CHEMISTRY- PAGE 3
1. A metal in the nitrogen group is
(a). Antimony
(b). Phosphorus
(c). Bismuth
(d). Nitrogen
Answer: Bismuth
2. Which one of the following oxides is the most acidic?
(a). P2O5
(b). As2O3
(c). Sb2O3
(d). Bi2O3
Answer: P2O5
3. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?
(a). N2O5
(b). As2O3
(c). P2O3
(d). Bi2O3
Answer: As2O3
4. An example for a metalloid is
(a). Phosphorus
(b). Iodine
(c). Sulphur
(d). Arsenic
Answer: Arsenic
5. When white phosphorus is heated with a strong solution of caustic soda, it produces
(a). Phosphine
(b). Phosphoric acid
(c). Sodium phosphide
(d). Sodium phosphate
Answer: Phosphine
6. What is the solvent for Ag2S?
(a). Water
(b). Ether
(c). Alcohol
(d). Sodium cyanide solution
Answer: Sodium cyanide solution
7. The role of aluminum in Aluminothermic process is
(a). Catalyst
(b). Oxidizing agent
(c). Reducing agent
(d). Dehydrating agent
Answer: Reducing agent
8. Nickel is refined by electrolysis using a solution of
(a). Nickel ammonium sulphate
(b). Nickel nitrate
(c). Nickel Chloride
(d). Nickel Sulphate
Answer: Nickel ammonium sulphate
9. Smoke screens are produced in the warfare using
(a). Phosphine
(b). Phosphorus (V) chloride
(c). Phosphorus trichloride
(d). Phosphorus trioxide
Answer: Phosphine
10. The anode used in chromium plating is
(a). Cadmium
(b). Lead
(c). Chromium
(d). Sulphur
Answer: Lead
11. Lead in water can cause __________.
(A) Kidney damage (B) Hair falling (C) Arthritis (D) Eye disease
Ans: A
12. Which one of the following is an ore of manganese?
(a). Hausmanite
(b). Horn silver
(c). Chromium
(d). Chromite
Answer: Hausmanite
13. An alloy of composition 87% Cu, 10% Sn and 3% Zn is called
(a). Gun metal
(b). Type metal
(c). Bronze
(d). Solder
Answer: Gun-metal
14. Mond's process is used in extracting the metal
(a). Cadmium
(b). Lead
(c). Nickel
(d). Sulphur
Answer: Nickel
15. Auto ionisation of H2O Leads to the formation of
(a). H3+O
(b). OH-
(c ). H+
(d). H3+O and OH-
Answer : H3+O and OH-
16. The composition of German silver is
(a). Cu 50%, Zn 30%, Ni 20%
(b). Cu 40%, Zn 30%, Ni 30%
(c). Cu 50%, Fe 30%, Ni 20%
(d). Cu 60%, Zn 30%, Fe 10%
Answer: Cu 50%, Zn 30%, Ni 20%
17. Which one of the following metals is found in German silver?
(a). Chromium
(b). Iron
(c). Zinc
(d). Silver
Answer: Zinc
18. Elements with an atomic number above ____________are called super heavy elements.
(A) 104
(B) 103
(C) 105
(D) 112
Answer: 104
19. The correct sequence of first ionisation energies of following elements is :
1) Mg < Na < Al < P < S
2) P < S < Mg < Al < Na
3) Na < Mg < Al < P < S
4) Na < Al < Mg < S < P
Ans: 4
20. Which of the following elements have positive value of first electron affinity ?
1) Li
2) Be
3) B
4) C
Ans: 2
21. Select the incorrect statement :
1) Large negative ion favours covalency.
2) Large positive ion favours covalency.
3) Large charge on positive ion favours covalency.
4) Large charge on negative ion favours covalency
Ans: 2
22. Which element out of the following will have lowest value of ionic radius for its tripositive ion ?
1) Yb
2) Ho
3) Sm
4) Pr
Ans: 1
23. The correct decreasing order of electronegativity for following elements of first group of periodic table is :
1) Li > Na > Rb > Cs
2) K > Na > Rb > Cs
3) Cs > K > Na > Li
4) Rb > Cs > K > Na
Ans: 1
24. Which of the following properties show only an increasing trend from right to left in the third period of periodic table ?
1) Electronegativity
2) Ionisation Energy
3) Atomic Radius
4) Density
Ans: 3
25. According to VSEPR theory , a molecule will have a regular shape if its central atom is surrounded by :
1) more bonding electron pairs than the lone pairs of electrons.
2) less bonding electron pairs than the lone pairs of electrons.
3) equal number of bonding electron pairs and lone pairs of electrons.
4) only bonding electron pairs.
Ans: 4
(a). Antimony
(b). Phosphorus
(c). Bismuth
(d). Nitrogen
Answer: Bismuth
2. Which one of the following oxides is the most acidic?
(a). P2O5
(b). As2O3
(c). Sb2O3
(d). Bi2O3
Answer: P2O5
3. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?
(a). N2O5
(b). As2O3
(c). P2O3
(d). Bi2O3
Answer: As2O3
4. An example for a metalloid is
(a). Phosphorus
(b). Iodine
(c). Sulphur
(d). Arsenic
Answer: Arsenic
5. When white phosphorus is heated with a strong solution of caustic soda, it produces
(a). Phosphine
(b). Phosphoric acid
(c). Sodium phosphide
(d). Sodium phosphate
Answer: Phosphine
6. What is the solvent for Ag2S?
(a). Water
(b). Ether
(c). Alcohol
(d). Sodium cyanide solution
Answer: Sodium cyanide solution
7. The role of aluminum in Aluminothermic process is
(a). Catalyst
(b). Oxidizing agent
(c). Reducing agent
(d). Dehydrating agent
Answer: Reducing agent
8. Nickel is refined by electrolysis using a solution of
(a). Nickel ammonium sulphate
(b). Nickel nitrate
(c). Nickel Chloride
(d). Nickel Sulphate
Answer: Nickel ammonium sulphate
9. Smoke screens are produced in the warfare using
(a). Phosphine
(b). Phosphorus (V) chloride
(c). Phosphorus trichloride
(d). Phosphorus trioxide
Answer: Phosphine
10. The anode used in chromium plating is
(a). Cadmium
(b). Lead
(c). Chromium
(d). Sulphur
Answer: Lead
11. Lead in water can cause __________.
(A) Kidney damage (B) Hair falling (C) Arthritis (D) Eye disease
Ans: A
12. Which one of the following is an ore of manganese?
(a). Hausmanite
(b). Horn silver
(c). Chromium
(d). Chromite
Answer: Hausmanite
13. An alloy of composition 87% Cu, 10% Sn and 3% Zn is called
(a). Gun metal
(b). Type metal
(c). Bronze
(d). Solder
Answer: Gun-metal
14. Mond's process is used in extracting the metal
(a). Cadmium
(b). Lead
(c). Nickel
(d). Sulphur
Answer: Nickel
15. Auto ionisation of H2O Leads to the formation of
(a). H3+O
(b). OH-
(c ). H+
(d). H3+O and OH-
Answer : H3+O and OH-
16. The composition of German silver is
(a). Cu 50%, Zn 30%, Ni 20%
(b). Cu 40%, Zn 30%, Ni 30%
(c). Cu 50%, Fe 30%, Ni 20%
(d). Cu 60%, Zn 30%, Fe 10%
Answer: Cu 50%, Zn 30%, Ni 20%
17. Which one of the following metals is found in German silver?
(a). Chromium
(b). Iron
(c). Zinc
(d). Silver
Answer: Zinc
18. Elements with an atomic number above ____________are called super heavy elements.
(A) 104
(B) 103
(C) 105
(D) 112
Answer: 104
19. The correct sequence of first ionisation energies of following elements is :
1) Mg < Na < Al < P < S
2) P < S < Mg < Al < Na
3) Na < Mg < Al < P < S
4) Na < Al < Mg < S < P
Ans: 4
20. Which of the following elements have positive value of first electron affinity ?
1) Li
2) Be
3) B
4) C
Ans: 2
21. Select the incorrect statement :
1) Large negative ion favours covalency.
2) Large positive ion favours covalency.
3) Large charge on positive ion favours covalency.
4) Large charge on negative ion favours covalency
Ans: 2
22. Which element out of the following will have lowest value of ionic radius for its tripositive ion ?
1) Yb
2) Ho
3) Sm
4) Pr
Ans: 1
23. The correct decreasing order of electronegativity for following elements of first group of periodic table is :
1) Li > Na > Rb > Cs
2) K > Na > Rb > Cs
3) Cs > K > Na > Li
4) Rb > Cs > K > Na
Ans: 1
24. Which of the following properties show only an increasing trend from right to left in the third period of periodic table ?
1) Electronegativity
2) Ionisation Energy
3) Atomic Radius
4) Density
Ans: 3
25. According to VSEPR theory , a molecule will have a regular shape if its central atom is surrounded by :
1) more bonding electron pairs than the lone pairs of electrons.
2) less bonding electron pairs than the lone pairs of electrons.
3) equal number of bonding electron pairs and lone pairs of electrons.
4) only bonding electron pairs.
Ans: 4
26. A distillation column has a feed of 40 % ethanol and 60 % water ( weight basis ) at a rate of 100 kg/s. 80% of ethanol is recovered from top. the vapour stream entering the condenser is at the rate of 90 kg/s. 90% of water is removed in bottoms. the ratio of amount refluxed to the distillate withdrawn is
1) 2.1
2) 1.1
3) 0.825
4) 1.37
Ans: 4
27. A heat engine operates at 75 % of the maximum possible efficiency. the ratio of the heat source temperature (in k) to the heat sink temperature (in k) is 5/3. the fraction of the heat supplied that is converted to work is
1) 0.2
2) 0.3
3) 0.4
4) 0.6
Ans: 2
28. 7.5 kj of heat is added to closed system while its internal energy decreases by 12 kj . the work done by the system is
1) -19.5 kj
2) -5.5 kj
3) 5.5 kj
4) 19.5 kj
Ans: 4
29. At a given temperature and pressure , a liquid mixture of benzen and toluene is in equilibrium with its vapor. the available degree(s) of freedom is (are)
1) zero
2) one
3) two
4) three
Ans: 3
30. The transition length for a fluid to reach fully developed flow in a pipe of diameter 2 inch having reynolds number 1000 is
1) 8.33 feet
2) 166.6 feet
3) 18.33 feet
4) 1.66 feet
Ans: 1
31. The velocity profile for bingham plastic fluid flowing (under laminar conditions) in a pipe is
1) parabolic
2) flat
3) flat near the wall and parabolic in the middle
4) parabolic near the wall and flat in the middle.
Ans: 4
32. A fluid is flowing in laminar flow in a cylindrical pipe of diameter 2.5 cm. the maximum velocity at center is 0.1 m/s. the average velocity is .
1) 0.075 m/s
2) 0.067 m/s
3) 0.05 m/s
4) 0.025 m/s
Ans: 3
33. Water is flowing under laminar conditions in a pipe of length (l) . if the diameter of the pipe is doubled, for a constant volumetric flow rate , the pressure drop across the pipe
1) decreases two times
2) decreases sixteen times
3) increases two times
4) increases sixteen times
Ans: 2
34. Pressure recovery in the orifice meter compare to venturi meter is
1) high
2) moderate
3) poor
4) very high
Ans: 3
35. The local velocity of a fluid along a stream line can be measured by
1) pitot tube
2) venturi meter
3) rotameter
4) orifice meter
Ans: 1
36. A single effect evaporator concentrates 1000 kg/h of a 10 % sodium hydroxide solution to 50 % . it requires steam consumption of 1200 kg/h. the evaporator economy is
1) 50 %
2) 33.3 %
3) 66.7 %
4) 80 %
Ans: 3
37. Baffles in the shell-side of a shell and tube heat exchanger
1) reduce the pressure drop
2) force the liquid to flow parallel to the bank
3) decrease the shell- side heat transfer coefficient
4) increase the shell- side heat transfer coefficient
Ans: 4
38. When vaporisation takes place directly at the heating surface , it is called
1) film boiling
2) nucleate boiling
3) vapour binding
4) none of these
Ans: 2
39. If the baffle spacing in a shell and tube heat exchanger increases , then the reynolds number of the shell side fluid
1) remains unchanged
2) increases
3) increases or decreases depending on number of shell passes
4) decreases
Ans: 4
40. Choose the correct statement
1) in dropwise condensation, the heat transfer coefficient is more than film type condensation
2) in dropwise condensaion, the thermal resistance is more than that in film type condensation.
3) the process of condensation for pure substance is generally non-isothermal
4) dropwise condensation is obtinable only when the cooling surface is wetted easily by the liquid .
Ans: 1
41. On a tray in an absorption column, the ratio of solvent to gas flow is 2.0 . the equilibrium curve between leaving streams is represented by equation y=0.5 x, where 'y' is mole fraction of solute in gas and 'x' is mole fraction of solute in solvent. the gas enters the tray with solute mole fraction 0.002. the mole fraction of solute in gas leaving the tray is ( assume that solvent enters the tray with no solute present)
1) 0.04
2) 0.0002
3) 0.0004
4) 0.001
Ans: 3
42. It takes 6 hours to dry a wet solid from 50 % moisture content to the critical moisture content 15 % . how much time will it take to dry the solid to 10 % moisture content under the same drying conditions ( the equilibrium moisture content of the solid is 5 %)
1) 71 min
2) 74 min
3) 51 min
4) 94 min
Ans: 1
43. In constant pressure filtration:-
1) resistance decreases with time
2) rate of filtration is constant
3) rate of filtration increases with time
4) rate of filtration decreases with time
Ans: 4
1) 2.1
2) 1.1
3) 0.825
4) 1.37
Ans: 4
27. A heat engine operates at 75 % of the maximum possible efficiency. the ratio of the heat source temperature (in k) to the heat sink temperature (in k) is 5/3. the fraction of the heat supplied that is converted to work is
1) 0.2
2) 0.3
3) 0.4
4) 0.6
Ans: 2
28. 7.5 kj of heat is added to closed system while its internal energy decreases by 12 kj . the work done by the system is
1) -19.5 kj
2) -5.5 kj
3) 5.5 kj
4) 19.5 kj
Ans: 4
29. At a given temperature and pressure , a liquid mixture of benzen and toluene is in equilibrium with its vapor. the available degree(s) of freedom is (are)
1) zero
2) one
3) two
4) three
Ans: 3
30. The transition length for a fluid to reach fully developed flow in a pipe of diameter 2 inch having reynolds number 1000 is
1) 8.33 feet
2) 166.6 feet
3) 18.33 feet
4) 1.66 feet
Ans: 1
31. The velocity profile for bingham plastic fluid flowing (under laminar conditions) in a pipe is
1) parabolic
2) flat
3) flat near the wall and parabolic in the middle
4) parabolic near the wall and flat in the middle.
Ans: 4
32. A fluid is flowing in laminar flow in a cylindrical pipe of diameter 2.5 cm. the maximum velocity at center is 0.1 m/s. the average velocity is .
1) 0.075 m/s
2) 0.067 m/s
3) 0.05 m/s
4) 0.025 m/s
Ans: 3
33. Water is flowing under laminar conditions in a pipe of length (l) . if the diameter of the pipe is doubled, for a constant volumetric flow rate , the pressure drop across the pipe
1) decreases two times
2) decreases sixteen times
3) increases two times
4) increases sixteen times
Ans: 2
34. Pressure recovery in the orifice meter compare to venturi meter is
1) high
2) moderate
3) poor
4) very high
Ans: 3
35. The local velocity of a fluid along a stream line can be measured by
1) pitot tube
2) venturi meter
3) rotameter
4) orifice meter
Ans: 1
36. A single effect evaporator concentrates 1000 kg/h of a 10 % sodium hydroxide solution to 50 % . it requires steam consumption of 1200 kg/h. the evaporator economy is
1) 50 %
2) 33.3 %
3) 66.7 %
4) 80 %
Ans: 3
37. Baffles in the shell-side of a shell and tube heat exchanger
1) reduce the pressure drop
2) force the liquid to flow parallel to the bank
3) decrease the shell- side heat transfer coefficient
4) increase the shell- side heat transfer coefficient
Ans: 4
38. When vaporisation takes place directly at the heating surface , it is called
1) film boiling
2) nucleate boiling
3) vapour binding
4) none of these
Ans: 2
39. If the baffle spacing in a shell and tube heat exchanger increases , then the reynolds number of the shell side fluid
1) remains unchanged
2) increases
3) increases or decreases depending on number of shell passes
4) decreases
Ans: 4
40. Choose the correct statement
1) in dropwise condensation, the heat transfer coefficient is more than film type condensation
2) in dropwise condensaion, the thermal resistance is more than that in film type condensation.
3) the process of condensation for pure substance is generally non-isothermal
4) dropwise condensation is obtinable only when the cooling surface is wetted easily by the liquid .
Ans: 1
41. On a tray in an absorption column, the ratio of solvent to gas flow is 2.0 . the equilibrium curve between leaving streams is represented by equation y=0.5 x, where 'y' is mole fraction of solute in gas and 'x' is mole fraction of solute in solvent. the gas enters the tray with solute mole fraction 0.002. the mole fraction of solute in gas leaving the tray is ( assume that solvent enters the tray with no solute present)
1) 0.04
2) 0.0002
3) 0.0004
4) 0.001
Ans: 3
42. It takes 6 hours to dry a wet solid from 50 % moisture content to the critical moisture content 15 % . how much time will it take to dry the solid to 10 % moisture content under the same drying conditions ( the equilibrium moisture content of the solid is 5 %)
1) 71 min
2) 74 min
3) 51 min
4) 94 min
Ans: 1
43. In constant pressure filtration:-
1) resistance decreases with time
2) rate of filtration is constant
3) rate of filtration increases with time
4) rate of filtration decreases with time
Ans: 4
44. Bakelite is formed by the condensation of
A:- Urea and formaldehyde
B:- Phenol and formaldehyde
C:- Phenol and acetaldehyde
D:- Melamine and formaldehyde
Ans: B
45. Which one of the following is an antibiotic drug?
A:- Quinine
B:- Sulphaguanidine
C:- Chloramphenicol
D:- Aspirin
Ans: A
46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I [Substances]
1. Aspartame
2. Freon
3. Neoprene
4. Benadryl
List-II [Applications]
1.Synthetic rubber
2. Anti-histamine
3.Artificial Sweetener
4. Refrigerant
Codes :
a b c d
A:- 1 3 4 2
B:- 2 4 1 3
C:- 3 4 1 2
D:- 3 1 2 4
Ans: C
47. The gas used in the manufacture of Vanaspati Ghee from Vanaspati Oil is
A:- Hydrogen
B:- Oxygen
C:- Nitrogen
D:- Carbon dioxide
Ans: A
48. Soap removes grease by
A:- Coagulation
B:- Adsorption
C:- Emulsification
D:- Osmosis
Ans: C
49. Iodised salt contains
A:- Free iodine
B:- Calcium iodide
C:- Magnesium iodide
D:- Potassium iodide
Ans: D
50. Which of the following radio isotopes is used in the treatment of blood cancer [leukemia]?
A:- Iodine – 131
B:- Sodium-24
C:- Phosphorus-32
D:- Cobalt-60
Ans: D
A:- Urea and formaldehyde
B:- Phenol and formaldehyde
C:- Phenol and acetaldehyde
D:- Melamine and formaldehyde
Ans: B
45. Which one of the following is an antibiotic drug?
A:- Quinine
B:- Sulphaguanidine
C:- Chloramphenicol
D:- Aspirin
Ans: A
46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I [Substances]
1. Aspartame
2. Freon
3. Neoprene
4. Benadryl
List-II [Applications]
1.Synthetic rubber
2. Anti-histamine
3.Artificial Sweetener
4. Refrigerant
Codes :
a b c d
A:- 1 3 4 2
B:- 2 4 1 3
C:- 3 4 1 2
D:- 3 1 2 4
Ans: C
47. The gas used in the manufacture of Vanaspati Ghee from Vanaspati Oil is
A:- Hydrogen
B:- Oxygen
C:- Nitrogen
D:- Carbon dioxide
Ans: A
48. Soap removes grease by
A:- Coagulation
B:- Adsorption
C:- Emulsification
D:- Osmosis
Ans: C
49. Iodised salt contains
A:- Free iodine
B:- Calcium iodide
C:- Magnesium iodide
D:- Potassium iodide
Ans: D
50. Which of the following radio isotopes is used in the treatment of blood cancer [leukemia]?
A:- Iodine – 131
B:- Sodium-24
C:- Phosphorus-32
D:- Cobalt-60
Ans: D
51. The intensity of an absorption band of a compound in Raman Spectrum depends on :
(a) change in dipole of the compound
(b) change in polarizability of the compound
(c) symmetry elements within molecule
(d) All of the above
Ans: B
52. Fullerene is an allotrope of
(a) Carbon
(b) Fluorine
(c) Sulphur
(d) Phosphorus
Ans: A
53. Arrange the following elements in order of their increasing first ionization potential value :
(a) B < Be < C < N < O
(b) B < C < Be < N < O
(c) B < Be < C < O < N
(d) B < Be < N < C < O
Ans: C
54. Which one of the following is not a Lewis acid ?
(a) SiF4
(b) SnCl4
(c) CCl4
(d) SbF3
Ans: C
55. In thermal reactors, a moderator is used to slow down the fast neutrons. The most widely used moderator is :
(a) Ordinary water
(b) Heavy water
(c) Helium
(d) Graphite
Ans: D
56. Along with harmone ‘insulin’ which trace element is responsible to normalise the glucose metabolism ?
(a) Cr (III)
(b) Fe (II)
(c) Zn (II)
(d) Fe (III)
Ans: A
57. Amongst lanthanides, which element has maximum abundance in earth crust ?
(a) Cerium
(b) Neodymium
(c) Gadolinium
(d) Praseodymium
Ans: A
58. One of the important Tin alloys ‘Solder’ is used for soldering. The composition of this alloy is :
(a) Sn 20%, Pb 80%
(b) Sn 30%, Pb 70%
(c) Sn 40%, Pb 60%
(d) Sn 50%, Pb 50%
Ans: D
59. In the structure of diaborane, two H-B-H bond angles are nearly :
(a) 60° and 120°
(b) 95° and 150°
(c) 60° and 150°
(d) 97° and 120°
Ans: D
60. The element which does not belong to Pt-metals is :
(a) Ru
(b) Os
(c) Rh
(d) Ce
Ans: D
61. The Wilson’s disease in the human body is caused by :
(a) Deficiency of copper
(b) Excess of copper
(c) Excess of zinc
(d) Excess of mercury
Ans: B
62. Only two metals liberate H2 gas on reacting with dil. HNO3, these are :
(a) Mn and Zn
(b) Be and Mg
(c) Mn and Mg
(d) Mn and Hg
Ans: C
63. Which of the following chemical bonds should have the lowest IR stretching frequency ?
(a) C – H
(b) C – Br
(c) C – Cl
(d) C – N
Ans: B
64. First order stark effect on ground state of hydrogen atom is :
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Two
(d) None of these
Ans: B
(a) change in dipole of the compound
(b) change in polarizability of the compound
(c) symmetry elements within molecule
(d) All of the above
Ans: B
52. Fullerene is an allotrope of
(a) Carbon
(b) Fluorine
(c) Sulphur
(d) Phosphorus
Ans: A
53. Arrange the following elements in order of their increasing first ionization potential value :
(a) B < Be < C < N < O
(b) B < C < Be < N < O
(c) B < Be < C < O < N
(d) B < Be < N < C < O
Ans: C
54. Which one of the following is not a Lewis acid ?
(a) SiF4
(b) SnCl4
(c) CCl4
(d) SbF3
Ans: C
55. In thermal reactors, a moderator is used to slow down the fast neutrons. The most widely used moderator is :
(a) Ordinary water
(b) Heavy water
(c) Helium
(d) Graphite
Ans: D
56. Along with harmone ‘insulin’ which trace element is responsible to normalise the glucose metabolism ?
(a) Cr (III)
(b) Fe (II)
(c) Zn (II)
(d) Fe (III)
Ans: A
57. Amongst lanthanides, which element has maximum abundance in earth crust ?
(a) Cerium
(b) Neodymium
(c) Gadolinium
(d) Praseodymium
Ans: A
58. One of the important Tin alloys ‘Solder’ is used for soldering. The composition of this alloy is :
(a) Sn 20%, Pb 80%
(b) Sn 30%, Pb 70%
(c) Sn 40%, Pb 60%
(d) Sn 50%, Pb 50%
Ans: D
59. In the structure of diaborane, two H-B-H bond angles are nearly :
(a) 60° and 120°
(b) 95° and 150°
(c) 60° and 150°
(d) 97° and 120°
Ans: D
60. The element which does not belong to Pt-metals is :
(a) Ru
(b) Os
(c) Rh
(d) Ce
Ans: D
61. The Wilson’s disease in the human body is caused by :
(a) Deficiency of copper
(b) Excess of copper
(c) Excess of zinc
(d) Excess of mercury
Ans: B
62. Only two metals liberate H2 gas on reacting with dil. HNO3, these are :
(a) Mn and Zn
(b) Be and Mg
(c) Mn and Mg
(d) Mn and Hg
Ans: C
63. Which of the following chemical bonds should have the lowest IR stretching frequency ?
(a) C – H
(b) C – Br
(c) C – Cl
(d) C – N
Ans: B
64. First order stark effect on ground state of hydrogen atom is :
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Two
(d) None of these
Ans: B
65. The equation, F = C – P + 1 is known as :
(a) Phase Rule
(b) Condensed phase Rule
(c) Henry’s Rule
(d) Flory equation
Ans: B
41. Which of the following condition(s) must be fulfilled by oscillatory reactions ?
(a) Reactions must be far from equilibrium.
(b) Reactions must involve autocatalytic steps.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: C
42. A catalyst is a substance which :
(a) supplies energy to the reaction.
(b) shortens the time to reach equilibrium.
(c) increase the equilibrium constant of the reaction.
(d) increase the equilibrium concentration of the product.
Ans: B
43. Which of the following electron transitions in a hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of energy ?
(a) from n = 1 to n = 2
(b) from n = 2 to n = 4
(c) from n = 5 to n = 1
(d) from n = 3 to n = 5
Ans: C
44. Angular momentum is possessed by :
(a) A rotating molecule
(b) An electron orbiting around an atom
(c) The spinning electron
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
45. Vicinal coupling is :
(a) Coupling between 1H nuclei attached to adjacent carbon atom.
(b) Coupling between 1H nuclei in an alkane.
(c) Coupling between 1H nuclei attached to same carbon atom.
(d) Coupling between 1H nuclei in an alkene.
Ans: A
46. The study which deals with the computation of macroscopic properties of an atom or molecule is called :
(a) Irreversible thermodynamics
(b) Statistical thermodynamics
(c) Physical thermodynamics
(d) Biological thermodynamics
Ans: B
47. The cell potential is a/an -
(a) Colligative property
(b) Thermodynamic property
(c) Extensive property
(d) Intensive property
Ans: D
48. Collision theory is satisfactory for :
(a) First order reactions
(b) Zero order reactions
(c) Biomolecular reactions
(d) All order reactions
Ans: C
49. In ionic polymerization, living polymer is formed, when,
(a) Propagation reaction doesn’t occur.
(b) Termination reaction doesn’t occur.
(c) Initiation reaction occur faster than termination reaction.
(d) Amino acids are used as monomer.
Ans: B
50. Frenkel defect appears in crystal in which :
(a) size of anion is equal to the size of cation.
(b) size of anion is less than size of cation.
(c) size of anion is much larger than cation.
(d) None of the above
Ans: C
62. The packing fraction of a simple cubic lattice is close to
(a) 0.94
(b) 0.76
(c) 0.52
(d) 0.45
Ans: C
63. The square of standard deviation is called
(a) Median
(b) Mean
(c) Variance
(d) Multiplicity
Ans: C
64. Isotherm which has fractional coverage, linearly dependent on pressure at low pressures but almost independent at high pressure is called
(a) BET isotherm
(b) Langmuir isotherm
(c) Temkin isotherm
(d) Freundlich isotherm
Ans: D
65. Free nano-particles, nano-tubes, nano-fibres can lead to health risk due to their
(a) shape
(b) small size
(c) high mobility and high reactivity
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
66. Which of these statement is not true ?
(a) Gold at nanoscale is transparent.
(b) Aluminium at nanoscale is highly combustible.
(c) Copper at nanoscale is transparent.
(d) Silicon at nanoscale is an insulator.
Ans: D
67. The most stable conformation of trans – 1 – t – butyl – 3 – methyl cyclohexane, the substituents at c – 1 and c – 3 respectively are :
(a) Axial and equatorial
(b) Equatorial and equatorial
(c) Equatorial and axial
(d) Axial and axial
Ans: C
68. Among the following compounds which one is anti-aromatic ?
(a) Naphthalene
(b) Cyclopentadienyl cation
(c) Azulene
(d) Phenanthrene
Ans: B
69. Which of the following molecule(s) will produce free-radical in thermolysis ?
(a) diacyl peroxide
(b) AIBN
(c) dialkyl peroxide
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
70. Cyclohexyl methanol on oxidation with pyridinium chloro-chromate produces
(a) Cyclohexyl carboxylic acid
(b) Cyclohexyl carboaldehyde
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) no reaction
Ans: B
71. Tetralin on treatment with two equivalent of DDQ yields
(a) naphthalene
(b) decalin
(c) dihydronaphthalene
(d) All of the above
Ans: A
72. DCC may be used to prepare
(a) esters
(b) amides
(c) anhydrides
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
73. Which of the following steroid is having two keto groups ?
(a) Testosterone
(b) Progesterone
(c) Andosterone
(d) Oestrone
Ans: B
74. All the glucose units in cellulose and starch are joined, respectively by the links :
(a) β and α
(b) α and β
(c) β and β
(d) α and α
Ans: A
75. Reaction of unsymmetrical ketone and chiral Grignard reagent will produce
(a) enantiomers
(b) diastereomers
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) no reaction
Ans: A
76. When potassium salt of pyrrole is heated with chloroform and sodium ethoxide, the following product is formed
(a) 2 - chloropyridine
(b) 3 - chloropyridine
(c) 4 - chloropyridine
(d) None of the above
Ans: B
77. How many signals will be observed in 1H NMR spectrum of o – nitrophenol ?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans: A
78. How many Green chemistry principles are ?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans: C
79. Benign solvent in Green chemistry is / are :
(a) H2O
(b) Liquid CO2
(c) Liquid N2
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: D
80. Which of the following is an example of antineoplastic agent ?
(a) 6 - mercaptopurine
(b) Cyclophosphamide
(c) Uracil
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
81. Which cardiovascular drug suppresses adrenergic induced automaticity ?
(a) Propanolol
(b) Verapamil
(c) Diltiazem
(d) Quinidine
Ans: A
82. Select the incorrect statement :
(a) The major culprit in ‘ozone depletion’ consists of Freons.
(b) Ozone is found more near the poles than at the equator and more abundant in summer than winter.
(c) The maximum ozone concentration is around 10 ppm in the stratosphere at an altitude of 25 – 30 km.
(d) Ozone is highly unstable relative to oxygen.
Ans: B
83. Photochemical smog is
(I) Oxidising smog
(II) Reducing smog
(III) Formed in summer in day time
(IV) Formed in winter in day time
(a) (I) and (IV) are correct.
(b) (II) and (IV) are correct.
(c) (I) and (III) are correct.
(d) (II) and (III) are correct.
Ans: C
(a) Phase Rule
(b) Condensed phase Rule
(c) Henry’s Rule
(d) Flory equation
Ans: B
41. Which of the following condition(s) must be fulfilled by oscillatory reactions ?
(a) Reactions must be far from equilibrium.
(b) Reactions must involve autocatalytic steps.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: C
42. A catalyst is a substance which :
(a) supplies energy to the reaction.
(b) shortens the time to reach equilibrium.
(c) increase the equilibrium constant of the reaction.
(d) increase the equilibrium concentration of the product.
Ans: B
43. Which of the following electron transitions in a hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of energy ?
(a) from n = 1 to n = 2
(b) from n = 2 to n = 4
(c) from n = 5 to n = 1
(d) from n = 3 to n = 5
Ans: C
44. Angular momentum is possessed by :
(a) A rotating molecule
(b) An electron orbiting around an atom
(c) The spinning electron
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
45. Vicinal coupling is :
(a) Coupling between 1H nuclei attached to adjacent carbon atom.
(b) Coupling between 1H nuclei in an alkane.
(c) Coupling between 1H nuclei attached to same carbon atom.
(d) Coupling between 1H nuclei in an alkene.
Ans: A
46. The study which deals with the computation of macroscopic properties of an atom or molecule is called :
(a) Irreversible thermodynamics
(b) Statistical thermodynamics
(c) Physical thermodynamics
(d) Biological thermodynamics
Ans: B
47. The cell potential is a/an -
(a) Colligative property
(b) Thermodynamic property
(c) Extensive property
(d) Intensive property
Ans: D
48. Collision theory is satisfactory for :
(a) First order reactions
(b) Zero order reactions
(c) Biomolecular reactions
(d) All order reactions
Ans: C
49. In ionic polymerization, living polymer is formed, when,
(a) Propagation reaction doesn’t occur.
(b) Termination reaction doesn’t occur.
(c) Initiation reaction occur faster than termination reaction.
(d) Amino acids are used as monomer.
Ans: B
50. Frenkel defect appears in crystal in which :
(a) size of anion is equal to the size of cation.
(b) size of anion is less than size of cation.
(c) size of anion is much larger than cation.
(d) None of the above
Ans: C
62. The packing fraction of a simple cubic lattice is close to
(a) 0.94
(b) 0.76
(c) 0.52
(d) 0.45
Ans: C
63. The square of standard deviation is called
(a) Median
(b) Mean
(c) Variance
(d) Multiplicity
Ans: C
64. Isotherm which has fractional coverage, linearly dependent on pressure at low pressures but almost independent at high pressure is called
(a) BET isotherm
(b) Langmuir isotherm
(c) Temkin isotherm
(d) Freundlich isotherm
Ans: D
65. Free nano-particles, nano-tubes, nano-fibres can lead to health risk due to their
(a) shape
(b) small size
(c) high mobility and high reactivity
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
66. Which of these statement is not true ?
(a) Gold at nanoscale is transparent.
(b) Aluminium at nanoscale is highly combustible.
(c) Copper at nanoscale is transparent.
(d) Silicon at nanoscale is an insulator.
Ans: D
67. The most stable conformation of trans – 1 – t – butyl – 3 – methyl cyclohexane, the substituents at c – 1 and c – 3 respectively are :
(a) Axial and equatorial
(b) Equatorial and equatorial
(c) Equatorial and axial
(d) Axial and axial
Ans: C
68. Among the following compounds which one is anti-aromatic ?
(a) Naphthalene
(b) Cyclopentadienyl cation
(c) Azulene
(d) Phenanthrene
Ans: B
69. Which of the following molecule(s) will produce free-radical in thermolysis ?
(a) diacyl peroxide
(b) AIBN
(c) dialkyl peroxide
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
70. Cyclohexyl methanol on oxidation with pyridinium chloro-chromate produces
(a) Cyclohexyl carboxylic acid
(b) Cyclohexyl carboaldehyde
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) no reaction
Ans: B
71. Tetralin on treatment with two equivalent of DDQ yields
(a) naphthalene
(b) decalin
(c) dihydronaphthalene
(d) All of the above
Ans: A
72. DCC may be used to prepare
(a) esters
(b) amides
(c) anhydrides
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
73. Which of the following steroid is having two keto groups ?
(a) Testosterone
(b) Progesterone
(c) Andosterone
(d) Oestrone
Ans: B
74. All the glucose units in cellulose and starch are joined, respectively by the links :
(a) β and α
(b) α and β
(c) β and β
(d) α and α
Ans: A
75. Reaction of unsymmetrical ketone and chiral Grignard reagent will produce
(a) enantiomers
(b) diastereomers
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) no reaction
Ans: A
76. When potassium salt of pyrrole is heated with chloroform and sodium ethoxide, the following product is formed
(a) 2 - chloropyridine
(b) 3 - chloropyridine
(c) 4 - chloropyridine
(d) None of the above
Ans: B
77. How many signals will be observed in 1H NMR spectrum of o – nitrophenol ?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans: A
78. How many Green chemistry principles are ?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans: C
79. Benign solvent in Green chemistry is / are :
(a) H2O
(b) Liquid CO2
(c) Liquid N2
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: D
80. Which of the following is an example of antineoplastic agent ?
(a) 6 - mercaptopurine
(b) Cyclophosphamide
(c) Uracil
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
81. Which cardiovascular drug suppresses adrenergic induced automaticity ?
(a) Propanolol
(b) Verapamil
(c) Diltiazem
(d) Quinidine
Ans: A
82. Select the incorrect statement :
(a) The major culprit in ‘ozone depletion’ consists of Freons.
(b) Ozone is found more near the poles than at the equator and more abundant in summer than winter.
(c) The maximum ozone concentration is around 10 ppm in the stratosphere at an altitude of 25 – 30 km.
(d) Ozone is highly unstable relative to oxygen.
Ans: B
83. Photochemical smog is
(I) Oxidising smog
(II) Reducing smog
(III) Formed in summer in day time
(IV) Formed in winter in day time
(a) (I) and (IV) are correct.
(b) (II) and (IV) are correct.
(c) (I) and (III) are correct.
(d) (II) and (III) are correct.
Ans: C
84. Which chemical is ‘Salt of Hartshorn’ ?
(A) Calcium Phosphate (B) Ammonium Carbonate
(C) Sodium Chloride (D) Potassium
Ans: B
85. Which is the pH value of fresh cow milk ?
(A) 4.5 to 4.8 (B) 5.5 to 5.8 (C) 6.2 to 6.9 (D) 6.5 to 6.7
Ans: D
86. The number of water molecules is maximum in
(1) 18 gram of water
(2) 18 moles of water
(3) 18 molecules of water
(4) 1 8 gram of water
Ans: 2
87. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is
(1) 23%
(2) 32%
(3) 26%
(4) 48%
Ans: 2
88. Which of the following statements is not correct for a nucleophile?
(1) Nucleophiles attack low e- density sites
(2) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking
(3) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid
(4) Ammonia is a nucleophile
Ans: 3
89. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the Ideal gas law at
(1) high temperatures and high pressures
(2) low temperatures and low pressures
(3) high temperatures and low pressures.
(4) low temperatures and high pressures.
Ans: 3
90. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m , aqueous solution?
(1) 0.0354 (2) 0.0177 (3) 0.177 (4) 1.770
Ans: 2
91. The correct statement regarding defects in crystalline solids is
(1) Frenkel defect is a dislocation effect
(2) Frenkel defect is found in halides of alkaline metals
(3) Schottky defects have no effect on the density of crystalline solids
(4) Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline solids.
Ans: 1
92. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and Tl increases in the sequence
(1) Tl<In<Ga<Al (2) In<Tl<Ga<Al (3) Ga <In <A1 <TI (4) Al<Ga<In<Tl
Ans: 4
93. Two possible stereo-structures of CH3CHOH COOH, which are optically active, are called.
(1) Enantiomers (2) Mesomers (3) Diastereomers (4) Atropisomers
Ans: 1
94. Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water The reagent is
(1) hydrocyanic acid (2) sodium hydrogen sulphite
(3) a Grignard reagent (4) hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution
Ans: 4
95. In an SN1reaction on chiral centres, there is
(1) 100%retention (2) 100%lnverslon
(3) 100%racemlzatlon (4) Inversion more than retention leading to partial racemization
Ans: 4
96. The oxidation of benzene by V205 in the presence of air produces
(1) benzoic acid (2) benzaldehyde (3) benzoic anhydride (4) maleic anhydride
Ans: 4
(A) Calcium Phosphate (B) Ammonium Carbonate
(C) Sodium Chloride (D) Potassium
Ans: B
85. Which is the pH value of fresh cow milk ?
(A) 4.5 to 4.8 (B) 5.5 to 5.8 (C) 6.2 to 6.9 (D) 6.5 to 6.7
Ans: D
86. The number of water molecules is maximum in
(1) 18 gram of water
(2) 18 moles of water
(3) 18 molecules of water
(4) 1 8 gram of water
Ans: 2
87. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is
(1) 23%
(2) 32%
(3) 26%
(4) 48%
Ans: 2
88. Which of the following statements is not correct for a nucleophile?
(1) Nucleophiles attack low e- density sites
(2) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking
(3) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid
(4) Ammonia is a nucleophile
Ans: 3
89. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the Ideal gas law at
(1) high temperatures and high pressures
(2) low temperatures and low pressures
(3) high temperatures and low pressures.
(4) low temperatures and high pressures.
Ans: 3
90. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m , aqueous solution?
(1) 0.0354 (2) 0.0177 (3) 0.177 (4) 1.770
Ans: 2
91. The correct statement regarding defects in crystalline solids is
(1) Frenkel defect is a dislocation effect
(2) Frenkel defect is found in halides of alkaline metals
(3) Schottky defects have no effect on the density of crystalline solids
(4) Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline solids.
Ans: 1
92. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and Tl increases in the sequence
(1) Tl<In<Ga<Al (2) In<Tl<Ga<Al (3) Ga <In <A1 <TI (4) Al<Ga<In<Tl
Ans: 4
93. Two possible stereo-structures of CH3CHOH COOH, which are optically active, are called.
(1) Enantiomers (2) Mesomers (3) Diastereomers (4) Atropisomers
Ans: 1
94. Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water The reagent is
(1) hydrocyanic acid (2) sodium hydrogen sulphite
(3) a Grignard reagent (4) hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution
Ans: 4
95. In an SN1reaction on chiral centres, there is
(1) 100%retention (2) 100%lnverslon
(3) 100%racemlzatlon (4) Inversion more than retention leading to partial racemization
Ans: 4
96. The oxidation of benzene by V205 in the presence of air produces
(1) benzoic acid (2) benzaldehyde (3) benzoic anhydride (4) maleic anhydride
Ans: 4
97. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be (i) benzene (ii) toluene (iii) chlorobenzene (iv) phenol
(a) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
(b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(c) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(d) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Ans: C
98. The product formed in Aldol condensation is
(a) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
(b) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
(c) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
(d) a beta-hydroxy acid
Ans: A
99. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is
(a) 4/5 (b) 2/5 (c) 1 (d) 3/5
Ans: B
100. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
(a) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages.
(b) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements.
(c) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak.
(d) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.
Ans: B
(a) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
(b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(c) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(d) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Ans: C
98. The product formed in Aldol condensation is
(a) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
(b) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
(c) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
(d) a beta-hydroxy acid
Ans: A
99. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is
(a) 4/5 (b) 2/5 (c) 1 (d) 3/5
Ans: B
100. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
(a) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages.
(b) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements.
(c) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak.
(d) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.
Ans: B