BOTANY- PAGE 3

1. If the same lines are also used as tester in L x T design, then :-

1. It is equivalent to partial diallel design
2. It is equivalent to NCD design II
3. It is equivalent to full diallel design
4. It is equivalent to biparental mating design

Ans: 3

2. Which of the following cell organelle is not bound by cell membrane :-

1. Lysosome
2. Spherosome
3. Peroxisome
4. Ribosome

​Ans: 4

3. Breakage -fusion-bridge cycles of crossing over of paracentric inversion are most commonly found in :-

1. Pearl millet
2. Maize
3. Sorghum
4. Wheat

​Ans: 2

4. Scientific name of macaroni wheat is :-

1. Triticum aestivum
2. Triticum durum
3. Triticum dicoccum
4. Triticum compactum

​Ans: 2

5. The concept depicted by a cross in which the phenotype of FІ generation expresses both the parents to some degree is :-

1. Incomplete dominance
2. Law of dominance
3. Inheritance of one gene
4. Co - dominance

​Ans: 4

6. Coefficient of inbreeding for random mating population is :-

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

​Ans: 1

7. Through mutation breeding maximum varieties have been released for the character :-

1. Salt tolerance
2. Improved grain quality
3. Increase in height
4. Reduction in height

​Ans: 4

8. The flow of information from RNA to DNA is called:-

1. Transcription
2. Translation
3. Teminism
4. Central dogma

​Ans: 3

9. The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by :-

1. Lack of selection
2. Lack of migration
3. Lack of random mating
4. Lack of mutation

​Ans: 3

10. How many possible double cross hybrids could be made from ten inbred lines of maize ?

1. 40
2. 240
3. 630
4. 830

​Ans: 3

11. Cross pollination in cotton ranges :-

1. < 5%
2. 5-30%
3. > 50%
4. None of these

​Ans: 2

12. The race composition of a pathogen changes in response to :-

1. Environment 
2. The resistant gene present in host
3. The virulence factor present in pathogen
4. Race composition in the pathogen

​Ans: 2

13. In lac operon, which of the following codes for the enzyme β - galactosidase ?

1. Lac Z
2. Lac Y
3. Lac A
4. Operator

​Ans: 1

14. Seed multiplication ratio in gram and groundnut are, respectively :-

1. 1 : 10 and 1 : 20
2. 1 : 20 and 1 : 10
3. 1 : 8 and 1 : 10
4. 1 : 10 and 1 : 8

​Ans: 4

​15.  Heritability is not dependent on :-

1. Genotypic effect
2. Population size
3. Gene frequencies
4. Environment

Ans: 2

16. Linkage between the genes for resistance with some undesirable genes is referred to as :-

1. Compatible linkage
2. Genetic linkage
3. Linkage drag
4. Useful linkage

Ans: 3

17.  Insect resistance breeding is more difficult, because :-

1. Host specificity is less marked
2. Fairly simple inheritance
3. Biological strains are less common
4. Have complex inheritance

Ans: 1

18. Headquarters of UPOV is at :-

1. Munich
2. Geneva
3. Rome
4. New York

Ans: 2

19. The plant cell organelle associated with fat catabolism is :-

1. Lomasome
2. Mesosome
3. Glyoxisome
4. Microtubule

Ans: 3

20. Re-constitution is not possible of the genetic form of :-

1. Hybrid
2. Synthetic population
3. Multi lines
4. Composite population

Ans: 4

21. Which of the following method is not used for inbred line improvement ?

1. Pedigree selection
2. Mass selection
3. Gametic selection
4. Back cross method

Ans: 2

22. The storage life for seed having moisture content 9-10 % at temperature not exceeding 90° F is :-

1. One Year
2. Two Years
3. Three Years
4. Four Years

Ans: 2

23. Site of the mitochondria that contains enzymes for Kreb's cycle is:-

1. Outer membrane
2. Inner membrane
3. Inter membrane space
4. Matrix

Ans: 4

24. Which of the following test is not used for testing seed viability ?

1. T Z- Test
2. I C- Test
3. GADA - Test
4. Phenol test

Ans: 4

25. Which of the following is not a DNA sequencing method ?

1. LM - PCR
2. Edmans method
3. Sanger's method
4. Maxam - Gilbert method

Ans: 2

26. ​ When both additive and non additive gene effects are important in the expression of a trait, the most appropriate selection scheme is :-

1. Pure line selection
2. Mass selection
3. Simple recurrent selection
4. Reciprocal recurrent selection

Ans: 4

27. The male sterility used in the development of hybrid wheat has been derived from :-

1. Triticum dicoccum
2. Triticum timopheevii
3. Triticum durum
4. Triticum monococcum

Ans: 2

28. Maximum number of mutant varieties are produced with the treatment :-

1. EMS
2. UV rays
3. Sodium azide
4. Gamma rays

Ans: 4

29. The phenomenon of the reversion of mature cells to the meristematic state leading to the formation of callus is known as :-

1. Redifferentiation
2. Dedifferentiation
3. Differentiation
4. Organogenesis

Ans: 2

30. The first transgenic crop in the world is :-

1. Cotton
2. Soybean
3. Tobacco
4. Flax

Ans: 3

31. Main objective of the use of genetically modified herbicide resistant crops is to :-

1. Reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety 
2. Encourage eco-friendly herbicides
3. Elimination of weeds from the field without use of manual labour
4. Elimination of weed from the field without use of herbicides

Ans: 3

32. Which is not a notified variety of Taramira :-

1. Karan Tara
2. T - 27
3. Narendra Tara
4. Jobner Tara

Ans: 4

33. Moderate inbreeding depression is common in :-

1. Carrot and onion
2. Alfalfa and sorghum
3. Maize and Bajra
4. Onion and sunflower

Ans: 4

34. Advantage of heterosis can be taken permanently by clonal selection in which of the following :-

1. In sexually propagated crops
2. In Asexually propagated crops
3. In genetically modified crops
4. In tissue cultured crops

Ans: 2

35. DIMBOA imparts resistance against :-

1. Corn borer
2. Cotton bollworm
3. Army worm
4. Shoot fly

Ans: 1

36. DNA chip technology can be used for detection of :-

1. RFLPs
2. RAPDs
3. AFLPs
4. SNPs

Ans: 4

37. Open pollination of a group of genotypes (generally selected) in isolation in a way to promote random mating inter se is called :-

1. Biparental mating
2. Polycross
3. Three way cross
4. Back cross

Ans: 2

​38. Which of the following is the shortest mitotic stage ?

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

Ans: 3

39. Which of the following statement is not correct about a randomized complete block experiment ?

1. Every block is randomized separately from other blocks
2. Every treatment must appear at least once in each block
3. Each block contains a different set of treatments
4. Treatments are randomized in each block

Ans: 3

40. Choose the correct statement for tandem selection:-

1. Improvement of all the characters is done in one go
2. Improvement of the characters is at random
3. Improvement of characters is done one after the another
4. Improvement is done for adaptability only

Ans: 3

41.  In tissue culture frequent sub-culturing induces :-

1. Temporal modification
2. Somaclonal variation
3. Cultural shock
4. Somatic hybrid

Ans: 2

42. The direction of block in field experiment in Randomized block design is :-

1. Perpendicular to fertility gradient
2. Parallel to fertility gradient
3. At an angle of 45° to fertility gradient
4. All of these

Ans: 1

43. Single low'/'0' in mustard represents :-

1. Erucic acid < 4% of total oil content
2. Erucic acid <2% of total oil content
3. Glucosinolate <2% of total oil content
4. Erucic acid and Glucosinolate < 4% of total oil content

Ans: 2

44. Artificial seeds are :-

1. Seeds produced in laboratory condition
2. Seeds encapsulated in a gel
3. Somatic embryos encapsulated in a gel
4. Somatic cells encapsulated in a gel

Ans: 3

45. When did PPV & FR Act 2001 came into force ?

1. Jan. 2002
2. Jan. 2003
3. Jan. 2004
4. Jan. 2005

Ans: 4

46. If the mean and standard deviation of pearl millet yield are 20 Kg and 5 Kg respectively, the coefficient of variation will be :-

1. 15%
2. 20%
3. 25%
4. 30%

Ans: 3

47. Selection generation after generation with the intercrossing of selects is :-

1. Mass selection
2. Full sib selection
3. Half sib selection
4. Recurrent selection

Ans: 4

48. 2n - 2 represents :-

1. Nullisomic
2. Tetrasomic
3. Trisomic
4. Monosomic

Ans: 1

49.  Number of stamens in rice flower are :-

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Ans: 4

​50.  Association between two independent variables is explained by :-

1. Regression
2. Correlation
3. Multiple Regression
4. None of these

Ans: 2

51.  H.G. Khorana got Nobel Prize for his work on :-

1. Breeding work on wheat
2. Genetic code and gene synthesis
3. Inheritance study in crop plants
4. Statistical analysis of breeding work in maize

Ans: 2

52. How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8) ?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 8
4. 16

Ans: 4

53. Minimum degree of freedom required to draw the valid results is :-

1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 14

Ans: 3

54. In balanced lethal system of fixation of heterosis :-

1. Homozygotes die
2. Heterozygotes die
3. Both Homozygotes and Heterozygotes die
4. None of these

Ans: 1

55. In crop improvement, heterosis can be partially exploited through :-

1. Hybrid varieties
2. Synthetic varieties
3. Composite varieties
4. Synthetic & composite varieties

Ans: 4

56.  A flanking marker is :-

1. Present on one side of the gene of interest
2. Present on either side of the gene of interest
3. Present in between of the gene of interest
4. Present in between and on both side of the gene of interest

Ans: 2

57. Inbred lines from a cross between two inbred lines for gene mapping are referred to as :-

1. Recombinant inbred lines
2. Inbred lines
3. Top cross lines
4. Test cross lines

Ans: 1

58. Molecular analysis of an individual genotype refers to :-

1. Genotyping
2. Phenotyping
3. Sequencing
4. None of these

Ans: 1

59. In Dominant gene action "dominance" applies to :-

1. Relationship of genes at the same locus
2. Relationship of genes at different loci
3. Relationship of alleles at the same locus
4. Relationship of alleles at different loci

Ans: 3

60. The main genetic cause of genetic correlation is :-

1. Pleiotropy
2. Linkage
3. Both pleiotropy and linkage
4. None of these

Ans: 3

61. Various crosses obtained by using a common tester are called as :-

1. Single crosses
2. Double crosses
3. Three way crosses
4. Test crosses

Ans: 4

​62. In stability analysis b฀ = 0 indicates :-

1. Average stability
2. Above average stability
3. Below average stability
4. Absolute stability

Ans: 4

63. Bagging is done to :-

1. Avoid cross pollination
2. Avoid self pollination
3. Achieve desired pollination
4. Prevent contamination from foreign pollen

Ans: 4

64. Which of the following design is used to test a large number of genotypes in a limited area ?

1. Randomized Block Design
2. Augmented Design
3. Latin Square Design
4. Completely Randomized Design

Ans: 2

65. The genetic constitution of an organism is called :-

1. Genotype
2. Trait
3. Phenotype
4. Genome

Ans: 1

66. The International center for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology is located at :-

1. Kolkata
2. Bengaluru
3. New Delhi
4. Chandigarh

Ans:  3

67. In which of the gene action, the phenotype faithfully reflects the genotype :-

1. Additive
2. Dominance
3. Additive X dominance
4. Epistasis

Ans: 1

68.  Which of the following is not an ionizing radiation :-

1. X - rays
2. UV -rays
3. Cosmic - rays
4. Alpha - rays

Ans: 2

69. Which of the following statement is/are true in relation to the Law of Segregation ?

1. Alleles separate from each other during gametogenesis
2. The segregation of alleles is due to the segregation of 
3. Law of segregation is the law of purity of gametes
4. All of these

Ans: 4

70. When standard deviation is expressed in percent of mean, it is known as :-

1. Variance
2. Coefficient of variation
3. Standard error of mean
4. Critical difference

Ans: 2

71. How many homozygotes will be produced if a dihybrid Ab/aB is exposed to inbreeding ?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8

Ans: 2

72. Transposon is also known as :-

1. Pseudo gene
2. Jumping gene
3. Conservative gene
4. Co-integrate gene

Ans: 2

73. In field crops, under PPV & FR Act, a variety can be protected maximum for :-

1. 5 Years
2. 10 Years
3. 15 Years
4. 20 Years

Ans: 3

74. The fixable gene action is :-

1. Additive x dominance
2. Dominance
3. Additive and additive x additive type of epistasis
4. Additive and additive x dominance type of epistasis

Ans: 3

75. The ratio of genetic covariance to the phenotypic covariance is referred to :-

1. General combining ability
2. Selection differential
3. Co heritability
4. Heritability

Ans: 3

76. Cross pollination facilitated by dichogamy is found in:-

1. Maize
2. Pigeon pea
3. Cotton
4. All of these

Ans: 1

77. The estimate of General Combining Ability and Specific Combining Ability effects in plant breeding are based on :-

1. First order statistics
2. Second order statistics
3. Third order statistics
4. Fourth order statistics

Ans: 1

78. Point mutation involves :-

1. Deletion
2. Insertion
3. Duplication
4. Change in single base pair

Ans: 4

79. Genetic purity of seed means freedom of seeds from:-

1. Defective seeds
2. Inert material
3. Other distinguishable variety seeds
4. weed seeds

Ans: 3

80. ​In general resistance, the rate of pathogen reproduction is :-

1. Always zero
2. Never zero
3. Sometimes zero
4. Frequently zero

Ans: 2

81. How many growing seasons are required to complete one selection cycle in reciprocal recurrent selection ?

1. 1
   
2. 2
   
3. 3
   
4. 4

Ans: 3

82. One of the important predictable feature of environment is :-

1. Varying nitrogen doses
   
2. Weather fluctuations
   
3. Rain fall
   
4. Floods

Ans: 1

83. Triple test cross is an extension of :-

1. NC Design I
2. NC Design II
3. NC Design III
4. Diallel

Ans: 3

84. Einkorn is :-

1. Maize
2. Rye
3. Wheat
4. Sorghum

Ans: 3

85. Initial gene pool in development of synthetic variety consists of :-

1. Population
2. Pure line
3. Inbreds
4. Recombinant inbred line

Ans: 3

86. Mapping populations are :-

1. RILs
2. FІ generation
3. Inbreds
4. Pure lines

Ans: 1

87. Which of the following gene pool leads to production of fertile hybrids ?

1. GP 1
2. GP 2
3. GP 3
4. GP 4

Ans: 1

88. Maize plant is a :-

1. Monoecious
2. Dioecious
3. Hermaphrodite
4. All of these

Ans: 1

89. Wind pollination is common in :-

1. Legumes
2. Orchids
3. Grasses
4. Lilies

Ans: 3

90. Holandric genes are :-

1. Genes carried on autosomes
2. Genes carried on X chromosomes
3. Genes carried on Y chromosomes
4. Genes carried on any chromosome

Ans: 3

91. Student's 't test' is used with :-

1. Paired observations
2. Unpaired observations
3. Paired and unpaired observations
4. None of these

Ans: 1

​92. Baldness in humans is an example of :-

1. Sex linked trait
2. Sex influenced trait
3. Sex limited trait
4. Cytoplasmic inherited trait 

Ans: 2

​93. A bivalent consists of :-

1. Two chromatids and one centromeres
2. Two chromatids and two centromeres
3. Four chromatids and two centromeres
4. Four chromatids and four centromeres 

Ans: 3

94. The specific combining ability is estimated from :-

1. Half sib families
2. Full sib families
3. Single crosses
4. Inbred lines

Ans: 2

95. Where is the secondary center of origin of rye ?

1. Afghanistan
2. China
3. Central America
4. Hindustan

Ans: 1

96. Plant biotechnology involves :-

1. Production of valuable products from plants
2. Rapid clonal multiplication of desired genotypes
3. Production of virus free plants
4. All of these

Ans: 4

97. Cris - cross inheritance applies to which type of the gene inheritance :-

1. Sex liked gene inheritance
2. Sex influenced gene inheritance
3. Sex limited gene inheritance
4. Cytoplasmic inheritance

Ans: 1

98. The humidity in atmosphere affects

1. respiration
2. growth
3. transpiration
4. photosynthesis

Ans: 3

​99. Vascular cambium cells consists of

1. Xylem initials and Phloem initials
2. Fusiform initials and Ray initials
3. Similar kind of cells
4. Parenchyma cells.

Ans: 2

100. Consider the following statements
I Rust diseases are caused by some family members of uredinales.
​II.Smut diseases are caused by some family members of ustilaginales.
​III.Anthracnose disease in plants are caused by some family members of Melanoconiales.
IV. Powdery Mildew diseases are caused by the family members of Sphaeriales.
Which of the statements given above is/ are true ?

1. I and Ill are true
2. Ill and IV are true
3. Il and Ill are true
4. ​I, II and III are true

Ans: 4

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