LAW- PAGE 9
1. In Islamic Law, marriage is both ‘Ibadt’ and ‘Mammulat’. Who said this ?
(A) Amir Ali Justice (B) Dr. Fayzee (C) Abdur-Rahim (D) Mahmood Justice
Ans: C
2. A Muslim husband can delegate his right of Talaq to
(A) Any other person (B) Wife only (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
3. A Muslim minor wife can cease her right to repudiate the marriage in case :
(A) when she attained the age of puberty.
(B) when the marriage was consummated before attaining the age of puberty.
(C) when she is less than 18 years of age.
(D) none of the above.
Ans: C
4. Find correct answer using codes given below : Following are main approaches to explain nature and meaning of human rights :
(i) The scientific right theory
(ii) The moral right theory
(iii) The natural right theory
(iv) The legal right theory
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
Ans: C
5. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The purpose of Human Rights is to provide protection against the abuse of power committed by the organs of State.
Reason (R) : Due to absence of Lok Pal the misuse of power by the State cannot be effectively checked.
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
(A) Amir Ali Justice (B) Dr. Fayzee (C) Abdur-Rahim (D) Mahmood Justice
Ans: C
2. A Muslim husband can delegate his right of Talaq to
(A) Any other person (B) Wife only (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
3. A Muslim minor wife can cease her right to repudiate the marriage in case :
(A) when she attained the age of puberty.
(B) when the marriage was consummated before attaining the age of puberty.
(C) when she is less than 18 years of age.
(D) none of the above.
Ans: C
4. Find correct answer using codes given below : Following are main approaches to explain nature and meaning of human rights :
(i) The scientific right theory
(ii) The moral right theory
(iii) The natural right theory
(iv) The legal right theory
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
Ans: C
5. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The purpose of Human Rights is to provide protection against the abuse of power committed by the organs of State.
Reason (R) : Due to absence of Lok Pal the misuse of power by the State cannot be effectively checked.
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
6. The Supreme Court observed that “Parliamentary proceedings are not subject to Fundamental Rights” in the following case :
(A) Keshav Singh Vs Speaker, U.P. Assembly
(B) Gunapati Vs Habibul Hasan
(C) M.S.M. Sharma Vs Srikrishna Sinha
(D) State of Punjab Vs Satpal Dang
Ans: A
7. For the purpose of creating a new State in India an amendment to the Constitution of India must be passed by
(A) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament present and voting.
(B) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament and ratification by not less than 2/3rd majority of the States.
(C) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the States.
(D) A simple majority by the Parliament.
Ans: B
8. Match the following :
(a) Perfect right (i) Which has correlative positive duty.
(b) Negative right (ii) Which has a correlative duty that can be legally enforced.
(c) Imperfect right (iii) A has a right to receive damages.
(d) Positive right (iv) That right which although recognised by State but not enforceable.
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii)
(iv)
Ans: B
9. According to which school, “the purpose of jurisprudence is to analyse and dissect the law of the land as it exists today” ?
(A) Analytical Jurisprudence
(B) Historical Jurisprudence
(C) Sociological Jurisprudence
(D) Philosophical Jurisprudence
Ans: B
10. “The one who holds the property is the owner.” Give your correct response from following on the basis of above statement :
(A) The holder of property may be mere possessor or bailee.
(B) The holder of property need not be the owner.
(C) This statement is not correct.
(D) This statement is correct.
Ans: D
11. The sources of law have been divided into two classes. These are
(A) Divine sources and human sources
(B) Formal sources and material sources
(C) Natural sources and universal sources
(D) (A) and (B) both of the above
Ans: A
12. According to whose theory, “Law is not universal in its nature; like language it varies with people and age” ?
(A) Bentham’s theory
(B) Austin’s theory
(C) Savigny’s theory
(D) Montesquieu’s theory
Ans: A
13. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Law properly so-called (in regard to notion of law) : Which is distinct from morals.
(B) Law improperly so-called (in regard to notion of law) : Other laws.
(C) Audi alteram partem : Rule of natural justice.
(D) Conspectus of justice : Justice denied.
Ans: D
14. Assertion (A) : The Maneka Gandhi’s case is a landmark decision from the point of human rights and remedial jurisprudence.
Reason (R) : From the positivist point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.
Examine the above statements (A) and (R) and select whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
15. Who among the following said that the law of nation is “the body of legal rules which apply between states and such entities as have been granted international personality” ?
(A) Fenwick
(B) Oppeheim
(C) Schwarzenberger
(D) Verdoss
Ans: D
16. The main difference between Defacto and De-jure recognition is
1. De-facto recognition may be withdrawn while De-jure recognition is full and final.
2. Only De-jure recognised states can represent the old states, for the purpose of state succession.
3. In De-jure recognition, formal diplomatic relations are established while in case of Defacto they may not be entered into.
4. Former is legal and the latter is a factual recognition.
(A) 1, 2 & 3
(B) 2, 3 & 4
(C) 2 & 3
(D) 1 & 2
Ans: A
17. A member of the United Nations can be suspended from the exercise of rights and privileges of membership by the
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council
(D) Secretary General on the recommendations of the Security Council
Ans: A
18. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) : International Law consists for the most part of customary rules.
Reason (R) : Customary rules are the original and oldest source of International Law.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: C
19. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted on
(A) December 10, 1948
(B) November 10, 1948
(C) October 20, 1948
(D) January 21, 1948
Ans: C
20. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) : Human Rights occupy a significant place in the UN Charter.
Reason (R) : Members of the UN have committed themselves to promote respect for and observance of human rights and fundamental rights.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
21. Adultery by a Hindu husband is
(A) Ground of divorce only (B) Not a ground of divorce
(C) Ground of judicial separation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
22. ‘A’ marries ‘B’, the widow of the elder brother. The marriage is
(A) Valid (B) Void (C) Voidable (D) None of the above
Ans: B
23. Marriage with an impotent and has not been consummated. The marriage is
(A) Valid (B) Void (C) Nullity (D) Irregular
Ans: A
24. ‘Khula’ is a form of divorce by
(A) Sale (B) Purchase (C) Agreement (D) Coercion
Ans: B
25. Muta marriage could not be dissolved
(A) Ipso facto by the efflux of the period (B) By death
(C) By divorce (D) By Hiba-i-Mudat
Ans: A
26. By which of the following way a Muslim marriage can be dissolved by a Muslim husband ?
(A) Talaq (B) Illa (C) Zihar (D) Above all
Ans: A
27. When a person making a false statement believes the statement to be true and does not intend to mislead to the other party to the contract, it is known as
(A) Mistake (B) Fraud (C) Misrepresentation (D) Undue influence
Ans: D
28. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void.
Reason (R) : Law has no force.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
29. A and B are friends. A told to B to show him a new movie in a posh theatre, upon which A promised to offer him lunch in a 5 star hotel. B showed him a movie in a posh theatre, but A gave lunch to B in a road side dhaba. Decide A’s liability using codes given below :
Codes :
(A) A is liable because there was intention to create legal relation between A and B.
(B) A is not liable because there was no intention to crate legal relation between A and B.
(C) B was mistaken.
(D) A was mistaken.
Ans: B
30. Arrange the following concepts in sequence in which they occur, using codes given below : (i) Offer is communicated. (ii) Counter offer is made. (iii) Offer is rejected. (iv) Counter offer is accepted.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
31. Following are essentials of valid contract :
(i) Parties to contract should have capacity to contract.
(ii) Parties to contract should have legal mind.
(iii) Parties to contract should be intelligent.
(iv) Invitation to offer should be accepted.
Find correct answer, using codes :
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (iv) are correct.
(C) All of above are correct.
(D) Only (ii) is correct.
Ans: C
32. Match items in Table-A with items in Table-B, using codes given below :
Table – A Table – B
(a) Ambiguous and uncertain agreements (i) Section 15
(b) Coercion (ii) Section 25(2)
(c) Past consideration (iii) Section 73
(d) Remoteness of damage (iv) Section 29
Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(B) (c) (b) (d) (a)
(C) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(D) (a) (d) (c) (b)
Ans: D
33. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) Tort is a civil wrong in which claim for unliquidated damages is made.
(B) In tort, action lies against the wrong-doer in a civil court.
(C) For a tortious liability, a jail term can also be awarded.
(D) In some torts an injunction can also be issued against the wrong-doer
Ans: D
34. Which one of the following defences is not available in Law of Tort ?
(A) Volenti non-fit injuria (B) Act of God (C) Contributory negligence (D) Inevitable accident
Ans: A
35. ‘Sometimes it happens that the legal right of a person is violated but he does not suffer any harm.’ From which one of the following maxim we can attribute it ?
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine damno
(C) Volenti non-fit injuria
(D) Res ipsa loquitur
Ans: D
36. The rule of ‘absolute liability’ was laid down by the Supreme Court of India in the following case :
(A) Rylands Vs Fletcher
(B) M.C. Mehta (Sriram Food and Fertilizer Co.) Vs Union of India
(C) M.C. Mehta (C.N.G. Fuel case) Vs Union of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
37. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India gave the ruling that sovereign immunity of the State is subject to the Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain Vs State of U.P.
(B) State of Rajasthan Vs Vidhyawati
(C) People’s Union for Democratic Rights Vs State of Bihar
(D) Shyam Sundar Vs State of Rajasthan
Ans: C
38. The rule laid down in Re Polemis case is that the defendant shall be liable for all
(A) direct consequences of his act.
(B) direct consequences of his act, if he could foresee some damage to the plaintiff from his act.
(C) direct consequences of his act, only if he could foresee the kind of damage which has actually occurred.
(D) foreseeable damage.
Ans: C
39. Match List-I (Jurists) with List-II (Assumptions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(a) Lord T.B. Macauley (i) Preparation of Penal Code of India
(b) Jermy Bentham (ii) Un written jurisprudence on Penal principles
(c) Kelson (iii) Substantive law on crimes
(d) Sir Barnes Peacock (iv) Revision of Penal law
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: B
40. Match List-I (Objectives) with List-II (Propositions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(a) Inchoate crime (i) ‘Whaton’ says it is the begining but not complete.
(b) Attempt (ii) It does not act towards the commission of offence.
(c) Preparation (iii) Culprit commences to do something.
(d) Intention (iv) When preparation merges itself with attempt.
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: C
41. Fill in the blank using appropriate statement. Non Compos Mentis means ______
(A) Not of sound mind.
(B) Who lacks the requisite mens rea.
(C) Unable to know that the act is either wrong or contrary to law.
(D) A concussion of brain.
Ans: D
42. Fill in the blank using appropriate reason. Right to private defence by a friend is generally not available because _______
(A) There was no specified circumstances.
(B) Explanation II of Section 300 IPC is a bar for it.
(C) The act was not with an intention to protect the friend.
(D) The offending party was an aggressor.
Ans: D
43. Read Assertion (I) and Reason (II) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (I) : Section 95 of IPC is intended to prevent penalisation of negligible wrongs of trivial character because :
Reasons (II) :
(a) The injury is negligible.
(b) The victim and the wrongdoer were related to each other.
(c) The injured and the offender were not related by circumstances.
(d) The nature of injury was very minor.
Codes :
(A) (a) is true and (d) is the reason while (b) and (c) are not true.
(B) (b) is true and (c) is the reason while (a) and (d) are false.
(C) (c) is true and (d) is the reason while (a) and (b) are not true.
(D) (d) is the only reason while all others (a), (b) and (c) are false.
Ans: C
44. Fill in the blank : Deceiving dishonestly by inducing a person to retain the property is known as ______ offence.
(A) Concealment (B) Deception by false pretention
(C) Cheating (D) Fraud
Ans: B
45. Which of the following amount to Industrial Dispute ?
(A) Any dispute between Employers and Employees. (B) Between Employers and Workmen.
(C) Between Workmen and Workmen. (D) All these.
Ans: B
46. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “the benefit of running allowance had to be taken into consideration for computing pension only once, at the time of retirement of the employee, not for any future calculation” ?
(A) U.O.I. Vs Dhingara and others (2008) I LLJ 867(SC)
(B) Bennet Coleman & Co. Vs Punya Priyadas AIR 1970 SC 426
(C) State Bank of Patiala Vs phoolpati (2005) II LLJ 473 (SC)
(D) Pearlite Lines Pvt. Ltd. Vs Manorama Sirse (2004) I LLJ 1041 (SC)
Ans: C
47. Which rights remain unaffected, during the pendency of a proceeding before a court of inquiry under Sections 22, 23 and 33 of the I.D. Act, 1947 ?
(A) Workmen to go on strike.
(B) The rights of Employer to dismiss or to punish the workmen.
(C) Employer to lock-out his business.
(D) All the above.
Ans: C
48. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), using codes given below, select the correct answer. Assertion (A) : Termination of service does not amount to retrenchment.
Reason (R) : Amount of loss of retrenchment is more than amount of termination.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
49. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using codes given below choose correct answer.
Assertion (A) : Strike is stoppage of work by a body of persons employed in any service acting in combination.
Reason (R) : Combined work is service oriented.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are false.
(D) (A) is true, (R) is false.
Ans: D
50. Trade unionism to be fully effective demands
(A) Union of trade (B) Trade of union
(C) Democratic spirit and education (D) Soul-elevating and democratic spirits
Ans: A
(A) Keshav Singh Vs Speaker, U.P. Assembly
(B) Gunapati Vs Habibul Hasan
(C) M.S.M. Sharma Vs Srikrishna Sinha
(D) State of Punjab Vs Satpal Dang
Ans: A
7. For the purpose of creating a new State in India an amendment to the Constitution of India must be passed by
(A) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament present and voting.
(B) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament and ratification by not less than 2/3rd majority of the States.
(C) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the States.
(D) A simple majority by the Parliament.
Ans: B
8. Match the following :
(a) Perfect right (i) Which has correlative positive duty.
(b) Negative right (ii) Which has a correlative duty that can be legally enforced.
(c) Imperfect right (iii) A has a right to receive damages.
(d) Positive right (iv) That right which although recognised by State but not enforceable.
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii)
(iv)
Ans: B
9. According to which school, “the purpose of jurisprudence is to analyse and dissect the law of the land as it exists today” ?
(A) Analytical Jurisprudence
(B) Historical Jurisprudence
(C) Sociological Jurisprudence
(D) Philosophical Jurisprudence
Ans: B
10. “The one who holds the property is the owner.” Give your correct response from following on the basis of above statement :
(A) The holder of property may be mere possessor or bailee.
(B) The holder of property need not be the owner.
(C) This statement is not correct.
(D) This statement is correct.
Ans: D
11. The sources of law have been divided into two classes. These are
(A) Divine sources and human sources
(B) Formal sources and material sources
(C) Natural sources and universal sources
(D) (A) and (B) both of the above
Ans: A
12. According to whose theory, “Law is not universal in its nature; like language it varies with people and age” ?
(A) Bentham’s theory
(B) Austin’s theory
(C) Savigny’s theory
(D) Montesquieu’s theory
Ans: A
13. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Law properly so-called (in regard to notion of law) : Which is distinct from morals.
(B) Law improperly so-called (in regard to notion of law) : Other laws.
(C) Audi alteram partem : Rule of natural justice.
(D) Conspectus of justice : Justice denied.
Ans: D
14. Assertion (A) : The Maneka Gandhi’s case is a landmark decision from the point of human rights and remedial jurisprudence.
Reason (R) : From the positivist point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.
Examine the above statements (A) and (R) and select whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
15. Who among the following said that the law of nation is “the body of legal rules which apply between states and such entities as have been granted international personality” ?
(A) Fenwick
(B) Oppeheim
(C) Schwarzenberger
(D) Verdoss
Ans: D
16. The main difference between Defacto and De-jure recognition is
1. De-facto recognition may be withdrawn while De-jure recognition is full and final.
2. Only De-jure recognised states can represent the old states, for the purpose of state succession.
3. In De-jure recognition, formal diplomatic relations are established while in case of Defacto they may not be entered into.
4. Former is legal and the latter is a factual recognition.
(A) 1, 2 & 3
(B) 2, 3 & 4
(C) 2 & 3
(D) 1 & 2
Ans: A
17. A member of the United Nations can be suspended from the exercise of rights and privileges of membership by the
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council
(D) Secretary General on the recommendations of the Security Council
Ans: A
18. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) : International Law consists for the most part of customary rules.
Reason (R) : Customary rules are the original and oldest source of International Law.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: C
19. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted on
(A) December 10, 1948
(B) November 10, 1948
(C) October 20, 1948
(D) January 21, 1948
Ans: C
20. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) : Human Rights occupy a significant place in the UN Charter.
Reason (R) : Members of the UN have committed themselves to promote respect for and observance of human rights and fundamental rights.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
21. Adultery by a Hindu husband is
(A) Ground of divorce only (B) Not a ground of divorce
(C) Ground of judicial separation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
22. ‘A’ marries ‘B’, the widow of the elder brother. The marriage is
(A) Valid (B) Void (C) Voidable (D) None of the above
Ans: B
23. Marriage with an impotent and has not been consummated. The marriage is
(A) Valid (B) Void (C) Nullity (D) Irregular
Ans: A
24. ‘Khula’ is a form of divorce by
(A) Sale (B) Purchase (C) Agreement (D) Coercion
Ans: B
25. Muta marriage could not be dissolved
(A) Ipso facto by the efflux of the period (B) By death
(C) By divorce (D) By Hiba-i-Mudat
Ans: A
26. By which of the following way a Muslim marriage can be dissolved by a Muslim husband ?
(A) Talaq (B) Illa (C) Zihar (D) Above all
Ans: A
27. When a person making a false statement believes the statement to be true and does not intend to mislead to the other party to the contract, it is known as
(A) Mistake (B) Fraud (C) Misrepresentation (D) Undue influence
Ans: D
28. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void.
Reason (R) : Law has no force.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
29. A and B are friends. A told to B to show him a new movie in a posh theatre, upon which A promised to offer him lunch in a 5 star hotel. B showed him a movie in a posh theatre, but A gave lunch to B in a road side dhaba. Decide A’s liability using codes given below :
Codes :
(A) A is liable because there was intention to create legal relation between A and B.
(B) A is not liable because there was no intention to crate legal relation between A and B.
(C) B was mistaken.
(D) A was mistaken.
Ans: B
30. Arrange the following concepts in sequence in which they occur, using codes given below : (i) Offer is communicated. (ii) Counter offer is made. (iii) Offer is rejected. (iv) Counter offer is accepted.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
31. Following are essentials of valid contract :
(i) Parties to contract should have capacity to contract.
(ii) Parties to contract should have legal mind.
(iii) Parties to contract should be intelligent.
(iv) Invitation to offer should be accepted.
Find correct answer, using codes :
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (iv) are correct.
(C) All of above are correct.
(D) Only (ii) is correct.
Ans: C
32. Match items in Table-A with items in Table-B, using codes given below :
Table – A Table – B
(a) Ambiguous and uncertain agreements (i) Section 15
(b) Coercion (ii) Section 25(2)
(c) Past consideration (iii) Section 73
(d) Remoteness of damage (iv) Section 29
Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(B) (c) (b) (d) (a)
(C) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(D) (a) (d) (c) (b)
Ans: D
33. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) Tort is a civil wrong in which claim for unliquidated damages is made.
(B) In tort, action lies against the wrong-doer in a civil court.
(C) For a tortious liability, a jail term can also be awarded.
(D) In some torts an injunction can also be issued against the wrong-doer
Ans: D
34. Which one of the following defences is not available in Law of Tort ?
(A) Volenti non-fit injuria (B) Act of God (C) Contributory negligence (D) Inevitable accident
Ans: A
35. ‘Sometimes it happens that the legal right of a person is violated but he does not suffer any harm.’ From which one of the following maxim we can attribute it ?
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine damno
(C) Volenti non-fit injuria
(D) Res ipsa loquitur
Ans: D
36. The rule of ‘absolute liability’ was laid down by the Supreme Court of India in the following case :
(A) Rylands Vs Fletcher
(B) M.C. Mehta (Sriram Food and Fertilizer Co.) Vs Union of India
(C) M.C. Mehta (C.N.G. Fuel case) Vs Union of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
37. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India gave the ruling that sovereign immunity of the State is subject to the Fundamental Rights ?
(A) Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain Vs State of U.P.
(B) State of Rajasthan Vs Vidhyawati
(C) People’s Union for Democratic Rights Vs State of Bihar
(D) Shyam Sundar Vs State of Rajasthan
Ans: C
38. The rule laid down in Re Polemis case is that the defendant shall be liable for all
(A) direct consequences of his act.
(B) direct consequences of his act, if he could foresee some damage to the plaintiff from his act.
(C) direct consequences of his act, only if he could foresee the kind of damage which has actually occurred.
(D) foreseeable damage.
Ans: C
39. Match List-I (Jurists) with List-II (Assumptions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(a) Lord T.B. Macauley (i) Preparation of Penal Code of India
(b) Jermy Bentham (ii) Un written jurisprudence on Penal principles
(c) Kelson (iii) Substantive law on crimes
(d) Sir Barnes Peacock (iv) Revision of Penal law
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: B
40. Match List-I (Objectives) with List-II (Propositions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(a) Inchoate crime (i) ‘Whaton’ says it is the begining but not complete.
(b) Attempt (ii) It does not act towards the commission of offence.
(c) Preparation (iii) Culprit commences to do something.
(d) Intention (iv) When preparation merges itself with attempt.
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: C
41. Fill in the blank using appropriate statement. Non Compos Mentis means ______
(A) Not of sound mind.
(B) Who lacks the requisite mens rea.
(C) Unable to know that the act is either wrong or contrary to law.
(D) A concussion of brain.
Ans: D
42. Fill in the blank using appropriate reason. Right to private defence by a friend is generally not available because _______
(A) There was no specified circumstances.
(B) Explanation II of Section 300 IPC is a bar for it.
(C) The act was not with an intention to protect the friend.
(D) The offending party was an aggressor.
Ans: D
43. Read Assertion (I) and Reason (II) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (I) : Section 95 of IPC is intended to prevent penalisation of negligible wrongs of trivial character because :
Reasons (II) :
(a) The injury is negligible.
(b) The victim and the wrongdoer were related to each other.
(c) The injured and the offender were not related by circumstances.
(d) The nature of injury was very minor.
Codes :
(A) (a) is true and (d) is the reason while (b) and (c) are not true.
(B) (b) is true and (c) is the reason while (a) and (d) are false.
(C) (c) is true and (d) is the reason while (a) and (b) are not true.
(D) (d) is the only reason while all others (a), (b) and (c) are false.
Ans: C
44. Fill in the blank : Deceiving dishonestly by inducing a person to retain the property is known as ______ offence.
(A) Concealment (B) Deception by false pretention
(C) Cheating (D) Fraud
Ans: B
45. Which of the following amount to Industrial Dispute ?
(A) Any dispute between Employers and Employees. (B) Between Employers and Workmen.
(C) Between Workmen and Workmen. (D) All these.
Ans: B
46. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “the benefit of running allowance had to be taken into consideration for computing pension only once, at the time of retirement of the employee, not for any future calculation” ?
(A) U.O.I. Vs Dhingara and others (2008) I LLJ 867(SC)
(B) Bennet Coleman & Co. Vs Punya Priyadas AIR 1970 SC 426
(C) State Bank of Patiala Vs phoolpati (2005) II LLJ 473 (SC)
(D) Pearlite Lines Pvt. Ltd. Vs Manorama Sirse (2004) I LLJ 1041 (SC)
Ans: C
47. Which rights remain unaffected, during the pendency of a proceeding before a court of inquiry under Sections 22, 23 and 33 of the I.D. Act, 1947 ?
(A) Workmen to go on strike.
(B) The rights of Employer to dismiss or to punish the workmen.
(C) Employer to lock-out his business.
(D) All the above.
Ans: C
48. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), using codes given below, select the correct answer. Assertion (A) : Termination of service does not amount to retrenchment.
Reason (R) : Amount of loss of retrenchment is more than amount of termination.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
49. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using codes given below choose correct answer.
Assertion (A) : Strike is stoppage of work by a body of persons employed in any service acting in combination.
Reason (R) : Combined work is service oriented.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are false.
(D) (A) is true, (R) is false.
Ans: D
50. Trade unionism to be fully effective demands
(A) Union of trade (B) Trade of union
(C) Democratic spirit and education (D) Soul-elevating and democratic spirits
Ans: A
51. “It is likely that free India may be federal India, though in any event there would be a great deal of Unitary Control.” This statement was made by
(A) Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyyer (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Ans: C
52. Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on
(A) Precedents and conventions (B) Rule of law
(C) Due process of law (D) Procedure established by law
Ans: D
53. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government because :
(A) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
(B) The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(C) The President, the head of the executive, is answerable to Parliament.
(D) The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is accountable to Parliament.
Ans: A
54. The Supreme Court held that Election Commissioners cannot be placed on par with the Chief Election Commissioner in terms of power and authority in the following case :
(A) S.S. Dhannoa Vs Union of India (B) T.N. Seshan Vs Union of India
(C) A.C. Jose Vs Sivan Pillai (D) Venkatachalam Vs A. Swamickan
Ans: B
55. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of Parliament is
(A) Three months
(B) Four months
(C) Five months
(D) Six months
Ans: B
(A) Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyyer (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Ans: C
52. Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on
(A) Precedents and conventions (B) Rule of law
(C) Due process of law (D) Procedure established by law
Ans: D
53. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government because :
(A) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
(B) The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(C) The President, the head of the executive, is answerable to Parliament.
(D) The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is accountable to Parliament.
Ans: A
54. The Supreme Court held that Election Commissioners cannot be placed on par with the Chief Election Commissioner in terms of power and authority in the following case :
(A) S.S. Dhannoa Vs Union of India (B) T.N. Seshan Vs Union of India
(C) A.C. Jose Vs Sivan Pillai (D) Venkatachalam Vs A. Swamickan
Ans: B
55. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of Parliament is
(A) Three months
(B) Four months
(C) Five months
(D) Six months
Ans: B
56. Which one of the following is correct according to Art I of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 ?
(A) All human beings are born free and equal in rights. (B) All human beings are born free, equal and dignity
(C) All human beings are equal in dignity and rights. (D) All human beings are born free and equal in rights and dignity.
Ans: D
57. Regional Human Rights Court does not exist in
(A) Africa (B) Europe (C) America (D) Asia
Ans: D
58. Which protocol to the European Convention on Human Rights has abolished European Commission of Human Rights ?
(A) Protocol 1 (B) Protocol 2 (C) Protocol 3 (D) Protocol 11
Ans: D
59. Which one of the following convention has neither interstate communication procedure nor individual communication procedure ?
(A) International Convention on Civil and Political Rights (B) International Convention on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
(C) Convention on the Rights of Child. (D) Convention on the Rights of persons with Disabilities.
Ans: C
60. The term of the office of the Chairperson and Members of the NHRC under Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 is
(A) 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
(B) 4 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
(C) 3 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.
(D) 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.
Ans: A
61. The Chairperson of National Commission on Minorities shall be deemed member of
(A) Human Rights Council
(B) Law Commission of India
(C) National Human Rights Commission
(D) International Law Commission
Ans: C
62. Which one of the following is an ‘actionable’ wrong ?
(A) Injuria sine damnum
(B) Damnum sine injuria
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
63. Which of the following is the gist of tortious liability ?
(A) Legal damages
(B) Violation of legal right
(C) Availability of legal duty
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
64. The Rule of Absolute Liability is subject to
(A) All the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(B) Half of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(C) None of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(D) All the exceptions mentioned in rule of M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
Ans: C
65. Assertion (A) : If a person speaks ill of the business which X is doing, it amounts to defamation.
Reason (R) : Slander is actionable per se.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
66. In res Ipsa Loquitor :
(1) Presumption of negligence is there.
(2) Plaintiff has to bring direct evidence.
(3) Plaintiff is discharged from the duty of proving negligence on the part of the defendant.
(4) Court does not give chance to defendant to avoid his liability.
Codes :
(A) (1) and (2) are correct.
(B) (1), (2) and (4) are correct.
(C) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
(D) (1) and (3) are correct.
Ans: D
67. Which one of the following statements is true ?
(A) Both public as well as private nuisance are punishable under criminal law.
(B) Only private nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while there is no punishment for general nuisance.
(C) Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law while private nuisance is a moral wrong only.
(D) Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while private nuisance under civil law.
Ans: D
68. For constituting tort of nuisance, there should be
(A) Unreasonable interference
(B) Interference should be with the use of enjoyment of land.
(C) Damage
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
69. Partnership is based on
(A) Mutual trust
(B) Mutual benefit
(C) Mutual interest
(D) Mutual agency
Ans: B
70. Which statements are correct ?
(i) An undisclosed principal can intervene against express terms.
(ii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene against express terms.
(iii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
(iv) An undisclosed principal can intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
Ans: B
71. Read the following passage, and match the column : A negotiable instrument contains a contract and therefore must be supported by consideration. In order to be a holder in due course, the holder must have obtained the instrument before its maturity. An instrument payable on demand is current at least as long as no demand for payment is made. To make a holder in due course, the instrument must be complete and regular. A postdated cheque may not be complete and regular.
Column – P Column – Q
(a) Negotiable instrument (i) Before maturity
(b) Holder in due course (ii) Demand for payment
(c) Currency of instrument (iii) Post dated cheque
(d) Complete and regular (iv) Consideration
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans: C
72. Assertion (A) : Every public company shall have at least three and every private company at least two Directors. Reason (R) : Directors are trustees for the company and not for individual shareholders.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an explanation for (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is an explanation for (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
73. Arrange the following concepts in a sequence in which they appeared. Use the code given below :
(i) Right of an unpaid seller to stop goods in transit.
(ii) Agreement to sell goods.
(iii) Damages for breach of contract of sale of goods.
(iv) Conditions and warranties.
Codes :
(A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Ans: B
74. Which statements are correct ?
(i) Partner has a duty of good faith.
(ii) Partner has duty not to compete.
(iii) Partner has duty of due diligence.
(iv) Partner has duty to indemnify for fraud.
Codes :
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
75. Match an item in List P with an item in List Q :
List – P List – Q
(a) Removal of Directors by Company Law Board (i) Section 318
(b) Duty of Directors to disclose interest (ii) Sections 299 – 300
(c) Compensation for loss of office of Director (iii) Section 402
(d) Director with unlimited liability (iv) Sections 322 – 323
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
(A) All human beings are born free and equal in rights. (B) All human beings are born free, equal and dignity
(C) All human beings are equal in dignity and rights. (D) All human beings are born free and equal in rights and dignity.
Ans: D
57. Regional Human Rights Court does not exist in
(A) Africa (B) Europe (C) America (D) Asia
Ans: D
58. Which protocol to the European Convention on Human Rights has abolished European Commission of Human Rights ?
(A) Protocol 1 (B) Protocol 2 (C) Protocol 3 (D) Protocol 11
Ans: D
59. Which one of the following convention has neither interstate communication procedure nor individual communication procedure ?
(A) International Convention on Civil and Political Rights (B) International Convention on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
(C) Convention on the Rights of Child. (D) Convention on the Rights of persons with Disabilities.
Ans: C
60. The term of the office of the Chairperson and Members of the NHRC under Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 is
(A) 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
(B) 4 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
(C) 3 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.
(D) 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.
Ans: A
61. The Chairperson of National Commission on Minorities shall be deemed member of
(A) Human Rights Council
(B) Law Commission of India
(C) National Human Rights Commission
(D) International Law Commission
Ans: C
62. Which one of the following is an ‘actionable’ wrong ?
(A) Injuria sine damnum
(B) Damnum sine injuria
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
63. Which of the following is the gist of tortious liability ?
(A) Legal damages
(B) Violation of legal right
(C) Availability of legal duty
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
64. The Rule of Absolute Liability is subject to
(A) All the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(B) Half of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(C) None of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(D) All the exceptions mentioned in rule of M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
Ans: C
65. Assertion (A) : If a person speaks ill of the business which X is doing, it amounts to defamation.
Reason (R) : Slander is actionable per se.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
66. In res Ipsa Loquitor :
(1) Presumption of negligence is there.
(2) Plaintiff has to bring direct evidence.
(3) Plaintiff is discharged from the duty of proving negligence on the part of the defendant.
(4) Court does not give chance to defendant to avoid his liability.
Codes :
(A) (1) and (2) are correct.
(B) (1), (2) and (4) are correct.
(C) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
(D) (1) and (3) are correct.
Ans: D
67. Which one of the following statements is true ?
(A) Both public as well as private nuisance are punishable under criminal law.
(B) Only private nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while there is no punishment for general nuisance.
(C) Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law while private nuisance is a moral wrong only.
(D) Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while private nuisance under civil law.
Ans: D
68. For constituting tort of nuisance, there should be
(A) Unreasonable interference
(B) Interference should be with the use of enjoyment of land.
(C) Damage
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
69. Partnership is based on
(A) Mutual trust
(B) Mutual benefit
(C) Mutual interest
(D) Mutual agency
Ans: B
70. Which statements are correct ?
(i) An undisclosed principal can intervene against express terms.
(ii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene against express terms.
(iii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
(iv) An undisclosed principal can intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
Ans: B
71. Read the following passage, and match the column : A negotiable instrument contains a contract and therefore must be supported by consideration. In order to be a holder in due course, the holder must have obtained the instrument before its maturity. An instrument payable on demand is current at least as long as no demand for payment is made. To make a holder in due course, the instrument must be complete and regular. A postdated cheque may not be complete and regular.
Column – P Column – Q
(a) Negotiable instrument (i) Before maturity
(b) Holder in due course (ii) Demand for payment
(c) Currency of instrument (iii) Post dated cheque
(d) Complete and regular (iv) Consideration
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans: C
72. Assertion (A) : Every public company shall have at least three and every private company at least two Directors. Reason (R) : Directors are trustees for the company and not for individual shareholders.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an explanation for (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is an explanation for (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
73. Arrange the following concepts in a sequence in which they appeared. Use the code given below :
(i) Right of an unpaid seller to stop goods in transit.
(ii) Agreement to sell goods.
(iii) Damages for breach of contract of sale of goods.
(iv) Conditions and warranties.
Codes :
(A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Ans: B
74. Which statements are correct ?
(i) Partner has a duty of good faith.
(ii) Partner has duty not to compete.
(iii) Partner has duty of due diligence.
(iv) Partner has duty to indemnify for fraud.
Codes :
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
75. Match an item in List P with an item in List Q :
List – P List – Q
(a) Removal of Directors by Company Law Board (i) Section 318
(b) Duty of Directors to disclose interest (ii) Sections 299 – 300
(c) Compensation for loss of office of Director (iii) Section 402
(d) Director with unlimited liability (iv) Sections 322 – 323
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
76. A member of the United Nations which has persistently violated the principles contained in the Charter may be expelled from the United Nations by the
(A) Security Council
(B) General Assembly
(C) General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council
(D) Security Council upon the recommendation of the General Assembly
Ans: C
77. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) General Assembly upon recommendation of the Security Council
(D) General Assembly and the Security Council independently of one another
Ans: D
78. Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 the natural guardian of a minor child is
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Both Mother and Father
(D) Either Mother or Father
Ans: B
79. A Muslim wife can relinquish her Mahr
(A) When she is minor (B) When she has attained the age of puberty
(C) When she is not less than 18 years of age (D) When she is not less than 21 years of age.
Ans: C
80. In Islamic Law “Faskh” means
(A) Restitution of conjugal rights
(B) Judicial separation
(C) Dissolution or rescission of the contract of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of the husband.
(D) Dissolution on rescission of the contract of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of the wife.
Ans: C
81. Muta marriage is recognised by
(A) Hanafi School (B) Maliki School (C) Ithna Ashari School (D) Hanbali School
Ans: C
82. The term ‘Hindu’ denotes the person (i) Professing Hindu Religion (ii) Professing Buddh, Jain or Sikh Religion (iii) Who are not professing Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew Religion. In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct ?
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is incorrect.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct and (i) is incorrect.
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are all correct.
Ans: D
83. Match the List – I with List – II using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Void Marriages (i) Section 9
(b) Voidable marriages (ii) Section 11
(c) Divorce (iii) Section 13
(d) Restitution of Conjugal Rights (iv) Section 12
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (I)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
84. In which of the following case the Court held that Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act was Constitutionally violative of right to Human dignity and privacy ?
(A) Bipin Chandra vs. Prabhavati
(B) T. Sareetha vs. T. Venkatasubah
(C) Lachman vs. Meena
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
85. Match the List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below : List-I List-II (a) Pre-Marriage Pregnancy (i) Divorce (b) Marriage within Prohibited Degree Relationship (ii) Voidable Marriage (c) Cruelty (iii) Void Marriage (d) When any spouse without reasonable excuse withdraws from the society of the other (iv) Restitution of Conjugal Rights
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
86. International Women’s Day is celebrated every year on
(A) 2nd March (B) 4th March
(C) 6th March (D) 8th March
Ans: D
87. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife is
(A) A fundamental right
(B) One of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(C) One of the Fundamental Duties
(D) Both one of the Directive Principles of State Policy and one of the Fundamental Duties
Ans: D
88. Who stated that international law is not true law but ‘positive international morality’ only, analogous to the rules binding a club or society ?
(A) Oscar Schachter (B) John Austin (C) Louis Flenkin (D) Hans Kelson
Ans: B
89. Opino juris sive necessitatis means
(A) Opinions of jurists is necessary evidence for determining rules of international custom
(B) Opinions of jurists is not necessary for ascertaining the rules of international law
(C) The feeling on the part of States that in acting as they do they are fulfilling a legal obligation
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
90. Which of the following cases supports constitutive theory of recognition, namely, the act of recognition alone confers international personality on an entity purporting to be a state or clothes new government with an authority to enter into international relations ?
(A) The Arantzazu Mendi, (1939) A.C. P 256
(B) A.M. Luther Vs. James Sagor & Co, (1921) 3 K.B. P.532
(C) Tinoco Concessions, (1923) 1 United Nations Reports of International Arbitral Awards P 369
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
91. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Nationality is the evidence of the link or relations of an individual with the State whereas domicile denotes de facto residence of an individual in a State with an intention to permanently settle there.
(B) Nationality is an evidence of residence of an individual with an intention to permanently settle there.
(C) Domicile denotes the link or relations of an individual with the State.
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
92. The Charter of the Untied Nations came into force on
(A) 26 June 1945
(B) 10 December 1945
(C) 24 October 1945
(D) 1 November 1945
Ans: C
(A) Security Council
(B) General Assembly
(C) General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council
(D) Security Council upon the recommendation of the General Assembly
Ans: C
77. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) General Assembly upon recommendation of the Security Council
(D) General Assembly and the Security Council independently of one another
Ans: D
78. Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 the natural guardian of a minor child is
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Both Mother and Father
(D) Either Mother or Father
Ans: B
79. A Muslim wife can relinquish her Mahr
(A) When she is minor (B) When she has attained the age of puberty
(C) When she is not less than 18 years of age (D) When she is not less than 21 years of age.
Ans: C
80. In Islamic Law “Faskh” means
(A) Restitution of conjugal rights
(B) Judicial separation
(C) Dissolution or rescission of the contract of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of the husband.
(D) Dissolution on rescission of the contract of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of the wife.
Ans: C
81. Muta marriage is recognised by
(A) Hanafi School (B) Maliki School (C) Ithna Ashari School (D) Hanbali School
Ans: C
82. The term ‘Hindu’ denotes the person (i) Professing Hindu Religion (ii) Professing Buddh, Jain or Sikh Religion (iii) Who are not professing Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew Religion. In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct ?
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is incorrect.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct and (i) is incorrect.
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are all correct.
Ans: D
83. Match the List – I with List – II using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Void Marriages (i) Section 9
(b) Voidable marriages (ii) Section 11
(c) Divorce (iii) Section 13
(d) Restitution of Conjugal Rights (iv) Section 12
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (I)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
84. In which of the following case the Court held that Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act was Constitutionally violative of right to Human dignity and privacy ?
(A) Bipin Chandra vs. Prabhavati
(B) T. Sareetha vs. T. Venkatasubah
(C) Lachman vs. Meena
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
85. Match the List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below : List-I List-II (a) Pre-Marriage Pregnancy (i) Divorce (b) Marriage within Prohibited Degree Relationship (ii) Voidable Marriage (c) Cruelty (iii) Void Marriage (d) When any spouse without reasonable excuse withdraws from the society of the other (iv) Restitution of Conjugal Rights
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
86. International Women’s Day is celebrated every year on
(A) 2nd March (B) 4th March
(C) 6th March (D) 8th March
Ans: D
87. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife is
(A) A fundamental right
(B) One of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(C) One of the Fundamental Duties
(D) Both one of the Directive Principles of State Policy and one of the Fundamental Duties
Ans: D
88. Who stated that international law is not true law but ‘positive international morality’ only, analogous to the rules binding a club or society ?
(A) Oscar Schachter (B) John Austin (C) Louis Flenkin (D) Hans Kelson
Ans: B
89. Opino juris sive necessitatis means
(A) Opinions of jurists is necessary evidence for determining rules of international custom
(B) Opinions of jurists is not necessary for ascertaining the rules of international law
(C) The feeling on the part of States that in acting as they do they are fulfilling a legal obligation
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
90. Which of the following cases supports constitutive theory of recognition, namely, the act of recognition alone confers international personality on an entity purporting to be a state or clothes new government with an authority to enter into international relations ?
(A) The Arantzazu Mendi, (1939) A.C. P 256
(B) A.M. Luther Vs. James Sagor & Co, (1921) 3 K.B. P.532
(C) Tinoco Concessions, (1923) 1 United Nations Reports of International Arbitral Awards P 369
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
91. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Nationality is the evidence of the link or relations of an individual with the State whereas domicile denotes de facto residence of an individual in a State with an intention to permanently settle there.
(B) Nationality is an evidence of residence of an individual with an intention to permanently settle there.
(C) Domicile denotes the link or relations of an individual with the State.
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
92. The Charter of the Untied Nations came into force on
(A) 26 June 1945
(B) 10 December 1945
(C) 24 October 1945
(D) 1 November 1945
Ans: C
93. Fill in the gap which is more appropriate. Inducing a girl under 18 years of age to go away with him from _________ is an offence of
(A) Normal home (B) Place of work (C) Domestic area (D) Any place
Ans: D
94. Find the correct answer : The principle of intergenerational equity envisages :
(A) Conservation of options (B) Conservation of quality (C) Conservation of access (D) All the above
Ans: D
95. Find the correct answer : The Supreme Court allowed compensation of 23.84 lakhs and later allowed additional compensation of 47 lakhs to the farmers whose crops got damaged, being irrigated by subsoil water drawn from a stream which was polluted from untreated effluents of 22 industries. It was decided in the case of
(A) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum vs. Union of India
(B) Indian Council For Environment Action vs. Union of India
(C) S. Jagannath vs. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India
Ans: B
96. The concept of sustainable development contains which of the following essentials ?
(A) The precautionary principle (B) The polluter pays principle (C) The doctrine of public trust (D) All above
Ans: D
97. Assertion (A) : The Supreme Court in Banwasi Seva Ashram vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, permitted the government agency to acquire the forest land, ousting certain tribal dwellers to implement a power project only after they agreed to provide certain facilities approved by the Court.
Reason (R) : Because the governmental action had an environmental impact that threatened to dislocate poor forest dwellers and disrupt their life-style infringing their fundamental right to life, which include the right to livelihood.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
Ans: D
98. The Supreme Court observed that noise pollution cannot be tolerated, even if such noise was a direct result of and was connected with religious activities in the case of
(A) A.P. Pollution Control Board vs. Prof M.V. Naidu
(B) Church of God (Full Gospel) in India vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association.
(C) K.M. Chinappa vs. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India
Ans: B
99. Assertion (A) : Nobody can claim a fundamental right to create noise pollution by amplifying the sound of his speech with the help of loudspeaker.
Reason (R) : While one has a right to speech, others have a right to listen or decline to listen. Anyone who wishes to live in peace, comfort and quiet within his house has a fundamental right to prevent the noise as pollution reaching him.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A)
Ans: D
100. In which of the following cases it was held that there is no reason to compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution ?
(A) Samantha vs. State of A.P.
(B) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
(C) Murli Deora vs. Union of India
(D) Sheela Barse vs. Union of India
Ans: C
(A) Normal home (B) Place of work (C) Domestic area (D) Any place
Ans: D
94. Find the correct answer : The principle of intergenerational equity envisages :
(A) Conservation of options (B) Conservation of quality (C) Conservation of access (D) All the above
Ans: D
95. Find the correct answer : The Supreme Court allowed compensation of 23.84 lakhs and later allowed additional compensation of 47 lakhs to the farmers whose crops got damaged, being irrigated by subsoil water drawn from a stream which was polluted from untreated effluents of 22 industries. It was decided in the case of
(A) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum vs. Union of India
(B) Indian Council For Environment Action vs. Union of India
(C) S. Jagannath vs. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India
Ans: B
96. The concept of sustainable development contains which of the following essentials ?
(A) The precautionary principle (B) The polluter pays principle (C) The doctrine of public trust (D) All above
Ans: D
97. Assertion (A) : The Supreme Court in Banwasi Seva Ashram vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, permitted the government agency to acquire the forest land, ousting certain tribal dwellers to implement a power project only after they agreed to provide certain facilities approved by the Court.
Reason (R) : Because the governmental action had an environmental impact that threatened to dislocate poor forest dwellers and disrupt their life-style infringing their fundamental right to life, which include the right to livelihood.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
Ans: D
98. The Supreme Court observed that noise pollution cannot be tolerated, even if such noise was a direct result of and was connected with religious activities in the case of
(A) A.P. Pollution Control Board vs. Prof M.V. Naidu
(B) Church of God (Full Gospel) in India vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association.
(C) K.M. Chinappa vs. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India
Ans: B
99. Assertion (A) : Nobody can claim a fundamental right to create noise pollution by amplifying the sound of his speech with the help of loudspeaker.
Reason (R) : While one has a right to speech, others have a right to listen or decline to listen. Anyone who wishes to live in peace, comfort and quiet within his house has a fundamental right to prevent the noise as pollution reaching him.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A)
Ans: D
100. In which of the following cases it was held that there is no reason to compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution ?
(A) Samantha vs. State of A.P.
(B) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
(C) Murli Deora vs. Union of India
(D) Sheela Barse vs. Union of India
Ans: C