LAW- PAGE 7
1. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by
(A) The Constitution First Amendment Act. (B) The Constitution Second Amendment Act
(C) The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act. (D) The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act.
Ans: A
2. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India as per
(A) Article 40 (B) Article 43 (C) Article 44 (D) Article 48
Ans: C
3. In India sovereignty lies with
(A) The Constitution (B) The Supreme Court (C) The Parliament (D) The People
Ans: D
4. The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in
(A) Bhikaji Narain Dhakras Vs State of M.P. (B) Bashesharnath Vs Income Tax Commissioner.
(C) State of W.B. Vs Anwar Ali Sarkar (D) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India
Ans: A
5. The satisfaction of the President means the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers and not his personal satisfaction, held in
(A) Samsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
(B) U.N. Rao Vs Indira Gandhi
(C) Ram Jawaya Kapoor Vs State of Punjab
(D) Sardar Lal Vs Union Government
Ans: A
6. The Concurrent List was described as a ‘Twilight Zone’, as it were for both the Union and the States are competent to legislate in this field without coming in to conflict” is stated by
(A) Basu, D.D. (B) Dicey, A.V. (C) Pyle, M.V. (D) Ambedkar, B.
Ans: C
7. Article 360 has been invoked
(A) only one time. (B) two times. (C) three times. (D) never invoked
Ans: D
8. “Jurisprudence is concerned primarily with the effects of law upon society and only to a lesser extent with questions about the social determination of law.” Who said it ?
(A) Roscoe Pound (B) Eugen Ehrlich (C) Emile Durkheim (D) Max Weber
Ans: A
9. “True law is that which has right reason in agreement with nature” was propagated by
(A) Cicero (B) Hart (C) Grotius (D) Salmond
Ans: C
10. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List – I List – II
I. Privilege a. Gives content to the claim of a person
II. Duty b. Freedom from claim of another
III. Power c. Have no correlative claim according to Austin
IV. Absolute Duty d. Ability of a person to change legal relations.
Codes :
(A) I-a II- b III-d IV-c
(B) I-b II-a III-d IV-c
(C) I-a II-b III-c IV-d
(D) I-b II-a III-c IV-d
Ans: B
11. ‘X’ a servant finds a bag at the basement of the shop. He hands it over to ‘Y’ the owner of the shop, who asks him to place it in the almirah. Now, the bag is in possession of
(A) ‘X’ because he was the finder.
(B) ‘Y’ because he was the owner of the shop.
(C) ‘X’ because he has kept it in the almirah.
(D) ‘Y’ because in him there was union of corpus and animus.
Ans: D
12. Which one of the following jurists emphasised that “We cannot understand what a thing is unless we study what it does” ?
(A) Salmond (B) Roscoe Pound (C) Kelsen (D) Austin
Ans: A
13. Who defines ‘ownership as planary control over an object’ ?
(A) Austin (B) Salmond (C) Holland (D) Savigny
Ans: C
14. Assertion (A) : A legal right is a legally protected interest.
Reason (R) : An element of advantage is essential to constitute right.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
15. Assertion (A) : International Law Commission has initiated studies and prepared draft codes on diverse fields in international law. Reason (R) : International Law Commission was established under General Assembly Resolution No. 174 (11) adopted on 21 November 1947 with an object to promote, progressively develop and codify international law.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(C) (R) is true but (A) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
16. Match List - I with List - II.
List – I Declaration/ Treaty/Convention
List – II Year of Adoption
a. Universal Declaration of Human Rights i. 1948
b. International Convention on Civil and Political Rights ii. 1966
c. Convention on the Rights of the Child iii. 2006
d. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities iv. 1999
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii ii iv I
Ans: A
17. Jus Cogens means
(A) Peremptory norm of international law. (B) Norm of international law.
(C) Peremptory norm which does not permit derogation. (D) None of the above.
Ans: C
18. Which one of the following is primary source of international law ?
(A) Decisions of International Court of Justice. (B) Resolutions of U.N. General Assembly.
(C) General Principles of law recognized by Civilized Nations. (D) None of the above
Ans: C
19. Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council ?
(A) U.K. (B) U.S.A. (C) Japan (D) China
Ans: C
20. “Recognition operates retroactively not to invalidate the acts of a former government, but to validate the acts of a de facto government which has become the new de jure government.” has been held by the court in the case of :
(A) Civil Air Transport Inc. Vs Central Air Transport Corporation. (B) A.M. Luther Vs Sagar & Co.
(C) The Arantzazu Mendi (D) Gdynia Ameryka Linie Vs Boguslawski.
Ans: B
21. Rules relating to sapinda relationship are based on
(A) Principle of Endogamy (B) Principle of Exogamy (C) Principle of Polygamy (D) Principle of Monogamy
Ans: B
22. On the ground of barrenness or sterility, marriage can be
(A) voidable (B) void (C) both (A) and (B) (D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: D
23. Breakdown theory of divorce is reflected in
(A) Section 13 (1) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. (B) Section 13 (2) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
(C) Section 13 (IA) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. (D) Section 13 (B) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
Ans: C
24. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Ashok Hura Vs Rupa Hura case i. Restitution of Conjugal Rights
b. Bipin Chandra Vs Prabhavati ii. Uniform Civil Code
c. Sarla Mudugal Vs Union of India iii. Dessertion
d. T. Sareetha Vs State of A.P. iv. Divorce by Mutual Consent.
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv (B) iv iii ii i (C) ii iii i iv (D) iv iii i ii
Ans: B
25. Arrange the grounds of divorce in the order in which they appear in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Use the codes given below :
(I) Mutual consent (II) Break down (III) Fault (IV) Customary
Codes :
(A) III II I IV
(B) II III IV I
(C) I II III IV
(D) IV III I II
Ans: D
26. The petition for divorce by mutual consent may be presented if the spouses have been living separately for a period of
(A) One year (B) Two years (C) Three years (D) None of the above
Ans: A
27. An offer and an acceptance to it must be in the
(A) same time
(B) same place
(C) same sense
(D) none of above
Ans: C
28. Which of the following statements are true ?
(i) Past consideration is no consideration under Indian and English Law.
(ii) Past consideration is no consideration under Indian Law.
(iii) Past consideration is no consideration under English Law.
(iv) Past consideration is made in past.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) and (I)
Ans: C
29. Assertion (A) : When subject matter of a contract is destroyed, the contract is frustrated.
Reason (R) : Frustration of a contract frustrates a party to the contract.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
30. Arrange the following concepts in which they appeared. Use the code given below : (i) Invitation to offer (ii) Damage (iii) Offer (iv) Damages
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
Ans: A
31. Match an item in List – I with an item in List – II, using code given below :
List – I List – II
i. Capacity 1. Breach
ii. Damages 2. Unruly horse
iii. Remedy 3. Compensation
iv. Public policy 4. Sound mind
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: D
32. Which one of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Novation of contract - Section 62 (B) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings - Section 29
(C) Tender of performance - Section 38 (D) Unlawful object and consideration - Section 23
Ans: B
33. Which one of the following is not an example of vicarious liability ?
(A) Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent. (B) Liability of partners for each others’ tort.
(C) Liability of the master for the tort of his servant. (D) Liability of the parents for the tort of the children.
Ans: D
34. Match List – I and List – II , select the correct answer by using codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Injuria sine damnum 1. Reylands Vs Fletcher
b. Damnum sine injuria 2. Gloucester’s Case
c. Strict liability 3. Volenti non fit injuria
d. Defence of consent 4. Ashby Vs White
Codes : a b c d
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans: A
35. Rule of absolute liability was propounded by
(A) Justice Bhagwati (B) Justice Sodhi (C) Justice Ahmadi (D) Justice Kuldeep Singh
Ans: A
36. Which one of the defence to strict liability is based on the maxim, volenti non fit injuria ?
(A) Consent of the plaintiff (B) Act of God (C) Act of Third Party (D) Statutory Authority
Ans: A
37. Mental condition of the wrong-doer at the time of wrong doing is
(A) relevant in all torts.
(B) relevant to torts based on fault.
(C) relevant in torts based on strict liability.
(D) not relevant in tortious liability.
Ans: B
38. Consider the following set of legal propositions :
(1) A person can claim damages for all wrongs he has suffered.
(2) A person can claim damages for wrongs only if they are caused intentionally.
(3) A person can claim damages for a wrong if it is caused by infringement of the legal right.
(4) A person can claim damages even if he has suffered no loss.
Of these above propositions which are correct ?
(A) (1) and (2)
(B) (3) and (4)
(C) (1) and (3)
(D) (2) and (4)
Ans: B
39. Which of the meaning given for the maxim “Actus me invite factus non est mens actus” is correct ?
(A) Merely a voluntary act by me will not be a crime with a criminal intention.
(B) An act done by me against my will is not my act.
(C) Neither I nor my person can be held liable for an act done under compulsion.
(D) All of them.
Ans: B
40. The general principles as to protection of an accused is based on :
(i) Autrefois acquit and Autrefois convict. (ii) Reasonable doubt as to presumption of innocence.
(iii) Natural Justice. (iv) Conviction can not be based without proving the guilt even if it was admitted.
Which statement is correct ?
(A) (i) is correct.
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
41. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words : The distinctive features of riot and unlawful assembly are an activity which is accompanied by ____
(A) use of force and violence. (B) causing alarm. (C) violence on a common purpose. (D) all of them.
Ans: D
42. The offence of __________ homicide supposes knowledge of likelihood of causing death.
(A) unlawful (B) abnormal (C) culpable (D) all types of
Ans: C
43. The expression ‘Seduced’ used in Section 366 A of Indian Penal Code means to _________ a woman to submit to illicit intercourse at any time.
(A) use of force by stress (B) deceitfully induce (C) willfully influence (D) none of them
Ans: B
44. Preparation consists in devising or arranging means necessary for the commission of the offence. Such attempt is not punishable because
(i) the motive was harmless.
(ii) impossibility to reach wrongful end.
(iii) does not affect the security of any person.
(iv) it remained without culmination. The reasoned answer is
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) The most probability is (i) and (ii).
(C) There is quite likelihood of (i) and (iii).
(D) All the reasons (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) have to be examined.
Ans: D
45. No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike
(I) without giving notice of strike to employer.
(II) within 14 days of giving such notice.
(III) after expiry of date specified in notice for strike.
(IV) within 7 days of conclusion of conciliation proceeding.
Codes :
(A) I and IV
(B) I and III
(C) I and II
(D) II and III
Ans: C
46. There can be lay-off for
(A) One day (B) More than one day (C) Maximum seven days (D) Any period, even less than one day
Ans: D
47. In which of the following cases the court reiterated the well-known legal position that even a temporary worker can claim retrenchment compensation, if he is covered by the provisions of Section 25 F of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(A) Tatanagar Foundary Co. Vs Their Workmen. (B) Management of Willcox Buckwell (India) Ltd. Vs Jagannath.
(C) Barsi Light Railway Co. Ltd. Vs Joglekar. (D) Modern Stores Vs Krishandas.
Ans: B
48. Which one of the following statement is true ?
(A) All Government departments are industries.
(B) No Government department can be industry.
(C) Government department carrying on business or trade may be industry.
(D) Government department carrying on only sovereign function may be industry.
Ans: C
49. According to Section 9 A of the Trade Union Act, 1926 minimum requirement about membership of a trade union is
(A) Seven
(B) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen.
(C) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is less.
(D) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is less, subject to minimum seven.
Ans: D
50. To be a member of trade union, a person must attain the age of
(A) 18 years (B) 16 years (C) 15 years (D) 21 years
Ans: A
(A) The Constitution First Amendment Act. (B) The Constitution Second Amendment Act
(C) The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act. (D) The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act.
Ans: A
2. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India as per
(A) Article 40 (B) Article 43 (C) Article 44 (D) Article 48
Ans: C
3. In India sovereignty lies with
(A) The Constitution (B) The Supreme Court (C) The Parliament (D) The People
Ans: D
4. The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in
(A) Bhikaji Narain Dhakras Vs State of M.P. (B) Bashesharnath Vs Income Tax Commissioner.
(C) State of W.B. Vs Anwar Ali Sarkar (D) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India
Ans: A
5. The satisfaction of the President means the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers and not his personal satisfaction, held in
(A) Samsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
(B) U.N. Rao Vs Indira Gandhi
(C) Ram Jawaya Kapoor Vs State of Punjab
(D) Sardar Lal Vs Union Government
Ans: A
6. The Concurrent List was described as a ‘Twilight Zone’, as it were for both the Union and the States are competent to legislate in this field without coming in to conflict” is stated by
(A) Basu, D.D. (B) Dicey, A.V. (C) Pyle, M.V. (D) Ambedkar, B.
Ans: C
7. Article 360 has been invoked
(A) only one time. (B) two times. (C) three times. (D) never invoked
Ans: D
8. “Jurisprudence is concerned primarily with the effects of law upon society and only to a lesser extent with questions about the social determination of law.” Who said it ?
(A) Roscoe Pound (B) Eugen Ehrlich (C) Emile Durkheim (D) Max Weber
Ans: A
9. “True law is that which has right reason in agreement with nature” was propagated by
(A) Cicero (B) Hart (C) Grotius (D) Salmond
Ans: C
10. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List – I List – II
I. Privilege a. Gives content to the claim of a person
II. Duty b. Freedom from claim of another
III. Power c. Have no correlative claim according to Austin
IV. Absolute Duty d. Ability of a person to change legal relations.
Codes :
(A) I-a II- b III-d IV-c
(B) I-b II-a III-d IV-c
(C) I-a II-b III-c IV-d
(D) I-b II-a III-c IV-d
Ans: B
11. ‘X’ a servant finds a bag at the basement of the shop. He hands it over to ‘Y’ the owner of the shop, who asks him to place it in the almirah. Now, the bag is in possession of
(A) ‘X’ because he was the finder.
(B) ‘Y’ because he was the owner of the shop.
(C) ‘X’ because he has kept it in the almirah.
(D) ‘Y’ because in him there was union of corpus and animus.
Ans: D
12. Which one of the following jurists emphasised that “We cannot understand what a thing is unless we study what it does” ?
(A) Salmond (B) Roscoe Pound (C) Kelsen (D) Austin
Ans: A
13. Who defines ‘ownership as planary control over an object’ ?
(A) Austin (B) Salmond (C) Holland (D) Savigny
Ans: C
14. Assertion (A) : A legal right is a legally protected interest.
Reason (R) : An element of advantage is essential to constitute right.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
15. Assertion (A) : International Law Commission has initiated studies and prepared draft codes on diverse fields in international law. Reason (R) : International Law Commission was established under General Assembly Resolution No. 174 (11) adopted on 21 November 1947 with an object to promote, progressively develop and codify international law.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(C) (R) is true but (A) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
16. Match List - I with List - II.
List – I Declaration/ Treaty/Convention
List – II Year of Adoption
a. Universal Declaration of Human Rights i. 1948
b. International Convention on Civil and Political Rights ii. 1966
c. Convention on the Rights of the Child iii. 2006
d. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities iv. 1999
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii ii iv I
Ans: A
17. Jus Cogens means
(A) Peremptory norm of international law. (B) Norm of international law.
(C) Peremptory norm which does not permit derogation. (D) None of the above.
Ans: C
18. Which one of the following is primary source of international law ?
(A) Decisions of International Court of Justice. (B) Resolutions of U.N. General Assembly.
(C) General Principles of law recognized by Civilized Nations. (D) None of the above
Ans: C
19. Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council ?
(A) U.K. (B) U.S.A. (C) Japan (D) China
Ans: C
20. “Recognition operates retroactively not to invalidate the acts of a former government, but to validate the acts of a de facto government which has become the new de jure government.” has been held by the court in the case of :
(A) Civil Air Transport Inc. Vs Central Air Transport Corporation. (B) A.M. Luther Vs Sagar & Co.
(C) The Arantzazu Mendi (D) Gdynia Ameryka Linie Vs Boguslawski.
Ans: B
21. Rules relating to sapinda relationship are based on
(A) Principle of Endogamy (B) Principle of Exogamy (C) Principle of Polygamy (D) Principle of Monogamy
Ans: B
22. On the ground of barrenness or sterility, marriage can be
(A) voidable (B) void (C) both (A) and (B) (D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: D
23. Breakdown theory of divorce is reflected in
(A) Section 13 (1) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. (B) Section 13 (2) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
(C) Section 13 (IA) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. (D) Section 13 (B) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
Ans: C
24. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Ashok Hura Vs Rupa Hura case i. Restitution of Conjugal Rights
b. Bipin Chandra Vs Prabhavati ii. Uniform Civil Code
c. Sarla Mudugal Vs Union of India iii. Dessertion
d. T. Sareetha Vs State of A.P. iv. Divorce by Mutual Consent.
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv (B) iv iii ii i (C) ii iii i iv (D) iv iii i ii
Ans: B
25. Arrange the grounds of divorce in the order in which they appear in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Use the codes given below :
(I) Mutual consent (II) Break down (III) Fault (IV) Customary
Codes :
(A) III II I IV
(B) II III IV I
(C) I II III IV
(D) IV III I II
Ans: D
26. The petition for divorce by mutual consent may be presented if the spouses have been living separately for a period of
(A) One year (B) Two years (C) Three years (D) None of the above
Ans: A
27. An offer and an acceptance to it must be in the
(A) same time
(B) same place
(C) same sense
(D) none of above
Ans: C
28. Which of the following statements are true ?
(i) Past consideration is no consideration under Indian and English Law.
(ii) Past consideration is no consideration under Indian Law.
(iii) Past consideration is no consideration under English Law.
(iv) Past consideration is made in past.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) and (I)
Ans: C
29. Assertion (A) : When subject matter of a contract is destroyed, the contract is frustrated.
Reason (R) : Frustration of a contract frustrates a party to the contract.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
30. Arrange the following concepts in which they appeared. Use the code given below : (i) Invitation to offer (ii) Damage (iii) Offer (iv) Damages
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
Ans: A
31. Match an item in List – I with an item in List – II, using code given below :
List – I List – II
i. Capacity 1. Breach
ii. Damages 2. Unruly horse
iii. Remedy 3. Compensation
iv. Public policy 4. Sound mind
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: D
32. Which one of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Novation of contract - Section 62 (B) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings - Section 29
(C) Tender of performance - Section 38 (D) Unlawful object and consideration - Section 23
Ans: B
33. Which one of the following is not an example of vicarious liability ?
(A) Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent. (B) Liability of partners for each others’ tort.
(C) Liability of the master for the tort of his servant. (D) Liability of the parents for the tort of the children.
Ans: D
34. Match List – I and List – II , select the correct answer by using codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Injuria sine damnum 1. Reylands Vs Fletcher
b. Damnum sine injuria 2. Gloucester’s Case
c. Strict liability 3. Volenti non fit injuria
d. Defence of consent 4. Ashby Vs White
Codes : a b c d
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans: A
35. Rule of absolute liability was propounded by
(A) Justice Bhagwati (B) Justice Sodhi (C) Justice Ahmadi (D) Justice Kuldeep Singh
Ans: A
36. Which one of the defence to strict liability is based on the maxim, volenti non fit injuria ?
(A) Consent of the plaintiff (B) Act of God (C) Act of Third Party (D) Statutory Authority
Ans: A
37. Mental condition of the wrong-doer at the time of wrong doing is
(A) relevant in all torts.
(B) relevant to torts based on fault.
(C) relevant in torts based on strict liability.
(D) not relevant in tortious liability.
Ans: B
38. Consider the following set of legal propositions :
(1) A person can claim damages for all wrongs he has suffered.
(2) A person can claim damages for wrongs only if they are caused intentionally.
(3) A person can claim damages for a wrong if it is caused by infringement of the legal right.
(4) A person can claim damages even if he has suffered no loss.
Of these above propositions which are correct ?
(A) (1) and (2)
(B) (3) and (4)
(C) (1) and (3)
(D) (2) and (4)
Ans: B
39. Which of the meaning given for the maxim “Actus me invite factus non est mens actus” is correct ?
(A) Merely a voluntary act by me will not be a crime with a criminal intention.
(B) An act done by me against my will is not my act.
(C) Neither I nor my person can be held liable for an act done under compulsion.
(D) All of them.
Ans: B
40. The general principles as to protection of an accused is based on :
(i) Autrefois acquit and Autrefois convict. (ii) Reasonable doubt as to presumption of innocence.
(iii) Natural Justice. (iv) Conviction can not be based without proving the guilt even if it was admitted.
Which statement is correct ?
(A) (i) is correct.
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
41. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words : The distinctive features of riot and unlawful assembly are an activity which is accompanied by ____
(A) use of force and violence. (B) causing alarm. (C) violence on a common purpose. (D) all of them.
Ans: D
42. The offence of __________ homicide supposes knowledge of likelihood of causing death.
(A) unlawful (B) abnormal (C) culpable (D) all types of
Ans: C
43. The expression ‘Seduced’ used in Section 366 A of Indian Penal Code means to _________ a woman to submit to illicit intercourse at any time.
(A) use of force by stress (B) deceitfully induce (C) willfully influence (D) none of them
Ans: B
44. Preparation consists in devising or arranging means necessary for the commission of the offence. Such attempt is not punishable because
(i) the motive was harmless.
(ii) impossibility to reach wrongful end.
(iii) does not affect the security of any person.
(iv) it remained without culmination. The reasoned answer is
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) The most probability is (i) and (ii).
(C) There is quite likelihood of (i) and (iii).
(D) All the reasons (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) have to be examined.
Ans: D
45. No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike
(I) without giving notice of strike to employer.
(II) within 14 days of giving such notice.
(III) after expiry of date specified in notice for strike.
(IV) within 7 days of conclusion of conciliation proceeding.
Codes :
(A) I and IV
(B) I and III
(C) I and II
(D) II and III
Ans: C
46. There can be lay-off for
(A) One day (B) More than one day (C) Maximum seven days (D) Any period, even less than one day
Ans: D
47. In which of the following cases the court reiterated the well-known legal position that even a temporary worker can claim retrenchment compensation, if he is covered by the provisions of Section 25 F of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(A) Tatanagar Foundary Co. Vs Their Workmen. (B) Management of Willcox Buckwell (India) Ltd. Vs Jagannath.
(C) Barsi Light Railway Co. Ltd. Vs Joglekar. (D) Modern Stores Vs Krishandas.
Ans: B
48. Which one of the following statement is true ?
(A) All Government departments are industries.
(B) No Government department can be industry.
(C) Government department carrying on business or trade may be industry.
(D) Government department carrying on only sovereign function may be industry.
Ans: C
49. According to Section 9 A of the Trade Union Act, 1926 minimum requirement about membership of a trade union is
(A) Seven
(B) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen.
(C) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is less.
(D) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is less, subject to minimum seven.
Ans: D
50. To be a member of trade union, a person must attain the age of
(A) 18 years (B) 16 years (C) 15 years (D) 21 years
Ans: A
51. Section 162 Cr. P.C. prohibits a statement from being used in evidence made in the course of :
(A) inquiry (B) investigation (C) trial (D) either (A) or (B)
Ans: B
52. Under Section 167 Cr. P.C. the longest period for which an accused can be remanded to police custody is :
(A) fifteen days (B) ten days (C) fourteen days (D) 28 days
Ans: A
53. A detention of the accused for a total period of 90 days during investigation can be ordered by the Magistrate, in cases where the offence committed is :
(A) punishable for a term not less than 10 years (B) with imprisonment for life
(C) punishable with death penalty (D) all the above
Ans: D
54. Section 125 Cr. P.C. is applicable to :
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims (C) Christians (D) All persons belonging to all religions
Ans: D
55. The Muslim women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with :
(A) Claim of maintenance by a Muslim woman
(B) Claim of maintenance by a Muslim divorced woman
(C) Claim of maintenance by the children of such divorced Muslim woman
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans: B
56. Amount of maintenance under Section 125 Cr. P.C. is :
(A) Rs. 500 per month
(B) Rs.1000 per month
(C) Rs. 5000 per month
(D) without any limit
Ans: D
57. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate, within 24 hours of the arrest, under :
(A) Section 56 Cr. P.C. (B) Section 57 Cr. P.C. (C) Section 58 Cr. P.C. (D) Section 59 Cr. P.C.
Ans: B
58. Special summons under Section 206 of Cr. P.C. can be issued by :
(A) Court of Sessions (B) Magistrate only (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) The High Court
Ans: B
59. Penalty under surety bond :
(A) Can not be remitted (B) Can be remitted in full (C) Can be remitted in part only (D) Can be remitted in part or in full
Ans: D
60. Under Section 315 Cr. P.C. :
(A) an accused can not be a witness (B) an accused can be compelled to give his own evidence
(C) an accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing (D) either (A) or (B)
Ans: C
61. Relevancy is :
(A) question of law and can be raised at any time
(B) question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity
(C) question of law which can be waived
(D) question of procedure which can be waived
Ans: A
62. Admissions by agents are :
(A) admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances
(B) admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has authority to make admissions
(C) never admissible in criminal proceedings
(D) both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
63. Plea of alibi is governed by :
(A) Section 6 (B) Section 8 (C) Section 11 (D) Section 12
Ans: C
64. A dying declaration to be admissible :
(A) must be made before a Magistrate
(B) must be made before the police officer
(C) may be made before a doctor or any other person
(D) all the above
Ans: D
65. Secondary evidence of a document is admissible as a substitute for :
(A) admissible primary evidence
(B) inadmissible primary evidence under certain circumstances
(C) inadmissible primary evidence under all circumstances
(D) both (A) and (B) are correct
Ans: A
66. For presumption of death under Section 108 of the Evidence Act, the person is shown to be not heard for a period of :
(A) 3 yrs (B) 7 yrs (C) 12 yrs (D) 30 yrs
Ans: B
67. The doctrine of estoppel is a :
(A) rule of equity (B) substantive law (C) law of pleadings (D) rule of evidence
Ans: D
68. An accomplice is a person :
(A) Who is a prefended confedrate
(B) Who is an informer as to the commission of crime
(C) Who participates in the commission of the crime for which the accused has been charged
(D) All the above
Ans: C
69. Leading questions can be asked during :
(A) Examination in chief (B) Re-examination (C) Cross examination (D) All the above
Ans: C
70. The presumption under Section 41 of the Evidence Act is a :
(A) Rebuttable presumption of law (B) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(C) Presumption of fact (D) Presumption of fact and law
Ans: B
71. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused :
(A) If they are tried jointly for the same offences (B) If they are tried jointly for different offences
(C) If they are tried for the same offences but not jointly (D) If they are tried for different offences and not jointly
Ans: A
72. Presumption as to the digital signature of the electronic record in proper custody arises if the electronic record produced is :
(A) 20 yrs old (B) 18 yrs old (C) 10 yrs old (D) 5 yrs old
Ans: D
73. In case of will, the period of thirty years shall run :
(A) from the date of the will (B) from the date of death of testator
(C) from the date of registration of will (D) any of the above
Ans: A
74. Maxim ‘omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta’ means :
(A) all acts are presumed to be rightly done (B) all acts are presumed to be wrongly done
(C) all acts are presumed to be rightly done unless otherwise proved (D) none of the above
Ans: A
75. A dumb person is a competent witness as provided under :
(A) Section 117 of Evidence Act (B) Section 118 of Evidence Act
(C) Section 119 of Evidence Act (D) Section 120 of Evidence Act
Ans: C
76. Section 121 of the Evidence Act provides for privilege in respect of :
(A) husband and wife (B) judges and magistrates (C) affairs of the state (D) official communication
Ans: B
77. The evidence unearthed by a sniffer dog falls under :
(A) oral evidence (B) documentary evidence (C) hearsay evidence (D) scientific evidence
Ans: D
78. Opinions of experts are relevant :
(A) Under Section 45 Evidence Act (B) Under Section 48 Evidence Act
(C) Under Section 50 Evidence Act (D) Under Section 52 Evidence Act
Ans: A
79. Presumptions under the law of evidence are :
(A) Presumptions of facts (B) Presumptions of law
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Only (B) not (A)
Ans: C
80. Section 13 Evidence Act applies to :
(A) corporal rights (B) incorporal rights
(C) both corporal and incorporal rights (D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: C
81. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six
Ans: C
82. Section 73 IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be :
(A) One year (B) Two yrs (C) 6 months (D) Three months
Ans: C
83. General exceptions are contained in :
(A) Chapter III of IPC (B) Chapter IV of IPC (C) Chapter V of IPC (D) Chapter VI of IPC
Ans: B
84. The maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means :
(A) Ignorance of law is no excuse (B) Ignorance of fact is no excuse
(C) Ignorance of law is an excuse (D) Ignorance of fact is an excuse
Ans: A
85. ‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided :
(A) Section 81 (B) Section 82 (C) Section 83 (D) Section 84
Ans: B
86. The doctrine volenti non fit injuria is contained in :
(A) Section 87 (B) Section 88 (C) Section 89 (D) All the above
Ans: D
87. Abettor is a person :
(A) Who commits the offence (B) Who instigates the commission of offence
(C) Against whom the offence is committed (D) Who is innocent
Ans: A
88. For an ‘unlawful assembly’ under Section 141 IPC, the minimum number of persons required is :
(A) five (B) seven (C) ten (D) twenty
Ans: A
89. For an ‘affray’ under Section 159 IPC the minimum number of persons required is :
(A) two (B) four (C) five (D) seven
Ans: A
90. Culpable homicide has been defined under :
(A) Section 299 (B) Section 300 (C) Section 302 (D) Section 304
Ans: A
91. During a scuffle between A and B, A gave a blow on the face of B and consequently two teeth of B' were broken. In these circumstances A has committed an offence of causing :
(A) hurt (B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) grievous hurt (D) no offence at all
Ans: C
92. Robbery becomes dacoity when committed conjointly by :
(A) two persons (B) more than two but less than five (C) five persons or more (D) at least
Ans: C
93. Immovable property can be the subject matter of :
(A) theft (B) extortion (C) robbery (D) dacoity
Ans: B
94. The essential ingredients of crime are :
(A) actus reus and mens rea (B) motive, mens rea, actus reus
(C) knowledge, intention, action (D) motive, intention and knowledge
Ans: A
95. Section 511 does not apply in case of :
(A) Attempt of theft (B) Attempt of murder (C) Attempt of riot (D) Attempt of affray
Ans: B
96. Z dies in possession of some money and other assets. His servant P misappropriates it before the money comes into the possession of any person entitled to such possession. X has committed an offence of :
(A) Section 402 (B) Section 404 (C) Section 406 (D) Section 408
Ans: B
97. A knows that B is suffering from a disease and he gives a blow on his head likely to cause death. As a result B dies. A is :
(A) guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder (B) guilty of murder
(C) guilty of causing hurt (D) guilty of no offence
Ans: B
98. X ordered Y to beat Z. Y refuses. Now :
(A) X has committed abetment and Y has committed no offence
(B) X has committed abetment and Y assaulted Z
(C) X and Y have committed no offence
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
99. Kidnapping from the lawful guardianship under Section 361 IPC can be :
(A) of a person under sixteen years of age if male
(B) of a person under eighteen years of age if a female
(C) of a person of unsound mind
(D) all the above
Ans: D
100. X gave poisoned halwa to Y with an intenstion to kill him. Y kept it aside and Z who came there picked it up and ate it. Z died.
(A) X is guilty of murder of Z
(B) X is not guilty of murder of Z
(C) X is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(D) X is guilty neither of murder nor of culpable homicide as he never intended to kill Z
Ans: A
(A) inquiry (B) investigation (C) trial (D) either (A) or (B)
Ans: B
52. Under Section 167 Cr. P.C. the longest period for which an accused can be remanded to police custody is :
(A) fifteen days (B) ten days (C) fourteen days (D) 28 days
Ans: A
53. A detention of the accused for a total period of 90 days during investigation can be ordered by the Magistrate, in cases where the offence committed is :
(A) punishable for a term not less than 10 years (B) with imprisonment for life
(C) punishable with death penalty (D) all the above
Ans: D
54. Section 125 Cr. P.C. is applicable to :
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims (C) Christians (D) All persons belonging to all religions
Ans: D
55. The Muslim women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with :
(A) Claim of maintenance by a Muslim woman
(B) Claim of maintenance by a Muslim divorced woman
(C) Claim of maintenance by the children of such divorced Muslim woman
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans: B
56. Amount of maintenance under Section 125 Cr. P.C. is :
(A) Rs. 500 per month
(B) Rs.1000 per month
(C) Rs. 5000 per month
(D) without any limit
Ans: D
57. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate, within 24 hours of the arrest, under :
(A) Section 56 Cr. P.C. (B) Section 57 Cr. P.C. (C) Section 58 Cr. P.C. (D) Section 59 Cr. P.C.
Ans: B
58. Special summons under Section 206 of Cr. P.C. can be issued by :
(A) Court of Sessions (B) Magistrate only (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) The High Court
Ans: B
59. Penalty under surety bond :
(A) Can not be remitted (B) Can be remitted in full (C) Can be remitted in part only (D) Can be remitted in part or in full
Ans: D
60. Under Section 315 Cr. P.C. :
(A) an accused can not be a witness (B) an accused can be compelled to give his own evidence
(C) an accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing (D) either (A) or (B)
Ans: C
61. Relevancy is :
(A) question of law and can be raised at any time
(B) question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity
(C) question of law which can be waived
(D) question of procedure which can be waived
Ans: A
62. Admissions by agents are :
(A) admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances
(B) admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has authority to make admissions
(C) never admissible in criminal proceedings
(D) both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
63. Plea of alibi is governed by :
(A) Section 6 (B) Section 8 (C) Section 11 (D) Section 12
Ans: C
64. A dying declaration to be admissible :
(A) must be made before a Magistrate
(B) must be made before the police officer
(C) may be made before a doctor or any other person
(D) all the above
Ans: D
65. Secondary evidence of a document is admissible as a substitute for :
(A) admissible primary evidence
(B) inadmissible primary evidence under certain circumstances
(C) inadmissible primary evidence under all circumstances
(D) both (A) and (B) are correct
Ans: A
66. For presumption of death under Section 108 of the Evidence Act, the person is shown to be not heard for a period of :
(A) 3 yrs (B) 7 yrs (C) 12 yrs (D) 30 yrs
Ans: B
67. The doctrine of estoppel is a :
(A) rule of equity (B) substantive law (C) law of pleadings (D) rule of evidence
Ans: D
68. An accomplice is a person :
(A) Who is a prefended confedrate
(B) Who is an informer as to the commission of crime
(C) Who participates in the commission of the crime for which the accused has been charged
(D) All the above
Ans: C
69. Leading questions can be asked during :
(A) Examination in chief (B) Re-examination (C) Cross examination (D) All the above
Ans: C
70. The presumption under Section 41 of the Evidence Act is a :
(A) Rebuttable presumption of law (B) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(C) Presumption of fact (D) Presumption of fact and law
Ans: B
71. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused :
(A) If they are tried jointly for the same offences (B) If they are tried jointly for different offences
(C) If they are tried for the same offences but not jointly (D) If they are tried for different offences and not jointly
Ans: A
72. Presumption as to the digital signature of the electronic record in proper custody arises if the electronic record produced is :
(A) 20 yrs old (B) 18 yrs old (C) 10 yrs old (D) 5 yrs old
Ans: D
73. In case of will, the period of thirty years shall run :
(A) from the date of the will (B) from the date of death of testator
(C) from the date of registration of will (D) any of the above
Ans: A
74. Maxim ‘omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta’ means :
(A) all acts are presumed to be rightly done (B) all acts are presumed to be wrongly done
(C) all acts are presumed to be rightly done unless otherwise proved (D) none of the above
Ans: A
75. A dumb person is a competent witness as provided under :
(A) Section 117 of Evidence Act (B) Section 118 of Evidence Act
(C) Section 119 of Evidence Act (D) Section 120 of Evidence Act
Ans: C
76. Section 121 of the Evidence Act provides for privilege in respect of :
(A) husband and wife (B) judges and magistrates (C) affairs of the state (D) official communication
Ans: B
77. The evidence unearthed by a sniffer dog falls under :
(A) oral evidence (B) documentary evidence (C) hearsay evidence (D) scientific evidence
Ans: D
78. Opinions of experts are relevant :
(A) Under Section 45 Evidence Act (B) Under Section 48 Evidence Act
(C) Under Section 50 Evidence Act (D) Under Section 52 Evidence Act
Ans: A
79. Presumptions under the law of evidence are :
(A) Presumptions of facts (B) Presumptions of law
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Only (B) not (A)
Ans: C
80. Section 13 Evidence Act applies to :
(A) corporal rights (B) incorporal rights
(C) both corporal and incorporal rights (D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: C
81. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six
Ans: C
82. Section 73 IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be :
(A) One year (B) Two yrs (C) 6 months (D) Three months
Ans: C
83. General exceptions are contained in :
(A) Chapter III of IPC (B) Chapter IV of IPC (C) Chapter V of IPC (D) Chapter VI of IPC
Ans: B
84. The maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means :
(A) Ignorance of law is no excuse (B) Ignorance of fact is no excuse
(C) Ignorance of law is an excuse (D) Ignorance of fact is an excuse
Ans: A
85. ‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided :
(A) Section 81 (B) Section 82 (C) Section 83 (D) Section 84
Ans: B
86. The doctrine volenti non fit injuria is contained in :
(A) Section 87 (B) Section 88 (C) Section 89 (D) All the above
Ans: D
87. Abettor is a person :
(A) Who commits the offence (B) Who instigates the commission of offence
(C) Against whom the offence is committed (D) Who is innocent
Ans: A
88. For an ‘unlawful assembly’ under Section 141 IPC, the minimum number of persons required is :
(A) five (B) seven (C) ten (D) twenty
Ans: A
89. For an ‘affray’ under Section 159 IPC the minimum number of persons required is :
(A) two (B) four (C) five (D) seven
Ans: A
90. Culpable homicide has been defined under :
(A) Section 299 (B) Section 300 (C) Section 302 (D) Section 304
Ans: A
91. During a scuffle between A and B, A gave a blow on the face of B and consequently two teeth of B' were broken. In these circumstances A has committed an offence of causing :
(A) hurt (B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) grievous hurt (D) no offence at all
Ans: C
92. Robbery becomes dacoity when committed conjointly by :
(A) two persons (B) more than two but less than five (C) five persons or more (D) at least
Ans: C
93. Immovable property can be the subject matter of :
(A) theft (B) extortion (C) robbery (D) dacoity
Ans: B
94. The essential ingredients of crime are :
(A) actus reus and mens rea (B) motive, mens rea, actus reus
(C) knowledge, intention, action (D) motive, intention and knowledge
Ans: A
95. Section 511 does not apply in case of :
(A) Attempt of theft (B) Attempt of murder (C) Attempt of riot (D) Attempt of affray
Ans: B
96. Z dies in possession of some money and other assets. His servant P misappropriates it before the money comes into the possession of any person entitled to such possession. X has committed an offence of :
(A) Section 402 (B) Section 404 (C) Section 406 (D) Section 408
Ans: B
97. A knows that B is suffering from a disease and he gives a blow on his head likely to cause death. As a result B dies. A is :
(A) guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder (B) guilty of murder
(C) guilty of causing hurt (D) guilty of no offence
Ans: B
98. X ordered Y to beat Z. Y refuses. Now :
(A) X has committed abetment and Y has committed no offence
(B) X has committed abetment and Y assaulted Z
(C) X and Y have committed no offence
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
99. Kidnapping from the lawful guardianship under Section 361 IPC can be :
(A) of a person under sixteen years of age if male
(B) of a person under eighteen years of age if a female
(C) of a person of unsound mind
(D) all the above
Ans: D
100. X gave poisoned halwa to Y with an intenstion to kill him. Y kept it aside and Z who came there picked it up and ate it. Z died.
(A) X is guilty of murder of Z
(B) X is not guilty of murder of Z
(C) X is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(D) X is guilty neither of murder nor of culpable homicide as he never intended to kill Z
Ans: A