AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING- PAGE 7
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING- PAGE 7
1. A ball and socket joint forms ......................... kinematic pair (A) Turning pair (B) Screw pair (C) Spherical pair (D) Sliding pair
Ans: C
2. The motion of a circular shaft with collars at each end rotating in a round hole constitutes between the elements of kinematic pair (A) Successfully constrained motion (B) Completely constrained motion (C) Incompletely constrained motion (D) None of the options
Ans: B
3. If N kinematic links are connected at a same pin joint in a kinematic chain, the joint is equivalent of (A) (N-1) binary joints (B) (N-2) binary joints (C) (2N-3) binary joints (D) (2N-1) binary joints
Ans: A
4. Unconstrained rigid link in plane has (A) One degree of freedom (B) Zero degree of freedom (C) Three degree of freedom (D) Two degree of freedom
Ans: C
5. One of the links of constrained kinematic chain is fixed, the result is ..................... . (A) Structure (B) Frame (C) Mechanism (D) None of the options
Ans: C
6. The smallest circle drawn to the cam profile from the centre of rotation of a radial cam is called (A) Base circle (B) Prime circle (C) Pitch Circle (D) None of the options
Ans: A
7. In oxy-acetylene gas welding three types of flames can be adjusted. Which order is correct for descending temperature? (A) Neutral, Oxidizing, Carburizing (B) Oxidizing, Neutral , Carburizing (C) Oxidizing, Carburizing, Neutral (D) Carburizing, Oxidizing, Neutral
Ans: B
8. The angle between the direction of follower motion and normal to the pitch curve is called (A) Pitch angle (B) Prime angle (C) Pressure angle (D) None of the options
Ans: C
9. For dynamic balance of a shaft, (A) The net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero (B) The net couple due to dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the options
Ans: C
10. The engine of the aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and the aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The effect of gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be? (A) To raise the nose and dip the tail (B) To dip the nose and raise the tail (C) To raise the nose and tail (D) To dip the nose and tail
Ans: A
11. Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive (A) Remains same (B) Decreases (C) Increases (D) None of the options
Ans: B
12. The velocity ratio of two pulleys connected by an open belt or crossed belt is (A) Directly proportional to their diameters (B) Inversely proportional to their diameters (C) Directly proportional to the square of their diameters (D) Inversely proportional to the square of their diameters
Ans: B
13. When no external force acts on the body, after giving it an initial displacement, then the body is said to be under (A) Free vibrations (B) Forced vibrations (C) Random vibrations (D) None of the options
Ans: A
14. The speed, at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection of the shaft from the axis of rotation becomes infinite, is known as (A) Normal speed (B) Under speed (C) Critical speed (D) None of the options
Ans: C
15. Which of the following metals are used in solder alloys?
(A) Aluminum (B) Gold (C) Tin (D) Iron
Ans: C
16. Two dimensional metal cutting in which the cutting edge is normal to the work piece is called (A) Orthogonal cutting (B) Oblique cutting (C) Forming (D) None of the options
Ans: A
17. Angle between the face of the tool and a line parallel with base of the tool measured in a perpendicular plane through the side cutting edge is called (A) Side rake angle (B) End relief angle (C) Side relief angle (D) Back rake angle
Ans: D
18. Which of the following accessory is employed on metal cutting lathe for holding jobs, which cannot be conveniently held between centers or by chucks (A) Chuck (B) Mandrel (C) Face plate (D) None of the options
Ans: C
19. On metal cutting lathe the distance that a tool advances into the work during one revolution of the headstock spindle is called (A) Cutting speed (B) Feed (C) Depth of cut (D) None of the options
Ans: B
20. In shaper machine the time taken during the idle stroke is less as compared to forward cutting stroke and this is obtained by ..................... mechanism. (A) Clapper box (B) Back gear (C) Quick return (D) None of the options
Ans: C
21. On planer machine (A) Work piece is held stationary and the cutting tool on the ram is moves back and forth across the work (B) The tool is stationary and the work piece travels back and forth under the tool (C) Both work piece and tool travel back and forth (D) None of the options
Ans: B
22. The cylindrical portion of the land of the twist drill bit which is not cut away to provide clearance is called (A) Neck (B) Helix (C) Point (D) Margin
Ans: D
23. When viewed from the cutting point the anticlockwise rotation of a drill in order to cut is called (A) Left hand cut drill bit (B) Right hand cut drill bit (C) Rasp cut drill bit (D) Core drill bit
Ans: B
24. The process by which grinding wheel restores the original shape is known as (A) Truing (B) Dressing (C) Marking (D) None of these options
Ans: A
25. The flattened end of a taper shank drill bit, intended to fit into a driving slot in a socket is known as (A) Web (B) Flute (C) Land (D) Tang
Ans: D
26. When the hole in the sheet metal is to be accurate then (A) Die is made to the size of the hole (B) Punch size is obtained by subtracting clearance (C) Punch is made to the size of the hole (D) All of the options
Ans: C
27. Which of the following sheet metal operation is not performed on press machine (A) Blanking (B) Metal spinning (C) Drawing (D) Punching
Ans: B
28. The spacing of abrasive particles with respect to one another in grinding wheel is called (A) Structure of the wheel (B) Grain size (C) Grade (D) Grit
Ans: A
29. Which one of the following lubricant is suitable as solid lubricant (A) Graphite (B) Derived from petroleum (C) Obtained from Animal fat (D) None of the options
Ans: A
30. Which one of the following material is suitable for automotive radiator core (A) Plastic (B) Cast iron (C) Steel (D) Copper
Ans: D
31. Longitudinal distance between the centers of front and rear axles is called as (A) Wheel track (B) Wheel Base (C) Wheel over hang (D) All of these
Ans: B
32. Crumple zones of the automobile body ………… of a collision so that the rate of deceleration experienced by the occupants is reduced (A) Absorb the shock (B) Avoid the chances (C) Reduce drag forces (D) None of the options
Ans: A
33. Chassis Frame tapers from rear to front to permit ………………….. (A) Reduction of drag due to friction forces of air (B) Vertical movement of the wheels (C) Adequate movement of the steering wheel and linkages (D) None of the options
Ans: C
34. The part of the piston below the rings is called .................. (A) Lower crown (B) Web (C) Skirt (D) All of the options
Ans: C
35. Maximum percentage of anti-freeze(ethylene glycol) preferred with water in cooling systems is -- (A) 30% (B) 70 % (C) 50% (D) None of the options
Ans: B
36. Brake fluid used in hydraulic braking system should have …………. (A) High viscosity (B) Low boiling point (C) Should have less stability (D) High boiling point
Ans: D
37. Total retarding force produced at the wheels is equal to the vehicle weight itself, if coefficient of friction between tire and road is ……………… (A) One (B) Less than one (C) Greater than one (D) None of the options
Ans: A
38. If n = total number of plates on driving and driven shaft in the multi plate clutch, then number of pairs of contact surfaces will be …….. (A) n +1 (B) n +2 (C) n -1 (D) n- 2
Ans: C
39. In a clutch with coil springs, the wear of the clutch facing will cause the clamping load to - (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain constant (D) None of the options
Ans: B
40. The basic automobile structure consists of the suspension system, axles, wheels and (A) Power steering (B) Pneumatic Brakes (C) Lights (D) Frame
Ans: D
41. The vehicle frame may get distorted to parallelogram shape due to (A) Weight of vehicle (B) Driven forward or backwards continuously subjected to wheel impact with road obstacles (C) Weight of passengers (D) None of the options
Ans: B
42. Shaping of the body below the front bumper to reduce air drag is called as (A) Rear spoiler (B) Crumple zone (C) Air dam (D) None of the options
Ans: C
43. Piston rings located at top portion of the piston are called as ............... rings (A) Oil control (B) Compression (C) Oil scrapper (D) None of the options
Ans: B
44. Tank which is designed to catch and hold any coolant that passes through the radiator pressure cap when the engine is hot is called as (A) Upper tank (B) Lower tank (C) Recovery tank (D) None of the options
Ans: C
45. Heat dissipating capacity of cooling fins outside of engine cylinder barrel is more dependent upon (A) Fin spacing (B) Engine temperature (C) Fin length and cross section (D) None of the options
Ans: C
46. The role of lead screw in lathe machine is to aid in (A) Knurling (B) Spinning (C) Thread cutting (D) Surface finishing
Ans: C
47. In hydrodynamic lubrication with increase of shaft speed wedging action of the oil ................... (A) Increases (B) Remain same (C) Decreases (D) None of the options
Ans: A
48. The parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure plate against the clutch plate are the (A) Release levers (B) Thrust bearing (C) Springs (D) None of the options
Ans: C
49. During braking of the vehicle kinetic energy must be absorbed More by ................... (A) Front brakes (B) Rear Brakes (C) Hand brakes (D) None of the options
Ans: A
50. Chassis arrangement in which engine is mounted in front of the drivers cabin is called (A) Conventional (B) Semi forward (C) Full forward (D) None of the options
Ans: A
Ans: C
2. The motion of a circular shaft with collars at each end rotating in a round hole constitutes between the elements of kinematic pair (A) Successfully constrained motion (B) Completely constrained motion (C) Incompletely constrained motion (D) None of the options
Ans: B
3. If N kinematic links are connected at a same pin joint in a kinematic chain, the joint is equivalent of (A) (N-1) binary joints (B) (N-2) binary joints (C) (2N-3) binary joints (D) (2N-1) binary joints
Ans: A
4. Unconstrained rigid link in plane has (A) One degree of freedom (B) Zero degree of freedom (C) Three degree of freedom (D) Two degree of freedom
Ans: C
5. One of the links of constrained kinematic chain is fixed, the result is ..................... . (A) Structure (B) Frame (C) Mechanism (D) None of the options
Ans: C
6. The smallest circle drawn to the cam profile from the centre of rotation of a radial cam is called (A) Base circle (B) Prime circle (C) Pitch Circle (D) None of the options
Ans: A
7. In oxy-acetylene gas welding three types of flames can be adjusted. Which order is correct for descending temperature? (A) Neutral, Oxidizing, Carburizing (B) Oxidizing, Neutral , Carburizing (C) Oxidizing, Carburizing, Neutral (D) Carburizing, Oxidizing, Neutral
Ans: B
8. The angle between the direction of follower motion and normal to the pitch curve is called (A) Pitch angle (B) Prime angle (C) Pressure angle (D) None of the options
Ans: C
9. For dynamic balance of a shaft, (A) The net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero (B) The net couple due to dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the options
Ans: C
10. The engine of the aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and the aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The effect of gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be? (A) To raise the nose and dip the tail (B) To dip the nose and raise the tail (C) To raise the nose and tail (D) To dip the nose and tail
Ans: A
11. Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive (A) Remains same (B) Decreases (C) Increases (D) None of the options
Ans: B
12. The velocity ratio of two pulleys connected by an open belt or crossed belt is (A) Directly proportional to their diameters (B) Inversely proportional to their diameters (C) Directly proportional to the square of their diameters (D) Inversely proportional to the square of their diameters
Ans: B
13. When no external force acts on the body, after giving it an initial displacement, then the body is said to be under (A) Free vibrations (B) Forced vibrations (C) Random vibrations (D) None of the options
Ans: A
14. The speed, at which the shaft runs so that the additional deflection of the shaft from the axis of rotation becomes infinite, is known as (A) Normal speed (B) Under speed (C) Critical speed (D) None of the options
Ans: C
15. Which of the following metals are used in solder alloys?
(A) Aluminum (B) Gold (C) Tin (D) Iron
Ans: C
16. Two dimensional metal cutting in which the cutting edge is normal to the work piece is called (A) Orthogonal cutting (B) Oblique cutting (C) Forming (D) None of the options
Ans: A
17. Angle between the face of the tool and a line parallel with base of the tool measured in a perpendicular plane through the side cutting edge is called (A) Side rake angle (B) End relief angle (C) Side relief angle (D) Back rake angle
Ans: D
18. Which of the following accessory is employed on metal cutting lathe for holding jobs, which cannot be conveniently held between centers or by chucks (A) Chuck (B) Mandrel (C) Face plate (D) None of the options
Ans: C
19. On metal cutting lathe the distance that a tool advances into the work during one revolution of the headstock spindle is called (A) Cutting speed (B) Feed (C) Depth of cut (D) None of the options
Ans: B
20. In shaper machine the time taken during the idle stroke is less as compared to forward cutting stroke and this is obtained by ..................... mechanism. (A) Clapper box (B) Back gear (C) Quick return (D) None of the options
Ans: C
21. On planer machine (A) Work piece is held stationary and the cutting tool on the ram is moves back and forth across the work (B) The tool is stationary and the work piece travels back and forth under the tool (C) Both work piece and tool travel back and forth (D) None of the options
Ans: B
22. The cylindrical portion of the land of the twist drill bit which is not cut away to provide clearance is called (A) Neck (B) Helix (C) Point (D) Margin
Ans: D
23. When viewed from the cutting point the anticlockwise rotation of a drill in order to cut is called (A) Left hand cut drill bit (B) Right hand cut drill bit (C) Rasp cut drill bit (D) Core drill bit
Ans: B
24. The process by which grinding wheel restores the original shape is known as (A) Truing (B) Dressing (C) Marking (D) None of these options
Ans: A
25. The flattened end of a taper shank drill bit, intended to fit into a driving slot in a socket is known as (A) Web (B) Flute (C) Land (D) Tang
Ans: D
26. When the hole in the sheet metal is to be accurate then (A) Die is made to the size of the hole (B) Punch size is obtained by subtracting clearance (C) Punch is made to the size of the hole (D) All of the options
Ans: C
27. Which of the following sheet metal operation is not performed on press machine (A) Blanking (B) Metal spinning (C) Drawing (D) Punching
Ans: B
28. The spacing of abrasive particles with respect to one another in grinding wheel is called (A) Structure of the wheel (B) Grain size (C) Grade (D) Grit
Ans: A
29. Which one of the following lubricant is suitable as solid lubricant (A) Graphite (B) Derived from petroleum (C) Obtained from Animal fat (D) None of the options
Ans: A
30. Which one of the following material is suitable for automotive radiator core (A) Plastic (B) Cast iron (C) Steel (D) Copper
Ans: D
31. Longitudinal distance between the centers of front and rear axles is called as (A) Wheel track (B) Wheel Base (C) Wheel over hang (D) All of these
Ans: B
32. Crumple zones of the automobile body ………… of a collision so that the rate of deceleration experienced by the occupants is reduced (A) Absorb the shock (B) Avoid the chances (C) Reduce drag forces (D) None of the options
Ans: A
33. Chassis Frame tapers from rear to front to permit ………………….. (A) Reduction of drag due to friction forces of air (B) Vertical movement of the wheels (C) Adequate movement of the steering wheel and linkages (D) None of the options
Ans: C
34. The part of the piston below the rings is called .................. (A) Lower crown (B) Web (C) Skirt (D) All of the options
Ans: C
35. Maximum percentage of anti-freeze(ethylene glycol) preferred with water in cooling systems is -- (A) 30% (B) 70 % (C) 50% (D) None of the options
Ans: B
36. Brake fluid used in hydraulic braking system should have …………. (A) High viscosity (B) Low boiling point (C) Should have less stability (D) High boiling point
Ans: D
37. Total retarding force produced at the wheels is equal to the vehicle weight itself, if coefficient of friction between tire and road is ……………… (A) One (B) Less than one (C) Greater than one (D) None of the options
Ans: A
38. If n = total number of plates on driving and driven shaft in the multi plate clutch, then number of pairs of contact surfaces will be …….. (A) n +1 (B) n +2 (C) n -1 (D) n- 2
Ans: C
39. In a clutch with coil springs, the wear of the clutch facing will cause the clamping load to - (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain constant (D) None of the options
Ans: B
40. The basic automobile structure consists of the suspension system, axles, wheels and (A) Power steering (B) Pneumatic Brakes (C) Lights (D) Frame
Ans: D
41. The vehicle frame may get distorted to parallelogram shape due to (A) Weight of vehicle (B) Driven forward or backwards continuously subjected to wheel impact with road obstacles (C) Weight of passengers (D) None of the options
Ans: B
42. Shaping of the body below the front bumper to reduce air drag is called as (A) Rear spoiler (B) Crumple zone (C) Air dam (D) None of the options
Ans: C
43. Piston rings located at top portion of the piston are called as ............... rings (A) Oil control (B) Compression (C) Oil scrapper (D) None of the options
Ans: B
44. Tank which is designed to catch and hold any coolant that passes through the radiator pressure cap when the engine is hot is called as (A) Upper tank (B) Lower tank (C) Recovery tank (D) None of the options
Ans: C
45. Heat dissipating capacity of cooling fins outside of engine cylinder barrel is more dependent upon (A) Fin spacing (B) Engine temperature (C) Fin length and cross section (D) None of the options
Ans: C
46. The role of lead screw in lathe machine is to aid in (A) Knurling (B) Spinning (C) Thread cutting (D) Surface finishing
Ans: C
47. In hydrodynamic lubrication with increase of shaft speed wedging action of the oil ................... (A) Increases (B) Remain same (C) Decreases (D) None of the options
Ans: A
48. The parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure plate against the clutch plate are the (A) Release levers (B) Thrust bearing (C) Springs (D) None of the options
Ans: C
49. During braking of the vehicle kinetic energy must be absorbed More by ................... (A) Front brakes (B) Rear Brakes (C) Hand brakes (D) None of the options
Ans: A
50. Chassis arrangement in which engine is mounted in front of the drivers cabin is called (A) Conventional (B) Semi forward (C) Full forward (D) None of the options
Ans: A
51. Rotameter is a (A) Variable head flow meter (B) Variable area flow meter (C) Rotating propeller type flow meter (D) None of the options
Ans: B
52. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as (A) Stirling cycle (B) Carnot cycle (C) Otto cycle (D) Diesel cycle
Ans: D
53. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant volume, is called (A) Specific heat at constant volume (B) Specific heat at constant pressure (C) Kilo Joule (D) None of the options
Ans: A
54. The processes occurring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are known as (A) Flow processes (B) Non-flow processes (C) Adiabatic processes (D) None of the options
Ans: A
55. Otto cycle is also known as (A) Constant pressure cycle (B) Constant volume cycle (C) Constant temperature cycle (D) Constant temperature and pressure cycle
Ans: B
56. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law of thermodynamics (A) It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work. (B) It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a higher temperature, without the aid of an external source (C) There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be obtained from a given quantity of heat energy (D) All of the options
Ans: D
57. In an isothermal process (A) There is no change in temperature (B) There is no change in internal energy (C) Both A and B (D) None of the options
Ans: C
58. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the resistance to heat flow is (A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: B
59. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle? (A) Isothermal expansion (B) Isentropic expansion (C) Isothermal compression (D) None of the options
Ans: C
60. A closed cycle gas turbine works on? (A) Carnot cycle (B) Brayton cycle (C) Otto cycle (D) None of the options
Ans: B
61. When the gas is cooled at constant pressure? (A) Its temperature increases but volume decreases (B) Its volume increases but temperature decreases (C) Both temperature and volume increases (D) Both temperature and volume decreases
Ans: D
62. In I.C. Engines power developed inside the cylinder is called (A) Brake horse power (B) Pumping power (C) Indicated horse power (D) None of the options
Ans: C
63. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for (A) Diesel engine (B) Petrol engine (C) Irreversible engine (D) Reversible engine
Ans: D
64. A thermodynamic system consisting of more than one phase is known as (A) Isolated system (B) Open system (C) Non-uniform system (D) Heterogeneous system
Ans: D
65. Which processes do occur in the Brayton cycle (A) Two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isochoric processes (B) Two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isobaric processes (C) Two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isothermal processes (D) Two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isentropic processes
Ans: B
66. The relative coefficient of performance (COP) is ratio between (A) Actual COP and theoretical COP (B) Theoretical COP and actual COP (C) Relative COP cannot be calculated (D) None of the options
Ans: A
67. In free vibrations viscous damping force is proportional to the (A) Velocity of the mass (B) Displacement of the mass (C) Acceleration of the mass (D) None of these
Ans: A
68. Air conditioning means (A) Cooling (B) Heating (C) Dehumidifying (D) All of the options
Ans: D
69. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature (A) Remains constant (B) Increases (C) Decreases (D) None of the options
Ans: A
70. Which of the following is not positive displacement type compressor? (A) Rotary vane compressor (B) Rotary screw type compressor (C) Centrifugal compressor (D) None of the options
Ans: C
71. Pick up the wrong statement. Refrigerant should have (A) Low specific heat of liquid (B) High boiling point (C) High latent heat of vaporization (D) None of the options
Ans: B
72. As warm air cools it’s relative humidity (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains same (D) None of the options
Ans: B
73. Which part of the vapour compression refrigeration cycle, produces the refrigeration effect? (A) Compressor (B) Condenser (C) Evaporator (D) None of the options
Ans: C
74. For winter air-conditioning relative humidity should not be less than? (A) 40 % (B) 20% (C) 70 % (D) 95 %
Ans: A
75. The Bell-coleman refrigeration cycle uses ................... as working fluid (A) H2 (B) Air (C) CO2 (D) None of the options
Ans: B
76. Radiation shield should have (A) Low reflectivity (B) High reflectivity (C) High emissivity (D) None of the options
Ans: B
77. The process, generally used in summer air conditioning to cool and dehumidify the air, is called (A) Humidification (B) Dehumidification (C) Heating and humidification (D) Cooling and dehumidification
Ans: D
78. In a psychrometric chart, relative humidity lines are (A) Vertical and uniformly spaced (B) Horizontal and uniformly spaced (C) Curved lines (D) None of the options
Ans: C
79. One of the difference between the vapor compression and vapor absorption cycle is, in vapour absorption refrigeration cycle role of compressor is performed by (A) Pump (B) Small tubes (C) Absorber and generator (D) Aqua-ammonia
Ans: C
80. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture (relative humidity of 100%), the (A) Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature (B) Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature (C) Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same (D) Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
Ans: C
81. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, the amount of radiant energy per unit area is proportional to (A) Absolute temperature (B) Square of absolute temperature (C) Fourth power of absolute temperature (D) Cube of absolute temperature
Ans: C
82. The Grashof number in natural convection plays same role as (A) Prandtl number (Pr) in forced convection (B) Reynolds number (Re) in forced convection (C) Nusselt number (Nu) in forced convection (D) None of the options
Ans: B
83. In which mode, does the heat energy transfer between two bodies when they are separated by some distance and there is no any medium between them? (A) Conduction mode of heat transfer (B) Convection mode of heat transfer (C) Radiation mode of heat transfer (D) Heat transfer cannot take place with above condition
Ans: C
84. Thermal conductivity of pure metals with rise in temperature normally (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
Ans: B
85. Heat transfer takes place as per (A) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (B) first law of thermodynamic (C) Second law of the thermodynamics (D) Kirchoff's law
Ans: C
86. According to the Fourier's law of heat conduction, the rate of heat transfer by conduction depends upon (A) Area of cross section normal to the heat flow (B) Temperature gradient (C) Both A and B (D) None of the options
Ans: C
87. The Stefan-Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by (A) Conduction and radiation combined (B) Convection and radiation combined (C) Conduction, convection and radiation combined (D) Radiation alone
Ans: D
88. The reflectance of a black body is (A) Zero (B) Infinity (C) Greater than one (D) One
Ans: A
89. The maximum lubricating oil pressure in lubrication system is controlled by (A) Oil filter (B) Pump rotor (C) Pressure relief valve (D) None of the options
Ans: C
90. The minimum temperature at which lubricating oil gives off sufficient vapour so as to form an explosive mixture with air is called (A) Pour point (B) Evaporation loss (C) Flash point (D) None of the options
Ans: C
91. The thermal diffusivity for gases is generally .................. those for liquids. (A) Equal to (B) Less than (C) Greater than (D) None of the options
Ans: C
92. Reynolds number is the ratio of (A) Energy transferred by convection to that by conduction (B) Kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity (C) Inertia force to viscous force (D) None of the options
Ans: C
93. The ratio of energy transferred by convection to that by conduction is called (A) Stanton number (B) Nusselt number (C) Biot number (D) None of the options
Ans: B
94. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the fluid to another by the actual movement of the fluid particles caused by some mechanical means, is known as (A) Conduction (B) Free convection (C) Forced convection (D) Radiation
Ans: C
95. .................... heat exchanger system can maintain a nearly constant gradient between the two flows over their entire length of contact. (A) Contercurrent (B) Cocurrent (C) Both A and B (D) None of the options
Ans: A
96. In a centrifugal clutch, the force with which the shoe presses against the driven member is the ..............of the centrifugal force and the spring force. (A) Difference (B) Sum (C) Multiplication (D) None of the options
Ans: A
97. Brake fade is (A) Loss of pedal (B) Loss of hydraulic fluid (C) Loss of coefficient of friction (D) None of the options
Ans: C
98. The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have ............ coefficient of friction. (A) Low (B) High (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: B
99. The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be (A) Minimum (B) Maximum (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: A
100. The cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to reduce (A) Vehicle speed (B) Jerky starts (C) Torsional vibrations (D) None of the options
Ans: B
Ans: B
52. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as (A) Stirling cycle (B) Carnot cycle (C) Otto cycle (D) Diesel cycle
Ans: D
53. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant volume, is called (A) Specific heat at constant volume (B) Specific heat at constant pressure (C) Kilo Joule (D) None of the options
Ans: A
54. The processes occurring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are known as (A) Flow processes (B) Non-flow processes (C) Adiabatic processes (D) None of the options
Ans: A
55. Otto cycle is also known as (A) Constant pressure cycle (B) Constant volume cycle (C) Constant temperature cycle (D) Constant temperature and pressure cycle
Ans: B
56. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law of thermodynamics (A) It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work. (B) It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a higher temperature, without the aid of an external source (C) There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be obtained from a given quantity of heat energy (D) All of the options
Ans: D
57. In an isothermal process (A) There is no change in temperature (B) There is no change in internal energy (C) Both A and B (D) None of the options
Ans: C
58. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the resistance to heat flow is (A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: B
59. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle? (A) Isothermal expansion (B) Isentropic expansion (C) Isothermal compression (D) None of the options
Ans: C
60. A closed cycle gas turbine works on? (A) Carnot cycle (B) Brayton cycle (C) Otto cycle (D) None of the options
Ans: B
61. When the gas is cooled at constant pressure? (A) Its temperature increases but volume decreases (B) Its volume increases but temperature decreases (C) Both temperature and volume increases (D) Both temperature and volume decreases
Ans: D
62. In I.C. Engines power developed inside the cylinder is called (A) Brake horse power (B) Pumping power (C) Indicated horse power (D) None of the options
Ans: C
63. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for (A) Diesel engine (B) Petrol engine (C) Irreversible engine (D) Reversible engine
Ans: D
64. A thermodynamic system consisting of more than one phase is known as (A) Isolated system (B) Open system (C) Non-uniform system (D) Heterogeneous system
Ans: D
65. Which processes do occur in the Brayton cycle (A) Two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isochoric processes (B) Two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isobaric processes (C) Two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isothermal processes (D) Two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isentropic processes
Ans: B
66. The relative coefficient of performance (COP) is ratio between (A) Actual COP and theoretical COP (B) Theoretical COP and actual COP (C) Relative COP cannot be calculated (D) None of the options
Ans: A
67. In free vibrations viscous damping force is proportional to the (A) Velocity of the mass (B) Displacement of the mass (C) Acceleration of the mass (D) None of these
Ans: A
68. Air conditioning means (A) Cooling (B) Heating (C) Dehumidifying (D) All of the options
Ans: D
69. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature (A) Remains constant (B) Increases (C) Decreases (D) None of the options
Ans: A
70. Which of the following is not positive displacement type compressor? (A) Rotary vane compressor (B) Rotary screw type compressor (C) Centrifugal compressor (D) None of the options
Ans: C
71. Pick up the wrong statement. Refrigerant should have (A) Low specific heat of liquid (B) High boiling point (C) High latent heat of vaporization (D) None of the options
Ans: B
72. As warm air cools it’s relative humidity (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains same (D) None of the options
Ans: B
73. Which part of the vapour compression refrigeration cycle, produces the refrigeration effect? (A) Compressor (B) Condenser (C) Evaporator (D) None of the options
Ans: C
74. For winter air-conditioning relative humidity should not be less than? (A) 40 % (B) 20% (C) 70 % (D) 95 %
Ans: A
75. The Bell-coleman refrigeration cycle uses ................... as working fluid (A) H2 (B) Air (C) CO2 (D) None of the options
Ans: B
76. Radiation shield should have (A) Low reflectivity (B) High reflectivity (C) High emissivity (D) None of the options
Ans: B
77. The process, generally used in summer air conditioning to cool and dehumidify the air, is called (A) Humidification (B) Dehumidification (C) Heating and humidification (D) Cooling and dehumidification
Ans: D
78. In a psychrometric chart, relative humidity lines are (A) Vertical and uniformly spaced (B) Horizontal and uniformly spaced (C) Curved lines (D) None of the options
Ans: C
79. One of the difference between the vapor compression and vapor absorption cycle is, in vapour absorption refrigeration cycle role of compressor is performed by (A) Pump (B) Small tubes (C) Absorber and generator (D) Aqua-ammonia
Ans: C
80. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture (relative humidity of 100%), the (A) Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature (B) Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature (C) Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same (D) Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
Ans: C
81. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, the amount of radiant energy per unit area is proportional to (A) Absolute temperature (B) Square of absolute temperature (C) Fourth power of absolute temperature (D) Cube of absolute temperature
Ans: C
82. The Grashof number in natural convection plays same role as (A) Prandtl number (Pr) in forced convection (B) Reynolds number (Re) in forced convection (C) Nusselt number (Nu) in forced convection (D) None of the options
Ans: B
83. In which mode, does the heat energy transfer between two bodies when they are separated by some distance and there is no any medium between them? (A) Conduction mode of heat transfer (B) Convection mode of heat transfer (C) Radiation mode of heat transfer (D) Heat transfer cannot take place with above condition
Ans: C
84. Thermal conductivity of pure metals with rise in temperature normally (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
Ans: B
85. Heat transfer takes place as per (A) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (B) first law of thermodynamic (C) Second law of the thermodynamics (D) Kirchoff's law
Ans: C
86. According to the Fourier's law of heat conduction, the rate of heat transfer by conduction depends upon (A) Area of cross section normal to the heat flow (B) Temperature gradient (C) Both A and B (D) None of the options
Ans: C
87. The Stefan-Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by (A) Conduction and radiation combined (B) Convection and radiation combined (C) Conduction, convection and radiation combined (D) Radiation alone
Ans: D
88. The reflectance of a black body is (A) Zero (B) Infinity (C) Greater than one (D) One
Ans: A
89. The maximum lubricating oil pressure in lubrication system is controlled by (A) Oil filter (B) Pump rotor (C) Pressure relief valve (D) None of the options
Ans: C
90. The minimum temperature at which lubricating oil gives off sufficient vapour so as to form an explosive mixture with air is called (A) Pour point (B) Evaporation loss (C) Flash point (D) None of the options
Ans: C
91. The thermal diffusivity for gases is generally .................. those for liquids. (A) Equal to (B) Less than (C) Greater than (D) None of the options
Ans: C
92. Reynolds number is the ratio of (A) Energy transferred by convection to that by conduction (B) Kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity (C) Inertia force to viscous force (D) None of the options
Ans: C
93. The ratio of energy transferred by convection to that by conduction is called (A) Stanton number (B) Nusselt number (C) Biot number (D) None of the options
Ans: B
94. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the fluid to another by the actual movement of the fluid particles caused by some mechanical means, is known as (A) Conduction (B) Free convection (C) Forced convection (D) Radiation
Ans: C
95. .................... heat exchanger system can maintain a nearly constant gradient between the two flows over their entire length of contact. (A) Contercurrent (B) Cocurrent (C) Both A and B (D) None of the options
Ans: A
96. In a centrifugal clutch, the force with which the shoe presses against the driven member is the ..............of the centrifugal force and the spring force. (A) Difference (B) Sum (C) Multiplication (D) None of the options
Ans: A
97. Brake fade is (A) Loss of pedal (B) Loss of hydraulic fluid (C) Loss of coefficient of friction (D) None of the options
Ans: C
98. The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have ............ coefficient of friction. (A) Low (B) High (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: B
99. The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be (A) Minimum (B) Maximum (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: A
100. The cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to reduce (A) Vehicle speed (B) Jerky starts (C) Torsional vibrations (D) None of the options
Ans: B