FORENSIC SCIENCE- BIOLOGY- PAGE 1
FORENSIC SCIENCE- BIOLOGY- PAGE 1 MCQs
1. Extra nuclear genetic material is found in,
(A) Mitochondria and plastids (B) Nucleus and cytoplasm (C) . Mitochondria and nucleus (D) Plastid and nucleus
Ans: A
2. Types of proteins that guide cells on the move in the bloodstream to their destination at a wound site are
(A) Gap junctions (B) Cell adhesion molecules (C) Tight junctions (D) Desmosomes
Ans: B
3. Choose the correct statement about cell membranes,
(A) Desmosomes function both as ion channels and to strengthen cell membranes
(B) Ions can pass readily through any portion of the cell membrane
(C) Cholesterol is not a necessary component of the cell membrane.
(D) Ion channels function as gates, opening or closing to specific ions, under certain conditions.
Ans: D
4. Which of the following is a single membrane bound organelle?
(A) Ribosome. (B) Nucleus. (C) Vacuole. (D) Golgi bodies.
Ans: C
5. What is a polysome?
(A) Collection of lysosome (B) Collection of ribosome. (C) Collection of peroxisome. (D) Collection of mesosome.
Ans: B
6. Animal cell differs from plant cells in possessing
(A) Plastid (B) Centrosome (C) Golgi body (D) Vacuole
Ans: B
7. When a B cell encounters antigen to which it is targeted, it divides rapidly and produces
(A) More antigen (B) Plasma cells (C) T cells (D) Killer cells
Ans: B
8. The _____ is a system of membranes designed to transport molecules within and out of cells.
(A) Nucleolus (B) Vacuole (C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Chromatin
Ans: C
9. Which enzyme cuts the bonds of DNA molecule at the origin of replication?
(A) DNA polymerase (B) DNA gyrase (C) Endonucleas (D) DNA ligase
Ans: C
10. In rDNA technology a plasmid vector is cleaved by
(A) The same enzyme that cleave the donor DNA (B) Modified DNA ligase
(C) Heated alkaline solution (D) The different enzyme other than that cleave the donor DNA
Ans: A
11. Lectins are found in,
(A) Plants (B)Animals (C) Both in plants and animals (D)None in both
Ans: C
12. Optically inactive amino acid in the following group is,
(A) Glycine (B) Alanine (C) Tryptophan (D) All
Ans: A
13. Which of the following is not a constituent of eukaryotic plasma membrane.?
(A) Cholesterol (B) Carbohydrate (C) Triglycerides (D) Lecithin
Ans: C
14. The amino acid that causes ‘knick’ in the polypeptide chain is,
(A) Lysine (B) Proline (C) Cystine (D) Tryptophan
Ans: B
15. For most autoimmune diseases, the MHC region that provides the strongest genetic component to disease susceptibility is located on (A) the short arm of chromosome 6
(B) the short arm of chromosome 16
(C) the long arm of chromosome 6
(D) the long arm of chromosome16
Ans: A
16. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, is the classic autoimmune disease that exemplifies
(A) Type IV Hypersensitivity (B) Type I Hypersensitivity
(C) Type II Hypersensitivity (D) Type III Hypersensitivity
Ans: D
17. The use of microscopy following forensic procedures to characterize particles and materials involved in environmental studies.
(A) Environmental biology (B) Environmental forensic microscopy
(C) material sciences (D) None of above
Ans: B
18. A pure carbon has two electrons in 1s state and one electron each in
(A) 2s,2px
(B) 2px, 2py, 2pz
(C) 2s, 2px, 2py, 2pz
(D) 2px, 2py
Ans: C
19. The silicon, finely subdivided into nanometre size wires, emit light is called
(A) Silicon light (B) Luminous silicon (C) Porous silicon (D) LED
Ans: C
20. Fullerene C60 , has a symmetrically arrayed molecular ball orientation of
(A) twelve pentagonal(5 sided) and 20 hexagonal (6 sided) faces
(B) ten pentagonal(5 sided) and 20 hexagonal (6 sided) faces
(C) twelve pentagonal(5 sided) and 10 hexagonal (6 sided) faces
(D) ten pentagonal(5 sided) and 10 hexagonal (6 sided) faces
Ans: A
21. A hard, heavy, ring porous hardwood. It has a prominent grain that resembles oak, and a white to light brown colour.
(A) Cedar (B)Pine (C) Ash (D)Cypress
Ans: C
22. Arjun is a variety of timber, scientifically known as,
(A) Ficus benghalensis, (B) Terminalia elliptica (C) Anogeissus latifolia (D) Artocarpus heterophyllus
Ans: B
23. Following is the grass with edible seeds,
(A) Barley Mitchell grass (B) wattle signal grass (C) woolly butt grass (D)All above given
Ans: D
24. They are narrow for almost the entire leaf, but then have an abrupt round structure at the apex.
(A) Spatulate leaves (B) Reniform leaves (C) Hastate leaves (D) Peltate leaves
Ans: A
25. Core of the grain is known as,
(A) Hilum (B)Fissures (C) Lamellae (D)Extinction cross
Ans: A
26. It represents the male portion of the reproductive process in plants and trees.
(A) Sperm (B) Pollen grains (C) Starch grains (D)Ova
Ans: B
27. On seedlings the first pair of leaves is typically monophylous, the second pair having three lobes and the next pair five.
(A) Opium (B)Coca plants (C) Mushrooms (D)Cannabis
Ans: D
28. A marked characteristic of the leaf is an areolated portion bounded by two longitudinal curved lines, one line on each side of the midrib, and more conspicuous on the under face of the leaf.
(A) Cannabis (B)Opium (C) Coca plant (D)Mushrooms
Ans: C
29. These erythrocyte antigens are the third most potent immunogenic antigen after ABO and Rh system, and are defined by an immune antibody, anti-K.
(A) Kell system (B) Duffy system (C) Kidd system (D) Lewis system
Ans: A
30. It is also known as Fy glycoprotein and is present in the surface of RBCs.
(A) Lewis system (B) Kidd system (C) Duffy system (D) Kell system
Ans: C
31. Jk antigen is a glycoprotein, present on the membrane of RBCs and acts as a urea transporter in RBCs and renal endothelial cells.
(A) Kidd system (B) Lewis system (C) Lutheran blood group (D) Bombay blood group.
Ans: A
32. HH blood group is also known as
(A) MN blood group (B) Lutheran blood group (C) Bombay blood group (D) None of above
Ans: C
33. To detect the presence of sperm following test is done,
(A) Wrinklers test (B) Lowry et al ; (C) The acid phosphatase test (D) The alkaline phosphatase test
Ans: C
34. The identification of feces is done by carrying following test,
(A) Mannose (B) Urobilinogen (C) Glucose (D)Fructose
Ans: B
35. In 2007, Phadebas Forensic Press Test was launched,
(A) To detect semen (B)To Detect Saliva (C) To detect urea (D) To detect uric acid
Ans: B
36. The proper definition of forensic science is
(A) Using proper scientific techniques to understand a crime scene.
(B) Understanding the process in which a crime was committed.
(C) The science studying the origins and background of crime scene investigation.
(D) The application of scientific knowledge and technology to the analysis of crime scene evidence.
Ans: D
37. The “Father of Forensic Toxicology” is,
(A) Locard (B) Orfila (C) Osborn (D) Lattes
Ans: B
38. The system known as anthropometry is developed by,
(A) Bertillon (B) Goddard (C) Gross (D) Galton
Ans: A
39. Who undertook the study of fingerprints as a method of personal identification?
(A) Gross (B) Galton (C) Lattes (D) Locard
Ans: B
40. Who devised the technique for determining the blood group of a dried blood stain?
(A) Gross (B) . Locard (C) Bertillon (D) Lattes
Ans: D
41. The folding of the graphene sheet is described by the following two parameters
(A) Zig-zag vector C and angle θ (B) Armchair vector C and angle θ
(C) Chiral vector C and angle θ (D) Chiral vector C and angle β
Ans: C
42. Which of the following is a physical technique used for synthesis of Nano materials,
(A) Plasma synthesis (B) Sol-gel synthesis (C) Plasma –sol synthesis (D) Plasma-gel synthesis
Ans: A
43. In Scanning Electron Microscopy, by changing the width (w) of the electron beam, the magnification (M) can be changed as, M=W/w, where W stands for
(A) Width of the grid (B) Width of the CRT
(C) Width of the anode plate (D) None of these
Ans: B
44. Atomic Force Microscope does not depend on current, hence it can be used to visualize the surface of,
(A) conductors as well as non-conducting materials (B) metallic conductors only
(C) non-conductor materials only (D) plasma state material only
Ans: A
45. Which of the following properties make Quantum Dots (QD) a better choice as fluorescent labels for biomolecules when compared to organic dyes?
(A) QDs have a larger molar absorptivities and high quantum yield.
(B) QDs have a low rate of photodegradation
(C) QDs have a high rate of photodegradation
(D) both a and b
Ans: D
46. Nano spheres used as drug delivery systems are basically
(A) Vesicular systems (B) Matrix type systems (C) Colloidal systems (D) both a and c
Ans: B
47. Among the three critical architectural domains, that functionalises a dendrimer, is the multivalent surface containing multiple potential reactive/passive sites called,
(A) nano- scafolding (B) nano- scaling
(C) nano- dendrons (D) nano-wires
Ans: A
48. The role of TiO2 in the silica–titania composite, known to execute simultaneous environmental monitoring and purification is to,
(A) provide high surface area (B) concentrate the pollutants
(C) photocatalytically oxidize the pollutants (D) recycle the pollutants
Ans: C
49. A regular “branched upon branched” pattern of functional nitrogen and amide group is a feature of
(A) PAMAM Dendrimers (B) PANAM Dendrimers
(C) PAMAM Dendrons (D) PANAM Dendrons
Ans: A
50. Chlorination disinfection by-products removal is best carried out by
(A) Ozonation process (B) Membrane filtration process
(C) combined ozonation/nanoparticle based membrane filtration process (D) Photocatalytic filtration process
Ans: C
(A) Mitochondria and plastids (B) Nucleus and cytoplasm (C) . Mitochondria and nucleus (D) Plastid and nucleus
Ans: A
2. Types of proteins that guide cells on the move in the bloodstream to their destination at a wound site are
(A) Gap junctions (B) Cell adhesion molecules (C) Tight junctions (D) Desmosomes
Ans: B
3. Choose the correct statement about cell membranes,
(A) Desmosomes function both as ion channels and to strengthen cell membranes
(B) Ions can pass readily through any portion of the cell membrane
(C) Cholesterol is not a necessary component of the cell membrane.
(D) Ion channels function as gates, opening or closing to specific ions, under certain conditions.
Ans: D
4. Which of the following is a single membrane bound organelle?
(A) Ribosome. (B) Nucleus. (C) Vacuole. (D) Golgi bodies.
Ans: C
5. What is a polysome?
(A) Collection of lysosome (B) Collection of ribosome. (C) Collection of peroxisome. (D) Collection of mesosome.
Ans: B
6. Animal cell differs from plant cells in possessing
(A) Plastid (B) Centrosome (C) Golgi body (D) Vacuole
Ans: B
7. When a B cell encounters antigen to which it is targeted, it divides rapidly and produces
(A) More antigen (B) Plasma cells (C) T cells (D) Killer cells
Ans: B
8. The _____ is a system of membranes designed to transport molecules within and out of cells.
(A) Nucleolus (B) Vacuole (C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Chromatin
Ans: C
9. Which enzyme cuts the bonds of DNA molecule at the origin of replication?
(A) DNA polymerase (B) DNA gyrase (C) Endonucleas (D) DNA ligase
Ans: C
10. In rDNA technology a plasmid vector is cleaved by
(A) The same enzyme that cleave the donor DNA (B) Modified DNA ligase
(C) Heated alkaline solution (D) The different enzyme other than that cleave the donor DNA
Ans: A
11. Lectins are found in,
(A) Plants (B)Animals (C) Both in plants and animals (D)None in both
Ans: C
12. Optically inactive amino acid in the following group is,
(A) Glycine (B) Alanine (C) Tryptophan (D) All
Ans: A
13. Which of the following is not a constituent of eukaryotic plasma membrane.?
(A) Cholesterol (B) Carbohydrate (C) Triglycerides (D) Lecithin
Ans: C
14. The amino acid that causes ‘knick’ in the polypeptide chain is,
(A) Lysine (B) Proline (C) Cystine (D) Tryptophan
Ans: B
15. For most autoimmune diseases, the MHC region that provides the strongest genetic component to disease susceptibility is located on (A) the short arm of chromosome 6
(B) the short arm of chromosome 16
(C) the long arm of chromosome 6
(D) the long arm of chromosome16
Ans: A
16. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, is the classic autoimmune disease that exemplifies
(A) Type IV Hypersensitivity (B) Type I Hypersensitivity
(C) Type II Hypersensitivity (D) Type III Hypersensitivity
Ans: D
17. The use of microscopy following forensic procedures to characterize particles and materials involved in environmental studies.
(A) Environmental biology (B) Environmental forensic microscopy
(C) material sciences (D) None of above
Ans: B
18. A pure carbon has two electrons in 1s state and one electron each in
(A) 2s,2px
(B) 2px, 2py, 2pz
(C) 2s, 2px, 2py, 2pz
(D) 2px, 2py
Ans: C
19. The silicon, finely subdivided into nanometre size wires, emit light is called
(A) Silicon light (B) Luminous silicon (C) Porous silicon (D) LED
Ans: C
20. Fullerene C60 , has a symmetrically arrayed molecular ball orientation of
(A) twelve pentagonal(5 sided) and 20 hexagonal (6 sided) faces
(B) ten pentagonal(5 sided) and 20 hexagonal (6 sided) faces
(C) twelve pentagonal(5 sided) and 10 hexagonal (6 sided) faces
(D) ten pentagonal(5 sided) and 10 hexagonal (6 sided) faces
Ans: A
21. A hard, heavy, ring porous hardwood. It has a prominent grain that resembles oak, and a white to light brown colour.
(A) Cedar (B)Pine (C) Ash (D)Cypress
Ans: C
22. Arjun is a variety of timber, scientifically known as,
(A) Ficus benghalensis, (B) Terminalia elliptica (C) Anogeissus latifolia (D) Artocarpus heterophyllus
Ans: B
23. Following is the grass with edible seeds,
(A) Barley Mitchell grass (B) wattle signal grass (C) woolly butt grass (D)All above given
Ans: D
24. They are narrow for almost the entire leaf, but then have an abrupt round structure at the apex.
(A) Spatulate leaves (B) Reniform leaves (C) Hastate leaves (D) Peltate leaves
Ans: A
25. Core of the grain is known as,
(A) Hilum (B)Fissures (C) Lamellae (D)Extinction cross
Ans: A
26. It represents the male portion of the reproductive process in plants and trees.
(A) Sperm (B) Pollen grains (C) Starch grains (D)Ova
Ans: B
27. On seedlings the first pair of leaves is typically monophylous, the second pair having three lobes and the next pair five.
(A) Opium (B)Coca plants (C) Mushrooms (D)Cannabis
Ans: D
28. A marked characteristic of the leaf is an areolated portion bounded by two longitudinal curved lines, one line on each side of the midrib, and more conspicuous on the under face of the leaf.
(A) Cannabis (B)Opium (C) Coca plant (D)Mushrooms
Ans: C
29. These erythrocyte antigens are the third most potent immunogenic antigen after ABO and Rh system, and are defined by an immune antibody, anti-K.
(A) Kell system (B) Duffy system (C) Kidd system (D) Lewis system
Ans: A
30. It is also known as Fy glycoprotein and is present in the surface of RBCs.
(A) Lewis system (B) Kidd system (C) Duffy system (D) Kell system
Ans: C
31. Jk antigen is a glycoprotein, present on the membrane of RBCs and acts as a urea transporter in RBCs and renal endothelial cells.
(A) Kidd system (B) Lewis system (C) Lutheran blood group (D) Bombay blood group.
Ans: A
32. HH blood group is also known as
(A) MN blood group (B) Lutheran blood group (C) Bombay blood group (D) None of above
Ans: C
33. To detect the presence of sperm following test is done,
(A) Wrinklers test (B) Lowry et al ; (C) The acid phosphatase test (D) The alkaline phosphatase test
Ans: C
34. The identification of feces is done by carrying following test,
(A) Mannose (B) Urobilinogen (C) Glucose (D)Fructose
Ans: B
35. In 2007, Phadebas Forensic Press Test was launched,
(A) To detect semen (B)To Detect Saliva (C) To detect urea (D) To detect uric acid
Ans: B
36. The proper definition of forensic science is
(A) Using proper scientific techniques to understand a crime scene.
(B) Understanding the process in which a crime was committed.
(C) The science studying the origins and background of crime scene investigation.
(D) The application of scientific knowledge and technology to the analysis of crime scene evidence.
Ans: D
37. The “Father of Forensic Toxicology” is,
(A) Locard (B) Orfila (C) Osborn (D) Lattes
Ans: B
38. The system known as anthropometry is developed by,
(A) Bertillon (B) Goddard (C) Gross (D) Galton
Ans: A
39. Who undertook the study of fingerprints as a method of personal identification?
(A) Gross (B) Galton (C) Lattes (D) Locard
Ans: B
40. Who devised the technique for determining the blood group of a dried blood stain?
(A) Gross (B) . Locard (C) Bertillon (D) Lattes
Ans: D
41. The folding of the graphene sheet is described by the following two parameters
(A) Zig-zag vector C and angle θ (B) Armchair vector C and angle θ
(C) Chiral vector C and angle θ (D) Chiral vector C and angle β
Ans: C
42. Which of the following is a physical technique used for synthesis of Nano materials,
(A) Plasma synthesis (B) Sol-gel synthesis (C) Plasma –sol synthesis (D) Plasma-gel synthesis
Ans: A
43. In Scanning Electron Microscopy, by changing the width (w) of the electron beam, the magnification (M) can be changed as, M=W/w, where W stands for
(A) Width of the grid (B) Width of the CRT
(C) Width of the anode plate (D) None of these
Ans: B
44. Atomic Force Microscope does not depend on current, hence it can be used to visualize the surface of,
(A) conductors as well as non-conducting materials (B) metallic conductors only
(C) non-conductor materials only (D) plasma state material only
Ans: A
45. Which of the following properties make Quantum Dots (QD) a better choice as fluorescent labels for biomolecules when compared to organic dyes?
(A) QDs have a larger molar absorptivities and high quantum yield.
(B) QDs have a low rate of photodegradation
(C) QDs have a high rate of photodegradation
(D) both a and b
Ans: D
46. Nano spheres used as drug delivery systems are basically
(A) Vesicular systems (B) Matrix type systems (C) Colloidal systems (D) both a and c
Ans: B
47. Among the three critical architectural domains, that functionalises a dendrimer, is the multivalent surface containing multiple potential reactive/passive sites called,
(A) nano- scafolding (B) nano- scaling
(C) nano- dendrons (D) nano-wires
Ans: A
48. The role of TiO2 in the silica–titania composite, known to execute simultaneous environmental monitoring and purification is to,
(A) provide high surface area (B) concentrate the pollutants
(C) photocatalytically oxidize the pollutants (D) recycle the pollutants
Ans: C
49. A regular “branched upon branched” pattern of functional nitrogen and amide group is a feature of
(A) PAMAM Dendrimers (B) PANAM Dendrimers
(C) PAMAM Dendrons (D) PANAM Dendrons
Ans: A
50. Chlorination disinfection by-products removal is best carried out by
(A) Ozonation process (B) Membrane filtration process
(C) combined ozonation/nanoparticle based membrane filtration process (D) Photocatalytic filtration process
Ans: C
51. Which of the following is added in IP Addendum-2015 to IP 2014
(A) BCG for Immuno therapy (B) Influenza vaccine(Human live attenuated)
(C) DTP vaccine (D) Both Aand B
Ans: D
52. Patent offices function from which of these locations
(A) Delhi and Bangalore (B) Chennai and Mumbai
(C) Kolkota and Delhi (D) Both B and C
Ans: D
53. Form 26 submitted with the Application for Patent is for
(A) Declaration to Inventor ship (B) Statement and Undertaking
(C) Power of Authority (D) Provisional Specification
Ans: C
54. Which of the following not a privilege for the Patentee
(A) A Patentee can claim damages from the date of publication of his/her application
(B) Patentee can institute a suit for infringement only after Patent is granted
(C) Patentee can institute a suit for infringement from the date of application for Patent
(D) All
Ans: C
55. The title for Patent Application cannot include
(A) Inventors name (B) The word “Patent”
(C) “etc.” (D) All A, B and C
Ans: D
56. The term of Patent for Divisional Application
(A) 25 years from the date of filing of Divisional Application (B) 25 years from the date of filing of Main Application
(C) 15 years from the date of filing of Divisional Application (D) 15 years from the date of filing of Main Application
Ans: C
57. In April 2014,the United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) granted a patent on CRISPR technology for
(A) Use of CRISPR-Cas9 to edit a cell of mammal (B) Use of CRISPR-Cas9 to edit a cell of prokaryote
(C) Use of CRISPR-Cas9 to edit a cell of culture system (D) All
Ans: A
58. “Lab Type” is a DNA database that contains DNA profiles of
(A) Individuals that have access to the laboratory space where the sample is being tested (B) Individuals who may come in contact with an item of evidence
(C) Suspect individuals (D) Both A and B
Ans: D
59. The amplified DNA in RAPD protocol is detected using
(A) autoradiography (B) hybridization
(C) ethidium bromide staining and fluorescence (D) polyethyl glycol staining and fluorescence
Ans: C
60. RFLP, Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism is used to
(A) Map chromosomes (B) Determine relationships between species (C) Infer phylogenetic relationships (D) a, b and c
Ans: D
61. The highly variable zone of the light and heavy chain called VL and VH regions of the antibody molecule has a span of approximately
(A) 110 amino acids (B) 150 amino acids (C) 200 amino acids (D) 250 amino acids
Ans: A
62. By applying the Law of Mass Action for antigen –antibody reactions, the equilibrium constant or affinity constant, K, is given as
(A) K=[AbAg]/[Ab][Ag]
(B) K=[AbAg]/[Ab][Ag] X100
(C) K =[Ab][Ag] X100/[AbAg]
(D) K=1/[AbAg][Ab][Ag]
Ans: A
63. Proteosomes are an integral component involved in antigen processing of
(A) MHC Class I pathway (B) MHC Class II pathway
(C) MHC Class III pathway (D) MHC Class IV pathway
Ans: A
64. In patients with Hashimotos thyroiditis the serum contains antibodies to
(A) Thyroid follicles (B) TSH (C) Thyroglobulin (D) None of these
Ans: C
65. Domains are the fundamental, functional and three-dimensional structural units of polypeptides with characteristics of a small
(A) Loosely bound protein that is structurally independent of the other domains in the polypeptide chain
(B) Compact globular protein that is structurally independent of the other domains in the polypeptide chain
(C) Loosely bound protein that is structurally dependent on the other domains in the polypeptide chain
(D) Tertiary protein that is structurally dependent on the other domains in the polypeptide chain
Ans: B
66. Isoforms are proteins that perform the same function but are encoded by different genes and have,
(A) Different primary structure (B) Same primary structure (C) Different secondary structure (D) Same tertiary structure
Ans: A
67. A peptide bond
(A) is easily ionized at physiologic pH (B) has a partial double bond character
(C) is stable to heating in strong acids (D) occurs most commonly in the cis –configuration
Ans: B
68. The dominant component of the amyloid plaque that accumulates in Alzheimer’s disease is
(A) Amyloid ß (Aß) (B) Amyloid a (Aß) (C) Helix a (Aß) (D) Helix ß
Ans: A
69. The C-2 epimer of glucose is
(A) Fructose (B) Mannose (C) Galactose (D) D-glucose
Ans: B
70. Racemases is a class of enzymes that convert
(A) aldose into ketose (B) ketose into aldose (C) D- and L-isomers (D) none
Ans: C
71. Landsteiner was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in
(A) 1945 (B)1930 (C) 1941 (D)1926
Ans: B
72. As a Red cell indices-MCH measures the
(A) Weight of haemoglobin in the average red cell (B) Average volume of red cells
(C) Weight of haemoglobin in a standard volume of blood (D) Degree of size variation in red cells
Ans: A
73. Prostate Specific Antigen- which is released by the prostate in small amounts into the blood stream is a type of
(A) Vitamin (B)Carbohydrate (C) Protein (D)Fat
Ans: C
74. Gamma Glutamyl Transferase is an enzyme used
(A) To assess stomach function. (B) To assess liver function. (C) To assess ovary function. (D) To assess testis function.
Ans: B
75. The broken down percentage of neutrophils, eosinophil, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes is called as
(A) Leukocyte differential Rate (LDR) (B) Total Blood differential Count (LBDC)
(C) Leukocyte Derivative Count (D) Leukocyte Differential count (LDC)
Ans: D
76. Rh disease typically occurs only in some second or subsequent pregnancies of Rh negative women where the foetus’s father is Rh positive.
(A) Is a type of brain disease of the new born. (B) Is a type of haemolytic disease of the new born.
(C) Is a type of heart disease of the new born. (D) Is a type of kidney disease of the new born.
Ans: B
77. MNS antigen system is under control of a pair of co-dominant alleles LM and LN and based on,
(A) Two genes: Glycophorin A and Glycophorin B, (B) Two genes: Glycophorin C and Glycophorin D,
(C) Two genes: Glycophorin E and Glycophorin F, (D) Two genes: Glycophorin D and Glycophorin G,
Ans: A
78. Lutheran system comprised of four pairs of allelic antigens representing single amino acid substitution in the Lutheran glycoprotein,
(A) At chromosome 19 (B) At chromosome 11 (C) At chromosome 21 (D) At chromosome 10
Ans: A
79. The fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus typically produced above ground on soil or on its food source.
(A) Opium (B)Coca plants (C) Mushrooms (D)Cannabis
Ans: C
80. The five flower petals are contained within a corolla and can be colored white, yellow, pink, or red.
(A) Cannabis (B)Opium (C) Tobacco (D)Mushrooms
Ans: C
81. The European Pharmacopoeia standards apply to medicines,
(A) For human use (B) for both human and veterinary use (C) For veterinary use (D) For aquaculture use
Ans: B
AKG - A ] 32 [Contd.
82. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are of
(A) Moral value (B) Social value (C) Commercial value (D) Ethical value
Ans: C
83. The drugs which when bind receptors, cause activation of receptors.
(A) Agonists (B) Coupling (C) Ligands (D) Antagonists
Ans: A
84. Application of Computer Investigation and Analysis Technique to gather evidence suitable for presentation in a court of Law, defines (A) Cybercriminologics (B) Computer Forensics
(C) Cyberpolicing (D) All three A,B and C
Ans: B
85. Which of the following is/are not particularly useful in Ocean Forensics
(A) Forensic Entomology (B) DNA Fingerprinting (C) Chemical Fingerprinting (D) Cyber Forensics
Ans: A
86. Fast Technology for nucleic acids (FTA) is used for quick DNA extraction from
(A) Blood (B) Saliva (C) Stool (D) Both A and B
Ans: D
87. Chemical enhancement technology for fingerprinting, uses
(A) Iodine (B) Ninhydrin reagents (C) ”Super glue” (D) All of these A,B and C
Ans: D
88. Sex offender DNA database are generally useful in
(A) Opening old cases (B) Degenerate forensic sample (C) Contaminated evidences (D) None
Ans: A
89. Indian Pharmocopoeia 2010 contains monographs on,
(A) Antiviral and anticancerous drugs (B) Antituberculosis and herbal drugs
(C) Radiotherapy in humans (D) Both A and B
Ans: D
90. 19 new Radiopharmaceutical Monographs with one General chapter on Radiopharmaceutical preparations was introduced in
(A) Vth Edition IP-2007 (B) VIth Edition IP-2010 (C) VIIth Edition IP-2014 (D) Vet Suppliment-2000
Ans: C
91. E.coli K12, a mutant bacterium that exemplifies biological containment, survives only in culture with exogenous requirement of
(A) thymidine (B) biotin (C) both a and b (D) none of these
Ans: C
92. The samples in Sanger’s method after reaction are separated using
(A) PAGE (B) AGE (C) 2-D gel electrophoresis (D) PFGE
Ans: A
93. Which of the following sequencing methods uses PCR for generating sequence templates,
(A) LMPCR (B) Sanger’s method and LMPCR (C) Sanger’s method (D) LMPCR and automated DNA sequencing
Ans: A
94. Which of the following functions as ‘protective biologic lubricants’
(A) membrane bound glycolipids (B) membrane bound glycoproteins
(C) membrane bound lipoproteins (D) membrane bound polysaccharides
Ans: B
95. The phosphate end of the phospholipid molecule in the cell membrane is,
(A) hydrophobic (B) hydrophilic (C) amphipathic (D) neutral
Ans: B
96. The enzymes present in lysosomes are,
(A) proteolytic enzymes (B) hydrolase enzymes (C) lipolytic enzymes (D) epimerase enzymes
Ans: B
97. During pinocytosis the proteins that assist in the formation of vesicles are,
(A) actin and myosin (B) actin and clathrin (C) clathrin and tubulin (D) actin myosin and clathrin
Ans: D
98. Allopurinol used for treatment of Gout shows hypersensitivity reactions, the HLA association here is
(A) HLA-B*5701
(B) HLA-B*5801
(C) HLA-B*3101
(D) HLA-B*5201
Ans: B
99. Pichia pastoris is used successfully for the production of Hepatitis B virus surface antigens. The complete plasmid used has which of the following sequence cloned
(A) AOXlp-HBsAg-AOXt
(B) POXlp-HBsAg-POXt
(C) AXlp-HBsAg-AXt
(D) AOlp-HBsAg-AOt
Ans: A
100. In the expression vector AcMNPV, the gene of interest is cloned between
(A) the promoter sequence of polyhedron (B) polyhedrin promoter and termination sequence
(C) polyhedrin attenuation and termination sequence (D) the start sequence of polyhedrin and termination sequence
Ans: B
(A) BCG for Immuno therapy (B) Influenza vaccine(Human live attenuated)
(C) DTP vaccine (D) Both Aand B
Ans: D
52. Patent offices function from which of these locations
(A) Delhi and Bangalore (B) Chennai and Mumbai
(C) Kolkota and Delhi (D) Both B and C
Ans: D
53. Form 26 submitted with the Application for Patent is for
(A) Declaration to Inventor ship (B) Statement and Undertaking
(C) Power of Authority (D) Provisional Specification
Ans: C
54. Which of the following not a privilege for the Patentee
(A) A Patentee can claim damages from the date of publication of his/her application
(B) Patentee can institute a suit for infringement only after Patent is granted
(C) Patentee can institute a suit for infringement from the date of application for Patent
(D) All
Ans: C
55. The title for Patent Application cannot include
(A) Inventors name (B) The word “Patent”
(C) “etc.” (D) All A, B and C
Ans: D
56. The term of Patent for Divisional Application
(A) 25 years from the date of filing of Divisional Application (B) 25 years from the date of filing of Main Application
(C) 15 years from the date of filing of Divisional Application (D) 15 years from the date of filing of Main Application
Ans: C
57. In April 2014,the United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) granted a patent on CRISPR technology for
(A) Use of CRISPR-Cas9 to edit a cell of mammal (B) Use of CRISPR-Cas9 to edit a cell of prokaryote
(C) Use of CRISPR-Cas9 to edit a cell of culture system (D) All
Ans: A
58. “Lab Type” is a DNA database that contains DNA profiles of
(A) Individuals that have access to the laboratory space where the sample is being tested (B) Individuals who may come in contact with an item of evidence
(C) Suspect individuals (D) Both A and B
Ans: D
59. The amplified DNA in RAPD protocol is detected using
(A) autoradiography (B) hybridization
(C) ethidium bromide staining and fluorescence (D) polyethyl glycol staining and fluorescence
Ans: C
60. RFLP, Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism is used to
(A) Map chromosomes (B) Determine relationships between species (C) Infer phylogenetic relationships (D) a, b and c
Ans: D
61. The highly variable zone of the light and heavy chain called VL and VH regions of the antibody molecule has a span of approximately
(A) 110 amino acids (B) 150 amino acids (C) 200 amino acids (D) 250 amino acids
Ans: A
62. By applying the Law of Mass Action for antigen –antibody reactions, the equilibrium constant or affinity constant, K, is given as
(A) K=[AbAg]/[Ab][Ag]
(B) K=[AbAg]/[Ab][Ag] X100
(C) K =[Ab][Ag] X100/[AbAg]
(D) K=1/[AbAg][Ab][Ag]
Ans: A
63. Proteosomes are an integral component involved in antigen processing of
(A) MHC Class I pathway (B) MHC Class II pathway
(C) MHC Class III pathway (D) MHC Class IV pathway
Ans: A
64. In patients with Hashimotos thyroiditis the serum contains antibodies to
(A) Thyroid follicles (B) TSH (C) Thyroglobulin (D) None of these
Ans: C
65. Domains are the fundamental, functional and three-dimensional structural units of polypeptides with characteristics of a small
(A) Loosely bound protein that is structurally independent of the other domains in the polypeptide chain
(B) Compact globular protein that is structurally independent of the other domains in the polypeptide chain
(C) Loosely bound protein that is structurally dependent on the other domains in the polypeptide chain
(D) Tertiary protein that is structurally dependent on the other domains in the polypeptide chain
Ans: B
66. Isoforms are proteins that perform the same function but are encoded by different genes and have,
(A) Different primary structure (B) Same primary structure (C) Different secondary structure (D) Same tertiary structure
Ans: A
67. A peptide bond
(A) is easily ionized at physiologic pH (B) has a partial double bond character
(C) is stable to heating in strong acids (D) occurs most commonly in the cis –configuration
Ans: B
68. The dominant component of the amyloid plaque that accumulates in Alzheimer’s disease is
(A) Amyloid ß (Aß) (B) Amyloid a (Aß) (C) Helix a (Aß) (D) Helix ß
Ans: A
69. The C-2 epimer of glucose is
(A) Fructose (B) Mannose (C) Galactose (D) D-glucose
Ans: B
70. Racemases is a class of enzymes that convert
(A) aldose into ketose (B) ketose into aldose (C) D- and L-isomers (D) none
Ans: C
71. Landsteiner was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in
(A) 1945 (B)1930 (C) 1941 (D)1926
Ans: B
72. As a Red cell indices-MCH measures the
(A) Weight of haemoglobin in the average red cell (B) Average volume of red cells
(C) Weight of haemoglobin in a standard volume of blood (D) Degree of size variation in red cells
Ans: A
73. Prostate Specific Antigen- which is released by the prostate in small amounts into the blood stream is a type of
(A) Vitamin (B)Carbohydrate (C) Protein (D)Fat
Ans: C
74. Gamma Glutamyl Transferase is an enzyme used
(A) To assess stomach function. (B) To assess liver function. (C) To assess ovary function. (D) To assess testis function.
Ans: B
75. The broken down percentage of neutrophils, eosinophil, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes is called as
(A) Leukocyte differential Rate (LDR) (B) Total Blood differential Count (LBDC)
(C) Leukocyte Derivative Count (D) Leukocyte Differential count (LDC)
Ans: D
76. Rh disease typically occurs only in some second or subsequent pregnancies of Rh negative women where the foetus’s father is Rh positive.
(A) Is a type of brain disease of the new born. (B) Is a type of haemolytic disease of the new born.
(C) Is a type of heart disease of the new born. (D) Is a type of kidney disease of the new born.
Ans: B
77. MNS antigen system is under control of a pair of co-dominant alleles LM and LN and based on,
(A) Two genes: Glycophorin A and Glycophorin B, (B) Two genes: Glycophorin C and Glycophorin D,
(C) Two genes: Glycophorin E and Glycophorin F, (D) Two genes: Glycophorin D and Glycophorin G,
Ans: A
78. Lutheran system comprised of four pairs of allelic antigens representing single amino acid substitution in the Lutheran glycoprotein,
(A) At chromosome 19 (B) At chromosome 11 (C) At chromosome 21 (D) At chromosome 10
Ans: A
79. The fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus typically produced above ground on soil or on its food source.
(A) Opium (B)Coca plants (C) Mushrooms (D)Cannabis
Ans: C
80. The five flower petals are contained within a corolla and can be colored white, yellow, pink, or red.
(A) Cannabis (B)Opium (C) Tobacco (D)Mushrooms
Ans: C
81. The European Pharmacopoeia standards apply to medicines,
(A) For human use (B) for both human and veterinary use (C) For veterinary use (D) For aquaculture use
Ans: B
AKG - A ] 32 [Contd.
82. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are of
(A) Moral value (B) Social value (C) Commercial value (D) Ethical value
Ans: C
83. The drugs which when bind receptors, cause activation of receptors.
(A) Agonists (B) Coupling (C) Ligands (D) Antagonists
Ans: A
84. Application of Computer Investigation and Analysis Technique to gather evidence suitable for presentation in a court of Law, defines (A) Cybercriminologics (B) Computer Forensics
(C) Cyberpolicing (D) All three A,B and C
Ans: B
85. Which of the following is/are not particularly useful in Ocean Forensics
(A) Forensic Entomology (B) DNA Fingerprinting (C) Chemical Fingerprinting (D) Cyber Forensics
Ans: A
86. Fast Technology for nucleic acids (FTA) is used for quick DNA extraction from
(A) Blood (B) Saliva (C) Stool (D) Both A and B
Ans: D
87. Chemical enhancement technology for fingerprinting, uses
(A) Iodine (B) Ninhydrin reagents (C) ”Super glue” (D) All of these A,B and C
Ans: D
88. Sex offender DNA database are generally useful in
(A) Opening old cases (B) Degenerate forensic sample (C) Contaminated evidences (D) None
Ans: A
89. Indian Pharmocopoeia 2010 contains monographs on,
(A) Antiviral and anticancerous drugs (B) Antituberculosis and herbal drugs
(C) Radiotherapy in humans (D) Both A and B
Ans: D
90. 19 new Radiopharmaceutical Monographs with one General chapter on Radiopharmaceutical preparations was introduced in
(A) Vth Edition IP-2007 (B) VIth Edition IP-2010 (C) VIIth Edition IP-2014 (D) Vet Suppliment-2000
Ans: C
91. E.coli K12, a mutant bacterium that exemplifies biological containment, survives only in culture with exogenous requirement of
(A) thymidine (B) biotin (C) both a and b (D) none of these
Ans: C
92. The samples in Sanger’s method after reaction are separated using
(A) PAGE (B) AGE (C) 2-D gel electrophoresis (D) PFGE
Ans: A
93. Which of the following sequencing methods uses PCR for generating sequence templates,
(A) LMPCR (B) Sanger’s method and LMPCR (C) Sanger’s method (D) LMPCR and automated DNA sequencing
Ans: A
94. Which of the following functions as ‘protective biologic lubricants’
(A) membrane bound glycolipids (B) membrane bound glycoproteins
(C) membrane bound lipoproteins (D) membrane bound polysaccharides
Ans: B
95. The phosphate end of the phospholipid molecule in the cell membrane is,
(A) hydrophobic (B) hydrophilic (C) amphipathic (D) neutral
Ans: B
96. The enzymes present in lysosomes are,
(A) proteolytic enzymes (B) hydrolase enzymes (C) lipolytic enzymes (D) epimerase enzymes
Ans: B
97. During pinocytosis the proteins that assist in the formation of vesicles are,
(A) actin and myosin (B) actin and clathrin (C) clathrin and tubulin (D) actin myosin and clathrin
Ans: D
98. Allopurinol used for treatment of Gout shows hypersensitivity reactions, the HLA association here is
(A) HLA-B*5701
(B) HLA-B*5801
(C) HLA-B*3101
(D) HLA-B*5201
Ans: B
99. Pichia pastoris is used successfully for the production of Hepatitis B virus surface antigens. The complete plasmid used has which of the following sequence cloned
(A) AOXlp-HBsAg-AOXt
(B) POXlp-HBsAg-POXt
(C) AXlp-HBsAg-AXt
(D) AOlp-HBsAg-AOt
Ans: A
100. In the expression vector AcMNPV, the gene of interest is cloned between
(A) the promoter sequence of polyhedron (B) polyhedrin promoter and termination sequence
(C) polyhedrin attenuation and termination sequence (D) the start sequence of polyhedrin and termination sequence
Ans: B