ECONOMICS- PAGE 4
1. Who among the following is not associated with the compensation principle of welfare economics ?
(1) Kaldor (2) Hicks
(3) Scitokosky (4) Pareto
Ans: 4
2. Substitution of leisure for income leads to
(1) Backward sloping supply curve (2) Need for overtime payment
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
Ans: 3
3. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Author)
List – II (Book)
a. Karl Marx i. Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy
b. J.A. Schumpeter ii. Capital and Interest
c. Thomas Piketty iii. Das Kapital
d. E. Bohm von Bawerk iv. Capital in the Twenty First Century
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii i ii iv
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii iii iv i
Ans: 2
4. Which of the following describes the Lemons problem in economies ?
(1) Bad currency drives out the good currency.
(2) Low-quality goods can drive high quality goods out of the market.
(3) Low cost firms drive out high cost firms from the market.
(4) Excess production of a horticulture crop.
Ans: 2
5. Assuming that firm A increases its advertising and firm B responds by increasing its advertising. If profits of both firms increase, then firms A and B are engaged in
(1) a zero-sum game
(2) a positive-sum game
(3) a negative-sum game
(4) behaviour which cannot be understood in terms of games theory
Ans: 2
6. Among the following the law of diminishing returns begins to operate when
(1) Total product begins to rise (2) Total product begins to fall
(3) Marginal product begins to rise (4) Average product begins to fall
Ans: 4
7. Which among the following statements are correct regarding Edgeworth Duopoly model ?
I. It takes as given the output decision of rival.
II. It is adequate explanation of price rigidity.
III. It takes as given the price decision of rival.
Of these, the correct answer is
(1) Only statement I is true (2) Both I & III are true
(3) Both II and III are true (4) Only III is true
Ans: 1
8. Identify the correct order of development of the theories given below :
(a) Marshall’s Theory of Demand (b) Indifference Curves
(c) Revealed Preference Theory (d) Hicks’ Revision of Demand Theory
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (d), (a), (c), (b)
(3) (b), (a), (d), (c) (4) (c), (d), (a), (b)
Ans: 1
9. Inflationary gap refers to excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply at
(1) full employment level (2) after full employment level
(3) before full employment level (4) both (1) and (2) above
Ans: 2
10. Assertion (A) : Duesenberry hypothesised that consumption income relationship is not exactly reversible.
Reason (R) : Consumption depends on current income.
Select the answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: 2
11. Changes in the portfolio assets of the people take place due to
(1) Current rate of interest
(2) Future rate of interest
(3) Current rate of interest in relation to future rate of interest
(4) Current price of bonds
Ans: 3
12. Match the items in List – I and List – II and answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Median i. Measure of Inequality
b. Quartile deviation ii. Measure of Central Tendency
c. Gini coefficient iii. Regression analysis
d. Coefficient of determination iv. Measure of dispersion
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) iii ii iv i
(3) ii iv i iii
(4) i ii iii iv
Ans: 3
13. Given :
I = 5 + 0.2y
S = –15 + 0.3 y
G = 5
Where I = Investment; S = Savings
G = Government Expenditure
Y = National Income
What is the equilibrium level of income ?
(1) 200 (2) 150
(3) 250 (4) 300
Ans: 3
14. Which among the following measures the intensity of poverty ?
(1) Head Count Ratio of Poverty (2) Poverty Gap
(3) Square of Poverty Gap (4) Per Capita Income
Ans: 3
15. Consider the following statements :
(i) Rate of growth of GDP exhibits the performance of the economy.
(ii) Per capita GDP shows the standard of living of the people in a country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii)
(3) Both (i) and (ii) (4) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans: 3
16. Application of project evaluation methods in Indian planning has been difficult because of
(a) Inadequate and inaccurate statistics
(b) Wrong assessment of direct and indirect benefits
(c) Complementarily of the projects
Select the answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) & (c)
Ans: 3
17. Which among the following has not been declared as a special category State in India ?
(1) Uttarakhand (2) Bihar
(3) Jammu & Kashmir (4) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: 2
18. In the context of project evaluation, the net present value method mainly depends upon :
(1) interest rate prevalent at a given time
(2) exchange rate prevalent at a given time
(3) sales tax rate prevalent at a given time
(4) both income and sales tax rates prevalent at a given time
Ans: 1
19. Which among the following economists advocated the use of social marginal productivity criterion ?
(1) Hollis B. Chenery (2) A.K. Sen
(3) Maurice Dobb (4) J.J. Polak
Ans: 1
20. Trickle down strategy explains process associated with which of the following economic systems ?
(1) Capitalist system (2) Socialist system
(3) Mixed economy (4) Both (1) and (3)
Ans: 4
21. Who among the following is not a regulator of financial sector in India ?
(1) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(2) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
(3) Competition Commission of India
(4) Forward Market Commission of India
Ans: 3
22. Dumping in international trade means that a country
(1) exports all the domestic production of a commodity
(2) imports a commodity at a very low price
(3) exports a commodity at a price less than its cost of production
(4) exports a commodity at a price equal to its cost of production
Ans: 3
23. International trade in goods and services is sometimes used as a substitute for all of the following, except
(1) international movement of capital
(2) international movement of labour
(3) domestic production of same goods and services
(4) domestic production of different goods and services
Ans: 2
24. If the elasticities of supply of exports and imports are large in relation to the elasticity of demand for exports and imports, devaluation of a country's currency will :
(1) not effect the terms of trade (2) worsen the terms of trade
(3) improve the terms of trade (4) All of the above
Ans: 3
25. Assertion (A) : Factor prices tend to be equal among the trading countries.
Reason (R) : International trade in goods and services is a proxy for movement of factors among the countries.
Select the correct answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: 1
26. Uruguay Round of negotiations concerned with which among the following ?
(1) Tariff Measures (2) Non-Tariff Measures
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
Ans: 3
27. Which among the following items are included in the NAMA ?
(1) Fish and marine products (2) Manufactured products
(3) Fuel products (4) All the above
Ans: 4
28. Which among the following is the largest trading partner of India in 2015-16 ?
(1) USA (2) UAE
(3) Euro zone (4) China
Ans: 4
29. Kisan Kalyan Cess is imposed on
(1) Taxable services (2) Cold storages
(3) Mandi Samitis (4) Corporations
Ans: 1
30. With reference to balance of payments, which of the following constitute(s) the current account ?
I. Balance of trade II. Foreign assets
III. SDRs IV. Trade in invisibles
Select the correct answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) I only (2) II and III
(3) I and IV (4) I, III and IV
Ans: 3
31. Which one of the following is not correct about SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) ?
(1) It has the power to protect the interest of the investors in securities.
(2) It has the power to convert private securities to public securities.
(3) It has the power to promote development of capital market.
(4) It has the power to regulate the working of stock exchange.
Ans: 2
32. Which among the following countries (as on May 2016) are currently using the Quantitative easing as a measure to improve the inflationary expectations in the economy ?
(1) Japan (2) Britain
(3) USA (4) Australia
Ans: 1
33. The base year of the newly introduced Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India has been shifted to the year :
(1) 2009 (2) 2012
(3) 2011 (4) 2010
Ans: 2
34. Which of the following is not a legal tender in India ?
(1) One rupee coin (2) Fifty paise coin
(3) Rs. 500 note (4) Government securities
Ans: 4
35. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the options given below :
I. NITI Aayog aims to promote Co-operative Federalism.
II. NITI Aayog is to centralise the planning process in response to scarcity of resources.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I & II (4) Neither I nor II
Ans: 1
36. ‘GST’ would subsume which of the following taxes ?
I. Excise Duty II. Customs Duty
III. Sales Tax IV. Service Tax
Select the correct codes :
Codes :
(1) I & IV (2) I, II and IV
(3) I, III and IV (4) All of above
Ans: 3
37. Which of the following is/are advantage(s) of zero-based budgeting ?
(i) It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
(ii) It improves the programme effectiveness.
(iii) It facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and benefits.
Select the answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)
Ans: 3
38. Public good in which exclusion is possible is called :
(1) an exclusive good (2) a common good
(3) a club good (4) an impure good
Ans: 3
39. In order for someone to be a free rider, an activity must be undertaken that :
(1) arranges for ride-sharing at rush hour.
(2) creates benefits for people who cannot be forced to pay for them.
(3) beautifies a neighbourhood.
(4) identifies the beneficiaries and forces them to pay.
Ans: 2
40. Which factor has no role in the shifting of a tax ?
(1) Change in prices (2) Nature of demand
(3) Income of the consumer (4) Elasticity of demand and supply
Ans: 3
41. Assertion (A) : A progressive income tax is also known as built-in stabilizer.
Reason (R) : As economy expands, and income rises, taxes also rise in the same proportion.
Answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: 1
42. Assertion (A) : Rising Public debt is a cause of concern for the government and economy.
Reason (R) : Rising interest payments due to rising public debt erodes government’s capacity for economic development.
Answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: 1
43. An imposition of capital gains tax will
(1) reduce both savings and investment (2) increase savings
(3) reduce savings (4) increase consumption
Ans: 3
44. The Arithmetic mean and median in a moderately skewed distribution are 28.1 and 27.6. The value of mode in this distribution would be
(1) 26.8 (2) 26.6
(3) 29.0 (4) 27.5
Ans: 2
45. Which of the following is not unit free ?
(1) Coefficient of correlation (2) Coefficient of variation
(3) Laspeyer’s Index Number (4) Standard deviation
Ans: 4
46. Assertion (A) : Ogives help to compare frequency distribution.
Reason (R) : They help to determine the values of median, quartile, deciles and percentiles etc.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: 1
47. Which of the following is a probability based sampling method ?
(1) Quota sampling (2) Purposive sampling
(3) Systematic sampling (4) Convenience sampling
Ans: 3
(1) Kaldor (2) Hicks
(3) Scitokosky (4) Pareto
Ans: 4
2. Substitution of leisure for income leads to
(1) Backward sloping supply curve (2) Need for overtime payment
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
Ans: 3
3. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I (Author)
List – II (Book)
a. Karl Marx i. Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy
b. J.A. Schumpeter ii. Capital and Interest
c. Thomas Piketty iii. Das Kapital
d. E. Bohm von Bawerk iv. Capital in the Twenty First Century
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii i ii iv
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii iii iv i
Ans: 2
4. Which of the following describes the Lemons problem in economies ?
(1) Bad currency drives out the good currency.
(2) Low-quality goods can drive high quality goods out of the market.
(3) Low cost firms drive out high cost firms from the market.
(4) Excess production of a horticulture crop.
Ans: 2
5. Assuming that firm A increases its advertising and firm B responds by increasing its advertising. If profits of both firms increase, then firms A and B are engaged in
(1) a zero-sum game
(2) a positive-sum game
(3) a negative-sum game
(4) behaviour which cannot be understood in terms of games theory
Ans: 2
6. Among the following the law of diminishing returns begins to operate when
(1) Total product begins to rise (2) Total product begins to fall
(3) Marginal product begins to rise (4) Average product begins to fall
Ans: 4
7. Which among the following statements are correct regarding Edgeworth Duopoly model ?
I. It takes as given the output decision of rival.
II. It is adequate explanation of price rigidity.
III. It takes as given the price decision of rival.
Of these, the correct answer is
(1) Only statement I is true (2) Both I & III are true
(3) Both II and III are true (4) Only III is true
Ans: 1
8. Identify the correct order of development of the theories given below :
(a) Marshall’s Theory of Demand (b) Indifference Curves
(c) Revealed Preference Theory (d) Hicks’ Revision of Demand Theory
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (d), (a), (c), (b)
(3) (b), (a), (d), (c) (4) (c), (d), (a), (b)
Ans: 1
9. Inflationary gap refers to excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply at
(1) full employment level (2) after full employment level
(3) before full employment level (4) both (1) and (2) above
Ans: 2
10. Assertion (A) : Duesenberry hypothesised that consumption income relationship is not exactly reversible.
Reason (R) : Consumption depends on current income.
Select the answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: 2
11. Changes in the portfolio assets of the people take place due to
(1) Current rate of interest
(2) Future rate of interest
(3) Current rate of interest in relation to future rate of interest
(4) Current price of bonds
Ans: 3
12. Match the items in List – I and List – II and answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Median i. Measure of Inequality
b. Quartile deviation ii. Measure of Central Tendency
c. Gini coefficient iii. Regression analysis
d. Coefficient of determination iv. Measure of dispersion
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) iii ii iv i
(3) ii iv i iii
(4) i ii iii iv
Ans: 3
13. Given :
I = 5 + 0.2y
S = –15 + 0.3 y
G = 5
Where I = Investment; S = Savings
G = Government Expenditure
Y = National Income
What is the equilibrium level of income ?
(1) 200 (2) 150
(3) 250 (4) 300
Ans: 3
14. Which among the following measures the intensity of poverty ?
(1) Head Count Ratio of Poverty (2) Poverty Gap
(3) Square of Poverty Gap (4) Per Capita Income
Ans: 3
15. Consider the following statements :
(i) Rate of growth of GDP exhibits the performance of the economy.
(ii) Per capita GDP shows the standard of living of the people in a country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii)
(3) Both (i) and (ii) (4) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans: 3
16. Application of project evaluation methods in Indian planning has been difficult because of
(a) Inadequate and inaccurate statistics
(b) Wrong assessment of direct and indirect benefits
(c) Complementarily of the projects
Select the answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) & (c)
Ans: 3
17. Which among the following has not been declared as a special category State in India ?
(1) Uttarakhand (2) Bihar
(3) Jammu & Kashmir (4) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: 2
18. In the context of project evaluation, the net present value method mainly depends upon :
(1) interest rate prevalent at a given time
(2) exchange rate prevalent at a given time
(3) sales tax rate prevalent at a given time
(4) both income and sales tax rates prevalent at a given time
Ans: 1
19. Which among the following economists advocated the use of social marginal productivity criterion ?
(1) Hollis B. Chenery (2) A.K. Sen
(3) Maurice Dobb (4) J.J. Polak
Ans: 1
20. Trickle down strategy explains process associated with which of the following economic systems ?
(1) Capitalist system (2) Socialist system
(3) Mixed economy (4) Both (1) and (3)
Ans: 4
21. Who among the following is not a regulator of financial sector in India ?
(1) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(2) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
(3) Competition Commission of India
(4) Forward Market Commission of India
Ans: 3
22. Dumping in international trade means that a country
(1) exports all the domestic production of a commodity
(2) imports a commodity at a very low price
(3) exports a commodity at a price less than its cost of production
(4) exports a commodity at a price equal to its cost of production
Ans: 3
23. International trade in goods and services is sometimes used as a substitute for all of the following, except
(1) international movement of capital
(2) international movement of labour
(3) domestic production of same goods and services
(4) domestic production of different goods and services
Ans: 2
24. If the elasticities of supply of exports and imports are large in relation to the elasticity of demand for exports and imports, devaluation of a country's currency will :
(1) not effect the terms of trade (2) worsen the terms of trade
(3) improve the terms of trade (4) All of the above
Ans: 3
25. Assertion (A) : Factor prices tend to be equal among the trading countries.
Reason (R) : International trade in goods and services is a proxy for movement of factors among the countries.
Select the correct answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: 1
26. Uruguay Round of negotiations concerned with which among the following ?
(1) Tariff Measures (2) Non-Tariff Measures
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
Ans: 3
27. Which among the following items are included in the NAMA ?
(1) Fish and marine products (2) Manufactured products
(3) Fuel products (4) All the above
Ans: 4
28. Which among the following is the largest trading partner of India in 2015-16 ?
(1) USA (2) UAE
(3) Euro zone (4) China
Ans: 4
29. Kisan Kalyan Cess is imposed on
(1) Taxable services (2) Cold storages
(3) Mandi Samitis (4) Corporations
Ans: 1
30. With reference to balance of payments, which of the following constitute(s) the current account ?
I. Balance of trade II. Foreign assets
III. SDRs IV. Trade in invisibles
Select the correct answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) I only (2) II and III
(3) I and IV (4) I, III and IV
Ans: 3
31. Which one of the following is not correct about SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) ?
(1) It has the power to protect the interest of the investors in securities.
(2) It has the power to convert private securities to public securities.
(3) It has the power to promote development of capital market.
(4) It has the power to regulate the working of stock exchange.
Ans: 2
32. Which among the following countries (as on May 2016) are currently using the Quantitative easing as a measure to improve the inflationary expectations in the economy ?
(1) Japan (2) Britain
(3) USA (4) Australia
Ans: 1
33. The base year of the newly introduced Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India has been shifted to the year :
(1) 2009 (2) 2012
(3) 2011 (4) 2010
Ans: 2
34. Which of the following is not a legal tender in India ?
(1) One rupee coin (2) Fifty paise coin
(3) Rs. 500 note (4) Government securities
Ans: 4
35. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the options given below :
I. NITI Aayog aims to promote Co-operative Federalism.
II. NITI Aayog is to centralise the planning process in response to scarcity of resources.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I & II (4) Neither I nor II
Ans: 1
36. ‘GST’ would subsume which of the following taxes ?
I. Excise Duty II. Customs Duty
III. Sales Tax IV. Service Tax
Select the correct codes :
Codes :
(1) I & IV (2) I, II and IV
(3) I, III and IV (4) All of above
Ans: 3
37. Which of the following is/are advantage(s) of zero-based budgeting ?
(i) It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
(ii) It improves the programme effectiveness.
(iii) It facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and benefits.
Select the answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)
Ans: 3
38. Public good in which exclusion is possible is called :
(1) an exclusive good (2) a common good
(3) a club good (4) an impure good
Ans: 3
39. In order for someone to be a free rider, an activity must be undertaken that :
(1) arranges for ride-sharing at rush hour.
(2) creates benefits for people who cannot be forced to pay for them.
(3) beautifies a neighbourhood.
(4) identifies the beneficiaries and forces them to pay.
Ans: 2
40. Which factor has no role in the shifting of a tax ?
(1) Change in prices (2) Nature of demand
(3) Income of the consumer (4) Elasticity of demand and supply
Ans: 3
41. Assertion (A) : A progressive income tax is also known as built-in stabilizer.
Reason (R) : As economy expands, and income rises, taxes also rise in the same proportion.
Answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: 1
42. Assertion (A) : Rising Public debt is a cause of concern for the government and economy.
Reason (R) : Rising interest payments due to rising public debt erodes government’s capacity for economic development.
Answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: 1
43. An imposition of capital gains tax will
(1) reduce both savings and investment (2) increase savings
(3) reduce savings (4) increase consumption
Ans: 3
44. The Arithmetic mean and median in a moderately skewed distribution are 28.1 and 27.6. The value of mode in this distribution would be
(1) 26.8 (2) 26.6
(3) 29.0 (4) 27.5
Ans: 2
45. Which of the following is not unit free ?
(1) Coefficient of correlation (2) Coefficient of variation
(3) Laspeyer’s Index Number (4) Standard deviation
Ans: 4
46. Assertion (A) : Ogives help to compare frequency distribution.
Reason (R) : They help to determine the values of median, quartile, deciles and percentiles etc.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: 1
47. Which of the following is a probability based sampling method ?
(1) Quota sampling (2) Purposive sampling
(3) Systematic sampling (4) Convenience sampling
Ans: 3
48. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of development of sectors in India post-independence ?
(A) Agriculture, Industry, Service
(B) Service, Agriculture, Industry
(C) Industry, Agriculture, Service
(D) Agriculture, Service, Industry
Ans: D
49. The term HYVP in new agriculture strategy stands for
(A) High Yielding Variety Pesticides
(B) High Yielding Volume Production
(C) High Yielding Varieties Programme
(D) High Yielding Volume Programme
Ans: C
50. If more & more capital and labour are applied to a fixed piece of land, the system of cultivation of farming is known as
(A) Intensive cultivation (B) Extensive cultivation
(C) Cooperative farming (D) Double cropping
Ans: A
51. Mention the crop where Green Revolution is the most successful one
(A) Tea & Coffee (B) Wheat & Rice
(C) Wheat & Pulses (D) Jowar & Oilseeds
Ans: B
52. Which of the following is not an item of social security of labour ?
(A) Wage (B) Maternity benefits
(C) Pensions (D) Industrial Injury Compensation
Ans: A
53. Which of the following is correct about the Contingent Valuation Method (CVM) used in Environmental Economics ?
(A) It is used only for pollutants.
(B) It is used only for items with positive utilities.
(C) It is used for items under market failures.
(D) It is used only for natural resources.
Ans: C
54. Which among the following is not a cause of sickness of industrial units in India ?
(A) Obsolescent technology
(B) Lack of capital account convertibility
(C) Labour problems
(D) Faulty location
Ans: B
(A) Agriculture, Industry, Service
(B) Service, Agriculture, Industry
(C) Industry, Agriculture, Service
(D) Agriculture, Service, Industry
Ans: D
49. The term HYVP in new agriculture strategy stands for
(A) High Yielding Variety Pesticides
(B) High Yielding Volume Production
(C) High Yielding Varieties Programme
(D) High Yielding Volume Programme
Ans: C
50. If more & more capital and labour are applied to a fixed piece of land, the system of cultivation of farming is known as
(A) Intensive cultivation (B) Extensive cultivation
(C) Cooperative farming (D) Double cropping
Ans: A
51. Mention the crop where Green Revolution is the most successful one
(A) Tea & Coffee (B) Wheat & Rice
(C) Wheat & Pulses (D) Jowar & Oilseeds
Ans: B
52. Which of the following is not an item of social security of labour ?
(A) Wage (B) Maternity benefits
(C) Pensions (D) Industrial Injury Compensation
Ans: A
53. Which of the following is correct about the Contingent Valuation Method (CVM) used in Environmental Economics ?
(A) It is used only for pollutants.
(B) It is used only for items with positive utilities.
(C) It is used for items under market failures.
(D) It is used only for natural resources.
Ans: C
54. Which among the following is not a cause of sickness of industrial units in India ?
(A) Obsolescent technology
(B) Lack of capital account convertibility
(C) Labour problems
(D) Faulty location
Ans: B
55. Assertion (A) : There is automatic change in net tax revenue when level of output changes.
Reason (R) : Automatic stabilizers moderate aggregate spending in times of boom and slow down.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
56. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Sum of price elasticity of demand for exports and imports greater than unity. 1. J-curve effect
b. Balance of Payments is the difference between National Income and expenditure 2. Import quota systems
c. Empirical evidence showing lower short run price elasticities of exports and imports. 3. Marshall-Lerner condition
d. Method to cut down imports 4. Absorption approach
Select correct code :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans: D
57. Which of the following is related with optimum currency area ?
(A) Optimal geographical area for a single currency.
(B) Optimal geographical area for several currencies whose exchange rates are relatively pegged.
(C) Single currency or the pegged currencies fluctuate jointly vis-à-vis other currencies.
(D) All the above.
Ans: D
58. Which one of the following is not included under WTO regulations ?
(A) Removal of industrial licenses.
(B) Removal of import tariffs.
(C) Removal of foreign portfolio investments.
(D) Removal of price controls.
Ans: C
59. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Asian financial crisis is generally considered to have started on July 2, 1997 with the devaluation of the Thai Baht.
(B) Asian financial crisis is generally considered to have started on 2nd August, 1998 with the Russian’s crisis.
(C) Brazil’s 1999 crisis is generally considered to be the main cause of Asian financial crisis.
(D) All the above are true.
Ans: A
60. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Banks that conduct trading in market for Euro currencies 1. Euro currencies
b. Deposits denominated and payable in dollars and other foreign currencies in banks outside USA 2. SDRs
c. Dollar deposits located in banks outside US 3. Euro banks
d. Currency baskets composed of five currencies of IMF members 4. Euro dollars
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans: B
61. Which of the following is true for European Union ?
(A) All member countries have the Euro currency.
(B) All member countries have the same defence policy.
(C) There are no tariffs between member countries.
(D) All member countries have the same taxation policy.
Ans: C
62. When a nation imposes an import tariffs, the nation’s offer curve will
(A) shift away from the axis measuring exports
(B) move closer to the axis measuring exports
(C) no shift will take place
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
63. Market at which transaction will be consummated at some specified time in future is called
(A) Spot market (B) Current market
(C) Capital market (D) Forward market
Ans: D
64. Capital adequacy ratio of all commercial banks in India is
(A) below the required rate of 9 %
(B) equal to the required rate of 9 %
(C) well above the required rate of 9 %
(D) far below the required rate of 9 %
Ans: C
65. Which of the following are liabilities of commercial banks ?
I. Capital and reserves
II. Cash and balances with RBI
III. Investments
IV. Borrowings
Codes :
(A) I and III (B) I and IV
(C) I, II and III (D) II, III and IV
Ans: B
66. Assertion (A) : There was remarkable acceleration in deposit mobilisation of commercial banks after the nationalisation of 14 commercial banks in 1969.
Reason (R) : There was tremendous branch expansion, rise in interest rates and introduction of myriad innovative deposit scheme.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Ans: D
67. Which of the following are term lending institutions in India ?
I. Industrial Development Bank of India
II. EXIM Bank
III. Small Industrial Development Bank of India
IV. NABARD
Codes :
(A) I & III (B) I, III and IV
(C) I and II (D) I, II and III
Ans: C
68. Which of the following are included in broad money (M3) in India ?
1. Currency with the public 2. Demand deposits with Bank
3. Time deposits with Banks 4. ‘Other deposits’ with RBI
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 & 3 (B) 1 & 2
(C) 3 & 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans: D
69. Assertion (A) : The minimum rate at which the Central Bank is ready to lend is bank rate.
Reason (R) : The bank rate is determined by demand and supply of money.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) & (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
70. Assertion (A) : Delhi has very high density of population.
Reason (R) : People from rural areas are migrating to Delhi.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an adequate reason for (A).
Ans: B
71. An stable population is characterised by
(A) Constant birth rate (B) Unchanging age structure
(C) None of the above are true (D) Both the above are true
Ans: D
72. Which of the following is true for Net Reproduction Rate ?
(A) It relates to average number of daughters born to a female.
(B) It relates to the life span of a female.
(C) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(D) None of (A) or (B) are true.
Ans: A
73. Which option is true for population dividend to manifest ?
(A) Population in the age group between 0-7 years is likely to increase.
(B) Population in the age group between 8-15 years is likely to increase.
(C) Population in the age group between 15-64 years is likely to increase.
(D) Population in the age group above 65 years is likely to increase.
Ans: C
Reason (R) : Automatic stabilizers moderate aggregate spending in times of boom and slow down.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
56. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Sum of price elasticity of demand for exports and imports greater than unity. 1. J-curve effect
b. Balance of Payments is the difference between National Income and expenditure 2. Import quota systems
c. Empirical evidence showing lower short run price elasticities of exports and imports. 3. Marshall-Lerner condition
d. Method to cut down imports 4. Absorption approach
Select correct code :
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans: D
57. Which of the following is related with optimum currency area ?
(A) Optimal geographical area for a single currency.
(B) Optimal geographical area for several currencies whose exchange rates are relatively pegged.
(C) Single currency or the pegged currencies fluctuate jointly vis-à-vis other currencies.
(D) All the above.
Ans: D
58. Which one of the following is not included under WTO regulations ?
(A) Removal of industrial licenses.
(B) Removal of import tariffs.
(C) Removal of foreign portfolio investments.
(D) Removal of price controls.
Ans: C
59. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Asian financial crisis is generally considered to have started on July 2, 1997 with the devaluation of the Thai Baht.
(B) Asian financial crisis is generally considered to have started on 2nd August, 1998 with the Russian’s crisis.
(C) Brazil’s 1999 crisis is generally considered to be the main cause of Asian financial crisis.
(D) All the above are true.
Ans: A
60. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Banks that conduct trading in market for Euro currencies 1. Euro currencies
b. Deposits denominated and payable in dollars and other foreign currencies in banks outside USA 2. SDRs
c. Dollar deposits located in banks outside US 3. Euro banks
d. Currency baskets composed of five currencies of IMF members 4. Euro dollars
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans: B
61. Which of the following is true for European Union ?
(A) All member countries have the Euro currency.
(B) All member countries have the same defence policy.
(C) There are no tariffs between member countries.
(D) All member countries have the same taxation policy.
Ans: C
62. When a nation imposes an import tariffs, the nation’s offer curve will
(A) shift away from the axis measuring exports
(B) move closer to the axis measuring exports
(C) no shift will take place
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
63. Market at which transaction will be consummated at some specified time in future is called
(A) Spot market (B) Current market
(C) Capital market (D) Forward market
Ans: D
64. Capital adequacy ratio of all commercial banks in India is
(A) below the required rate of 9 %
(B) equal to the required rate of 9 %
(C) well above the required rate of 9 %
(D) far below the required rate of 9 %
Ans: C
65. Which of the following are liabilities of commercial banks ?
I. Capital and reserves
II. Cash and balances with RBI
III. Investments
IV. Borrowings
Codes :
(A) I and III (B) I and IV
(C) I, II and III (D) II, III and IV
Ans: B
66. Assertion (A) : There was remarkable acceleration in deposit mobilisation of commercial banks after the nationalisation of 14 commercial banks in 1969.
Reason (R) : There was tremendous branch expansion, rise in interest rates and introduction of myriad innovative deposit scheme.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Ans: D
67. Which of the following are term lending institutions in India ?
I. Industrial Development Bank of India
II. EXIM Bank
III. Small Industrial Development Bank of India
IV. NABARD
Codes :
(A) I & III (B) I, III and IV
(C) I and II (D) I, II and III
Ans: C
68. Which of the following are included in broad money (M3) in India ?
1. Currency with the public 2. Demand deposits with Bank
3. Time deposits with Banks 4. ‘Other deposits’ with RBI
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 & 3 (B) 1 & 2
(C) 3 & 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans: D
69. Assertion (A) : The minimum rate at which the Central Bank is ready to lend is bank rate.
Reason (R) : The bank rate is determined by demand and supply of money.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) & (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
70. Assertion (A) : Delhi has very high density of population.
Reason (R) : People from rural areas are migrating to Delhi.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an adequate reason for (A).
Ans: B
71. An stable population is characterised by
(A) Constant birth rate (B) Unchanging age structure
(C) None of the above are true (D) Both the above are true
Ans: D
72. Which of the following is true for Net Reproduction Rate ?
(A) It relates to average number of daughters born to a female.
(B) It relates to the life span of a female.
(C) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(D) None of (A) or (B) are true.
Ans: A
73. Which option is true for population dividend to manifest ?
(A) Population in the age group between 0-7 years is likely to increase.
(B) Population in the age group between 8-15 years is likely to increase.
(C) Population in the age group between 15-64 years is likely to increase.
(D) Population in the age group above 65 years is likely to increase.
Ans: C
74. Identify the method not being used for unemployment estimation by the NSSO in India.
(A) Current monthly status
(B) Current daily status
(C) Current weekly status
(D) Usual principal and subsidiary status
Ans: A
75. The process of budget making after reevaluating every item of expenditure in every financial year is known as
(A) Performance Budgeting
(B) Fresh Budgeting
(C) Debit Budgeting
(D) Zero Based Budgeting
Ans: D
76. Rank the states in terms of ascending Human Development Index (HDI) as per India Human Development Report 2011 :
I. Bihar
II. Gujarat
III. Odisha
IV. Tamil Nadu
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) III, I, II, IV
(C) I, III, IV, II (D) III, II, I, IV
Ans: B
78. A difference in relative commodity prices between two nations can be based upon a difference in
(A) factor endowment
(B) technology
(C) tastes
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
79. Which type of trade is not explained by the Heckscher-Ohlin model ?
(A) Trade based on economies of scale
(B) Intra industry trade
(C) Trade based on imitation gaps and product cycles
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
80. An example of a Euro currency is
(A) a dollar deposit outside the U.S.
(B) a pound sterling deposit within UK
(C) a mark deposit with Germany
(D) All of the above
Ans: A
81. A deficit or surplus in the India’s balance of payments is measured by the net balance of
(A) the current account
(B) the capital account
(C) allocation of SDRs and the statistical discrepancy
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
82. If the demand of the domestic consumers is infinitely elastic and the supply of the foreign producer is perfectly inelastic, then the whole of the tariff will
(A) be paid by the domestic consumers
(B) be paid by the foreign producer
(C) be equally shared by the domestic consumers and the foreign producer
(D) yield neither revenue nor protection to either of them
Ans: B
83. The RBI made Indian Rupee fully convertible in current account transactions related to goods and services in the year
(A) 1985 (B) 2002
(C) 1994 (D) 2011
Ans: C
84. According to the monetary approach, a revaluation of a nation’s currency
(A) increases the nation’s demand for money
(B) increases the nation’s supply of money
(C) reduces the nation’s demand for money
(D) reduces the nation’s supply of money
Ans: C
85. Arrange the following in chronological order :
I. Sarkar Award
II. Niemeyer Award
III. Deshmukh Award
IV. Meston Award
Codes :
(A) II, IV, III, I (B) IV, III, II, I
(C) III, II, IV, I (D) IV, II, I, III
Ans: D
86. In which of the following, Zero Based Budgeting is difficult to introduce ?
I. Establishment charges
II. Public works
III. Irrigation Projects
IV. Federal fiscal transfers
Codes :
(A) I, III and IV are correct.
(B) II, III and IV are correct.
(C) I and IV are correct.
(D) II and III are correct.
Ans: C
87. Match the items given in List – I with those in List – II :
List – I List – II
a. Theory of Clubs 1. Anthony Downs
b. Impossibility theorem 2. Charles Tiebout
c. Political of Decision Making Model 3. James Buchanan
d. Optimum provision of local public goods 4. Kenneth Arrow
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans: D
88. Which of the following tax has ‘announcement effect’ ?
(A) Income tax
(B) Property tax
(C) Excise Duties
(D) Capital gains taxation
Ans: C
89. Which of the following tax is within the jurisdiction of Union or Central Government as enumerated in List – I of Schedule VII of the India Constitution ?
(A) Taxes on the consumption and sale of electricity.
(B) Taxes on goods and passengers carried by road.
(C) Taxes on luxuries, including entertainments.
(D) Taxes on Sales and purchase of newspapers and on advertisement therein.
Ans: D
90. A tax imposed on a commodity according to its weight, size or measurement is called
(A) Advalorem tax
(B) Specific tax
(C) Single tax
(D) Double taxation
Ans: B
91. Which of the following is Musgrave’s views on incidence of taxation ?
(A) Settlement of tax on ultimate tax payer.
(B) Formal and effective incidence of taxation.
(C) Changes in the distribution of income for private use arising from changes in budget policy.
(D) The final direct money burden of a tax.
Ans: C
92. Given arithmetic mean = 45, mode = 48, then median =
(A) 46
(B) 45
(C) 48
(D) 49
Ans: A
93. If two events A and B are mutually inclusive, then P(A or B) is
(A) P(A) + P(B) – P(AB)
(B) P(A) + P(B) + P(AB)
(C) P(A) + P(B)
(D) P(A) P(B)
Ans: C
94. The analysis of variance is carried out by using
(A) t-test
(B) Z-test
(C) χ2-test
(D) F-test
Ans: D
95. Systematic sampling implies that the first item is selected randomly and
(A) the other items are selected by lottery method
(B) the other items are selected purposively
(C) then every kth item is selected
(D) the other items are selected at the will of the investigator
Ans: C
(A) Current monthly status
(B) Current daily status
(C) Current weekly status
(D) Usual principal and subsidiary status
Ans: A
75. The process of budget making after reevaluating every item of expenditure in every financial year is known as
(A) Performance Budgeting
(B) Fresh Budgeting
(C) Debit Budgeting
(D) Zero Based Budgeting
Ans: D
76. Rank the states in terms of ascending Human Development Index (HDI) as per India Human Development Report 2011 :
I. Bihar
II. Gujarat
III. Odisha
IV. Tamil Nadu
Codes :
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) III, I, II, IV
(C) I, III, IV, II (D) III, II, I, IV
Ans: B
78. A difference in relative commodity prices between two nations can be based upon a difference in
(A) factor endowment
(B) technology
(C) tastes
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
79. Which type of trade is not explained by the Heckscher-Ohlin model ?
(A) Trade based on economies of scale
(B) Intra industry trade
(C) Trade based on imitation gaps and product cycles
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
80. An example of a Euro currency is
(A) a dollar deposit outside the U.S.
(B) a pound sterling deposit within UK
(C) a mark deposit with Germany
(D) All of the above
Ans: A
81. A deficit or surplus in the India’s balance of payments is measured by the net balance of
(A) the current account
(B) the capital account
(C) allocation of SDRs and the statistical discrepancy
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
82. If the demand of the domestic consumers is infinitely elastic and the supply of the foreign producer is perfectly inelastic, then the whole of the tariff will
(A) be paid by the domestic consumers
(B) be paid by the foreign producer
(C) be equally shared by the domestic consumers and the foreign producer
(D) yield neither revenue nor protection to either of them
Ans: B
83. The RBI made Indian Rupee fully convertible in current account transactions related to goods and services in the year
(A) 1985 (B) 2002
(C) 1994 (D) 2011
Ans: C
84. According to the monetary approach, a revaluation of a nation’s currency
(A) increases the nation’s demand for money
(B) increases the nation’s supply of money
(C) reduces the nation’s demand for money
(D) reduces the nation’s supply of money
Ans: C
85. Arrange the following in chronological order :
I. Sarkar Award
II. Niemeyer Award
III. Deshmukh Award
IV. Meston Award
Codes :
(A) II, IV, III, I (B) IV, III, II, I
(C) III, II, IV, I (D) IV, II, I, III
Ans: D
86. In which of the following, Zero Based Budgeting is difficult to introduce ?
I. Establishment charges
II. Public works
III. Irrigation Projects
IV. Federal fiscal transfers
Codes :
(A) I, III and IV are correct.
(B) II, III and IV are correct.
(C) I and IV are correct.
(D) II and III are correct.
Ans: C
87. Match the items given in List – I with those in List – II :
List – I List – II
a. Theory of Clubs 1. Anthony Downs
b. Impossibility theorem 2. Charles Tiebout
c. Political of Decision Making Model 3. James Buchanan
d. Optimum provision of local public goods 4. Kenneth Arrow
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans: D
88. Which of the following tax has ‘announcement effect’ ?
(A) Income tax
(B) Property tax
(C) Excise Duties
(D) Capital gains taxation
Ans: C
89. Which of the following tax is within the jurisdiction of Union or Central Government as enumerated in List – I of Schedule VII of the India Constitution ?
(A) Taxes on the consumption and sale of electricity.
(B) Taxes on goods and passengers carried by road.
(C) Taxes on luxuries, including entertainments.
(D) Taxes on Sales and purchase of newspapers and on advertisement therein.
Ans: D
90. A tax imposed on a commodity according to its weight, size or measurement is called
(A) Advalorem tax
(B) Specific tax
(C) Single tax
(D) Double taxation
Ans: B
91. Which of the following is Musgrave’s views on incidence of taxation ?
(A) Settlement of tax on ultimate tax payer.
(B) Formal and effective incidence of taxation.
(C) Changes in the distribution of income for private use arising from changes in budget policy.
(D) The final direct money burden of a tax.
Ans: C
92. Given arithmetic mean = 45, mode = 48, then median =
(A) 46
(B) 45
(C) 48
(D) 49
Ans: A
93. If two events A and B are mutually inclusive, then P(A or B) is
(A) P(A) + P(B) – P(AB)
(B) P(A) + P(B) + P(AB)
(C) P(A) + P(B)
(D) P(A) P(B)
Ans: C
94. The analysis of variance is carried out by using
(A) t-test
(B) Z-test
(C) χ2-test
(D) F-test
Ans: D
95. Systematic sampling implies that the first item is selected randomly and
(A) the other items are selected by lottery method
(B) the other items are selected purposively
(C) then every kth item is selected
(D) the other items are selected at the will of the investigator
Ans: C
96. Match the items given in List – I with those in List – II :
List – I List - II
a. Low level equilibrium trap 1. Simon Kuznets
b. Inverted ‘V’ shaped income distribution hypothesis 2. Nelson
c. Endogenous growth theory 3. Arthur Lewis
d. Unlimited supplies of labour 4. Robert Solow
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans: A
97. Which of the following is correct about the ‘Hindu Growth Rate’ ?
(A) This is about economic growth of the Hindu population.
(B) Shows economic disparities among different social groups in India.
(C) Reflects low growth performance of the Indian economy during 1950-80.
(D) Hints at accelerated growth in India since 1980
Ans: C
98. Find out the incorrect statement about the success of economic reforms in India.
(A) Benefits of demographic dividends
(B) Increased share of the corporate sector in Gross Domestic Savings
(C) Narrowing down of the current account deficit
(D) Slow down of population growth rate
Ans: D
99. Single out the activity that is not included in the Industrial Production Index of India :
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Construction
(C) Mining
(D) Electricity
Ans: B
100. High growth of which industry provides a positive signal for industrial growth in future ?
(A) Capital goods industries
(B) Basic goods industries
(C) Durable consumer goods industries
(D) Intermediate goods industries
Ans: A
List – I List - II
a. Low level equilibrium trap 1. Simon Kuznets
b. Inverted ‘V’ shaped income distribution hypothesis 2. Nelson
c. Endogenous growth theory 3. Arthur Lewis
d. Unlimited supplies of labour 4. Robert Solow
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans: A
97. Which of the following is correct about the ‘Hindu Growth Rate’ ?
(A) This is about economic growth of the Hindu population.
(B) Shows economic disparities among different social groups in India.
(C) Reflects low growth performance of the Indian economy during 1950-80.
(D) Hints at accelerated growth in India since 1980
Ans: C
98. Find out the incorrect statement about the success of economic reforms in India.
(A) Benefits of demographic dividends
(B) Increased share of the corporate sector in Gross Domestic Savings
(C) Narrowing down of the current account deficit
(D) Slow down of population growth rate
Ans: D
99. Single out the activity that is not included in the Industrial Production Index of India :
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Construction
(C) Mining
(D) Electricity
Ans: B
100. High growth of which industry provides a positive signal for industrial growth in future ?
(A) Capital goods industries
(B) Basic goods industries
(C) Durable consumer goods industries
(D) Intermediate goods industries
Ans: A