CHEMISTRY- PAGE 8
1. Both myoglobin and haemoglobin are
1) paramagnetic
2) diamagnetic
3) ferromagnetic
4) none of paramagnetic, diamagnetic and ferromagnetic
Ans: 1
2. Which one of the following base is not present in RNA
1) Adenine
2) Thymine
3) Uracil
4) Cytosine
Ans: 2
3. The Energy levels of a particle of mass m in a box of length L are
1) NonQuantised
2) Quantised
3) Same
4) none of NonQuantised ,Quantised and Same
Ans: 2
4. Which metal is present in myoglobin ?
1) Zr
2) Mg
3) Fe
4) Cu
Ans: 3
5. The number of pyrrole nucleus/nuclei in Haemoglobin is/are
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 1
Ans: 3
6. 1,6 -Dicarboxylic acids on heating with acetic anhydride give
1) cyclic ketones
2) cyclic anhydride
3) carbon suboxide
4) ketene
Ans: 1
7. Proteins on acidic or enzymatic hydrolysis give
1) DAmino acids
2) L Amino acids
3) DLAmino acids
4) (+) Amino acids
Ans: 2
8. Which of the following molecular partition function is equal to statistical weight, g ?
1) Translation
2) Rotational
3) Vibrational
4) Electronic
Ans: 4
9. In how many different ways can six distinguishable molecules be placed in three different energy levels with three molecules in the first, two in the second and one in the third , ignoring any requirement of energy ?
1) 10
2) 3
3) 30
4) 60
Ans: 4
10. Absorbed wavelengths in atomic absorption spectrum appear as
1) dark background
2) dark lines
3) light background
4) light lines
Ans: 2
11. Lines, which appear in absorption and emission spectra of a substance, have wavelengths which are
1) Same
2) Different
3) Very different
4) Far apart
Ans: 1
12. Background in atomic absorption spectrum is
1) Bright
2) Dark
3) Brown
4) Purple
Ans: 1
13. Which of the following physical changes is measured by TGA ?
1) Mass loss
2) Deformations and dimension
3) Heat difference
4) Temperature difference
Ans: 1
14. With regard to thermal analysis a student made two statements A and B :
(A) The differential temperature is plotted against time to obtain DTA curve.
(B) The differential temperature is plotted against temperature to obtain thermogram.
Select the correct answer
1) Both A and B are false
2) A is true but B is false
3) B is true but A is false
4) Both A and B are true
Ans: 4
15. Which of the following technique is based on the measurement of temperature difference?
1) Thermogravimetric analysis (TGA)
2) Differential thermal analysis (DTA)
3) Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)
4) Thermo mechanical analysis (TMA)
Ans: 2
16. The incorrect statement regarding chain growth polymerization is
1) Same single step is repeated throughout reaction process.
2) Some monomer remains even at long reaction times .
3) Molar mass of backbone chain increases rapidly at early stage and remains approximately the same throughout the polymerization .
4) Initiator is required.
Ans: 1
17.A polymer is made from the monomers terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol, with the latter being in excess. The polymer obtained would have;
1) Carboxylic group at one end and hydroxyl group at the other end
2) Carboxylic groups at both the ends
3) Hydroxyl groups at the both ends
4) Carboxylic group at one end and ester group at the other end
Ans: 3
18. Among the following four methods A. NMR spectroscopy B. IR spectroscopy C.Mass spectroscopy D.Titration. End group analysis is performed by
1) By A only
2) By B only
3) By A, B and C only
4) By all of A, B, C and D
Ans: 4
19. Polystyrene, polyacrylonitrile and poly(vinyl chloride) prepared normally are
1) Mostly atactic
2) Mostly isotactic
3) Mostly syndiotactic
4) a 1:1 mixture of isotactic and syndiotactic
Ans: 1
20. The catalyst for anionic polymerization is not
1) sodium in liquid ammonia
2) alkali metal alkyls
3) Grignard reagents
4) boron trifluoride and water
Ans: 4
21. What is the main result of adding surfactants into a liquid composed of two immiscible phases such as oil and water ?
1) Reduction in the interfacial tension between the phases
2) Increase in the interfacial tension between the phases
3) Catalysis of the reaction between two phases
4) No effect
Ans: 1
22. Which of the following properties increases abruptly when micelles are formed ?
1) Conductivity
2) Surface tension
3) Osmotic pressure
4) Self Diffusion
Ans: 2
23. Which of the following factors causes CMC to increase ?
1) An increase in the number of carbon atoms in the hydrophobic tails.
2) The addition of electrolyte to ionic surfactants.
3) The existence of polar organic compounds.
4) Hydrophilic groups placed in the surfactant molecule centre
Ans: 4
24. Identify the type of isomerism present in nitropentaamminechromium(III).
1) Optical isomeresim
2) Linkage
3) Ionization
4) Polymerization
Ans: 2
25. Benzene diazonium sulphate on treatment with ethanol and copper powder gives
1) Benzene
2) Phenol
3) Chlorobenzene
4) Diphenyl
Ans: 4
26. The blue colour in Borax bead test is due to the presence of
A) cobalt
B) iron
C) copper
D) nickel
Ans: A
1) paramagnetic
2) diamagnetic
3) ferromagnetic
4) none of paramagnetic, diamagnetic and ferromagnetic
Ans: 1
2. Which one of the following base is not present in RNA
1) Adenine
2) Thymine
3) Uracil
4) Cytosine
Ans: 2
3. The Energy levels of a particle of mass m in a box of length L are
1) NonQuantised
2) Quantised
3) Same
4) none of NonQuantised ,Quantised and Same
Ans: 2
4. Which metal is present in myoglobin ?
1) Zr
2) Mg
3) Fe
4) Cu
Ans: 3
5. The number of pyrrole nucleus/nuclei in Haemoglobin is/are
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 1
Ans: 3
6. 1,6 -Dicarboxylic acids on heating with acetic anhydride give
1) cyclic ketones
2) cyclic anhydride
3) carbon suboxide
4) ketene
Ans: 1
7. Proteins on acidic or enzymatic hydrolysis give
1) DAmino acids
2) L Amino acids
3) DLAmino acids
4) (+) Amino acids
Ans: 2
8. Which of the following molecular partition function is equal to statistical weight, g ?
1) Translation
2) Rotational
3) Vibrational
4) Electronic
Ans: 4
9. In how many different ways can six distinguishable molecules be placed in three different energy levels with three molecules in the first, two in the second and one in the third , ignoring any requirement of energy ?
1) 10
2) 3
3) 30
4) 60
Ans: 4
10. Absorbed wavelengths in atomic absorption spectrum appear as
1) dark background
2) dark lines
3) light background
4) light lines
Ans: 2
11. Lines, which appear in absorption and emission spectra of a substance, have wavelengths which are
1) Same
2) Different
3) Very different
4) Far apart
Ans: 1
12. Background in atomic absorption spectrum is
1) Bright
2) Dark
3) Brown
4) Purple
Ans: 1
13. Which of the following physical changes is measured by TGA ?
1) Mass loss
2) Deformations and dimension
3) Heat difference
4) Temperature difference
Ans: 1
14. With regard to thermal analysis a student made two statements A and B :
(A) The differential temperature is plotted against time to obtain DTA curve.
(B) The differential temperature is plotted against temperature to obtain thermogram.
Select the correct answer
1) Both A and B are false
2) A is true but B is false
3) B is true but A is false
4) Both A and B are true
Ans: 4
15. Which of the following technique is based on the measurement of temperature difference?
1) Thermogravimetric analysis (TGA)
2) Differential thermal analysis (DTA)
3) Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)
4) Thermo mechanical analysis (TMA)
Ans: 2
16. The incorrect statement regarding chain growth polymerization is
1) Same single step is repeated throughout reaction process.
2) Some monomer remains even at long reaction times .
3) Molar mass of backbone chain increases rapidly at early stage and remains approximately the same throughout the polymerization .
4) Initiator is required.
Ans: 1
17.A polymer is made from the monomers terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol, with the latter being in excess. The polymer obtained would have;
1) Carboxylic group at one end and hydroxyl group at the other end
2) Carboxylic groups at both the ends
3) Hydroxyl groups at the both ends
4) Carboxylic group at one end and ester group at the other end
Ans: 3
18. Among the following four methods A. NMR spectroscopy B. IR spectroscopy C.Mass spectroscopy D.Titration. End group analysis is performed by
1) By A only
2) By B only
3) By A, B and C only
4) By all of A, B, C and D
Ans: 4
19. Polystyrene, polyacrylonitrile and poly(vinyl chloride) prepared normally are
1) Mostly atactic
2) Mostly isotactic
3) Mostly syndiotactic
4) a 1:1 mixture of isotactic and syndiotactic
Ans: 1
20. The catalyst for anionic polymerization is not
1) sodium in liquid ammonia
2) alkali metal alkyls
3) Grignard reagents
4) boron trifluoride and water
Ans: 4
21. What is the main result of adding surfactants into a liquid composed of two immiscible phases such as oil and water ?
1) Reduction in the interfacial tension between the phases
2) Increase in the interfacial tension between the phases
3) Catalysis of the reaction between two phases
4) No effect
Ans: 1
22. Which of the following properties increases abruptly when micelles are formed ?
1) Conductivity
2) Surface tension
3) Osmotic pressure
4) Self Diffusion
Ans: 2
23. Which of the following factors causes CMC to increase ?
1) An increase in the number of carbon atoms in the hydrophobic tails.
2) The addition of electrolyte to ionic surfactants.
3) The existence of polar organic compounds.
4) Hydrophilic groups placed in the surfactant molecule centre
Ans: 4
24. Identify the type of isomerism present in nitropentaamminechromium(III).
1) Optical isomeresim
2) Linkage
3) Ionization
4) Polymerization
Ans: 2
25. Benzene diazonium sulphate on treatment with ethanol and copper powder gives
1) Benzene
2) Phenol
3) Chlorobenzene
4) Diphenyl
Ans: 4
26. The blue colour in Borax bead test is due to the presence of
A) cobalt
B) iron
C) copper
D) nickel
Ans: A
27. 200 ml of a gas is collected at 7 40 m.m Hg pressure. What volume will it occupy at 720 m.m Hg pressure?
(A) 194.6 ml
(B) 200.0 ml
(C) 205.6ml
(D) 203.4 ml
Ans: C
28. The temperature of a given mass of a gas was changed from 5°C to -5°C. If the pressure remain unchanged and the initial volume was 200 ml, what should be the final volume?
(A) 200.0 ml
(B) 207.5 ml
(C) 210.3 ml
(D) 192.8 ml
Ans: D
29. The number of atoms per unit cell in a fee, bee and simple cube are ..
(A) 2, 1, 4
(B) 4, 2, 1
(C) 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 4, 2
Ans: B
30. The radius ratio in an ionic crystal lies between 0. 732-1.000, the coordination number is
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 3
Ans: B
31. Among one has cubic crystal system, it is
(A) CaCO3
(B) SiC
(C) CaF2
(D) NaNO3
Ans: C
32. Diffraction angle 28 equal to 16.8° for a crystal having inter planar distance in the crystal is 0.400 nm when second order diffraction was observed. The wavelength of X-ray is (sin 8.4° = 0.146)
(A) 0.548 A
(B) 0.458 A .
(C) 0.584A
(D) 0.854 A
Ans: C
33. Sodium metal crystallises in body centred cubic lattice with edge length (a) = 4.29 A. What is the radius of the sodium atom?
(A) 5.26 A
(B) 3.12 A
(C) 3.22 A
(D) 1.86A
Ans: D
34. One mole of an ideal gas at 25°C is allowed to expand reversibly at constant temperature from a volume 8 litres to 16 litres. The work done by the gas is
(A) -745.7 J
(B) -1717.5 J
(C) -410.5 J
(D) -820.8 J
Ans: B
35. The peak of highest intensity in a mass spectrum is referred to as
(A) isotopic peak
(B) molecular peak
(C) base peak
(D) ionic peak
Ans: C
(A) 194.6 ml
(B) 200.0 ml
(C) 205.6ml
(D) 203.4 ml
Ans: C
28. The temperature of a given mass of a gas was changed from 5°C to -5°C. If the pressure remain unchanged and the initial volume was 200 ml, what should be the final volume?
(A) 200.0 ml
(B) 207.5 ml
(C) 210.3 ml
(D) 192.8 ml
Ans: D
29. The number of atoms per unit cell in a fee, bee and simple cube are ..
(A) 2, 1, 4
(B) 4, 2, 1
(C) 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 4, 2
Ans: B
30. The radius ratio in an ionic crystal lies between 0. 732-1.000, the coordination number is
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 3
Ans: B
31. Among one has cubic crystal system, it is
(A) CaCO3
(B) SiC
(C) CaF2
(D) NaNO3
Ans: C
32. Diffraction angle 28 equal to 16.8° for a crystal having inter planar distance in the crystal is 0.400 nm when second order diffraction was observed. The wavelength of X-ray is (sin 8.4° = 0.146)
(A) 0.548 A
(B) 0.458 A .
(C) 0.584A
(D) 0.854 A
Ans: C
33. Sodium metal crystallises in body centred cubic lattice with edge length (a) = 4.29 A. What is the radius of the sodium atom?
(A) 5.26 A
(B) 3.12 A
(C) 3.22 A
(D) 1.86A
Ans: D
34. One mole of an ideal gas at 25°C is allowed to expand reversibly at constant temperature from a volume 8 litres to 16 litres. The work done by the gas is
(A) -745.7 J
(B) -1717.5 J
(C) -410.5 J
(D) -820.8 J
Ans: B
35. The peak of highest intensity in a mass spectrum is referred to as
(A) isotopic peak
(B) molecular peak
(C) base peak
(D) ionic peak
Ans: C
36. If initial concentration is doubled, the half-life period of a reaction is also doubled. The order of reaction is
(A) zero
(B) second
(C) first
(D) third
Ans: A
37. The efficiency of a internal heat engine operating between 400 K and 300 K is,
(A) 1.0
(B) 0. 75
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.25
Ans: D
38. The enzyme which can catalyse the conversion of glucose into ethanol is
(A) maltase
(B) invertase
(C) diastase
(D) zymase
Ans: D
39. The hydrogen 'electrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3.0 at 25°C. The potential of hydrogen electrode would be
(A) 0.177 V
(B) O 087 V
(C)-0.177 v
(D) 0.059 v
Ans: C
40. which one is an extensive property?
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Enthalpy
(D) Density
Ans: C
41. An acid solution has a molarity of 0.005 M and pH of 5. What is the % ionization of this acid?
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.2
(D) 0.8
Ans: C
42. Normal hydrogen electrode belongs to
(A) Gas electrode
(B) Amalgam electrode
(C) Metal-insoluble salt electrode
(D) Metal-metal ion electrode
Ans: A
43. Which metal has higher hydrogen over voltage value?
(A) Palladium
(B) Mercury
(C) Gold
(D) Copper
Ans: B
44:-Out of the following substance which does not undergo sublimation?
A:-Iodine
B:-Camphor
C:-Naphthalene
D:-Sugar
Ans: D
45:-Chile Saltpetre is the common name of
A:-Sodium nitrite
B:-Potassium nitrate
C:-Sodium nitrate
D:-Potassium nitrite
Ans: C
(A) zero
(B) second
(C) first
(D) third
Ans: A
37. The efficiency of a internal heat engine operating between 400 K and 300 K is,
(A) 1.0
(B) 0. 75
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.25
Ans: D
38. The enzyme which can catalyse the conversion of glucose into ethanol is
(A) maltase
(B) invertase
(C) diastase
(D) zymase
Ans: D
39. The hydrogen 'electrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3.0 at 25°C. The potential of hydrogen electrode would be
(A) 0.177 V
(B) O 087 V
(C)-0.177 v
(D) 0.059 v
Ans: C
40. which one is an extensive property?
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Enthalpy
(D) Density
Ans: C
41. An acid solution has a molarity of 0.005 M and pH of 5. What is the % ionization of this acid?
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.2
(D) 0.8
Ans: C
42. Normal hydrogen electrode belongs to
(A) Gas electrode
(B) Amalgam electrode
(C) Metal-insoluble salt electrode
(D) Metal-metal ion electrode
Ans: A
43. Which metal has higher hydrogen over voltage value?
(A) Palladium
(B) Mercury
(C) Gold
(D) Copper
Ans: B
44:-Out of the following substance which does not undergo sublimation?
A:-Iodine
B:-Camphor
C:-Naphthalene
D:-Sugar
Ans: D
45:-Chile Saltpetre is the common name of
A:-Sodium nitrite
B:-Potassium nitrate
C:-Sodium nitrate
D:-Potassium nitrite
Ans: C
46. The mineral from which the metal can be economically and conveniently extracted is called 'ore'. Name the ore of aluminium.
A) Galena B) Malachite C) Bauxite D) Cinnabar
Ans: C
47. There are chemicals which give sweetening effect to the food and enhance its flavour and odour. Name the sweetening agent used in the preparation of sweets for diabetes patients.
A) Deretrose B) Maltose C) Glycogen D) Saccharin
Ans: D
48. Which of the following property is the basis of arrangement of elements in modern periodic table ?
A) Atomic number B) Mass number
C) Atomic radius D) Ionization enthalpy
Ans: A
49. Atoms of the same element with different mass numbers are known as
A) Isomers B) Isobars C) Isotops D) Isotones
Ans: C
50. The ratio of hydrogen and oxygen in water (by volume) is
A) 1 : 8 B) 2 : 1 C) 1 : 16 D) 1 : 1
Ans: B
A) Galena B) Malachite C) Bauxite D) Cinnabar
Ans: C
47. There are chemicals which give sweetening effect to the food and enhance its flavour and odour. Name the sweetening agent used in the preparation of sweets for diabetes patients.
A) Deretrose B) Maltose C) Glycogen D) Saccharin
Ans: D
48. Which of the following property is the basis of arrangement of elements in modern periodic table ?
A) Atomic number B) Mass number
C) Atomic radius D) Ionization enthalpy
Ans: A
49. Atoms of the same element with different mass numbers are known as
A) Isomers B) Isobars C) Isotops D) Isotones
Ans: C
50. The ratio of hydrogen and oxygen in water (by volume) is
A) 1 : 8 B) 2 : 1 C) 1 : 16 D) 1 : 1
Ans: B
51. Which of the following is the lightest metal?
A:-Mercury
B:-Silver
C:-Lithium
D:-Lead
Ans: C
52. Which of the following properties is not a state function ?
(a) Enthalpy (b) Work done (c) Temperature (d) Entropy
Ans: B
53. When an ideal gas expands from 6.0 L to 14.0 L against a fixed pressure of 0.30 atm, the work involved is
(a) 243.33 J (b) –243.33 J (c) 230.33 J (d) –230.33 J
Ans: B
54. Which of the following statements is correct for ‘Fog’ ?
(a) Liquid particles are dispersed in a gas. (b) Gaseous particles are dispersed in a liquid.
(c) Solid particles are dispersed in a liquid. (d) Solid particles are dispersed in a gas.
Ans: A
55. In the primitive cubic unit cell, the radius of the atom(r) is related with the side of the unit cell(a) as
(a) r = 2a
(b) r = a
(c) r = a /4
(d) r =a/ 2
Ans: D
56. Electrophoretic separation of colloidal particles is due to
(a) Mobility of charged particles (b) Movement of the dispersion medium (c) Tyndall effect (d) Brownian movement
Ans: A
57. Solutions of mixture which distill without change in composition and temperature are called
(a) isotonic (b) azeotropic (c) ideal (d) supersaturated
Ans: B
58. Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia gas is favoured at
(a) High pressure, low temperature (b) Low pressure, high temperature
(c) High pressure, high temperature (d) Low pressure, low temperature
Ans: A
59. The minimum volume of benzene required to extract in one step 90% of H2S present in 1 litre of 0.1 M aqueous solution would be : (Partition co-efficient of H2S between water and benzene is 0.17.)
(a) 1.53 litre (b) 2.06 litre (c) 0.015 litre (d) 0.153 litre
Ans: A
60. What is the value of the compressibility factor at critical point for a gas obeying van der Waal’s equation ?
(a) 1.000 (b) 0.375 (c) 0.663 (d) 1.375
Ans: B
61. Which of the following solutions would show maximum elevation in boiling point ?
(a) 0.1 M KCl (b) 0.1 M glucose (c) 0.2 M urea (d) 0.1 M BaCl2
Ans: D
62. Blood is isotonic with
(a) 0.16 M NaCl solution (b) 0.80 M NaCl solution (c) 0.32 M NaCl solution (d) 0.40 M NaCl solution
Ans: A
63. The electrical charge on a colloidal particle is determined by
(a) Dialysis (b) Brownian movement (c) Electrophoresis (d) Ultramicroscope
Ans: C
64. The rate of diffusion of O2 gas at a given temperature is twice that of an unknown gas. The molar mass of the unknown gas is
(a) 128 (b) 64 (c) 32 (d) 8
Ans: A
65. An aqueous solution of pH 5 is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution would be : (Given : log 11 = 1.04)
(a) 8.00 (b) 6.25 (c) 6.96 (d) 4.85
Ans: C
66. Both the intramolecular and intermolecular H-bonds are present in
(a) o-nitrophenol (b) Proteins (c) Fatty oils (d) Ethylene glycol
Ans: B
67. Which one of the following conformers of cyclohexane is least stable ?
(a) Half-chair (b) Chair (c) Boat (d) Twist-boat
Ans: D
68. (+) – Glyceraldehyde on reaction with mercuric oxide produces
(a) (+) – glyceric acid
(b) (+) – glyceric acid + (–) – glyceric acid
(c) (–) – glyceric acid
(d) No reaction
Ans: C
69. Which one of the following heterocyclic compounds is most aromatic ?
(a) Furan (b) Pyrrole (c) Thiophene (d) Pyridine
Ans: C
70. Which of the following reactions used in the synthesis caprolactum is :
(a) Beckmann rearrangement (b) Stobbe condensation
(c) Oppenaure oxidation (d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Ans: A
71. Oils and fats are characterized by their
(a) Reichert-Meissl value (b) Acetyl value (c) Iodine value (d) All of these
Ans: D
72. Tick the statement which is not true.
(a) Dinitrobenzene is used as inhibitor in free-radical polymerization.
(b) Oxygen does not interfere in free-radical polymerization.
(c) Living polymers are produced by anionic polymerization.
(d) Chemical formula of Nylon and proteins are somewhat similar.
Ans: B
73. How many fundamental vibrations CO2 and H2O molecules will have ?
(a) 4 and 3 respectively (b) 4 and 4 respectively
(c) 3 and 4 respectively (d) 3 and 3 respectively
Ans: A
74. Ion exchange chromatography have been used for
(a) Demineralization of water (b) Removal of hardness from water
(c) Separation of ions in a mixture (d) All of these
Ans: D
75. Tick the statement which is true.
(a) Carbon dioxide is a minor contributor to global warming.
(b) There is no relation between ozone hole and CFCs.
(c) If the pH of rain water is less than 5.6, it is called as acid rain.
(d) Nitrous oxide is not a greenhouse gas.
Ans: C
76. The organic compound which has all the carbon-carbon bonds of same bond length is :
(a) Benzene (b) n-hexane (c) cyclohexane (d) All of these
Ans: D
77. The electrophile used in the nitration of benzene :
(a) is nitronium ion. (b) is produced from H2SO4 + HNO3.
(c) is attacked by the π -electrons of benzene. (d) All of these
Ans: D
78. Maximum number of resonance structures for phenol are :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
Ans: C
79. Which of the following belongs to the class of steroids ?
(a) Vitamin D (b) Progesterone (c) Fusidic acid (d) All of these
Ans: D
80. Heating sucrose with conc. H2SO4 produces
(a) Carbon and water (b) Carbon monoxide and water
(c) Carbon dioxide and water (d) Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide
Ans: A
81. The number of asymmetric carbon atoms in fructose are :
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
Ans: C
82. Teflon, polystyrene and neoprene are
(a) co-polymers (b) homopolymers (c) terpolymers (d) conjugated polymers
Ans: B
83. Mercury is released into air by
(a) burning of coal (b) burning of garbage (c) burning of wood (d) burning of petrol
Ans: B
84. Natural gas is used for the production of which of the following?
1. Detergents and soaps 2. Electricity 3. Fertilizers for crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 3 only
Ans: B
85. Which of the following is/are known as ‘ozone depleting substance(s)’?
1. Black carbon 2. Halons 3. Oxides of nitrogen
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
86. In the context of food processing, the addition of sulfites (sulphites) to fruits and vegetables has which of the following effects?
1. Prevention of browning
2. Increase in sour taste
3. Destruction of thiamine
4. Preservation of thiamine
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
87. Which of the following has/have antioxidant properties?
1. Ascorbic acid 2. Butylated hydroxyanisole 3. Stannous chloride 4. Tocopherol
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
88. In food processing, which of the following is/are used as emulsifiers?
1. Carboxymethyl cellulose 2. Ethylene diamine tetra acetate 3. Propylene glycol
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
89. To test the adulteration of milk, 3 ml of milk is boiled, then cooled to room temperature; and two or three drops of iodine solution is added. The milk turned blue. This indicates that the milk is adulterated with:
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Glucose (c) Starch (d) Urea
Ans: C
90. With reference to irradiation for food processing, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Cobalt-60 produces ionizing radiation, therefore it is used in the process of irradiation of food.
2. Ultra-violet rays are the only ionizing radiation used for irradiation of food.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
91. With reference to ‘monosodium glutamate’(MSG) used in processed foods, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. MSG is not a naturally occurring substance.
2. MSG is a neurotransmitter.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
92. Consider the following statements:
1. All organochlorine pesticides (OCPs) enter the human bodies through food chain only.
2. Some of the OCPs are categorized as Persistent Organic Pollutants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
93. An aqueous solution of methanol has vapour pressure _____.
(A) More than that of water (B) Equal to that of water (C) Equal to that of methanol (D) Less than that of water.
Ans: A
94. If surface area increases, ____.
(A) Evaporation increases (B) Boiling Point increases (C) Melting Point increases (D) Surface tension increases
Ans: A
95. The intermolecular force of attraction between non-polar molecule is called _____
(A) Dispersion forces (B) Adhesive forces (C) H-bonding (D) Interionic attraction
Ans: A
96. Which will be the constant in Charle’s law?
(A) Pressure - P (B) Volume - V (C) Temperature - T (D) Velocity - V
Ans: A
97. Which one of the following metals is used as a reducing agent in smelting?
(A) C (B) Zn (C) Al (D) Ni
Ans: A
98. In metallurgy, flux is a substance used to convert
(A) Infusible impurities to fusible material (B) Fusible impurities to infusible impurities
(C) Soluble impurities to insoluble impurities (D) Mineral into silicate
Ans: A
99. Purest form of iron is ________.
(A) Steel (B) Pig iron (C) Cast iron (D) Wrought iron
Ans: D
100. Lustre of metal is due to ________.
(A) Presence of free electrons (B) Its Chemical inertness (C) Its high polishing (D) Its high density
Ans: A
A:-Mercury
B:-Silver
C:-Lithium
D:-Lead
Ans: C
52. Which of the following properties is not a state function ?
(a) Enthalpy (b) Work done (c) Temperature (d) Entropy
Ans: B
53. When an ideal gas expands from 6.0 L to 14.0 L against a fixed pressure of 0.30 atm, the work involved is
(a) 243.33 J (b) –243.33 J (c) 230.33 J (d) –230.33 J
Ans: B
54. Which of the following statements is correct for ‘Fog’ ?
(a) Liquid particles are dispersed in a gas. (b) Gaseous particles are dispersed in a liquid.
(c) Solid particles are dispersed in a liquid. (d) Solid particles are dispersed in a gas.
Ans: A
55. In the primitive cubic unit cell, the radius of the atom(r) is related with the side of the unit cell(a) as
(a) r = 2a
(b) r = a
(c) r = a /4
(d) r =a/ 2
Ans: D
56. Electrophoretic separation of colloidal particles is due to
(a) Mobility of charged particles (b) Movement of the dispersion medium (c) Tyndall effect (d) Brownian movement
Ans: A
57. Solutions of mixture which distill without change in composition and temperature are called
(a) isotonic (b) azeotropic (c) ideal (d) supersaturated
Ans: B
58. Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia gas is favoured at
(a) High pressure, low temperature (b) Low pressure, high temperature
(c) High pressure, high temperature (d) Low pressure, low temperature
Ans: A
59. The minimum volume of benzene required to extract in one step 90% of H2S present in 1 litre of 0.1 M aqueous solution would be : (Partition co-efficient of H2S between water and benzene is 0.17.)
(a) 1.53 litre (b) 2.06 litre (c) 0.015 litre (d) 0.153 litre
Ans: A
60. What is the value of the compressibility factor at critical point for a gas obeying van der Waal’s equation ?
(a) 1.000 (b) 0.375 (c) 0.663 (d) 1.375
Ans: B
61. Which of the following solutions would show maximum elevation in boiling point ?
(a) 0.1 M KCl (b) 0.1 M glucose (c) 0.2 M urea (d) 0.1 M BaCl2
Ans: D
62. Blood is isotonic with
(a) 0.16 M NaCl solution (b) 0.80 M NaCl solution (c) 0.32 M NaCl solution (d) 0.40 M NaCl solution
Ans: A
63. The electrical charge on a colloidal particle is determined by
(a) Dialysis (b) Brownian movement (c) Electrophoresis (d) Ultramicroscope
Ans: C
64. The rate of diffusion of O2 gas at a given temperature is twice that of an unknown gas. The molar mass of the unknown gas is
(a) 128 (b) 64 (c) 32 (d) 8
Ans: A
65. An aqueous solution of pH 5 is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution would be : (Given : log 11 = 1.04)
(a) 8.00 (b) 6.25 (c) 6.96 (d) 4.85
Ans: C
66. Both the intramolecular and intermolecular H-bonds are present in
(a) o-nitrophenol (b) Proteins (c) Fatty oils (d) Ethylene glycol
Ans: B
67. Which one of the following conformers of cyclohexane is least stable ?
(a) Half-chair (b) Chair (c) Boat (d) Twist-boat
Ans: D
68. (+) – Glyceraldehyde on reaction with mercuric oxide produces
(a) (+) – glyceric acid
(b) (+) – glyceric acid + (–) – glyceric acid
(c) (–) – glyceric acid
(d) No reaction
Ans: C
69. Which one of the following heterocyclic compounds is most aromatic ?
(a) Furan (b) Pyrrole (c) Thiophene (d) Pyridine
Ans: C
70. Which of the following reactions used in the synthesis caprolactum is :
(a) Beckmann rearrangement (b) Stobbe condensation
(c) Oppenaure oxidation (d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Ans: A
71. Oils and fats are characterized by their
(a) Reichert-Meissl value (b) Acetyl value (c) Iodine value (d) All of these
Ans: D
72. Tick the statement which is not true.
(a) Dinitrobenzene is used as inhibitor in free-radical polymerization.
(b) Oxygen does not interfere in free-radical polymerization.
(c) Living polymers are produced by anionic polymerization.
(d) Chemical formula of Nylon and proteins are somewhat similar.
Ans: B
73. How many fundamental vibrations CO2 and H2O molecules will have ?
(a) 4 and 3 respectively (b) 4 and 4 respectively
(c) 3 and 4 respectively (d) 3 and 3 respectively
Ans: A
74. Ion exchange chromatography have been used for
(a) Demineralization of water (b) Removal of hardness from water
(c) Separation of ions in a mixture (d) All of these
Ans: D
75. Tick the statement which is true.
(a) Carbon dioxide is a minor contributor to global warming.
(b) There is no relation between ozone hole and CFCs.
(c) If the pH of rain water is less than 5.6, it is called as acid rain.
(d) Nitrous oxide is not a greenhouse gas.
Ans: C
76. The organic compound which has all the carbon-carbon bonds of same bond length is :
(a) Benzene (b) n-hexane (c) cyclohexane (d) All of these
Ans: D
77. The electrophile used in the nitration of benzene :
(a) is nitronium ion. (b) is produced from H2SO4 + HNO3.
(c) is attacked by the π -electrons of benzene. (d) All of these
Ans: D
78. Maximum number of resonance structures for phenol are :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
Ans: C
79. Which of the following belongs to the class of steroids ?
(a) Vitamin D (b) Progesterone (c) Fusidic acid (d) All of these
Ans: D
80. Heating sucrose with conc. H2SO4 produces
(a) Carbon and water (b) Carbon monoxide and water
(c) Carbon dioxide and water (d) Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide
Ans: A
81. The number of asymmetric carbon atoms in fructose are :
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
Ans: C
82. Teflon, polystyrene and neoprene are
(a) co-polymers (b) homopolymers (c) terpolymers (d) conjugated polymers
Ans: B
83. Mercury is released into air by
(a) burning of coal (b) burning of garbage (c) burning of wood (d) burning of petrol
Ans: B
84. Natural gas is used for the production of which of the following?
1. Detergents and soaps 2. Electricity 3. Fertilizers for crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 3 only
Ans: B
85. Which of the following is/are known as ‘ozone depleting substance(s)’?
1. Black carbon 2. Halons 3. Oxides of nitrogen
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
86. In the context of food processing, the addition of sulfites (sulphites) to fruits and vegetables has which of the following effects?
1. Prevention of browning
2. Increase in sour taste
3. Destruction of thiamine
4. Preservation of thiamine
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
87. Which of the following has/have antioxidant properties?
1. Ascorbic acid 2. Butylated hydroxyanisole 3. Stannous chloride 4. Tocopherol
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
88. In food processing, which of the following is/are used as emulsifiers?
1. Carboxymethyl cellulose 2. Ethylene diamine tetra acetate 3. Propylene glycol
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
89. To test the adulteration of milk, 3 ml of milk is boiled, then cooled to room temperature; and two or three drops of iodine solution is added. The milk turned blue. This indicates that the milk is adulterated with:
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Glucose (c) Starch (d) Urea
Ans: C
90. With reference to irradiation for food processing, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Cobalt-60 produces ionizing radiation, therefore it is used in the process of irradiation of food.
2. Ultra-violet rays are the only ionizing radiation used for irradiation of food.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
91. With reference to ‘monosodium glutamate’(MSG) used in processed foods, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. MSG is not a naturally occurring substance.
2. MSG is a neurotransmitter.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
92. Consider the following statements:
1. All organochlorine pesticides (OCPs) enter the human bodies through food chain only.
2. Some of the OCPs are categorized as Persistent Organic Pollutants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
93. An aqueous solution of methanol has vapour pressure _____.
(A) More than that of water (B) Equal to that of water (C) Equal to that of methanol (D) Less than that of water.
Ans: A
94. If surface area increases, ____.
(A) Evaporation increases (B) Boiling Point increases (C) Melting Point increases (D) Surface tension increases
Ans: A
95. The intermolecular force of attraction between non-polar molecule is called _____
(A) Dispersion forces (B) Adhesive forces (C) H-bonding (D) Interionic attraction
Ans: A
96. Which will be the constant in Charle’s law?
(A) Pressure - P (B) Volume - V (C) Temperature - T (D) Velocity - V
Ans: A
97. Which one of the following metals is used as a reducing agent in smelting?
(A) C (B) Zn (C) Al (D) Ni
Ans: A
98. In metallurgy, flux is a substance used to convert
(A) Infusible impurities to fusible material (B) Fusible impurities to infusible impurities
(C) Soluble impurities to insoluble impurities (D) Mineral into silicate
Ans: A
99. Purest form of iron is ________.
(A) Steel (B) Pig iron (C) Cast iron (D) Wrought iron
Ans: D
100. Lustre of metal is due to ________.
(A) Presence of free electrons (B) Its Chemical inertness (C) Its high polishing (D) Its high density
Ans: A