 10% Tween 80
B:-1% `"H_2O_2"` + Phosphate buffer at pH 6.4%
C:-3% `"H_2O_2"` + 10% Tween 80
D:-10% `"H_2O_2"` + 0.85% saline
Ans: A
71:-Hair perforation test is positive in
A:-Trichophyton violaceum B:-Trichophyton mentagrophytes
C:-Trichophyton audouinii D:-Trichophyton schoenleinii
Ans: B
72:-Mode of infection of Ascaris lumbricoides
A:-Penetration of skin by larva B:-Autoinfection
C:-Ingestion of eggs D:-Ingestion of larva
Ans: C
73:-True about microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti
A:-Sheathed, nuclei at the tail tip B:-Sheathed, no nuclei at tail tip
C:-Unsheathed, no nuclei at tail tip D:-Unsheathed and nuclei at tail tip
Ans: B
74:-Dimorphic fungi causing subcutaneous mycosis
A:-Phialophora verrucosa B:-Sporothrix schenckii
C:-Fonsecaea pedrosoi D:-Cladosporium carrionii
Ans: B
75:-Subtype of human immunodeficiency virus 1 more common in India.
A:-Subtype A B:-Subtype B
C:-Subtype C D:-Subtype D
Ans: C
76:-Skin test for diagnosis of hydatid cyst
A:-Casoni's test B:-Schick test
C:-Dick test D:-Frei test
Ans: A
77. Which blotting technique is used for detection of carbohydrate epitope present on proteins or lipids?
(A) Western blot (B) Northern blot
(C) Eastern blot (D) Southern blot
Ans: C
78. Viruses that can remain latent (usually in neurons) for many years are most likely:
(A) Togaviruses (B) Herpesviruses
(C) Enteroviruses (D) Retroviruses
Ans: B
79. Phage typing is employed for typing of following bacteria except:
(A) S. aureus (B) V. cholerae
(C) Streptococcus (D) Brucella
Ans: C
80. Malarial parasite can be cultured in
(A) Blood agar (B) HeLa cell culture
(C) RPMI 1640 (D) NNN medium
Ans: C
81. Most cost effective method to prevent hospital acquired infections:
(A) Alcohol based hand rub (B) Hand wash
(C) Disinfectant use (D) Use of antibiotics
Ans: B
82. Aspergillosis is recognized in tissue by the presence of
(A) Metachromatic granules (B) Psuedohyphae
(C) Septate hyphae (D) Budding cells
Ans: C
83. Seborrhic dermatitis- causative agent is
(A) Candida (B) Dermatophytes
(C) Cryptococcus (D) Malassezia furfur
Ans: D
84. Fungus which cannot be grown on artificial media/not cultivable fungus is?
(A) Rhinosporidium seeberi (B) Penicillium marneffei
(C) Aspergillus flavus (D) Sporothrix schenckii
Ans: A
85. Asteroid bodies is seen in
(A) Sporotrichosis (B) Blastomycosis
(C) Coccidiomycosis (D) Cryptococcosis
Ans: A
86. Reynolds – Braude phenomenon is seen in:
(A) Candida albicans (B) Candida tropicalis
(C) Histoplasma capsulatum (D) Cryptococcus neoformans
Ans: A
87. Drug of choice of Pneumocystis jirovecii
(A) Cotrimoxazole (B) Penicillin
(C) Amphotericin B (D) Clotrimazole
Ans: A
88. Calabar swelling occurs in infection by :
(A) Mansonella ozzardia (B) Loa loa
(C) Onchocerca volvulus (D) Mansonella perstans
Ans: B
89. Which of following acts as vector of Chaga’s disease:
(A) Tsetse fly (B) Deer fly
(C) Reduviid bug (D) Sandfly
Ans: C
90. Paragonimus westermani affects:
(A) Intestine (B) Lung
(C) Liver (D) Blood vessels
Ans: B
91. The zoological name of beef tapeworm is:
(A) Taenia solium (B) Taenia saginata
(C) Hymenolepsis nana (D) Echinococcus granulosus
Ans: B
92. Hookworm leads to deficiency of:
(A) Vitamin A (B) Iron
(C) Vitamin B12 (D) Folic acid
Ans: B
93. In humans, Isospora belli causes:
(A) Meningitis (B) Diarrhea
(C) Pneumonia (D) None of the above
Ans: B
94. Which one of the following factors, released by heating a suspension of sheep erythrocytes, is required for the growth of Haemophilus Influenzae in chocolate agar?
(A) Coagulase (B) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
(C) Hemoglobin (D) Hemolysin
Ans: B
95. A patient develops explosive, watery diarrhea 24 hours after eating seafood. What bacterium is most likely involved?
(A) Campylobacter fetus (B) Salmonella typhimurium
(C) Bacillus cereus (D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Ans: D
96. Adenoviridae, Poxviridae , Herpesviridae are :
(A) Single-stranded DNA virus (B) Single-stranded RNA virus
(C) Double-stranded DNA virus (D) Double-stranded RNA virus
Ans: C
97. Immunoprophylaxis for long duration is achieved by :
(A) Using preformed antibodies (B) Using antitoxin
(C) Vaccination (D) Using Immunoglobulin
Ans: C
98. Which of the following is used to demonstrate Agglutination reaction ?
(A) VDRL test (B) Widal test
(C) RPR test (D) CIEP
Ans: B
99. Step catalysed by Taq polymerase enzyme is:
(A) Denaturation (B) Primer annealing
(C) Extension of Primer (D) DNA Extraction
Ans: C
100. Which of the following is true for Treponema pallidum ?
(A) It is acid fast bacillus (B) It is a spiral bacterium
(C) It contains volutin granules (D) It is capsulated diplococcic
Ans: B
A:-A B:-B
C:-C D:-D
Ans: D
52:-Auxotyping is done for:
A:-Meningococci B:-Streptococci C:-Gonococci D:-Enterococci
Ans: C
53:-Choose the false statement regarding diphtheria toxin:
A:-The receptor for diphtheria toxin is heparin binding epidermal growth factor
B:-0.1 μg/kg toxin can be lethal to susceptible individual
C:-Anti diphtheria antibody titres of ≥ 0.01 U/mL is protective
D:-Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum produces diphtheria like toxin
Ans: D
54:-Shanghai fever is caused by:
A:-Burkholderia cepacia B:-Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
C:-Pseudomonas auruginosa D:-Corynebacterium jeikeium
Ans: C
55:-Which secretion system is responsible for the secretion of Exotoxin A by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A:-Type I B:-Type II C:-Type III D:-Type IV
Ans: B
56:-δ-aminolevulinic acid agar test for Haemophilus influenzae is used to:
A:-Detect requirement of X factor B:-Select out H.influenzae
C:-Detect requirement of V factor D:-Enhance capsule formation
Ans: A
57:-Acinetobacter baumannii is an established hospital pathogen. All the following statements are true regarding this agent EXCEPT: A:-A.baumannii can be transmitted by airborne route
B:-Most important mechanism for drug resistance is by expression of β lactamases
C:-Sulbactum has intrinsic activity against A.baumannii
D:-Meropenem and ertapenem are effective in treating A.baumannii infections
Ans: D
58:-Vibrio cholera toxin acts by
A:-Glycosylate GTP binding protein B:-Elevated intracellular cGMP
C:-ADP ribosylation of G protein D:-Inhibition of cAMP
Ans: C
59:-Twenty two year old male who was severely injured following a road traffic accident was brought to casualty. He has completed the course of tetanus toxoid (TT) 10 years back. He should receive:
A:-TT 1 dose + HTIG B:-TT 1 dose
C:-TT complete dose D:-TT complete dose + HTIG
Ans: A
60:-Preferred test to confirm H.pylori eradication is:
A:-Culture B:-Urea breath test C:-Rapid urease test D:-Antibody detection
Ans: B
61:-Colicin typing is done for:
A:-S.dysenteriae B:-S.flexneri C:-S.boydii D:-S.sonnei
Ans: D
62:-Screening for chronic carrier state following S.typhi infection is carried out by:
A:-Widal test B:-Demonstrating Vi antigen C:-Detection of Vi antibodies D:-Nested PCR of serum sample
Ans: C
63:-XDR TB is defined as:
A:-Resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin irrespective of resistance to any other drug
B:-Resistance to more than one drug other than co resistance to INH and rifampicin
C:-MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one injectable second-line drugs
D:-MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second line drugs or fluoroquinolones
Ans: C
64:-Choose the correct statement about the tests used for diagnosis of syphilis:
A:-RPR and USR tests do not require a microscope to detect flocculation
B:-In TPPA, tanned RBCs are coated with T.pallidum antigens
C:-TPHA fails to detect CSF antibodies
D:-Non treponemal tests are recommended to monitor treatment response
Ans: D
65:-True about Leptospira interrogans:
A:-It is a facultative anaerobe
B:-Semisolid Fletcher's medium is useful in cultivating this bacterium
C:-Levaditi staining is used to demonstrate L.interrogans
D:-Serovar specific PCR tests are available
Ans: B
66:-Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K causes:
A:-Genital chlamydiasis B:-Interstitial pneumonia
C:-Atherosclerosis D:-Lymphogranuloma venereum
Ans: A
67:-Choose the true statement regarding Mycoplasma pneumoniae:
A:-Obligate intracellular parasites
B:-Mycoplasmas are L forms
C:-Lung biopsy specimen typically lacks signs of inflammation
D:-Hydrogen peroxide plays a major role in pathogenesis
Ans: D
68:-All the following are true with regards to Coxiella burnetii EXCEPT:
A:-Most common mode of transmission is by aerosol route
B:-Endocarditis is a major feature of chronic Q fever
C:-Anti-phase II IgG titre of > 6400 is diagnostic of chronic Q fever
D:-Doxycycline + hydroxychoroquine is used for treating Q fever
Ans: C
69:-Transovarian transmission in vectors is seen in:
A:-Scrub typhus B:-Endemic typhus C:-Epidemic typhus D:-Trench fever
Ans: A
70:-How do catalase test for mycobacteria differ from that done for other bacteria?
A:-30% `"H_2O_2"` + 10% Tween 80
B:-1% `"H_2O_2"` + Phosphate buffer at pH 6.4%
C:-3% `"H_2O_2"` + 10% Tween 80
D:-10% `"H_2O_2"` + 0.85% saline
Ans: A
71:-Hair perforation test is positive in
A:-Trichophyton violaceum B:-Trichophyton mentagrophytes
C:-Trichophyton audouinii D:-Trichophyton schoenleinii
Ans: B
72:-Mode of infection of Ascaris lumbricoides
A:-Penetration of skin by larva B:-Autoinfection
C:-Ingestion of eggs D:-Ingestion of larva
Ans: C
73:-True about microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti
A:-Sheathed, nuclei at the tail tip B:-Sheathed, no nuclei at tail tip
C:-Unsheathed, no nuclei at tail tip D:-Unsheathed and nuclei at tail tip
Ans: B
74:-Dimorphic fungi causing subcutaneous mycosis
A:-Phialophora verrucosa B:-Sporothrix schenckii
C:-Fonsecaea pedrosoi D:-Cladosporium carrionii
Ans: B
75:-Subtype of human immunodeficiency virus 1 more common in India.
A:-Subtype A B:-Subtype B
C:-Subtype C D:-Subtype D
Ans: C
76:-Skin test for diagnosis of hydatid cyst
A:-Casoni's test B:-Schick test
C:-Dick test D:-Frei test
Ans: A
77. Which blotting technique is used for detection of carbohydrate epitope present on proteins or lipids?
(A) Western blot (B) Northern blot
(C) Eastern blot (D) Southern blot
Ans: C
78. Viruses that can remain latent (usually in neurons) for many years are most likely:
(A) Togaviruses (B) Herpesviruses
(C) Enteroviruses (D) Retroviruses
Ans: B
79. Phage typing is employed for typing of following bacteria except:
(A) S. aureus (B) V. cholerae
(C) Streptococcus (D) Brucella
Ans: C
80. Malarial parasite can be cultured in
(A) Blood agar (B) HeLa cell culture
(C) RPMI 1640 (D) NNN medium
Ans: C
81. Most cost effective method to prevent hospital acquired infections:
(A) Alcohol based hand rub (B) Hand wash
(C) Disinfectant use (D) Use of antibiotics
Ans: B
82. Aspergillosis is recognized in tissue by the presence of
(A) Metachromatic granules (B) Psuedohyphae
(C) Septate hyphae (D) Budding cells
Ans: C
83. Seborrhic dermatitis- causative agent is
(A) Candida (B) Dermatophytes
(C) Cryptococcus (D) Malassezia furfur
Ans: D
84. Fungus which cannot be grown on artificial media/not cultivable fungus is?
(A) Rhinosporidium seeberi (B) Penicillium marneffei
(C) Aspergillus flavus (D) Sporothrix schenckii
Ans: A
85. Asteroid bodies is seen in
(A) Sporotrichosis (B) Blastomycosis
(C) Coccidiomycosis (D) Cryptococcosis
Ans: A
86. Reynolds – Braude phenomenon is seen in:
(A) Candida albicans (B) Candida tropicalis
(C) Histoplasma capsulatum (D) Cryptococcus neoformans
Ans: A
87. Drug of choice of Pneumocystis jirovecii
(A) Cotrimoxazole (B) Penicillin
(C) Amphotericin B (D) Clotrimazole
Ans: A
88. Calabar swelling occurs in infection by :
(A) Mansonella ozzardia (B) Loa loa
(C) Onchocerca volvulus (D) Mansonella perstans
Ans: B
89. Which of following acts as vector of Chaga’s disease:
(A) Tsetse fly (B) Deer fly
(C) Reduviid bug (D) Sandfly
Ans: C
90. Paragonimus westermani affects:
(A) Intestine (B) Lung
(C) Liver (D) Blood vessels
Ans: B
91. The zoological name of beef tapeworm is:
(A) Taenia solium (B) Taenia saginata
(C) Hymenolepsis nana (D) Echinococcus granulosus
Ans: B
92. Hookworm leads to deficiency of:
(A) Vitamin A (B) Iron
(C) Vitamin B12 (D) Folic acid
Ans: B
93. In humans, Isospora belli causes:
(A) Meningitis (B) Diarrhea
(C) Pneumonia (D) None of the above
Ans: B
94. Which one of the following factors, released by heating a suspension of sheep erythrocytes, is required for the growth of Haemophilus Influenzae in chocolate agar?
(A) Coagulase (B) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
(C) Hemoglobin (D) Hemolysin
Ans: B
95. A patient develops explosive, watery diarrhea 24 hours after eating seafood. What bacterium is most likely involved?
(A) Campylobacter fetus (B) Salmonella typhimurium
(C) Bacillus cereus (D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Ans: D
96. Adenoviridae, Poxviridae , Herpesviridae are :
(A) Single-stranded DNA virus (B) Single-stranded RNA virus
(C) Double-stranded DNA virus (D) Double-stranded RNA virus
Ans: C
97. Immunoprophylaxis for long duration is achieved by :
(A) Using preformed antibodies (B) Using antitoxin
(C) Vaccination (D) Using Immunoglobulin
Ans: C
98. Which of the following is used to demonstrate Agglutination reaction ?
(A) VDRL test (B) Widal test
(C) RPR test (D) CIEP
Ans: B
99. Step catalysed by Taq polymerase enzyme is:
(A) Denaturation (B) Primer annealing
(C) Extension of Primer (D) DNA Extraction
Ans: C
100. Which of the following is true for Treponema pallidum ?
(A) It is acid fast bacillus (B) It is a spiral bacterium
(C) It contains volutin granules (D) It is capsulated diplococcic
Ans: B