MECHANICAL ENGINEERING- PAGE 19
Mechanical Engineering MCQs- Page 19
1. Mass property calculations depend upon
(A) Geometry only (B) Topology only (C) Geometry and topology (D) None
Ans: C
2. For the two gears meshing in velocity ratio equal to 1/3, module = 4 mm; centre distance = 200 mm. The number of teeth on the gear wheel are
(A) 150 (B) 125 (C) 100 (D) 75
Ans: D
3. Mach number for subsonic flow
(A) M < 0.8 (B) M > 1 (C) M > 2 (D) M > 2.5
Ans: A
4. An adiabatic heat exchanger is used to heat cold water at 15°C entering at a rate of 5 kg/s by hot air at 90°C entering also at a rate of 5 kg/s. If the exit temperature of hot air is 20°C, the exit temperature of cold water is
(A) 27°C (B) 32°C (C) 52°C (D) 85°C
Ans: B
5. If the z-axis and x-axis of CNC lathe are provided with straight line controls, it is possible to carry out (A) Turning and facing only (B) Turning, facing and taper turning
(C) Turning, facing and thread cutting (D) Turning, facing and drilling
Ans: B
6. The cost of providing service in a queueing system increases with
(A) Increased mean time in the queue (B) Increased arrival rate
(C) Decreased mean time in the queue (D) Decreased in arrival rate
Ans: C
7. In throttling process,
(A) Temperature is constant (B) Entropy is constant
(C) Volume is constant (D) Enthalpy is constant
Ans: D
8. Simplex method of solving linear programming problem uses
(A) all the points in the feasible region (B) only the corner points of the feasible region
(C) intermediate points within the infeasible region (D) only the interior points in the feasible region
Ans: B
9. Specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of unit of such a size that it
(A) requires unit power to develop unit head (B) delivers unit discharge at unit power
(C) delivers unit discharge as unit head (D) produces unit power with unit head available
Ans: C
10. Critical speed of a turbine is
(A) same as run away speed
(B) speed that will cause mechanical failure of the shaft
(C) speed at which natural frequency of vibrations equals the number of revolutions at the same time
(D) speed equal to synchronous speed of the generator
Ans: C
11. For high discharge and low head such as irrigation, the type of pump preferred is
(A) centrifugal pump (B) reciprocating pump (C) propeller pump (D) gear pump
Ans: C
12. Dummy activities are used in a network to
(A) Facilitate computation of slacks (B) Satisfy precedence requirements
(C) Determine project completion time (D) Avoid use of resources
Ans: B
13. A PERT activity has an optimistic time estimate of 3 days, a pessimistic time estimate of 8 days and a most likely time estimate of 10 days. What is the expected time of this activity?
(A) 5.0 days (B) 7.5 days (C) 8.0 days (D) 8.5 days
Ans: D
14. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) PERT is activity-oriented and CPM is event-oriented
(B) In PERT, three-time estimates are made, whereas in CPM only one-time estimate is made.
(C) In PERT slack is calculated whereas in CPM floats are calculated
(D) Both PERT and CPM are used for project situations
Ans: A
15. The hot tearing in a metal casting is due to
(A) High fluidity (B) High melt temperature
(C) Wide range of solidification temperature (D) Low coefficient of thermal expansion
Ans: C
16. Newton's law of viscosity is about
(A) Ideal fluid (B) Velocity gradient and rate of shear strain relation
(C) Shear deformation and shear stress relation (D) Pressure and volumetric strain
Ans: C
17. A linear programming problem is shown below:
Maximize 3x + 7y
Subject to 3x + 7y < 10
4x + 6y < 8
x, y > 0
It has
(A) an unbounded objective function
(B) exactly one optimal solution
(C) exactly two optimal solutions
(D) infinitely many optimal solutions
Ans: B
18. At the time of starting, idling and low-speed operation, the carburettor supplies a mixture which can be termed as
(A) lean (B) slightly leaner than stoichiometric (C) stoichiometric (D) rich
Ans: D
19. Assertion (A) : A simple or elementary carburettor provides progressively rich mixture with increasing airflow.
Reason (R) : The density of the air tends to increase as the rate of airflow increases.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Ans: C
20. Which one of the following fuels can be obtained by fermentation of vegetable matter?
(A) Benzene (B) Diesel (C) Gasoline (D) Alcohol
Ans: D
21. Assertion (A): After burning increases the thrust of a jet engine
Reason (R): The air fuel ratio of jet engine is high
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A) : A plane state of stress always results in a plane state of strain.
Reason (R): A uniaxial state of stress results in a three-dimensional state of strain.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Ans: D
23. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is
(A) the pressure and temperature of the working substance must not differ, appreciably, from those of the surroundings at any stage in the process
(B) all the processes, taking place in the cycle of operation, must be extremely slow
(C) the working parts of the engine must be friction free
(D) all of the above.
Ans: D
24. Axial thrust is zero in
(A) Screw pump (B) Axial flow pump (C) Vane pump (D) Lobe pump
Ans: A
25. A casting defect which results in general enlargement of a casting is known as
(A) Shift (B) Sand wash (C) Swell (D) Scab
Ans: C
26. Ultrasonic machining is best suited for
(A) Non-ferrous metal (B) Amorphous solids (C) Brittle materials (D) Dielectrics
Ans: C
27. Which of the following processes has the highest metal removal rate?
(A) Ultrasonic machining (B) Abrasive machining (C) Chemical machining (D) Electron beam machining
Ans: C
28. Alloy containing 70% nickel and 30% copper is known as
(A) Hastalloy (B) Monel metal (C) N-C alloy (D) Permalloy
Ans: B
29. Austempering is the heat treatment process used to obtain greater
(A) Ductility (B) Hardness (C) Tougnness (D) Brittleness
Ans: B
30. Commonly used gases in TIG welding are:
(A) Hydrogen and Oxygen (B) Hydrogen and Argon (C) Hydrogen and Helium (D) Helium and Argon
Ans: D
31. Plastic can be welded by the following process:
(A) TIG welding (B) MIG welding (C) Electron beam welding (D) Ultrasonic welding
Ans: D
32. The machinability of steel is improved by adding
(A) Nickel (B) Chromium (C) Nickel and chromium (D) Sulphur, lead and phosphorus
Ans: D
33. Collapsible tubes are made by
(A) Drawing (B) Spinning (C) Extrusion (D) Rolling
Ans: C
34. The arc in the arc welding is created by
(A) Current (B) Voltage (C) Frequency (D) Contact resistance
Ans: D
35. Wrinkling is a common defect found in
(A) Bend components (B) Deep drawn components (C) Embossed components (D) Blanked components
Ans: B
36. In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is
(A) Straight drop spillway (B) Shaft spillway (C) Chute spillway (D) Ogee spillway
Ans: B
37. The property which enables metals to be drawn into wire is known as
(A) Malleability (B) Ductility (C) Straining (D) Plastic deformation
Ans: B
38. The crystal structure of brass is
(A) BCC (B) FCC (C) HCP (D) Orthorhombic
Ans: B
39. In watt governor, the weight of the ball is 50 N and the friction at the sleeve is 10 N. The coefficient of detention would be
(A) 5.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
Ans: C
40. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr's circle
(A) Is equal to the radius of Mohr's circle (B) Is greater than the radius of the Mohr's circle
(C) Is less than the radius of the Mohr's circle (D) None of the above
Ans: A
41. SI unit of work is:
(A) Pound (B) Newton (C) Watt (D) Joule
Ans: D
42. When a person opens a door, he applies:
(A) Force (B) Torque (C) Moment (D) None of the above
Ans: A
43. The escape velocity from the surface of the earth is approximately equal to:
(A) 9.81 km/s (B) 11.2 km/s (C) 14.0 km/s (D) 22.0 km/s
Ans: B
44. If the momentum of a given particle is doubled, then its kinetic energy will be:
(A) doubled (B) unaffected (C) halved (D) quadrupled
Ans: D
45. When the car moves on road its wheel has:
(A) Purely rotational motion (B) Rotational and translational motion
(C) Purely translational motion (D) None of the above
Ans: B
46. The friction experienced by a body when it is in motion is called:
(A) Rolling friction (B) Static friction (C) Limiting friction (D) Dynamic friction
Ans: D
47. The force applied on a body of mass 150 kg to produce an acceleration of 10 m/s2, is:
(A) 15 N (B) 150 N (C) 1500 N (D) 3000 N
Ans: C
48. Two forces act an angle of 120°. If the greater force is 50 kg and their resultant is perpendicular to the smaller force, the smaller force is:
(A) 20 kg (B) 25 kg (C) 30 kg (D) 35 kg
Ans: B
49. The process of finding out the resultant force is known as:
(A) Superposition of forces (B) Composition of forces (C) Addition of forces (D) Resolution of forces
Ans: D
50. The point, at which the whole weight of the body may be considered to act, is known as:
(A) Centre of mass (B) Centre of gravity (C) Centre of curvature (D) Moment of inertia
Ans: B
(A) Geometry only (B) Topology only (C) Geometry and topology (D) None
Ans: C
2. For the two gears meshing in velocity ratio equal to 1/3, module = 4 mm; centre distance = 200 mm. The number of teeth on the gear wheel are
(A) 150 (B) 125 (C) 100 (D) 75
Ans: D
3. Mach number for subsonic flow
(A) M < 0.8 (B) M > 1 (C) M > 2 (D) M > 2.5
Ans: A
4. An adiabatic heat exchanger is used to heat cold water at 15°C entering at a rate of 5 kg/s by hot air at 90°C entering also at a rate of 5 kg/s. If the exit temperature of hot air is 20°C, the exit temperature of cold water is
(A) 27°C (B) 32°C (C) 52°C (D) 85°C
Ans: B
5. If the z-axis and x-axis of CNC lathe are provided with straight line controls, it is possible to carry out (A) Turning and facing only (B) Turning, facing and taper turning
(C) Turning, facing and thread cutting (D) Turning, facing and drilling
Ans: B
6. The cost of providing service in a queueing system increases with
(A) Increased mean time in the queue (B) Increased arrival rate
(C) Decreased mean time in the queue (D) Decreased in arrival rate
Ans: C
7. In throttling process,
(A) Temperature is constant (B) Entropy is constant
(C) Volume is constant (D) Enthalpy is constant
Ans: D
8. Simplex method of solving linear programming problem uses
(A) all the points in the feasible region (B) only the corner points of the feasible region
(C) intermediate points within the infeasible region (D) only the interior points in the feasible region
Ans: B
9. Specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of unit of such a size that it
(A) requires unit power to develop unit head (B) delivers unit discharge at unit power
(C) delivers unit discharge as unit head (D) produces unit power with unit head available
Ans: C
10. Critical speed of a turbine is
(A) same as run away speed
(B) speed that will cause mechanical failure of the shaft
(C) speed at which natural frequency of vibrations equals the number of revolutions at the same time
(D) speed equal to synchronous speed of the generator
Ans: C
11. For high discharge and low head such as irrigation, the type of pump preferred is
(A) centrifugal pump (B) reciprocating pump (C) propeller pump (D) gear pump
Ans: C
12. Dummy activities are used in a network to
(A) Facilitate computation of slacks (B) Satisfy precedence requirements
(C) Determine project completion time (D) Avoid use of resources
Ans: B
13. A PERT activity has an optimistic time estimate of 3 days, a pessimistic time estimate of 8 days and a most likely time estimate of 10 days. What is the expected time of this activity?
(A) 5.0 days (B) 7.5 days (C) 8.0 days (D) 8.5 days
Ans: D
14. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) PERT is activity-oriented and CPM is event-oriented
(B) In PERT, three-time estimates are made, whereas in CPM only one-time estimate is made.
(C) In PERT slack is calculated whereas in CPM floats are calculated
(D) Both PERT and CPM are used for project situations
Ans: A
15. The hot tearing in a metal casting is due to
(A) High fluidity (B) High melt temperature
(C) Wide range of solidification temperature (D) Low coefficient of thermal expansion
Ans: C
16. Newton's law of viscosity is about
(A) Ideal fluid (B) Velocity gradient and rate of shear strain relation
(C) Shear deformation and shear stress relation (D) Pressure and volumetric strain
Ans: C
17. A linear programming problem is shown below:
Maximize 3x + 7y
Subject to 3x + 7y < 10
4x + 6y < 8
x, y > 0
It has
(A) an unbounded objective function
(B) exactly one optimal solution
(C) exactly two optimal solutions
(D) infinitely many optimal solutions
Ans: B
18. At the time of starting, idling and low-speed operation, the carburettor supplies a mixture which can be termed as
(A) lean (B) slightly leaner than stoichiometric (C) stoichiometric (D) rich
Ans: D
19. Assertion (A) : A simple or elementary carburettor provides progressively rich mixture with increasing airflow.
Reason (R) : The density of the air tends to increase as the rate of airflow increases.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Ans: C
20. Which one of the following fuels can be obtained by fermentation of vegetable matter?
(A) Benzene (B) Diesel (C) Gasoline (D) Alcohol
Ans: D
21. Assertion (A): After burning increases the thrust of a jet engine
Reason (R): The air fuel ratio of jet engine is high
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A) : A plane state of stress always results in a plane state of strain.
Reason (R): A uniaxial state of stress results in a three-dimensional state of strain.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Ans: D
23. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is
(A) the pressure and temperature of the working substance must not differ, appreciably, from those of the surroundings at any stage in the process
(B) all the processes, taking place in the cycle of operation, must be extremely slow
(C) the working parts of the engine must be friction free
(D) all of the above.
Ans: D
24. Axial thrust is zero in
(A) Screw pump (B) Axial flow pump (C) Vane pump (D) Lobe pump
Ans: A
25. A casting defect which results in general enlargement of a casting is known as
(A) Shift (B) Sand wash (C) Swell (D) Scab
Ans: C
26. Ultrasonic machining is best suited for
(A) Non-ferrous metal (B) Amorphous solids (C) Brittle materials (D) Dielectrics
Ans: C
27. Which of the following processes has the highest metal removal rate?
(A) Ultrasonic machining (B) Abrasive machining (C) Chemical machining (D) Electron beam machining
Ans: C
28. Alloy containing 70% nickel and 30% copper is known as
(A) Hastalloy (B) Monel metal (C) N-C alloy (D) Permalloy
Ans: B
29. Austempering is the heat treatment process used to obtain greater
(A) Ductility (B) Hardness (C) Tougnness (D) Brittleness
Ans: B
30. Commonly used gases in TIG welding are:
(A) Hydrogen and Oxygen (B) Hydrogen and Argon (C) Hydrogen and Helium (D) Helium and Argon
Ans: D
31. Plastic can be welded by the following process:
(A) TIG welding (B) MIG welding (C) Electron beam welding (D) Ultrasonic welding
Ans: D
32. The machinability of steel is improved by adding
(A) Nickel (B) Chromium (C) Nickel and chromium (D) Sulphur, lead and phosphorus
Ans: D
33. Collapsible tubes are made by
(A) Drawing (B) Spinning (C) Extrusion (D) Rolling
Ans: C
34. The arc in the arc welding is created by
(A) Current (B) Voltage (C) Frequency (D) Contact resistance
Ans: D
35. Wrinkling is a common defect found in
(A) Bend components (B) Deep drawn components (C) Embossed components (D) Blanked components
Ans: B
36. In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is
(A) Straight drop spillway (B) Shaft spillway (C) Chute spillway (D) Ogee spillway
Ans: B
37. The property which enables metals to be drawn into wire is known as
(A) Malleability (B) Ductility (C) Straining (D) Plastic deformation
Ans: B
38. The crystal structure of brass is
(A) BCC (B) FCC (C) HCP (D) Orthorhombic
Ans: B
39. In watt governor, the weight of the ball is 50 N and the friction at the sleeve is 10 N. The coefficient of detention would be
(A) 5.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
Ans: C
40. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr's circle
(A) Is equal to the radius of Mohr's circle (B) Is greater than the radius of the Mohr's circle
(C) Is less than the radius of the Mohr's circle (D) None of the above
Ans: A
41. SI unit of work is:
(A) Pound (B) Newton (C) Watt (D) Joule
Ans: D
42. When a person opens a door, he applies:
(A) Force (B) Torque (C) Moment (D) None of the above
Ans: A
43. The escape velocity from the surface of the earth is approximately equal to:
(A) 9.81 km/s (B) 11.2 km/s (C) 14.0 km/s (D) 22.0 km/s
Ans: B
44. If the momentum of a given particle is doubled, then its kinetic energy will be:
(A) doubled (B) unaffected (C) halved (D) quadrupled
Ans: D
45. When the car moves on road its wheel has:
(A) Purely rotational motion (B) Rotational and translational motion
(C) Purely translational motion (D) None of the above
Ans: B
46. The friction experienced by a body when it is in motion is called:
(A) Rolling friction (B) Static friction (C) Limiting friction (D) Dynamic friction
Ans: D
47. The force applied on a body of mass 150 kg to produce an acceleration of 10 m/s2, is:
(A) 15 N (B) 150 N (C) 1500 N (D) 3000 N
Ans: C
48. Two forces act an angle of 120°. If the greater force is 50 kg and their resultant is perpendicular to the smaller force, the smaller force is:
(A) 20 kg (B) 25 kg (C) 30 kg (D) 35 kg
Ans: B
49. The process of finding out the resultant force is known as:
(A) Superposition of forces (B) Composition of forces (C) Addition of forces (D) Resolution of forces
Ans: D
50. The point, at which the whole weight of the body may be considered to act, is known as:
(A) Centre of mass (B) Centre of gravity (C) Centre of curvature (D) Moment of inertia
Ans: B
51. A pitot tube is used to measure:
(A) Pressure
(B) Pressure difference
(C) Velocity of flow
(D) Density of fluid
Ans: C
52. Forces acting on a floating body are:
(A) Inertia and gravity (B) Buoyancy and gravity (C) Buoyancy and inertia (D) Pressure and gravity
Ans: B
53. Euler’s equation for the motion of liquid assumes that:
(A) velocity of flow is non uniform (B) flow is unsteady along the stream line
(C) fluid is viscous (D) fluid is homogeneous and incompressible
Ans: D
54. The most efficient section of a channel is:
(A) Triangular (B) Rectangular (C) Trapezoidal (D) Square
Ans: C
55. Velocity of fluid particles at the centre of pipe section is:
(A) maximum (B) minimum (C) medium (D) equal throughout
Ans: A
56. Why the alcohol is used in manometer?
(A) It provides longer column due to low density (B) It is clearly visible
(C) It has low vapour pressure (D) It has low surface tension
Ans: A
57. To avoid cavitations in centrifugal pump:
(A) suction pressure should be low (B) delivery pressure should be low (C) suction pressure should be high (D) delivery pressure should be high
Ans: C
58. A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the water flow is called: (A) Orifice (B) Notch (C) Mouth piece (D) Weir
Ans: D
59. Bacteria which can survive without oxygen is called: (A) Aerobic bacteria (B) Anaerobic bacteria (C) Pathogenic bacteria (D) Non-pathogenic bacteria
Ans: B
60. The pressure conduit laid underground may not be subjected to:
(A) pressure due to external load (B) internal pressure of water (C) longitudinal temperature stress (D) longitudinal stress due to unbalanced pressure
Ans: C
61. Water consumption per capita per day for hostel use in India as per Indian standard is:
(A) 40 litres (B) 80 litres (C) 115 litres (D) 135 litres
Ans: D
62. The central rural sanitation program started on: (A) 1986 (B) 1996 (C) 2006 (D) 2016
Ans: A
63. Most common coagulant is: (A) Chlorine (B) Alum (C) Bleaching powder (D) Potassium permanganate
Ans: B
64. Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of : (A) bacteria (B) turbidity (C) odour (D) acidity
Ans: A
65. The equipment used to checking the levels of the sewer inverts is : (A) Dumpy level (B) Theodolite (C) Boning rod (D) None of these
Ans: C
66. By providing a thick head gasket, the compression ratio of the engine will:
(A) increase (B) decrease (C) double (D) remain constant
Ans: B
67. Find the area of a circle which inscribe in a square of side 14 cm:
(A) 140 sq.cm (B) 154 sq.cm (C) 160 sq.cm (D) 196 sq.cm
Ans: B
68. If volume of cylinder is 900 cu.cm with height of 20 cm, then diameter of cylinder is:
(A) 24 cm (B) 9.57 cm (C) 7.57 cm (D) 12.23 cm
Ans: C
69. What is area of a circle whose circumference is 44 cm?
(A) 150 sq.cm (B) 152 sq.cm (C) 154 sq.cm (D) 156 sq.cm
Ans: C
70. How many balls of 2 cm radius can be made by melting of a big ball of diameter 16 cm?
(A) 120 (B) 64 (C) 32 (D) None of the above
Ans: B
71. Find the angle of sector whose radius is 10 cm and area is 78.5 sq.cm:
(A) 60 degree (B) 75 degree (C) 90 degree (D) 45 degree
Ans: C
72. One side of rectangular field is 4 m and its diagonal is 5 m. The area of the field is :
(A) 12 sq.m (B) 20 sq.m (C) 15 sq.m (D) 4√5 sq. m
Ans: A
73. If the volume of two cubes are in the ratio 27 : 1. The ratio of their edges is :
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 9 : 1 (D) 1 : 6
Ans: B
74. The sides of a triangle are 5 m, 12 m and 13 m. The area of the triangle is ———————.
(A) 30 sq.Cm (B) 45 sq.Cm (C) 65 sq.Cm (D) none of the above
Ans: A
75. Detonation can be controlled by: (A) advanced timing (B) pre heating of charge (C) increase in compression ratio (D) cooling of the charge
Ans: D
76. Find the area of a square of diagonal 30 cm: (A) 500 sq.cm (B) 900 sq.cm (C) 450 sq.cm (D) 600 sq.cm
Ans: C
77. When a sheet size 10 m x 5 m cut into small pieces of 25 cm x 20 cm, how many number of pieces will be cut: (A) 800 (B) 725 (C) 1000 (D) 825
Ans: C
78. Disadvantage of a pre-combustion chamber engine is : (A) cold starting problems (B) More engine knock (C) Less power (D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans: A
79. A rectangle Carpet has an area of 120 sq.m and perimeter is 46 m, the length of its diagonal is ———————. (A) 15 m (B) 16 m (C) 17 m (D) 20 m
Ans: C
80. If the ratio of the areas of the two squares is 16 : 1, the ratio of their perimeter: (A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 6
Ans: C
81. The sum of interior angles of a pentagon is: (A) 180° (B) 360° (C) 540° (D) 720°
Ans: C
82. Eccentricity of parabola is: (A) less than 1 (B) equal to 1 (C) greater than 1 (D) none of these
Ans: A
83. The trimmed size of A1 drawing sheet: (A) 841 1189 mm (B) 594 841 mm (C) 420 594 mm (D) 297 420 mm
Ans: B
84. The working edge of a drawing table is known as: (A) Fiducial edge (B) Ebony edge (C) Cutting edge (D) Straight edge
Ans: B
85. How the letters and numerals are designated? (A) By their width (B) By their height (C) Size of paper (D) All of these
Ans: B
86. Name the polygon which is bounded by 9 sides: (A) Nonagon (B) Decagon (C) Hexagon (D) Octagon
Ans: A
87. What is the name of the part of circle bounded by two radii and its arc? (A) Circle (B) Sector (C) Segment (D) Chord
Ans: B
88. The ratio between two adjacent side of the drawing sheet: (A) 1 : √5 (B) 1 : √3 (C) 1 : √2 (D) 1 : 1
Ans: C
89. In which regular polygon sides are equal to radius of circumscribing circle: (A) Octagon (B) Heptagon (C) Hexagon (D) Pentagon
Ans: C
90. Path of a projectile is in the form of a: (A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola (C) Semicircle (D) Parabola
Ans: D
91. A conic having only one directrix: (A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola (C) Parabola (D) None of these
Ans: C
92. Bow compass is used for drawing: (A) Big circle (B) Very small circle (C) Parallel lines (D) Curves
Ans: B
93. The maximum number of tangents drawing to a circle from a point outside the circle: (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) α
Ans: A
94. Acute angle is an angle: (A) greater than 90° (B) Less than 90° (C) Equal to 180° (D) Equal to 360°
Ans: B
95. Which of the following is an enlarged scale? (A) n : 1 (B) 1 : n (C) 1 : 1 (D) none of these
Ans: A
96. The following is not included in the title block of drawing sheet: (A) Sheet number (B) Scale (C) Date (D) Size of sheet
Ans: D
97. The following line is used for dimension line. (A) Continuous thin (B) Continuous thick (C) Chain thin line (D) None of these
Ans: A
98. Hatching lines are drawn at ——————— to reference line. (A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°
Ans: B
99. The length : width in case of an arrow head is: (A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
Ans: C
100. Which of the following is the most soft pencil? (A) 2B (B) 1B (C) HB (D) H
Ans: A
(A) Pressure
(B) Pressure difference
(C) Velocity of flow
(D) Density of fluid
Ans: C
52. Forces acting on a floating body are:
(A) Inertia and gravity (B) Buoyancy and gravity (C) Buoyancy and inertia (D) Pressure and gravity
Ans: B
53. Euler’s equation for the motion of liquid assumes that:
(A) velocity of flow is non uniform (B) flow is unsteady along the stream line
(C) fluid is viscous (D) fluid is homogeneous and incompressible
Ans: D
54. The most efficient section of a channel is:
(A) Triangular (B) Rectangular (C) Trapezoidal (D) Square
Ans: C
55. Velocity of fluid particles at the centre of pipe section is:
(A) maximum (B) minimum (C) medium (D) equal throughout
Ans: A
56. Why the alcohol is used in manometer?
(A) It provides longer column due to low density (B) It is clearly visible
(C) It has low vapour pressure (D) It has low surface tension
Ans: A
57. To avoid cavitations in centrifugal pump:
(A) suction pressure should be low (B) delivery pressure should be low (C) suction pressure should be high (D) delivery pressure should be high
Ans: C
58. A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the water flow is called: (A) Orifice (B) Notch (C) Mouth piece (D) Weir
Ans: D
59. Bacteria which can survive without oxygen is called: (A) Aerobic bacteria (B) Anaerobic bacteria (C) Pathogenic bacteria (D) Non-pathogenic bacteria
Ans: B
60. The pressure conduit laid underground may not be subjected to:
(A) pressure due to external load (B) internal pressure of water (C) longitudinal temperature stress (D) longitudinal stress due to unbalanced pressure
Ans: C
61. Water consumption per capita per day for hostel use in India as per Indian standard is:
(A) 40 litres (B) 80 litres (C) 115 litres (D) 135 litres
Ans: D
62. The central rural sanitation program started on: (A) 1986 (B) 1996 (C) 2006 (D) 2016
Ans: A
63. Most common coagulant is: (A) Chlorine (B) Alum (C) Bleaching powder (D) Potassium permanganate
Ans: B
64. Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of : (A) bacteria (B) turbidity (C) odour (D) acidity
Ans: A
65. The equipment used to checking the levels of the sewer inverts is : (A) Dumpy level (B) Theodolite (C) Boning rod (D) None of these
Ans: C
66. By providing a thick head gasket, the compression ratio of the engine will:
(A) increase (B) decrease (C) double (D) remain constant
Ans: B
67. Find the area of a circle which inscribe in a square of side 14 cm:
(A) 140 sq.cm (B) 154 sq.cm (C) 160 sq.cm (D) 196 sq.cm
Ans: B
68. If volume of cylinder is 900 cu.cm with height of 20 cm, then diameter of cylinder is:
(A) 24 cm (B) 9.57 cm (C) 7.57 cm (D) 12.23 cm
Ans: C
69. What is area of a circle whose circumference is 44 cm?
(A) 150 sq.cm (B) 152 sq.cm (C) 154 sq.cm (D) 156 sq.cm
Ans: C
70. How many balls of 2 cm radius can be made by melting of a big ball of diameter 16 cm?
(A) 120 (B) 64 (C) 32 (D) None of the above
Ans: B
71. Find the angle of sector whose radius is 10 cm and area is 78.5 sq.cm:
(A) 60 degree (B) 75 degree (C) 90 degree (D) 45 degree
Ans: C
72. One side of rectangular field is 4 m and its diagonal is 5 m. The area of the field is :
(A) 12 sq.m (B) 20 sq.m (C) 15 sq.m (D) 4√5 sq. m
Ans: A
73. If the volume of two cubes are in the ratio 27 : 1. The ratio of their edges is :
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 9 : 1 (D) 1 : 6
Ans: B
74. The sides of a triangle are 5 m, 12 m and 13 m. The area of the triangle is ———————.
(A) 30 sq.Cm (B) 45 sq.Cm (C) 65 sq.Cm (D) none of the above
Ans: A
75. Detonation can be controlled by: (A) advanced timing (B) pre heating of charge (C) increase in compression ratio (D) cooling of the charge
Ans: D
76. Find the area of a square of diagonal 30 cm: (A) 500 sq.cm (B) 900 sq.cm (C) 450 sq.cm (D) 600 sq.cm
Ans: C
77. When a sheet size 10 m x 5 m cut into small pieces of 25 cm x 20 cm, how many number of pieces will be cut: (A) 800 (B) 725 (C) 1000 (D) 825
Ans: C
78. Disadvantage of a pre-combustion chamber engine is : (A) cold starting problems (B) More engine knock (C) Less power (D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans: A
79. A rectangle Carpet has an area of 120 sq.m and perimeter is 46 m, the length of its diagonal is ———————. (A) 15 m (B) 16 m (C) 17 m (D) 20 m
Ans: C
80. If the ratio of the areas of the two squares is 16 : 1, the ratio of their perimeter: (A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 6
Ans: C
81. The sum of interior angles of a pentagon is: (A) 180° (B) 360° (C) 540° (D) 720°
Ans: C
82. Eccentricity of parabola is: (A) less than 1 (B) equal to 1 (C) greater than 1 (D) none of these
Ans: A
83. The trimmed size of A1 drawing sheet: (A) 841 1189 mm (B) 594 841 mm (C) 420 594 mm (D) 297 420 mm
Ans: B
84. The working edge of a drawing table is known as: (A) Fiducial edge (B) Ebony edge (C) Cutting edge (D) Straight edge
Ans: B
85. How the letters and numerals are designated? (A) By their width (B) By their height (C) Size of paper (D) All of these
Ans: B
86. Name the polygon which is bounded by 9 sides: (A) Nonagon (B) Decagon (C) Hexagon (D) Octagon
Ans: A
87. What is the name of the part of circle bounded by two radii and its arc? (A) Circle (B) Sector (C) Segment (D) Chord
Ans: B
88. The ratio between two adjacent side of the drawing sheet: (A) 1 : √5 (B) 1 : √3 (C) 1 : √2 (D) 1 : 1
Ans: C
89. In which regular polygon sides are equal to radius of circumscribing circle: (A) Octagon (B) Heptagon (C) Hexagon (D) Pentagon
Ans: C
90. Path of a projectile is in the form of a: (A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola (C) Semicircle (D) Parabola
Ans: D
91. A conic having only one directrix: (A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola (C) Parabola (D) None of these
Ans: C
92. Bow compass is used for drawing: (A) Big circle (B) Very small circle (C) Parallel lines (D) Curves
Ans: B
93. The maximum number of tangents drawing to a circle from a point outside the circle: (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) α
Ans: A
94. Acute angle is an angle: (A) greater than 90° (B) Less than 90° (C) Equal to 180° (D) Equal to 360°
Ans: B
95. Which of the following is an enlarged scale? (A) n : 1 (B) 1 : n (C) 1 : 1 (D) none of these
Ans: A
96. The following is not included in the title block of drawing sheet: (A) Sheet number (B) Scale (C) Date (D) Size of sheet
Ans: D
97. The following line is used for dimension line. (A) Continuous thin (B) Continuous thick (C) Chain thin line (D) None of these
Ans: A
98. Hatching lines are drawn at ——————— to reference line. (A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°
Ans: B
99. The length : width in case of an arrow head is: (A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
Ans: C
100. Which of the following is the most soft pencil? (A) 2B (B) 1B (C) HB (D) H
Ans: A
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