LAW- PAGE 4
1. The United Nations High Commission for Refugees was established in which of the following year by the General Assembly ?
(A) 1951 (B) 1953 (C) 1955 (D) 1957
Ans: A
2. “The most glaring instance of violation of Human Rights is the continuing poverty among masses in the country.” Said by
(A) Justice A.S. Anand (B) Justice N. Venkatachalaiah (C) Justice P.N. Bhagwati (D) Justice Koka Subba Rao
Ans: A
3. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer :
List – I List - II
a. The Magna Carta i. 1628
b. The Petition of Rights ii. 1789
c. The English Bill of Rights iii. 1215
d. The U.N. Bill of Rights iv. 1689
Codes : a b c d
(A) iii i iv ii (B) i iii iv ii (C) iii ii iv i (D) iii i ii iv
Ans: A
4. Gurupadaswamy Committee 1979 was constituted to look into the working conditions of :
(A) Minorities (B) Women (C) Children (D) N.G.Os.
Ans: C
5. Using codes, arrange following instruments according to sequence of their enactment starting from past towards present :
(i) The Convention on the Political Rights of Women.
(ii) The Declaration on the elimination of discrimination against women.
(iii) The Convention on consent to marriage, minimum age for marriage and registration of marriage.
(iv) The Convention on the nationality of married women.
Codes :
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: A
6. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) In tort, there is a breach of duty which is primarily fixed by law.
(B) In tort, there is a violation of a right in rem.
(C) In tort, the motive for breach of duty is immaterial.
(D) In tort, the damages are fixed according to the terms and conditions.
Ans: D
7. Assertion (A) : A wooden chair while being used by a guest caused injury to him due to defective manufacture. The guest is entitled to claim damages from the maker.
Reason (R) : Manufacturer owes a duty of care to the ultimate user. Select the correct answer using the codes below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
8. In which of the following situations is slander actionable per se in India ?
(A) An imputation that a certain female player is of unchaste character.
(B) An imputation that a certain person is a habitual smuggler.
(C) An imputation that a certain person is liar.
(D) An imputation that the wrestler is womanizer.
Ans: A
9. Match List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
a. A patient is a consumer i. Vasantha P. Nair Vs. Smt. V.P. Nair
b. Doctor’s duty to maintain secrecy ii. K. Rangaswami Vs. Jaya Vital & others
c. Free service iii. Indian Medical Association Vs. V.P. Shantha
d. Contract of personal service iv. Dr. Tokugha Vs. Apollo Hospital Enterprises Ltd.
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) i iv iii ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Ans: C
10. State in which of the following cases, it amounts to nuisance ?
(A) Planting of trees on another’s land. (B) When branches of trees project on the land of their neighbour.
(C) Construction of a pond on the land of another. (D) All of the above
Ans: D
11. In which of the following cases, the rule of absolute liability laid down by the Supreme Court of India was followed ?
(A) Indian Council for EnviroLegal Action Vs. Union of India, A.I.R. 1996 SC 1446
(B) Klaus Mittelbachert Vs. East India Hotels Ltd., A.I.R. 1997 Del.201
(C) Both (A) and (B) above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C
12. Match List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
a. The Wagon Mound case i. Remote but proximate
b. Re Polemis and Furness Withy & Co. Ltd. ii. The test of reasonable foresight
c. Scott Vs. Shepherd iii. The test of directness
d. Fardon Vs. Harcourt Rivington iv. Reasonable foreseeability
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv (B) ii iii i iv
(C) i iv iii ii (D) ii i iv iii
Ans: B
13. Find right answer from following statements :
(A) Every partnership is based on mutual agency. (B) Every agency is based on mutual partnership.
(C) Every agent is a partner. (D) Every partner is a sleeping partner.
Ans: A
14. Which statements are correct, answer using codes given below :
i. Directors are trustees of company. ii. Directors are mentors of company.
iii. Directors are agents of company. iv. Director are agents of shareholders.
Codes :
(A) i and ii are correct. (B) i and iii are correct.
(C) i and iv are correct. (D) ii and iv are correct.
Ans: B
15. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : The doctrine of indoor management seeks to protect the company against the outsider.
Reason (R) : The company has right to privacy.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
16. Match items in table A with items in table B, using codes given below :
Table A Table B
a. Essentials of partnership i. Section 41
b. Partnership at will ii. Section 4
c. Effect of nonregistration of firm iii. Section 7
d. Compulsory dissolution of firm iv. Section 69
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii (B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv i ii (D) i ii iii iv
Ans: B
17. Find correct answer, using codes given below :
(i) Bulk shall correspond with sample, is an implied condition.
(ii) Buyer shall have a reasonable opportunity of comparing bulk with sample, is an implied condition.
(iii) Goods should be free from any defect rendering them unmerchantable, is an implied condition.
(iv) There is an implied condition that the buyer shall have and enjoy possession of the goods.
Codes :
(A) (i) only is correct.
(B) (i) and (ii) only are correct.
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only are correct.
(D) All of above are correct.
Ans: C
18. Choose correct statement from following :
(A) Right against the goods can be exercised only by a paid seller.
(B) Right against the goods can be exercised only by an unpaid seller.
(C) Right against the goods can be exercised only by a paid buyer.
(D) Right against the goods can be exercised only by an unpaid buyer.
Ans: B
19. Match items in Table A with items in Table B, using codes given below : Table A Table B
a. Prabhu Dayal Vs. Jwala Bank, ILR 1938 All. 634 i. Section 100
b. Discharge from liability by cancellation ii. Section 10
c. Payment in due course iii. Forgery of signature
d. Protest iv. Section 82 C
odes : a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv (B) iii iv ii i (C) iv iii ii i (D) ii i iii iv
Ans: B
20. Find correct legal principle from following statements :
(A) While collecting a cheque for a banker, the customer is under an obligation to present it promptly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
(B) While collecting a cheque for a customer, the banker is under an obligation to present it properly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
(C) While collecting a cheque for a customer, the banker is under no obligation to present it properly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
(D) While collecting a cheque for a banker, the customer is under no obligation to present it promptly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
Ans: B
(A) 1951 (B) 1953 (C) 1955 (D) 1957
Ans: A
2. “The most glaring instance of violation of Human Rights is the continuing poverty among masses in the country.” Said by
(A) Justice A.S. Anand (B) Justice N. Venkatachalaiah (C) Justice P.N. Bhagwati (D) Justice Koka Subba Rao
Ans: A
3. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer :
List – I List - II
a. The Magna Carta i. 1628
b. The Petition of Rights ii. 1789
c. The English Bill of Rights iii. 1215
d. The U.N. Bill of Rights iv. 1689
Codes : a b c d
(A) iii i iv ii (B) i iii iv ii (C) iii ii iv i (D) iii i ii iv
Ans: A
4. Gurupadaswamy Committee 1979 was constituted to look into the working conditions of :
(A) Minorities (B) Women (C) Children (D) N.G.Os.
Ans: C
5. Using codes, arrange following instruments according to sequence of their enactment starting from past towards present :
(i) The Convention on the Political Rights of Women.
(ii) The Declaration on the elimination of discrimination against women.
(iii) The Convention on consent to marriage, minimum age for marriage and registration of marriage.
(iv) The Convention on the nationality of married women.
Codes :
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: A
6. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) In tort, there is a breach of duty which is primarily fixed by law.
(B) In tort, there is a violation of a right in rem.
(C) In tort, the motive for breach of duty is immaterial.
(D) In tort, the damages are fixed according to the terms and conditions.
Ans: D
7. Assertion (A) : A wooden chair while being used by a guest caused injury to him due to defective manufacture. The guest is entitled to claim damages from the maker.
Reason (R) : Manufacturer owes a duty of care to the ultimate user. Select the correct answer using the codes below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
8. In which of the following situations is slander actionable per se in India ?
(A) An imputation that a certain female player is of unchaste character.
(B) An imputation that a certain person is a habitual smuggler.
(C) An imputation that a certain person is liar.
(D) An imputation that the wrestler is womanizer.
Ans: A
9. Match List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
a. A patient is a consumer i. Vasantha P. Nair Vs. Smt. V.P. Nair
b. Doctor’s duty to maintain secrecy ii. K. Rangaswami Vs. Jaya Vital & others
c. Free service iii. Indian Medical Association Vs. V.P. Shantha
d. Contract of personal service iv. Dr. Tokugha Vs. Apollo Hospital Enterprises Ltd.
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) i iv iii ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Ans: C
10. State in which of the following cases, it amounts to nuisance ?
(A) Planting of trees on another’s land. (B) When branches of trees project on the land of their neighbour.
(C) Construction of a pond on the land of another. (D) All of the above
Ans: D
11. In which of the following cases, the rule of absolute liability laid down by the Supreme Court of India was followed ?
(A) Indian Council for EnviroLegal Action Vs. Union of India, A.I.R. 1996 SC 1446
(B) Klaus Mittelbachert Vs. East India Hotels Ltd., A.I.R. 1997 Del.201
(C) Both (A) and (B) above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C
12. Match List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below : List – I List – II
a. The Wagon Mound case i. Remote but proximate
b. Re Polemis and Furness Withy & Co. Ltd. ii. The test of reasonable foresight
c. Scott Vs. Shepherd iii. The test of directness
d. Fardon Vs. Harcourt Rivington iv. Reasonable foreseeability
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv (B) ii iii i iv
(C) i iv iii ii (D) ii i iv iii
Ans: B
13. Find right answer from following statements :
(A) Every partnership is based on mutual agency. (B) Every agency is based on mutual partnership.
(C) Every agent is a partner. (D) Every partner is a sleeping partner.
Ans: A
14. Which statements are correct, answer using codes given below :
i. Directors are trustees of company. ii. Directors are mentors of company.
iii. Directors are agents of company. iv. Director are agents of shareholders.
Codes :
(A) i and ii are correct. (B) i and iii are correct.
(C) i and iv are correct. (D) ii and iv are correct.
Ans: B
15. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation :
Assertion (A) : The doctrine of indoor management seeks to protect the company against the outsider.
Reason (R) : The company has right to privacy.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
16. Match items in table A with items in table B, using codes given below :
Table A Table B
a. Essentials of partnership i. Section 41
b. Partnership at will ii. Section 4
c. Effect of nonregistration of firm iii. Section 7
d. Compulsory dissolution of firm iv. Section 69
Codes : a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii (B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv i ii (D) i ii iii iv
Ans: B
17. Find correct answer, using codes given below :
(i) Bulk shall correspond with sample, is an implied condition.
(ii) Buyer shall have a reasonable opportunity of comparing bulk with sample, is an implied condition.
(iii) Goods should be free from any defect rendering them unmerchantable, is an implied condition.
(iv) There is an implied condition that the buyer shall have and enjoy possession of the goods.
Codes :
(A) (i) only is correct.
(B) (i) and (ii) only are correct.
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only are correct.
(D) All of above are correct.
Ans: C
18. Choose correct statement from following :
(A) Right against the goods can be exercised only by a paid seller.
(B) Right against the goods can be exercised only by an unpaid seller.
(C) Right against the goods can be exercised only by a paid buyer.
(D) Right against the goods can be exercised only by an unpaid buyer.
Ans: B
19. Match items in Table A with items in Table B, using codes given below : Table A Table B
a. Prabhu Dayal Vs. Jwala Bank, ILR 1938 All. 634 i. Section 100
b. Discharge from liability by cancellation ii. Section 10
c. Payment in due course iii. Forgery of signature
d. Protest iv. Section 82 C
odes : a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv (B) iii iv ii i (C) iv iii ii i (D) ii i iii iv
Ans: B
20. Find correct legal principle from following statements :
(A) While collecting a cheque for a banker, the customer is under an obligation to present it promptly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
(B) While collecting a cheque for a customer, the banker is under an obligation to present it properly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
(C) While collecting a cheque for a customer, the banker is under no obligation to present it properly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
(D) While collecting a cheque for a banker, the customer is under no obligation to present it promptly so as to avoid any loss due to change of circumstances.
Ans: B
21. According to Salmond, every right involves a three fold relation
I. It is a right against some person or persons.
II. It is a right to some act or omission of such person or persons.
III. It is a right over or to something to which that act or omission relates.
Codes :
(A) I and II are false. (B) I, II and III are true.
(C) II and III are false. (D) Only I is true.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A) : Srutis and Smritis form the greatest treasure house of Hinduism.
Reason (R) : Srutis and Smritis are considered immemorial, timeless and eternal. Examine the above statement (A) and Reason (R) and select whether the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion, using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
23. Personality is a very vague and wide term and it has a variety of meanings. It is derived from the word persona which is a
(A) Latin word (B) French word (C) German word (D) Greek word
Ans: D
24. Fill in the blank with appropriate offence : Extortion is _______, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.
(A) Theft (B) Attempt to murder (C) Robbery (D) Wrongful restraint
Ans: C
25. Fill in the blank with suitable statement : Z dies in possession of gold ring, gold chain and a gold wrist watch during the course of an accident. A, before anyone entitled to such possession, dishonestly misappropriates the same causing ______.
(A) An aggravated form of misappropriation as per Section 404 of IPC.
(B) A type of possession by some process as per Section 405 of IPC
(C) No offence because the property in question was entrusted to A before the death of Z.
(D) No offence because the property in question was possessed by some casualty.
Ans: A
26. Fill in the blank with correct proposition of law : The malicious injury to property as per maxim Sic Utre tuo ut allenum non leadas (to use your own property so as not to injure your neighbour’s property as provided in______.
(A) Damage of property as per Section 427 IPC.
(B) Mischief as per Section 425 IPC.
(C) Mischief to cause wrongful restraint as per Section 440 IPC.
(D) Destruction of landmark as per Section 433 IPC.
Ans: B
27. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below write the appropriate answer :
I. Assertion The distinctive feature between preparation and attempt must be based on.
II. Reason Preparation consists in devising means necessary for the commission of offence while attempt is the direct movement towords commission.
Codes :
(A) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I.
(B) Both I and II are true while II is the correct explanation of I.
(C) I is true, but II is false.
(D) II is true, but I is only a stage of crime.
Ans: B
28. The accused caused bodily pain, disease or infirmity. But it is cognizable, bailable or compoundable. What offence, if any, has been committed by the accused ?
(A) Voluntary causing grievous hurt as per Section 322 IPC.
(B) Voluntary causing serious hurt as per Section 325 IPC.
(C) Voluntary causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon as per Section 324 IPC.
(D) Voluntary causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon as per Section 326 IPC.
Ans: C
29. An individual’s act of abridgement of another’s right to movement could be an offence of :
(A) wrongful confinement as per Section 340 IPC.
(B) an act of abridgement of right to movement was done in good faith and hence no offence.
(C) the movement route being diverted so assault results.
(D) wrongful restraint as per Section 329 IPC.
Ans: D
30. Match the statement that mens rea is a loose term of elastic significance with that of the meaning in sequential order.
(a) Foresight of the consequences of the act.
(b) Criminal intention of deepest dye.
(c) An act which is visible.
(d) It depends upon knowledge and belief.
Matching probabilities :
(A) It is the bare capacity to know in the sequence of (a), (b), (c) and (d).
(B) It is essential ingredient of criminal offence in the sequence of (d), (c), (b) and (a).
(C) It is a presumption to fix criminal liability in the sequence of (c), (b), (a) and (d).
(D) Applicability of the principle becomes essential by the sequence of (b), (a), (d) and (c).
Ans: D
31. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation. I. Assertion Generally a master is not criminally liable merely because his servant has committed a negligent act. II. Reason In ordinary course of employment a master may be criminally liable against the negligent acts of the servant.
Codes :
(A) Both I and II are true, but II is not the correct explanation of I.
(B) I is true and II is the genuine reason of I.
(C) II is true, but I is not absolutely correct.
(D) II is false, but I is only an assertion.
Ans: B
32. On which date & place the Earth Summit was held at ?
(A) 6th June 1997 at Geneva. (B) 20th June 1997 at London.
(C) 21st June 1992 at Rio. (D) 27th June 1992 at Rio.
Ans: C
33. “In case of violation of Article 21 by disturbing the environment, the court could award damages not only for the restoration of the ecological balance but also for the victim who have suffered due to that disturbance.” In which case the Supreme Court of India has made above observations ?
(A) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734 (B) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
(C) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath AIR 2000 SC 1997 (D) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath 2000 (2) SCALE 654
Ans: D
34. In which of the following case the constitutionality, legal validity, propriety and fairness of the settlement of the claims of the victims in a mass tort action relating to Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster has been challenged in Supreme Court of India ?
(A) Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 273
(B) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
(C) Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 248
(D) Charanlal Sahu Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480
Ans: C
35. Under which Article of the Constitution Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted ?
(A) Article 253 (B) Article 258 (C) Article 255 (D) Article 254
Ans: A
36. The problem of the pollution of river Ganga by the inaction of the municipalities was brought to light in which of the following case ?
(A) Indian Council for EnviroLegal Action Vs. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446
(B) A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu, AIR 1999 SC 812
(C) S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 811
(D) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 1115
Ans: D
37. Which one of the following cases relates to Sariska Tiger Park ?
(A) Tarun Bharat Sangh Vs. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 514
(B) Consumer Education and Research Society Vs. Union of India, AIR 2000 SC 975
(C) Pradeep Krishen Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 2040
(D) Animal and Environmental Legal Defence Fund case, AIR 1997 SC 1070
Ans: A
38. Which of the following case relates to transfer of Tribal lands by Government to Non-tribal people ?
(A) Shri Manchegowda Vs. State of Karnataka, AIR 1984 SC 1151
(B) Samatha Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 1997 SC 3297
(C) Suresh Lohiya Vs. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 10 SCC 397
(D) Fatesang Gimba Vasava Vs. State of Gujarat, AIR 1987 Guj. 09
Ans: B
39. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer : List – I List - II
a. Suspension of Members i. Article 5
b. Veto power ii. Article 6
c. Appointment of Secretary-General iii. Article 27
d. Objective of the Trusteeship System iv. Article 76 v. Article 97
Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) i iii iv v (C) i iii v iv (D) iii ii v I
Ans: C
40. Which of the following Jurist regard the controversy “whether international law is a law, a dispute about words and not things” ?
(A) Lawrence (B) Austin (C) Hobbes (D) Hart
Ans: A
41. What should be the order of the use of material source of International law ?
1. Treaties and Conventions. 2. Customs 3. General principles of law recognised by civilised States. 4. Judicial decisions and juristic opinion as subsidiary means for the determination of law.
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 2, 3, 1, 4 (C) 4, 2, 1, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: D
42. Which of the Article of the Statute of International Court of Justice makes it clear that the decision of the court will have no binding force except between the parties and in respect of that particular case only ?
(A) Article 60 (B) Article 59 (C) Article 68 (D) Article 38(1)
Ans: A
43. Which of the following functions are performed by Economic and Social Council ?
1. It may make or initiate studies with respect to international economic, social, cultural, educational, health and related matters.
2. It may make recommendations for the purpose of promoting respect for and observance of human rights.
3. It may make recommendations to promote friendly relations and understanding amongst member States.
4. It may prepare draft conventions for submission to the General Assembly on any of the subjects falling within its competence.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 4 (D) 2, 3, 4
Ans: A
44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer : List – I List – II
a. The Covenant on Civil and Political Rights i. 16th Dec. 1966
b. The Declaration on Human Rights ii. 1948
c. Convention on the Rights of Child iii. 1990
d. American Convention on Human Rights iv. 1969
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i (B) ii iii iv i (C) i ii iii iv (D) iv ii iii I
Ans: C
45. Assertion (A) : International law is not a law.
Reason (R) : It lacks determinate superior political authority to enforce its rules. Using the codes given below give the correct answer. Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
46. The junior widow has adopted a child without the consent of senior widow. Decide the adoption.
(A) Valid (B) Void (C) Voidable (D) None of the above
Ans: C
47. In which State, where a widow may adopt a child without an express authority from her husband, before the HA & M Act, 1956 ?
(A) Bihar and M.P. (B) U.P. and Haryana (C) Madras and Bombay (D) Orissa and Andhra Pradesh
Ans: C
48. In ancient Hindu Marriage, which one is not approved form of Marriage ?
(A) Brahma (B) Davia (C) Prajapatya (D) Asura
Ans: D
49. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : The Muslim Women (Protection of Divorce Rights) Act, 1986 brought changes like limit the period of maintenance to Muslim divorcee till ‘iddat’ period and in case of no relatives the liability on Wakf Boards.
Reason (R) : The changes were brought under Muslim’s pressure.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
50. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 brought different grounds for dissolution of marriage and based on Maliki schools.
Reason (R) : The DMM Act, 1939 is brought on the opinion of Ulema (Ijma).
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
I. It is a right against some person or persons.
II. It is a right to some act or omission of such person or persons.
III. It is a right over or to something to which that act or omission relates.
Codes :
(A) I and II are false. (B) I, II and III are true.
(C) II and III are false. (D) Only I is true.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A) : Srutis and Smritis form the greatest treasure house of Hinduism.
Reason (R) : Srutis and Smritis are considered immemorial, timeless and eternal. Examine the above statement (A) and Reason (R) and select whether the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion, using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
23. Personality is a very vague and wide term and it has a variety of meanings. It is derived from the word persona which is a
(A) Latin word (B) French word (C) German word (D) Greek word
Ans: D
24. Fill in the blank with appropriate offence : Extortion is _______, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.
(A) Theft (B) Attempt to murder (C) Robbery (D) Wrongful restraint
Ans: C
25. Fill in the blank with suitable statement : Z dies in possession of gold ring, gold chain and a gold wrist watch during the course of an accident. A, before anyone entitled to such possession, dishonestly misappropriates the same causing ______.
(A) An aggravated form of misappropriation as per Section 404 of IPC.
(B) A type of possession by some process as per Section 405 of IPC
(C) No offence because the property in question was entrusted to A before the death of Z.
(D) No offence because the property in question was possessed by some casualty.
Ans: A
26. Fill in the blank with correct proposition of law : The malicious injury to property as per maxim Sic Utre tuo ut allenum non leadas (to use your own property so as not to injure your neighbour’s property as provided in______.
(A) Damage of property as per Section 427 IPC.
(B) Mischief as per Section 425 IPC.
(C) Mischief to cause wrongful restraint as per Section 440 IPC.
(D) Destruction of landmark as per Section 433 IPC.
Ans: B
27. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below write the appropriate answer :
I. Assertion The distinctive feature between preparation and attempt must be based on.
II. Reason Preparation consists in devising means necessary for the commission of offence while attempt is the direct movement towords commission.
Codes :
(A) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I.
(B) Both I and II are true while II is the correct explanation of I.
(C) I is true, but II is false.
(D) II is true, but I is only a stage of crime.
Ans: B
28. The accused caused bodily pain, disease or infirmity. But it is cognizable, bailable or compoundable. What offence, if any, has been committed by the accused ?
(A) Voluntary causing grievous hurt as per Section 322 IPC.
(B) Voluntary causing serious hurt as per Section 325 IPC.
(C) Voluntary causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon as per Section 324 IPC.
(D) Voluntary causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon as per Section 326 IPC.
Ans: C
29. An individual’s act of abridgement of another’s right to movement could be an offence of :
(A) wrongful confinement as per Section 340 IPC.
(B) an act of abridgement of right to movement was done in good faith and hence no offence.
(C) the movement route being diverted so assault results.
(D) wrongful restraint as per Section 329 IPC.
Ans: D
30. Match the statement that mens rea is a loose term of elastic significance with that of the meaning in sequential order.
(a) Foresight of the consequences of the act.
(b) Criminal intention of deepest dye.
(c) An act which is visible.
(d) It depends upon knowledge and belief.
Matching probabilities :
(A) It is the bare capacity to know in the sequence of (a), (b), (c) and (d).
(B) It is essential ingredient of criminal offence in the sequence of (d), (c), (b) and (a).
(C) It is a presumption to fix criminal liability in the sequence of (c), (b), (a) and (d).
(D) Applicability of the principle becomes essential by the sequence of (b), (a), (d) and (c).
Ans: D
31. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation. I. Assertion Generally a master is not criminally liable merely because his servant has committed a negligent act. II. Reason In ordinary course of employment a master may be criminally liable against the negligent acts of the servant.
Codes :
(A) Both I and II are true, but II is not the correct explanation of I.
(B) I is true and II is the genuine reason of I.
(C) II is true, but I is not absolutely correct.
(D) II is false, but I is only an assertion.
Ans: B
32. On which date & place the Earth Summit was held at ?
(A) 6th June 1997 at Geneva. (B) 20th June 1997 at London.
(C) 21st June 1992 at Rio. (D) 27th June 1992 at Rio.
Ans: C
33. “In case of violation of Article 21 by disturbing the environment, the court could award damages not only for the restoration of the ecological balance but also for the victim who have suffered due to that disturbance.” In which case the Supreme Court of India has made above observations ?
(A) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734 (B) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
(C) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath AIR 2000 SC 1997 (D) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath 2000 (2) SCALE 654
Ans: D
34. In which of the following case the constitutionality, legal validity, propriety and fairness of the settlement of the claims of the victims in a mass tort action relating to Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster has been challenged in Supreme Court of India ?
(A) Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 273
(B) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
(C) Union Carbide Corp. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 248
(D) Charanlal Sahu Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480
Ans: C
35. Under which Article of the Constitution Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted ?
(A) Article 253 (B) Article 258 (C) Article 255 (D) Article 254
Ans: A
36. The problem of the pollution of river Ganga by the inaction of the municipalities was brought to light in which of the following case ?
(A) Indian Council for EnviroLegal Action Vs. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446
(B) A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs. M.V. Nayudu, AIR 1999 SC 812
(C) S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 811
(D) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 1115
Ans: D
37. Which one of the following cases relates to Sariska Tiger Park ?
(A) Tarun Bharat Sangh Vs. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 514
(B) Consumer Education and Research Society Vs. Union of India, AIR 2000 SC 975
(C) Pradeep Krishen Vs. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 2040
(D) Animal and Environmental Legal Defence Fund case, AIR 1997 SC 1070
Ans: A
38. Which of the following case relates to transfer of Tribal lands by Government to Non-tribal people ?
(A) Shri Manchegowda Vs. State of Karnataka, AIR 1984 SC 1151
(B) Samatha Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 1997 SC 3297
(C) Suresh Lohiya Vs. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 10 SCC 397
(D) Fatesang Gimba Vasava Vs. State of Gujarat, AIR 1987 Guj. 09
Ans: B
39. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer : List – I List - II
a. Suspension of Members i. Article 5
b. Veto power ii. Article 6
c. Appointment of Secretary-General iii. Article 27
d. Objective of the Trusteeship System iv. Article 76 v. Article 97
Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) i iii iv v (C) i iii v iv (D) iii ii v I
Ans: C
40. Which of the following Jurist regard the controversy “whether international law is a law, a dispute about words and not things” ?
(A) Lawrence (B) Austin (C) Hobbes (D) Hart
Ans: A
41. What should be the order of the use of material source of International law ?
1. Treaties and Conventions. 2. Customs 3. General principles of law recognised by civilised States. 4. Judicial decisions and juristic opinion as subsidiary means for the determination of law.
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 2, 3, 1, 4 (C) 4, 2, 1, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: D
42. Which of the Article of the Statute of International Court of Justice makes it clear that the decision of the court will have no binding force except between the parties and in respect of that particular case only ?
(A) Article 60 (B) Article 59 (C) Article 68 (D) Article 38(1)
Ans: A
43. Which of the following functions are performed by Economic and Social Council ?
1. It may make or initiate studies with respect to international economic, social, cultural, educational, health and related matters.
2. It may make recommendations for the purpose of promoting respect for and observance of human rights.
3. It may make recommendations to promote friendly relations and understanding amongst member States.
4. It may prepare draft conventions for submission to the General Assembly on any of the subjects falling within its competence.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 4 (D) 2, 3, 4
Ans: A
44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer : List – I List – II
a. The Covenant on Civil and Political Rights i. 16th Dec. 1966
b. The Declaration on Human Rights ii. 1948
c. Convention on the Rights of Child iii. 1990
d. American Convention on Human Rights iv. 1969
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i (B) ii iii iv i (C) i ii iii iv (D) iv ii iii I
Ans: C
45. Assertion (A) : International law is not a law.
Reason (R) : It lacks determinate superior political authority to enforce its rules. Using the codes given below give the correct answer. Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
46. The junior widow has adopted a child without the consent of senior widow. Decide the adoption.
(A) Valid (B) Void (C) Voidable (D) None of the above
Ans: C
47. In which State, where a widow may adopt a child without an express authority from her husband, before the HA & M Act, 1956 ?
(A) Bihar and M.P. (B) U.P. and Haryana (C) Madras and Bombay (D) Orissa and Andhra Pradesh
Ans: C
48. In ancient Hindu Marriage, which one is not approved form of Marriage ?
(A) Brahma (B) Davia (C) Prajapatya (D) Asura
Ans: D
49. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : The Muslim Women (Protection of Divorce Rights) Act, 1986 brought changes like limit the period of maintenance to Muslim divorcee till ‘iddat’ period and in case of no relatives the liability on Wakf Boards.
Reason (R) : The changes were brought under Muslim’s pressure.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
50. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 brought different grounds for dissolution of marriage and based on Maliki schools.
Reason (R) : The DMM Act, 1939 is brought on the opinion of Ulema (Ijma).
Codes : (A) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
51. A Muslim husband has failed to have ‘sexual intercourse’ continuously for four months with wife. It could be a form of divorce and is called
(A) Illa (B) Mubarrah (C) Zihar (D) Khula
Ans: A
52. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer from the codes : List – I List – II
a. Judicial separation i. Section 9
b. Divorce ii. Section 10
c. Voidable Marriages iii. Section 13
d. Restitution of Conjugal Rights iv. Section 12
Codes : a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv (B) ii iv iii i (C) i ii iv iii (D) ii iii iv I
Ans: D
53. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer from the codes : List – I List – II
a. Impotency of Husband i. Divorce
b. Marriage within Sapinda Relationship ii. Voidable Marriage
c. Pre-marriage Pregnancy iii. Nullity of Marriage
d. Option of Puberty iv. Void Marriage
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii (B) iii iv ii i (C) i iii iv ii (D) ii iv i iii
Ans: B
54. The Human Rights has been classified into three categories, viz
(a) The Human Rights of first generation
(b) The Human Rights of Second generation and
(c) The Human Rights of third generation, by
(A) Louis B. Sohan (B) Theodoor C. Bowen (C) R. Dworkin (D) Bernard Mayo
Ans: A
55. “Everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law”. This has been stated in which of the following Article of Universal Declaration of Human Rights ?
(A) Article 6 (B) Article 7 (C) Article 8 (D) Article 9
Ans: A
(A) Illa (B) Mubarrah (C) Zihar (D) Khula
Ans: A
52. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer from the codes : List – I List – II
a. Judicial separation i. Section 9
b. Divorce ii. Section 10
c. Voidable Marriages iii. Section 13
d. Restitution of Conjugal Rights iv. Section 12
Codes : a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv (B) ii iv iii i (C) i ii iv iii (D) ii iii iv I
Ans: D
53. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer from the codes : List – I List – II
a. Impotency of Husband i. Divorce
b. Marriage within Sapinda Relationship ii. Voidable Marriage
c. Pre-marriage Pregnancy iii. Nullity of Marriage
d. Option of Puberty iv. Void Marriage
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii (B) iii iv ii i (C) i iii iv ii (D) ii iv i iii
Ans: B
54. The Human Rights has been classified into three categories, viz
(a) The Human Rights of first generation
(b) The Human Rights of Second generation and
(c) The Human Rights of third generation, by
(A) Louis B. Sohan (B) Theodoor C. Bowen (C) R. Dworkin (D) Bernard Mayo
Ans: A
55. “Everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law”. This has been stated in which of the following Article of Universal Declaration of Human Rights ?
(A) Article 6 (B) Article 7 (C) Article 8 (D) Article 9
Ans: A
56. Social, economic and political Justice is
(A) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
(B) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(C) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments
(D) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court
Ans: A
57. Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from the prisoners is ‘forced labour’ and violation of
(A) Art. 20 of the Constitution of India (B) Art. 21 of the Constitution of India
(C) Art. 22 of the Constitution of India (D) Art. 23 of the Constitution of India
Ans: D
58. Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of
(A) Citizens of India (B) Public Servants (C) All those who run public and private sectors (D) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
Ans: A
59. The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is
(A) Certiorari (B) Mandamus (C) Prohibition (D) Quo-Warranto
Ans: D
60. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Legislative power (B) Executive power (C) Quasi-judicial power (D) Judicial power
Ans: A
61. The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by
(A) The President of India (B) The Parliament by resolution (C) The Parliament by Law (D) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
Ans: C
62. At the first instance, the President can issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period of
(A) Fifteen days (B) Two months (C) One month (D) Six months
Ans: B
63. Legal Theory is based on
(A) a systematic study of positive laws (B) purely logical and empirical study
(C) concepts like morality, justice and ethics (D) total exclusion of customary practices, morality and social vagaries
Ans: C
64. Who separated jurisprudence from religion ?
(A) Kant (B) Hugo Grotius (C) Salmond (D) Jethro Brown
Ans: B
65. Under how many categories the five theories of punishment can be divided ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3
Ans: D
66. On which one of the following one can have corporeal ownership ?
(A) A right (B) Trademark (C) Movable property (D) A debt
Ans: C
67. “Sovereignty must be determinate, it is essential, is indivisible and is unlimited and illimitable.” Who conceived this about the sovereignty ?
(A) Hobbes (B) Austin (C) Jean Bodin (D) Plato
Ans: B
68. Consider the following statements :
1. Statements, which are not partaking of the character of ratio decidendi can be ignored while deciding the latter case.
2. The ratio decidendi is not the reason of decision.
3. Only that part of the judgment in an earlier decision is binding which constitutes the ratio decidendi of that case.
4. A judicial decision has a binding force for subsequent cases but the whole judgment is not binding, only a part of it is biding.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 3, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 2, 4
Ans: A
69. “Case law is gold in the mine, a few grains of the precious metal to the tons of useless matter, while statute law is coin of the realm ready for immediate use.” Who said these words ?
(A) Ihering (B) Austin (C) Kelson (D) Salmond
Ans: D
70. Which of the following statements are true ?
1. There is no rule to determine when usage shall give rise to a custom.
2. Customary rules of International law are diminishing and are being replaced by Treaties and Conventions.
3. Treaty contracts are not direct source of International law.
4. International law is a positive morality.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (B) 2, 3 & 4 (C) 1, 2 & 3 (D) 1 & 2
Ans: C
71. “The law of National or International law may be defined as the body of rules and principles of actions which are binding upon civilized states in their relations with one-another.” This definition of International law was given by
(A) J.L. Brierly (B) Torsten Vitel (C) Hackworth (D) None of the above
Ans: A
72. Match the following : List – I List – II
a. Recognition only and exclusively bestows a State with rights and duties under International Law. i. De-facto recognition
b. It is a first step towards final recognition. ii. De-Jure recognition
c. It is a final recognition by a State. iii. Declaratory Theory
d. International personality of a State does not depend upon recognition. iv. Constitutive Theory
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii (B) i ii iii iv (C) iv iii ii i (D) iii ii i iv
Ans: A
73. The Charter of the United Nations can be amended by
(A) Five-third of the members of General Assembly.
(B) The Security Council only
(C) Two-third of the members of the U.N. including all permanent members of the Security Council after recommendations by a twothirds vote of a conference convened for the purpose, is received .
(D) Two-thirds of the members of the Security Council including five permanent members.
Ans: D
74. In which of the following case, International Court of Justice denied existence of customary rule ?
(A) North Sea Continental Shelf case.
(B) The Lotus case.
(C) Both of the above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C
75. Which organ of the United Nations has been given responsibility of promoting international co-operation in the realisation of human rights ?
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
76. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that even the wife of a void marriage is entitled to maintenance ?
(A) Amarjeet Kaur Vs. Harbhajan Singh (2003) 10 SCC 228.
(B) Chand Dhawan Vs. Jawaharlal Dhawan (1993) 3 SCC 406.
(C) Nirmala Devi Vs. Ram Dass (2001) 2 SCC. 4
(D) Ramesh Chandra Vs. Veena Kausal AIR 1978 SC 1807
Ans: B
77. In which of the following case, the court held that “Dower is a sale price of woman” ?
(A) Maina Bibi case
(B) Humara Bibi case
(C) Subrunnisan case
(D) Abdul Kadir case
Ans: C
78. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : “Option of Puberty” is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu Law.
Reason (R) : “Option of Puberty” is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Muslim Law.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct.
(C) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
(D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
Ans: B
79. ‘Tuhr’ means
(A) Period of menstruation (B) Period of iddat
(C) Period between menstruation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
80. Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Gujarat Women’s Workers Association Vs. Union of India i. Dower
b. Humara Bibi Vs. Zubaida Bibi ii. Triple Divorce
c. Anwari Begum Vs. Ziauddin iii. Uniform Civil Code
d. Bai Tahira Vs. Ali Hussain Fissalli iv. Maintenance
Codes : a b c d (A) i iv ii iii (B) i ii iii iv (C) iii i ii iv (D) ii iii iv I
Ans: C
81. Which form of talaq is revocable during period of ‘iddat’ ?
(A) Talaq-i-Ahsan
(B) Talaq-i-Hasan
(C) Triple Talaq
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
82. Essentials of valid contract is
(A) Meeting of minds
(B) Meeting of parties
(C) Meeting to discuss consideration
(D) Meeting to discuss proposal and acceptance
Ans: A
83. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : A proposal, when accepted, results in an agreement.
Reason (R) : It is only after the acceptance of the proposal that a contract between the two parties can arise.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
84. A minor is son of a beggar. He is told by a law professor that he would not be liable for any goods he purchases. The minor purchases a car and a bread loaf. Decide liability for payment of car and bread loaf, using codes given below.
(A) The minor is liable to pay price of car and bread loaf.
(B) The minor is liable to pay reasonable compensation for car.
(C) The minor is liable to pay price of bread.
(D) The minor’s parent/guardian is liable to pay reasonable compensation for bread loaf.
Ans: D
85. Arrange following concepts in sequence in which they occur, using codes given below :
(i) Offer (ii) Acceptance (iii) Damage (iv) Damages
Codes :
(A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) (C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
86. A contract may be vitiated by : (i) Fraud (ii) Mistake (iii) Frustration (iv) Undue influence Find correct answer, using codes :
Codes :
(A) Only (i) is correct. (B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. (D) All are correct.
Ans: D
87. Match items in Table A with items in Table B, using codes given below : Table – A Table – B
a. Promise i. Section 56
b. Frustration ii. Section 2(d)
c. Effect of refusal to accept offer of performance iii. Section 26
d. Agreement in restraint of marriage iv. Section 38
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) b d a c (B) b a d c (C) a b d c (D) a b c d
Ans: B
88. P, owner of a car, asked his friend Q to drive the car to Bombay where he would join him. As the car was about five kilometres from Bombay, it hit a pedestrian R, on account of Q’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. R sued P for damages. In this case :
(A) P is not liable.
(B) The liability is solely of Q, as P was not accompanying him.
(C) Since Q was driving P’s car was under his authority, P is liable.
(D) P has the defence of inevitable accident.
Ans: C
89. “If it was lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it.” This observation was made by the court in one of the following cases :
(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles (B) Ashby Vs. White
(C) Christie Vs. Davey (D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet
Ans: A
90. P and Q, unknown to R, sought and got a lift in R’s car, but on account of some mechanical defect in the car, of which R was not aware, one of the front wheels of the car got detached and flew away, and the car toppled. P and Q got serious injuries and later on, P died of his injuries. Q and P’s next kin sued R for damages for negligent driving. What defence R has ?
(A) Volenti non fit injuria
(B) No responsibility towards P and Q who got a free lift
(C) Inevitable accident
(D) No defence
Ans: C
91. In contributory negligence :
(A) Both parties have contributed to the negligence equally.
(B) Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care.
(C) One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care.
(D) When lack of care is equal on both sides.
Ans: B
92. P shoot at Q with the view to kill him. When Q was being taken to hospital, a tree fell upon Q on the way and Q died in the hospital a few days later. If it was proved that the falling of the tree caused Q’s death, then
(A) P shall be responsible for the death of Q.
(B) Falling of tree has broken the chain of causation.
(C) P is not liable to pay compensation to the dependents of Q.
(D) P is responsible for the death of Q as Q’s death was the direct consequence of P’s act.
Ans: B
93. Which one of the following has been laid down as basis of responsibility by the rule in Rylands Vs. Fletcher ?
(A) Fault liability (B) Conditional liability (C) Strict liability (D) Insurance liability
Ans: C
94. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below decide what offence if any was committed ?
Assertion – I : A and Z agree to fence with each other for a game. But because of foul, despite playing fairly, Z was injured.
Reason – II :
a. No offence by virtue of consent between A and Z.
b. Consent was obtained in good faith to gain prize, so no offence by A.
c. A is criminally liable because he had knowledge about the likelihood of injury.
d. Despite implied consent the intention was bad so A is liable.
Codes :
(A) Reason ‘a’ is true when ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(B) Reason ‘b’ is true when ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(C) Reason ‘c’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(D) Reason ‘d’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are not asserted.
Ans: A
95. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer :
Assertion – I : Common intention is asserted.
Reason – II :
a. A period which is anterior in time among the offenders.
b. From the facts of pre-arranged plan.
c. From the act of conduct resulting from prior concert.
d. From the totality of circumstances in which the act was committed.
Codes :
(A) ‘a’ is false because ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ do not support it.
(B) ‘d’ is true as ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ support it.
(C) ‘c’ is true irrespective of support of ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’.
(D) ‘b’ is true being supported by ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
Ans: B
96. Select the statement that is most suitable in law : Culpable homicide is not murder when one is deprived of the power of self-control resulting from :
(A) Grave and sudden provocation
(B) When death results by voluntary provocation.
(C) Where death results in course of obedience of law.
(D) When death results by mistake.
Ans: A
97. B a married man commits sex with C a girl child of 16 years with her consent. What offence B has committed ?
(A) Adultery (B) Rape (C) No offence (D) Sexual outraging
Ans: B
98. Fill in the blank : Extortion is ________, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.
(A) Theft (B) Attempt to steal property (C) Robbery (D) Wrongful restraint
Ans: C
99. Find answer of the following question : What is the distinctive feature between false information and false charging ?
(A) Using lawful power to cause annoyance so as to institute a criminal proceeding.
(B) To omit act which ought not to be done.
(C) A case for false information can only be started by a complaint while false charge can be initiated by police.
(D) There is no real distinction.
Ans: B
100. Collective bargaining serves purposes :
(A) Regulating wages and conditions of service
(B) Regulating labour management relations.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C
(A) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
(B) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(C) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments
(D) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court
Ans: A
57. Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from the prisoners is ‘forced labour’ and violation of
(A) Art. 20 of the Constitution of India (B) Art. 21 of the Constitution of India
(C) Art. 22 of the Constitution of India (D) Art. 23 of the Constitution of India
Ans: D
58. Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of
(A) Citizens of India (B) Public Servants (C) All those who run public and private sectors (D) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
Ans: A
59. The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is
(A) Certiorari (B) Mandamus (C) Prohibition (D) Quo-Warranto
Ans: D
60. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Legislative power (B) Executive power (C) Quasi-judicial power (D) Judicial power
Ans: A
61. The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by
(A) The President of India (B) The Parliament by resolution (C) The Parliament by Law (D) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
Ans: C
62. At the first instance, the President can issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period of
(A) Fifteen days (B) Two months (C) One month (D) Six months
Ans: B
63. Legal Theory is based on
(A) a systematic study of positive laws (B) purely logical and empirical study
(C) concepts like morality, justice and ethics (D) total exclusion of customary practices, morality and social vagaries
Ans: C
64. Who separated jurisprudence from religion ?
(A) Kant (B) Hugo Grotius (C) Salmond (D) Jethro Brown
Ans: B
65. Under how many categories the five theories of punishment can be divided ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3
Ans: D
66. On which one of the following one can have corporeal ownership ?
(A) A right (B) Trademark (C) Movable property (D) A debt
Ans: C
67. “Sovereignty must be determinate, it is essential, is indivisible and is unlimited and illimitable.” Who conceived this about the sovereignty ?
(A) Hobbes (B) Austin (C) Jean Bodin (D) Plato
Ans: B
68. Consider the following statements :
1. Statements, which are not partaking of the character of ratio decidendi can be ignored while deciding the latter case.
2. The ratio decidendi is not the reason of decision.
3. Only that part of the judgment in an earlier decision is binding which constitutes the ratio decidendi of that case.
4. A judicial decision has a binding force for subsequent cases but the whole judgment is not binding, only a part of it is biding.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 3, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 2, 4
Ans: A
69. “Case law is gold in the mine, a few grains of the precious metal to the tons of useless matter, while statute law is coin of the realm ready for immediate use.” Who said these words ?
(A) Ihering (B) Austin (C) Kelson (D) Salmond
Ans: D
70. Which of the following statements are true ?
1. There is no rule to determine when usage shall give rise to a custom.
2. Customary rules of International law are diminishing and are being replaced by Treaties and Conventions.
3. Treaty contracts are not direct source of International law.
4. International law is a positive morality.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (B) 2, 3 & 4 (C) 1, 2 & 3 (D) 1 & 2
Ans: C
71. “The law of National or International law may be defined as the body of rules and principles of actions which are binding upon civilized states in their relations with one-another.” This definition of International law was given by
(A) J.L. Brierly (B) Torsten Vitel (C) Hackworth (D) None of the above
Ans: A
72. Match the following : List – I List – II
a. Recognition only and exclusively bestows a State with rights and duties under International Law. i. De-facto recognition
b. It is a first step towards final recognition. ii. De-Jure recognition
c. It is a final recognition by a State. iii. Declaratory Theory
d. International personality of a State does not depend upon recognition. iv. Constitutive Theory
Codes : a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii (B) i ii iii iv (C) iv iii ii i (D) iii ii i iv
Ans: A
73. The Charter of the United Nations can be amended by
(A) Five-third of the members of General Assembly.
(B) The Security Council only
(C) Two-third of the members of the U.N. including all permanent members of the Security Council after recommendations by a twothirds vote of a conference convened for the purpose, is received .
(D) Two-thirds of the members of the Security Council including five permanent members.
Ans: D
74. In which of the following case, International Court of Justice denied existence of customary rule ?
(A) North Sea Continental Shelf case.
(B) The Lotus case.
(C) Both of the above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C
75. Which organ of the United Nations has been given responsibility of promoting international co-operation in the realisation of human rights ?
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
76. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that even the wife of a void marriage is entitled to maintenance ?
(A) Amarjeet Kaur Vs. Harbhajan Singh (2003) 10 SCC 228.
(B) Chand Dhawan Vs. Jawaharlal Dhawan (1993) 3 SCC 406.
(C) Nirmala Devi Vs. Ram Dass (2001) 2 SCC. 4
(D) Ramesh Chandra Vs. Veena Kausal AIR 1978 SC 1807
Ans: B
77. In which of the following case, the court held that “Dower is a sale price of woman” ?
(A) Maina Bibi case
(B) Humara Bibi case
(C) Subrunnisan case
(D) Abdul Kadir case
Ans: C
78. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : “Option of Puberty” is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu Law.
Reason (R) : “Option of Puberty” is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Muslim Law.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct.
(C) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
(D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
Ans: B
79. ‘Tuhr’ means
(A) Period of menstruation (B) Period of iddat
(C) Period between menstruation (D) None of the above
Ans: C
80. Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Gujarat Women’s Workers Association Vs. Union of India i. Dower
b. Humara Bibi Vs. Zubaida Bibi ii. Triple Divorce
c. Anwari Begum Vs. Ziauddin iii. Uniform Civil Code
d. Bai Tahira Vs. Ali Hussain Fissalli iv. Maintenance
Codes : a b c d (A) i iv ii iii (B) i ii iii iv (C) iii i ii iv (D) ii iii iv I
Ans: C
81. Which form of talaq is revocable during period of ‘iddat’ ?
(A) Talaq-i-Ahsan
(B) Talaq-i-Hasan
(C) Triple Talaq
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
82. Essentials of valid contract is
(A) Meeting of minds
(B) Meeting of parties
(C) Meeting to discuss consideration
(D) Meeting to discuss proposal and acceptance
Ans: A
83. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A) : A proposal, when accepted, results in an agreement.
Reason (R) : It is only after the acceptance of the proposal that a contract between the two parties can arise.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
84. A minor is son of a beggar. He is told by a law professor that he would not be liable for any goods he purchases. The minor purchases a car and a bread loaf. Decide liability for payment of car and bread loaf, using codes given below.
(A) The minor is liable to pay price of car and bread loaf.
(B) The minor is liable to pay reasonable compensation for car.
(C) The minor is liable to pay price of bread.
(D) The minor’s parent/guardian is liable to pay reasonable compensation for bread loaf.
Ans: D
85. Arrange following concepts in sequence in which they occur, using codes given below :
(i) Offer (ii) Acceptance (iii) Damage (iv) Damages
Codes :
(A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) (C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
86. A contract may be vitiated by : (i) Fraud (ii) Mistake (iii) Frustration (iv) Undue influence Find correct answer, using codes :
Codes :
(A) Only (i) is correct. (B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. (D) All are correct.
Ans: D
87. Match items in Table A with items in Table B, using codes given below : Table – A Table – B
a. Promise i. Section 56
b. Frustration ii. Section 2(d)
c. Effect of refusal to accept offer of performance iii. Section 26
d. Agreement in restraint of marriage iv. Section 38
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) b d a c (B) b a d c (C) a b d c (D) a b c d
Ans: B
88. P, owner of a car, asked his friend Q to drive the car to Bombay where he would join him. As the car was about five kilometres from Bombay, it hit a pedestrian R, on account of Q’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. R sued P for damages. In this case :
(A) P is not liable.
(B) The liability is solely of Q, as P was not accompanying him.
(C) Since Q was driving P’s car was under his authority, P is liable.
(D) P has the defence of inevitable accident.
Ans: C
89. “If it was lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it.” This observation was made by the court in one of the following cases :
(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles (B) Ashby Vs. White
(C) Christie Vs. Davey (D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet
Ans: A
90. P and Q, unknown to R, sought and got a lift in R’s car, but on account of some mechanical defect in the car, of which R was not aware, one of the front wheels of the car got detached and flew away, and the car toppled. P and Q got serious injuries and later on, P died of his injuries. Q and P’s next kin sued R for damages for negligent driving. What defence R has ?
(A) Volenti non fit injuria
(B) No responsibility towards P and Q who got a free lift
(C) Inevitable accident
(D) No defence
Ans: C
91. In contributory negligence :
(A) Both parties have contributed to the negligence equally.
(B) Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care.
(C) One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care.
(D) When lack of care is equal on both sides.
Ans: B
92. P shoot at Q with the view to kill him. When Q was being taken to hospital, a tree fell upon Q on the way and Q died in the hospital a few days later. If it was proved that the falling of the tree caused Q’s death, then
(A) P shall be responsible for the death of Q.
(B) Falling of tree has broken the chain of causation.
(C) P is not liable to pay compensation to the dependents of Q.
(D) P is responsible for the death of Q as Q’s death was the direct consequence of P’s act.
Ans: B
93. Which one of the following has been laid down as basis of responsibility by the rule in Rylands Vs. Fletcher ?
(A) Fault liability (B) Conditional liability (C) Strict liability (D) Insurance liability
Ans: C
94. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below decide what offence if any was committed ?
Assertion – I : A and Z agree to fence with each other for a game. But because of foul, despite playing fairly, Z was injured.
Reason – II :
a. No offence by virtue of consent between A and Z.
b. Consent was obtained in good faith to gain prize, so no offence by A.
c. A is criminally liable because he had knowledge about the likelihood of injury.
d. Despite implied consent the intention was bad so A is liable.
Codes :
(A) Reason ‘a’ is true when ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(B) Reason ‘b’ is true when ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(C) Reason ‘c’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(D) Reason ‘d’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are not asserted.
Ans: A
95. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer :
Assertion – I : Common intention is asserted.
Reason – II :
a. A period which is anterior in time among the offenders.
b. From the facts of pre-arranged plan.
c. From the act of conduct resulting from prior concert.
d. From the totality of circumstances in which the act was committed.
Codes :
(A) ‘a’ is false because ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ do not support it.
(B) ‘d’ is true as ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ support it.
(C) ‘c’ is true irrespective of support of ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’.
(D) ‘b’ is true being supported by ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
Ans: B
96. Select the statement that is most suitable in law : Culpable homicide is not murder when one is deprived of the power of self-control resulting from :
(A) Grave and sudden provocation
(B) When death results by voluntary provocation.
(C) Where death results in course of obedience of law.
(D) When death results by mistake.
Ans: A
97. B a married man commits sex with C a girl child of 16 years with her consent. What offence B has committed ?
(A) Adultery (B) Rape (C) No offence (D) Sexual outraging
Ans: B
98. Fill in the blank : Extortion is ________, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.
(A) Theft (B) Attempt to steal property (C) Robbery (D) Wrongful restraint
Ans: C
99. Find answer of the following question : What is the distinctive feature between false information and false charging ?
(A) Using lawful power to cause annoyance so as to institute a criminal proceeding.
(B) To omit act which ought not to be done.
(C) A case for false information can only be started by a complaint while false charge can be initiated by police.
(D) There is no real distinction.
Ans: B
100. Collective bargaining serves purposes :
(A) Regulating wages and conditions of service
(B) Regulating labour management relations.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C