FORENSIC SCIENCE- BIOLOGY
FORENSIC SCIENCE- BIOLOGY- PAGE 1 MCQs
1. Eco RI is an
(A) Ligase (B) Polymerase (C) Gyrase (D) Restriction enzyme
Ans: D
2. The following RNA molecules serves as an adaptor molecule during protein synthesis.
(A) tRNA (B) rRNA (C) mRNA (D) tRNA and mRNA
Ans: A
3. During translation, the role of enzyme peptidyltransferase is
(A) Amino acid activation (B) Peptide bond formation between adjacent amino acids
(C) Transfer of phosphate group (D) Binding of ribosome subunits to mRNA
Ans: B
4. Phenol used in DNA extraction,
(A) Precipitates RNA-protein complex and leave DNA in aqueous solution
(B) Precipitates proteins and leave nucleic acids in aqueous solution
(C) Precipitates cell debries and leave nucleic acids-protein complex in aqueous solution
(D) Precipitates RNA-protein complex and leave DNA in aqueous solution
Ans: B
5. In cell extracts with high protein content, before phenol treatment
(A) SDS is used to break polypeptides to small fragments (B) Protease are used to break polypeptides to small fragments
(C) Chloroform is used to break polypeptides to small fragments (D) Isopropanol is used to break polypeptides to small fragments
Ans: B
6. Which of the following is in correct order regarding DNA extraction?
(A) Cell lysis>phenol treatment>protease treatment>ethanol precipitation
(B) Cell lysis>RNAs treatment>protease treatment>ethanol precipitation
(C) Cell lysis>phenol treatment>RNAs treatment>ethanol precipitation
(D) RNAs treatment>protease treatment> Cell lysis t>ethanol precipitation
Ans: C
7. During translation proteins are synthesized,
(A) By ribosomes using the information on mRNA (B) By ribosomes using the information on rRNA
(C) By lysosome using the information on DNA (D) By ribosomes using the information on DNA
Ans: A
8. Which of the following is a chemical nucleotide sequencing method?
(A) Edmans method (B) Sanger method
(C) Automated sequencing method (D) Maxam-Gilbert method
Ans: D
9. Some drugs, in addition to blocking access of the natural agonist to the receptor are capable of low degree of activation , are known to show
(A) Partial agonist activity (B) Bifunctional action
(C) Pure agonist activity (D) Partial antagonistic activity
Ans: A
10. The rationale for using ethanol in methanol poisoning cases is
(A) Irreversible inhibition of enzyme activity (B) Competitive inhibition of enzyme activity
(C) Substrate modification (D) None of these
Ans: B
11. Low levels of Aspirin is sufficient for anti-platelet action via
(A) Covalent binding of Aspirin to cyclooxygenase
(B) Covalent binding of Aspirin to cytochrome oxidase
(C) Covalent binding of Aspirin to superoxide dismutase
(D) All three A,B and C
Ans: A
12. The strength of response induced by occupancy of the receptor by an agonist, refers to the drugs
(A) Receptor dynamics
(B) Pharmacological efficacy
(C) Therapeutic efficacy
(D) All three A,B and C
Ans: B
13. From Pharmacokinetic point of view, which of the following is a “leaky epithelia”
(A) Proximal renal tubule (B) Urinary bladder (C) Jejunum (D) Both A and C
Ans: D
14. Water solubility of a substance is promoted by the presence of
(A) Halogen group (B) Amide group (C) Carboxylic group (D) Both B and C
Ans: D
15. Drugs that need to be distributed uniformly, has to substantially un-ionised at
(A) pH 7.46±0.04 (B) pH 7.00±0.04 (C) pH 7.05±0.04 (D) pH 7.86±0.04
Ans: A
16. What percentage of a drug in systemic circulation subjected to hepatic metabolic process, per circulation
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 5% (D) 10%
Ans: A
17. P450 system is not involved in the oxidation reactions of which substance(s)
(A) Amines (B) Methyl zanthines (C) Mercaptopurines (D) All three A,B and C
Ans: D
18. Mucopolysaccharidoses are inherited storage disease caused by
(A) an increased rate of proteoglycan synthesis (B) altered polysaccharide synthesis
(C) defects in proteoglycan degradation pathway (D) defects in mucopolysaccharide utilization
Ans: C
19. The extra genic DNA of human genome amounts to approximately
(A) 75% (B) 50% (C) 20% (D) 10%
Ans: A
20. Repetitive DNA ,which is of particular use in Forensic DNA analysis, forms about
(A) 50% of extragenomic DNA (B) 50% of genome (C) 30% of extragenomic DNA (D) 30% of genome
Ans: A
21. Which of the following sample(s) is often classed as a poor source for DNA extraction
(A) Dead skin cells (B) Urine (C) Faeces (D) All three A, B and C
Ans: D
22. Stratum spinosum of the epidermis lies between,
(A) Stratum granulosum and stratum lucidum (B) Stratum granulosum and stratum basale
(C) Stratum basale and stratum lucidum (D) Stratum granulosum and stratum cornium
Ans: B
23. Size of starch granules is influenced by
(A) Species and site of storage (B) Site of storage and age of granule
(C) Site of storage and humidity (D) None of these
Ans: B
24. Substance responsible for pollen allergy are often products originating from
(A) Tapetum (B) Pollen mother cell (C) Tetrads (D) B & C
Ans: A
25. Low humidity during pollen storage usually has a positive effect on pollen viability, with exceptions in some species of
(A) Solanacea family (B) Gramineae family (C) Orchidaceae (D) Liliaceae
Ans: B
26. Opiates are good examples of
(A) Hallucinogens (B) Sedatives (C) Tranquilisers (D) Stimulants
Ans: B
27. Which of the following has its origin in India, Myanmar and West Africa
(A) Pyrus communis (B) Pterocarpus spp. (C) Eucalyptus delegatensis (D) Quercuss spp.
Ans: B
28. Tectona grandis, a high quality timber,occupying major plantations is from
(A) Africa (B) America (C) South East Asia (D) Australia
Ans: C
29. Which among the following is not a component of Eukaryotic plasma membrane
(A) Cholesterol (B) Carbohydrates (C) Triglycerides (D) Lecithin
Ans: C
30. A peptide bond
(A) Is easily ionized at physiologic pH (B) Has a partial double bond character
(C) Is stable to heating in strong acids (D) Occurs most commonly in the cis –configuration
Ans: B
31. The nanosensing method employed to detect Cholera toxin in water is
(A) FETR-Forster Energy Transfer Resonance (B) FRET- Forster Resonance Energy Transfer
(C) FETR-Fourier Energy Transfer Resonance (D) FRET-Fourier Resonance Energy Transfer
Ans: B
32. CNT-FED screen is made of thousands of pixels ,with each pixel containing three subpixels made of
(A) red, green and blue phosphors (B) yellow ,green and blue phosphors
(C) black ,green and blue phosphors (D) red, black and blue phosphors
Ans: A
33. In nucleic acid based nanobiosensors, riboflavin mediates electro-chemical detection of
(A) Adenosine-related target DNA (B) Thymidine-related target DNA
(C) Cytosine-related target DNA (D) Uracil-related target RNA
Ans: B
34. Recombinant P.putida JS444,is an excellent nanobiosensor for detecting
(A) Hormones (B) Pesticides (C) Drug adulteration (D) Carbon monoxide
Ans: B
35. Name the CNT based nanosensor system that detects glucose concentration in real blood sample
(A) POAS coated CNTs (B) MWCNTs (C) Polyvinyl ferrocene derivatised MWCNTs (D) SWCNTs
Ans: C
36. Electrochemical DNA hybridization biosensors rely on the conversion of DNA base pair recognition event into a useful electrical signal. Here the electrode is
(A) modified with a single stranded oligonucleotide probe
(B) modified with a double stranded oligonucleotide probe
(C) modified with a cDNA probe
(D) modified with a m-RNA probe
Ans: A
37. A common technique for the production of SWCNTs is
(A) Sol-gel synthesis (B) Hydrothermal synthesis (C) Arc discharge method (D) Solvo-thermal synthesis
Ans: C
38. Deals with human diseases caused by, or associated with abnormal exposure to chemical substances.
(A) Forensic Toxicology (B) Clinical toxicology (C) Fulminant poisoning (D) Ecotoxicology
Ans: B
39. Agents used to cause bodily injury,
(A) Corrosive acids and alkalies. (B) Digitalis, (C) Abrus precatorius (D) Strychnos nux vomica.
Ans: A
40. Which of the following is NOT part of the etymology of the word pharmacology?
(A) Poison (B) Medicine (C) Herb (D) Drug
Ans: A
41. Which of the following describes an agonist?
(A) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts
(B) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
(C) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its chemical action
(D) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular activity
Ans: B
42. Which of the following describes minimal effective concentration (MEC)?
(A) The minimal drug plasma concentration to enter tissues (B) The minimal drug plasma concentration to reach therapeutic levels
(C) The minimal drug plasma concentration to produce effect (D) The minimal drug plasma concentration that can be detected
Ans: C
43. Which of the following is NOT a pharmacokinetic process?
(A) The drug is readily deposited in fat tissue (B) The drug causes dilation of coronary vessels
(C) Movement of drug from the gut into general circulation (D) Alteration of the drug by liver enzymes
Ans: B
44. Regulated by cytokines and growth factors, the Janus-Kinase JAK-STAT pathway results in which of the following?
(A) Endogenous mediator blocking (B) Ion channel modulation (C) Gene transcription (D) Ion channel closing
Ans: C
45. Which of the following hormone regulate fluid balance?
(A) Oestrogen (B) Erythropoietin (C) Antidiuretic hormone (D) Rennin
Ans: C
46. What is the function of the extracellular matrix?
(A) Filter blood and remove waste products (B) Analyse levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide
(C) Transmit impulses through connective tissue (D) To ensure connective tissue can bear weight and withstand tension
Ans: D
47. A muscle fibre relaxes when
(A) the nerve stimulus is too forceful (B) all the ATP is used up
(C) the nerve stimulus is removed (D) the actin binding sites are saturated
Ans: C
48. What is the function of a tendon?
(A) to link bones to bones (B) to bind bone cells close together (C) to link muscles to ligaments (D) to link muscles to bones
Ans: D
49. Xenobiotic are considered
(A) Inorganic poisons (B) Endogenous (C) Exogenous (D) None of above
Ans: C
50. A functional or anatomical change, at the cellular level, resulting from the exposure of a living organism to a substance.
(A) Mode of action (B) chemical could be "binding to DNA"
(C) Mechanism of action (D) All of above
Ans: A
(A) Ligase (B) Polymerase (C) Gyrase (D) Restriction enzyme
Ans: D
2. The following RNA molecules serves as an adaptor molecule during protein synthesis.
(A) tRNA (B) rRNA (C) mRNA (D) tRNA and mRNA
Ans: A
3. During translation, the role of enzyme peptidyltransferase is
(A) Amino acid activation (B) Peptide bond formation between adjacent amino acids
(C) Transfer of phosphate group (D) Binding of ribosome subunits to mRNA
Ans: B
4. Phenol used in DNA extraction,
(A) Precipitates RNA-protein complex and leave DNA in aqueous solution
(B) Precipitates proteins and leave nucleic acids in aqueous solution
(C) Precipitates cell debries and leave nucleic acids-protein complex in aqueous solution
(D) Precipitates RNA-protein complex and leave DNA in aqueous solution
Ans: B
5. In cell extracts with high protein content, before phenol treatment
(A) SDS is used to break polypeptides to small fragments (B) Protease are used to break polypeptides to small fragments
(C) Chloroform is used to break polypeptides to small fragments (D) Isopropanol is used to break polypeptides to small fragments
Ans: B
6. Which of the following is in correct order regarding DNA extraction?
(A) Cell lysis>phenol treatment>protease treatment>ethanol precipitation
(B) Cell lysis>RNAs treatment>protease treatment>ethanol precipitation
(C) Cell lysis>phenol treatment>RNAs treatment>ethanol precipitation
(D) RNAs treatment>protease treatment> Cell lysis t>ethanol precipitation
Ans: C
7. During translation proteins are synthesized,
(A) By ribosomes using the information on mRNA (B) By ribosomes using the information on rRNA
(C) By lysosome using the information on DNA (D) By ribosomes using the information on DNA
Ans: A
8. Which of the following is a chemical nucleotide sequencing method?
(A) Edmans method (B) Sanger method
(C) Automated sequencing method (D) Maxam-Gilbert method
Ans: D
9. Some drugs, in addition to blocking access of the natural agonist to the receptor are capable of low degree of activation , are known to show
(A) Partial agonist activity (B) Bifunctional action
(C) Pure agonist activity (D) Partial antagonistic activity
Ans: A
10. The rationale for using ethanol in methanol poisoning cases is
(A) Irreversible inhibition of enzyme activity (B) Competitive inhibition of enzyme activity
(C) Substrate modification (D) None of these
Ans: B
11. Low levels of Aspirin is sufficient for anti-platelet action via
(A) Covalent binding of Aspirin to cyclooxygenase
(B) Covalent binding of Aspirin to cytochrome oxidase
(C) Covalent binding of Aspirin to superoxide dismutase
(D) All three A,B and C
Ans: A
12. The strength of response induced by occupancy of the receptor by an agonist, refers to the drugs
(A) Receptor dynamics
(B) Pharmacological efficacy
(C) Therapeutic efficacy
(D) All three A,B and C
Ans: B
13. From Pharmacokinetic point of view, which of the following is a “leaky epithelia”
(A) Proximal renal tubule (B) Urinary bladder (C) Jejunum (D) Both A and C
Ans: D
14. Water solubility of a substance is promoted by the presence of
(A) Halogen group (B) Amide group (C) Carboxylic group (D) Both B and C
Ans: D
15. Drugs that need to be distributed uniformly, has to substantially un-ionised at
(A) pH 7.46±0.04 (B) pH 7.00±0.04 (C) pH 7.05±0.04 (D) pH 7.86±0.04
Ans: A
16. What percentage of a drug in systemic circulation subjected to hepatic metabolic process, per circulation
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 5% (D) 10%
Ans: A
17. P450 system is not involved in the oxidation reactions of which substance(s)
(A) Amines (B) Methyl zanthines (C) Mercaptopurines (D) All three A,B and C
Ans: D
18. Mucopolysaccharidoses are inherited storage disease caused by
(A) an increased rate of proteoglycan synthesis (B) altered polysaccharide synthesis
(C) defects in proteoglycan degradation pathway (D) defects in mucopolysaccharide utilization
Ans: C
19. The extra genic DNA of human genome amounts to approximately
(A) 75% (B) 50% (C) 20% (D) 10%
Ans: A
20. Repetitive DNA ,which is of particular use in Forensic DNA analysis, forms about
(A) 50% of extragenomic DNA (B) 50% of genome (C) 30% of extragenomic DNA (D) 30% of genome
Ans: A
21. Which of the following sample(s) is often classed as a poor source for DNA extraction
(A) Dead skin cells (B) Urine (C) Faeces (D) All three A, B and C
Ans: D
22. Stratum spinosum of the epidermis lies between,
(A) Stratum granulosum and stratum lucidum (B) Stratum granulosum and stratum basale
(C) Stratum basale and stratum lucidum (D) Stratum granulosum and stratum cornium
Ans: B
23. Size of starch granules is influenced by
(A) Species and site of storage (B) Site of storage and age of granule
(C) Site of storage and humidity (D) None of these
Ans: B
24. Substance responsible for pollen allergy are often products originating from
(A) Tapetum (B) Pollen mother cell (C) Tetrads (D) B & C
Ans: A
25. Low humidity during pollen storage usually has a positive effect on pollen viability, with exceptions in some species of
(A) Solanacea family (B) Gramineae family (C) Orchidaceae (D) Liliaceae
Ans: B
26. Opiates are good examples of
(A) Hallucinogens (B) Sedatives (C) Tranquilisers (D) Stimulants
Ans: B
27. Which of the following has its origin in India, Myanmar and West Africa
(A) Pyrus communis (B) Pterocarpus spp. (C) Eucalyptus delegatensis (D) Quercuss spp.
Ans: B
28. Tectona grandis, a high quality timber,occupying major plantations is from
(A) Africa (B) America (C) South East Asia (D) Australia
Ans: C
29. Which among the following is not a component of Eukaryotic plasma membrane
(A) Cholesterol (B) Carbohydrates (C) Triglycerides (D) Lecithin
Ans: C
30. A peptide bond
(A) Is easily ionized at physiologic pH (B) Has a partial double bond character
(C) Is stable to heating in strong acids (D) Occurs most commonly in the cis –configuration
Ans: B
31. The nanosensing method employed to detect Cholera toxin in water is
(A) FETR-Forster Energy Transfer Resonance (B) FRET- Forster Resonance Energy Transfer
(C) FETR-Fourier Energy Transfer Resonance (D) FRET-Fourier Resonance Energy Transfer
Ans: B
32. CNT-FED screen is made of thousands of pixels ,with each pixel containing three subpixels made of
(A) red, green and blue phosphors (B) yellow ,green and blue phosphors
(C) black ,green and blue phosphors (D) red, black and blue phosphors
Ans: A
33. In nucleic acid based nanobiosensors, riboflavin mediates electro-chemical detection of
(A) Adenosine-related target DNA (B) Thymidine-related target DNA
(C) Cytosine-related target DNA (D) Uracil-related target RNA
Ans: B
34. Recombinant P.putida JS444,is an excellent nanobiosensor for detecting
(A) Hormones (B) Pesticides (C) Drug adulteration (D) Carbon monoxide
Ans: B
35. Name the CNT based nanosensor system that detects glucose concentration in real blood sample
(A) POAS coated CNTs (B) MWCNTs (C) Polyvinyl ferrocene derivatised MWCNTs (D) SWCNTs
Ans: C
36. Electrochemical DNA hybridization biosensors rely on the conversion of DNA base pair recognition event into a useful electrical signal. Here the electrode is
(A) modified with a single stranded oligonucleotide probe
(B) modified with a double stranded oligonucleotide probe
(C) modified with a cDNA probe
(D) modified with a m-RNA probe
Ans: A
37. A common technique for the production of SWCNTs is
(A) Sol-gel synthesis (B) Hydrothermal synthesis (C) Arc discharge method (D) Solvo-thermal synthesis
Ans: C
38. Deals with human diseases caused by, or associated with abnormal exposure to chemical substances.
(A) Forensic Toxicology (B) Clinical toxicology (C) Fulminant poisoning (D) Ecotoxicology
Ans: B
39. Agents used to cause bodily injury,
(A) Corrosive acids and alkalies. (B) Digitalis, (C) Abrus precatorius (D) Strychnos nux vomica.
Ans: A
40. Which of the following is NOT part of the etymology of the word pharmacology?
(A) Poison (B) Medicine (C) Herb (D) Drug
Ans: A
41. Which of the following describes an agonist?
(A) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts
(B) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
(C) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its chemical action
(D) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular activity
Ans: B
42. Which of the following describes minimal effective concentration (MEC)?
(A) The minimal drug plasma concentration to enter tissues (B) The minimal drug plasma concentration to reach therapeutic levels
(C) The minimal drug plasma concentration to produce effect (D) The minimal drug plasma concentration that can be detected
Ans: C
43. Which of the following is NOT a pharmacokinetic process?
(A) The drug is readily deposited in fat tissue (B) The drug causes dilation of coronary vessels
(C) Movement of drug from the gut into general circulation (D) Alteration of the drug by liver enzymes
Ans: B
44. Regulated by cytokines and growth factors, the Janus-Kinase JAK-STAT pathway results in which of the following?
(A) Endogenous mediator blocking (B) Ion channel modulation (C) Gene transcription (D) Ion channel closing
Ans: C
45. Which of the following hormone regulate fluid balance?
(A) Oestrogen (B) Erythropoietin (C) Antidiuretic hormone (D) Rennin
Ans: C
46. What is the function of the extracellular matrix?
(A) Filter blood and remove waste products (B) Analyse levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide
(C) Transmit impulses through connective tissue (D) To ensure connective tissue can bear weight and withstand tension
Ans: D
47. A muscle fibre relaxes when
(A) the nerve stimulus is too forceful (B) all the ATP is used up
(C) the nerve stimulus is removed (D) the actin binding sites are saturated
Ans: C
48. What is the function of a tendon?
(A) to link bones to bones (B) to bind bone cells close together (C) to link muscles to ligaments (D) to link muscles to bones
Ans: D
49. Xenobiotic are considered
(A) Inorganic poisons (B) Endogenous (C) Exogenous (D) None of above
Ans: C
50. A functional or anatomical change, at the cellular level, resulting from the exposure of a living organism to a substance.
(A) Mode of action (B) chemical could be "binding to DNA"
(C) Mechanism of action (D) All of above
Ans: A
51. As the poison gets absorbed systemically, it produces both specific CNS, spinal cord, cardiac and nonspecific shock.
(A) Local action (B) Remote action (C) Irritant (D) Corrosive
Ans: B
52. Whole blood, Serum, Urine are taken for toxicological testing during,
(A) Ante mortem examination (B) Post mortem examination
(C) Both ante and post mortem examination (D) Environmental examination
Ans: C
53. Isolation and Extraction of poison or drug by various modern methods using instrumental techniques include,
(A) Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy (B) Light microscopy (C) Colorimetric, (D) Photography
Ans: A
54. Which of the following toxins comes from the castor oil plant?
(A) Atropine (B) Strychnine (C) Ricin (D) Digitalin
Ans: C
55. What hormone does the pancreatic alpha cell secrete?
(A) Insulin (B) Somatostatin (C) Somatotropin (D) Amylase
Ans: B
56. Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) which has been modelled over and historically follows from the British Pharmacopoeia. The standards that are in effects are,
(A) (IP 2011).
(B) (IP 2008).
(C) (IP 2009).
(D) (IP 2010).
Ans: D
57. The actual process of publishing the first Pharmacopoeia started in the year 1944 under the chairmanship of,
(A) Col. R. N. Rao
(B) Col. N. N. Chopra
(C) Col. R. N. Chopra
(D) Col. N. R. Chopra
Ans: C
58. What is the full form of OECD?
(A) Organization of Economic Corporation Development (B) Organization of Equality Economic Corporation Development
(C) Organization of Equal and Challenging Development (D) Organization of European Corporation Development
Ans: A
59. Trade mark,
(A) may include shapes of goods or combination of colours (B) is represented graphically
(C) is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others (D) All of the above
Ans: D
60. USP has________ in enforcing its standards; enforcement is the responsibility of FDA and other government authorities in the U.S. and elsewhere.
(A) Major role (B) no role (C) As per needed role (D) Power
Ans: B
61. Transgenic tobacco plants which expressed nitrilase activity were found resistant to the toxic activity of
(A) Bromouracil (B) Bromoxynil (C) Thymoxynil (D) Thymouracil
Ans: B
62. Low levels of insecticidal toxin activity in BT plants was enhanced by combining the toxicity gene with
(A) Serine protease inhibitor (B) Serine protease activator (C) Trypsin synthase (D) Trypsin activator
Ans: A
63. The vir genes in the Ti plasmid are located
(A) in the T-DNA region (B) at the right border of T-DNA (C) at the left border of T-DNA (D) outside the T-DNA region
Ans: D
64. Which region of the Ti plasmid is absolutely required for T-DNA integration into a plant cell DNA
(A) cloning site (B) right border sequence of the T-DNA region (C) left border sequence of the T-DNA region (D) both a and c
Ans: B
65. Glycerol phosphate acyl Transferase gene that confers cold tolerance in transgenic plants is taken from (A) Pentunia.sp (B) Phaseolus vulgari (C) Arabidopsis.sp (D) Nicotiana alata
Ans: C
66. In Northern Blotting technique the m-RNA in the agarose gel is transferred to
(A) Nitroacetate filter paper (B) Nitrocellulose filter paper (C) Aminobenzylomethyl filter paper (D) Aminocellulase
Ans: C
67. Which of the following is an immune detection method
(A) Southern Blotting (B) Northern Blotting (C) Western Blotting (D) Both b and c
Ans: C
68. When genes coding for enzymes mannitol dehydrogenase and sorbitol dehydrogenase was introduced into a plant through Ti plasmid the transgenic plant was resistant to
(A) drought and heat (B) drought and salinity (C) heat and salinity (D) drought and cold
Ans: A
69. Transgenic plant bioreactors have successfully produced
(A) antigenic protein of hepatitis B virus in banana (B) a gene for human interferon in tobacco plant
(C) antigenic protein of hepatitis B virus I tobacco plant (D) both a and b
Ans: D
70. Production of CD4 protein for AIDS treatment in transgenic mice exemplifies
(A) Animal bioreactors (B) Animal Pharming (C) Therapeutic model (D) None
Ans: B
71. Transgenic mosquitoes have been produced to combat malaria by incorporating genes coding for
(A) endotoxin of Plasmodium vivax (B) cytotoxin of Plasmodium vivax
(C) plasmatoxins of Plasmodium vivax (D) exotoxins of Plasmodium vivax
Ans: A
72. The BR of pBR322 stands for
(A) F. Bolivar and R. Rodrigues (B) Bacillus Recombinant (C) F. Batson and R.Rodrigues (D) Bacterial Recombinant
Ans: A
73. DNA denaturation is usually done by
(A) heat treatment (B) acid treatment (C) alkali treatment (D) both a and c
Ans: D
74. During the synthesis of cDNA ,subsequent to Reverse transcriptase treatment , the Klenow fragment/enzyme used is from
(A) E.coli DNA polymerase II (B) E.coli DNA polymerase I
(C) E.coli RNA polymerase I (D) none of these
Ans: B
75. Shuttle vectors carry
(A) Two types of origin of replication and selectable marker genes. (B) Two types of origin of replication.
(C) Two types of selectable marker genes. (D) one type of origin of replication and selectable marker genes
Ans: A
76. Amoeboid locomotion is exhibited by which of the following cells in human body,
(A) embryonic cells and red blood cells (B) white blood cells and neural cells
(C) embryonic cells and neural cells (D) white blood cells and embryonic cells
Ans: D
77. One of the features listed below is not characteristic of ‘transformed ‘ cells,
(A) immortal cell lines (B) no contact inhibition (C) display typical cell surface receptors (D) non anchorage dependent
Ans: C
78. The kinetics of product formation (eg. MAb formation by hybridoma cells) is described by,
(A) Luedeking-Piret equation (B) Michelis –Menten equation
(C) Kennedy-Piret equation (D) Luedeking-Menten equation
Ans: A
79. Among the primary virus vectors used for gene therapy, which is an enveloped virus,
(A) Adenoviruses (B) Retroviruses (C) Adeno-associated viruses (D) None
Ans: B
80. Identify the gene therapy involving the following protocol -collect cells from an affected person -correct the genetic defect by gene transfer -select and grow the genetically corrected cells -either infuse or transplant them back into the patient
(A) Ex vivo (B) In vivo (C) Targeted mutagenesis (D) Neoplastic
Ans: A
81. The technique used in DNA fingerprinting is
(A) Flow Cytometry (B) Northern Blotting (C) Southern Blotting (D) Western Blotting
Ans: C
82. DNA fingerprinting relies on identifying specific
(A) Promoters (B) Non coding sequences (C) Coding sequences (D) Both B and C
Ans: B
83. The technique to distinguish the individuals based on their DNA print patterns is called,
(A) DNA profiling (B) DNA fingerprinting (C) Molecular fingerprinting (D) All of the above
Ans: D
84. Each individual has a unique DNA fingerprint as individuals differ in,
(A) Location of minisatellite on chromosome (B) Size of minisatellite on chromosome
(C) Number of minisatellite on chromosome (D) All of the above
Ans: D
85. Minisatellite are,
(A) Short coding repetitive regions on the eukaryotic genome
(B) Are regions of chromosomes after secondary constriction
(C) Short non-coding repetitive sequences present throughout the chromosomes
(D) 10-40 bp sized short sequences within the genes
Ans: C
86. A mouse strain deficient in NK cells is the,
(A) Nude (B) Beige. (C) SJL (D) MRL-lpr/lpr
Ans: B
87. In forensic lab analysis the presence of choline in semen samples is identified by
(A) Acid phosphatase test (B) Barberio’s test (C) Florence test (D) Biuret test
Ans: C
88. Which one is a non-organ-specific (systemic) autoimmune disease?
(A) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) (B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Ans: A
89. In the protocol for identifying specific antibody-producing hybrid cell lines, prior to immunoassay ,an enzyme that can convert a colourless substrate to a coloured one is conjugated to
(A) Primary antibody (B) Secondary antibody (C) Tertiary antibody (D) None of these
Ans: B
90. Bacterial polysaccharides, when used as vaccines are poorly immunogenic at times. This problem is overcome by
(A) conjugating the purified polysaccharide to carrier proteins such as tetnus toxoids
(B) conjugating the purified polysaccharide to carrier proteins such as cholera toxoids
(C) conjugating the purified polysaccharide to carrier proteins such as diptheria toxoids
(D) both a and c
Ans: D
91. Which immunoglobulin is able to cross placenta
(A) IgE (B) IgM (C) IgG (D) IgA
Ans: C
92. Basophils possess high affinity receptors for one type of antibody, known as,
(A) IgA (B) IgE (C) IgD (D) IgM
Ans: B
93. Antibodies clear out antigens by
(A) Neutralization (B) Precipitation (C) Agglutination (D) All of these
Ans: D
94. Many small organic molecules are not antigenic by themselves but become antigenic if they bond to a larger molecule are called
(A) Haptens (B) CDs (C) IgGs (D) Chemokines
Ans: A
95. MHC proteins are also called
(A) Interleukins (B) IgG (C) HLA (D) Hybridomas
Ans: C
96. Activated helper T cells release regulatory molecules called
(A) Histamines (B) Antibodies (C) Lymphokines (D) Complement
Ans: C
97. Memory cells,
(A) Produce cyclosporine
(B) Are responsible for passive immunity
(C) Prevent an animal from encountering certain antigens
(D) Provide an accelerated immune response upon second exposure to a particular antigen
Ans: D
98. Cells involved in exocytosis
(A) Neutrophils (B) B lymphocytes (C) T helper cells (D) Mast cells
Ans: A
99. T helper cells are activated by antigen presented by,
(A) Class I MHC molecules on APCs (B) Class II MHC molecules on APCs
(C) Class III MHC molecules on APCs (D) Class I and II MHC molecules on APCs
Ans: B
100. IFN- γ is secreted by
(A) Th2 cells (B) Th0 cells (C) Th1 cells (D) B cells
Ans: C
(A) Local action (B) Remote action (C) Irritant (D) Corrosive
Ans: B
52. Whole blood, Serum, Urine are taken for toxicological testing during,
(A) Ante mortem examination (B) Post mortem examination
(C) Both ante and post mortem examination (D) Environmental examination
Ans: C
53. Isolation and Extraction of poison or drug by various modern methods using instrumental techniques include,
(A) Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy (B) Light microscopy (C) Colorimetric, (D) Photography
Ans: A
54. Which of the following toxins comes from the castor oil plant?
(A) Atropine (B) Strychnine (C) Ricin (D) Digitalin
Ans: C
55. What hormone does the pancreatic alpha cell secrete?
(A) Insulin (B) Somatostatin (C) Somatotropin (D) Amylase
Ans: B
56. Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) which has been modelled over and historically follows from the British Pharmacopoeia. The standards that are in effects are,
(A) (IP 2011).
(B) (IP 2008).
(C) (IP 2009).
(D) (IP 2010).
Ans: D
57. The actual process of publishing the first Pharmacopoeia started in the year 1944 under the chairmanship of,
(A) Col. R. N. Rao
(B) Col. N. N. Chopra
(C) Col. R. N. Chopra
(D) Col. N. R. Chopra
Ans: C
58. What is the full form of OECD?
(A) Organization of Economic Corporation Development (B) Organization of Equality Economic Corporation Development
(C) Organization of Equal and Challenging Development (D) Organization of European Corporation Development
Ans: A
59. Trade mark,
(A) may include shapes of goods or combination of colours (B) is represented graphically
(C) is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others (D) All of the above
Ans: D
60. USP has________ in enforcing its standards; enforcement is the responsibility of FDA and other government authorities in the U.S. and elsewhere.
(A) Major role (B) no role (C) As per needed role (D) Power
Ans: B
61. Transgenic tobacco plants which expressed nitrilase activity were found resistant to the toxic activity of
(A) Bromouracil (B) Bromoxynil (C) Thymoxynil (D) Thymouracil
Ans: B
62. Low levels of insecticidal toxin activity in BT plants was enhanced by combining the toxicity gene with
(A) Serine protease inhibitor (B) Serine protease activator (C) Trypsin synthase (D) Trypsin activator
Ans: A
63. The vir genes in the Ti plasmid are located
(A) in the T-DNA region (B) at the right border of T-DNA (C) at the left border of T-DNA (D) outside the T-DNA region
Ans: D
64. Which region of the Ti plasmid is absolutely required for T-DNA integration into a plant cell DNA
(A) cloning site (B) right border sequence of the T-DNA region (C) left border sequence of the T-DNA region (D) both a and c
Ans: B
65. Glycerol phosphate acyl Transferase gene that confers cold tolerance in transgenic plants is taken from (A) Pentunia.sp (B) Phaseolus vulgari (C) Arabidopsis.sp (D) Nicotiana alata
Ans: C
66. In Northern Blotting technique the m-RNA in the agarose gel is transferred to
(A) Nitroacetate filter paper (B) Nitrocellulose filter paper (C) Aminobenzylomethyl filter paper (D) Aminocellulase
Ans: C
67. Which of the following is an immune detection method
(A) Southern Blotting (B) Northern Blotting (C) Western Blotting (D) Both b and c
Ans: C
68. When genes coding for enzymes mannitol dehydrogenase and sorbitol dehydrogenase was introduced into a plant through Ti plasmid the transgenic plant was resistant to
(A) drought and heat (B) drought and salinity (C) heat and salinity (D) drought and cold
Ans: A
69. Transgenic plant bioreactors have successfully produced
(A) antigenic protein of hepatitis B virus in banana (B) a gene for human interferon in tobacco plant
(C) antigenic protein of hepatitis B virus I tobacco plant (D) both a and b
Ans: D
70. Production of CD4 protein for AIDS treatment in transgenic mice exemplifies
(A) Animal bioreactors (B) Animal Pharming (C) Therapeutic model (D) None
Ans: B
71. Transgenic mosquitoes have been produced to combat malaria by incorporating genes coding for
(A) endotoxin of Plasmodium vivax (B) cytotoxin of Plasmodium vivax
(C) plasmatoxins of Plasmodium vivax (D) exotoxins of Plasmodium vivax
Ans: A
72. The BR of pBR322 stands for
(A) F. Bolivar and R. Rodrigues (B) Bacillus Recombinant (C) F. Batson and R.Rodrigues (D) Bacterial Recombinant
Ans: A
73. DNA denaturation is usually done by
(A) heat treatment (B) acid treatment (C) alkali treatment (D) both a and c
Ans: D
74. During the synthesis of cDNA ,subsequent to Reverse transcriptase treatment , the Klenow fragment/enzyme used is from
(A) E.coli DNA polymerase II (B) E.coli DNA polymerase I
(C) E.coli RNA polymerase I (D) none of these
Ans: B
75. Shuttle vectors carry
(A) Two types of origin of replication and selectable marker genes. (B) Two types of origin of replication.
(C) Two types of selectable marker genes. (D) one type of origin of replication and selectable marker genes
Ans: A
76. Amoeboid locomotion is exhibited by which of the following cells in human body,
(A) embryonic cells and red blood cells (B) white blood cells and neural cells
(C) embryonic cells and neural cells (D) white blood cells and embryonic cells
Ans: D
77. One of the features listed below is not characteristic of ‘transformed ‘ cells,
(A) immortal cell lines (B) no contact inhibition (C) display typical cell surface receptors (D) non anchorage dependent
Ans: C
78. The kinetics of product formation (eg. MAb formation by hybridoma cells) is described by,
(A) Luedeking-Piret equation (B) Michelis –Menten equation
(C) Kennedy-Piret equation (D) Luedeking-Menten equation
Ans: A
79. Among the primary virus vectors used for gene therapy, which is an enveloped virus,
(A) Adenoviruses (B) Retroviruses (C) Adeno-associated viruses (D) None
Ans: B
80. Identify the gene therapy involving the following protocol -collect cells from an affected person -correct the genetic defect by gene transfer -select and grow the genetically corrected cells -either infuse or transplant them back into the patient
(A) Ex vivo (B) In vivo (C) Targeted mutagenesis (D) Neoplastic
Ans: A
81. The technique used in DNA fingerprinting is
(A) Flow Cytometry (B) Northern Blotting (C) Southern Blotting (D) Western Blotting
Ans: C
82. DNA fingerprinting relies on identifying specific
(A) Promoters (B) Non coding sequences (C) Coding sequences (D) Both B and C
Ans: B
83. The technique to distinguish the individuals based on their DNA print patterns is called,
(A) DNA profiling (B) DNA fingerprinting (C) Molecular fingerprinting (D) All of the above
Ans: D
84. Each individual has a unique DNA fingerprint as individuals differ in,
(A) Location of minisatellite on chromosome (B) Size of minisatellite on chromosome
(C) Number of minisatellite on chromosome (D) All of the above
Ans: D
85. Minisatellite are,
(A) Short coding repetitive regions on the eukaryotic genome
(B) Are regions of chromosomes after secondary constriction
(C) Short non-coding repetitive sequences present throughout the chromosomes
(D) 10-40 bp sized short sequences within the genes
Ans: C
86. A mouse strain deficient in NK cells is the,
(A) Nude (B) Beige. (C) SJL (D) MRL-lpr/lpr
Ans: B
87. In forensic lab analysis the presence of choline in semen samples is identified by
(A) Acid phosphatase test (B) Barberio’s test (C) Florence test (D) Biuret test
Ans: C
88. Which one is a non-organ-specific (systemic) autoimmune disease?
(A) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) (B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Ans: A
89. In the protocol for identifying specific antibody-producing hybrid cell lines, prior to immunoassay ,an enzyme that can convert a colourless substrate to a coloured one is conjugated to
(A) Primary antibody (B) Secondary antibody (C) Tertiary antibody (D) None of these
Ans: B
90. Bacterial polysaccharides, when used as vaccines are poorly immunogenic at times. This problem is overcome by
(A) conjugating the purified polysaccharide to carrier proteins such as tetnus toxoids
(B) conjugating the purified polysaccharide to carrier proteins such as cholera toxoids
(C) conjugating the purified polysaccharide to carrier proteins such as diptheria toxoids
(D) both a and c
Ans: D
91. Which immunoglobulin is able to cross placenta
(A) IgE (B) IgM (C) IgG (D) IgA
Ans: C
92. Basophils possess high affinity receptors for one type of antibody, known as,
(A) IgA (B) IgE (C) IgD (D) IgM
Ans: B
93. Antibodies clear out antigens by
(A) Neutralization (B) Precipitation (C) Agglutination (D) All of these
Ans: D
94. Many small organic molecules are not antigenic by themselves but become antigenic if they bond to a larger molecule are called
(A) Haptens (B) CDs (C) IgGs (D) Chemokines
Ans: A
95. MHC proteins are also called
(A) Interleukins (B) IgG (C) HLA (D) Hybridomas
Ans: C
96. Activated helper T cells release regulatory molecules called
(A) Histamines (B) Antibodies (C) Lymphokines (D) Complement
Ans: C
97. Memory cells,
(A) Produce cyclosporine
(B) Are responsible for passive immunity
(C) Prevent an animal from encountering certain antigens
(D) Provide an accelerated immune response upon second exposure to a particular antigen
Ans: D
98. Cells involved in exocytosis
(A) Neutrophils (B) B lymphocytes (C) T helper cells (D) Mast cells
Ans: A
99. T helper cells are activated by antigen presented by,
(A) Class I MHC molecules on APCs (B) Class II MHC molecules on APCs
(C) Class III MHC molecules on APCs (D) Class I and II MHC molecules on APCs
Ans: B
100. IFN- γ is secreted by
(A) Th2 cells (B) Th0 cells (C) Th1 cells (D) B cells
Ans: C