TOURISM ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT- PAGE 8
TOURISM ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT MCQs
1. Mr. Hector Ceballos-Lascurain is credited for coining which term?
(A) Ecotourism
(B) Nature tourism
(C) Sustainable tourism
(D) Sex tourism
Ans: (A)
2. The trail blazing research publication “Tourism Ecotourism and Protection areas” was published in 1996 by
(A) U.N. World Tourism Organisation
(B) World Conservation Union
(C) World Conservation Organisation
(D) World Wildlife Fund
Ans: (B)
3. Assertion (A): If the masses were to take to ecotourism in a big, aggressive manner, ecotourism would turn out to have negative connotations.
Reason (R): Ecotourism should never have mass concentration. It should be extensive, not intensive.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (A)
4. TERN was established in 2006 and managed by UNWTO for Risk and crisis management. What is TERN?
(A) Tourism Emergency Response Network
(B) Tourism Emergency Regulation Network
(C) Tourism Emergency Response Netlog
(D) Tourism Emergency Regulation Netlog
Ans: (A)
5. Push factors in Tourism are
(A) Facilities
(B) Prestige
(C) Services
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
6. Pull factors in Tourism are
(A) Rest and Relaxation
(B) Escape
(C) Amenities
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
7. UFTAA divides the world into how many regions?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 11
(D) 12
Ans: (C)
8. Arrange the following railway properties according to the year they appeared on the world heritage list:
I. Darjeeling Mountain Railway
II. Nilgiris Mountain Railway
III. Kalka-Shimla Railway
IV. C.S.T. Mumbai
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) I, III, II, IV
(C) I, IV, II, III
(D) IV, III, II, I
Ans: (B)
9. The following are relevant to Thar Desert. Use the code:
I. Luni River
II. Camels
III. Sedimentary Rocks
IV. Crescent shape dunes
Codes:
(A) I, II, III, IV are correct
(B) I, II are correct
(C) I, II, IV are correct
(D) I, IV are correct
Ans: (C)
10. What is the Vehicle (Vahana) of Goddess river Ganga?
(A) Tortoise
(B) Crocodile
(C) Dolphin
(D) Serpant
Ans: (D)
11. Under which tree did Queen Mayadevi give birth to Siddharth?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Peepal
(C) Neem
(D) Shala
Ans: (D)
12. This consists of two lists of places and temples and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Places) List – II (Temples)
i. Jharkhand 1. Vishnupad
ii. Chhattisgarh 2. Virupaksh
iii. Karnataka 3. Vaidyanath temple
iv. Bihar 4. Danteshwari
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (2) (1) (3) (4)
(D) (3) (4) (2) (1)
Ans: (D)
13. This consists of two lists of statement phobia and terms and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Phobia) List – II (Statement)
i. Hodophobia 1. Fear of cooking
ii. Pteromerhano phobia 2. Fear of height
iii. Mageiroco phobia 3. Fear of travel
iv. Acrophobia 4. Fear of flying
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (4) (3) (1) (2)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (3) (4) (1) (2)
(D) (4) (2) (1) (3)
Ans: (C)
14. “Bibi-ka-Maqbara” the replica of the Taj Mahal is located in which city?
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Aurangabad
(C) Ahmednagar
(D) Ahmedpur
Ans: (B)
15. “Partie” system is an organizational structure for
(A) Dividing the housekeeping department into various sections
(B) Dividing the front office department into various sections
(C) Dividing the food and beverage service department into various sections
(D) Dividing the kitchen into various sections
Ans: (D)
16. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Chilling dishes at 3 °C immediately after cooking and holding at 0 ° to 3 °C – Cook chill
(B) Freezing food to–18 °C to –20 °C soon after cooking and holding them at this temperature till required – Cook freeze
(C) Chilling dishes to 36 °C immediately after cooking and holding at this temperature – Blast chilling
(D) Freezing dishes to –18 °C to –20 °C immediately after cooking and holding at this temperature – Blast freezing
Ans: (C)
17. Assertion (A): Standard recipe is a written document on the method of preparing a dish with portion size, list of ingredients and their quantity.
Reason (R): Standard operating instruction for the department to perform its task for food preparation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (B)
18. The overhead cost is considered in menu pricing which include the following:
(A) Food cost, Labour cost, rent and rates
(B) All expenses except food cost and labour cost
(C) Labour cost, gas, electricity, water and telephones
(D) Food cost, gas, electricity, rent and rates
Ans: (B)
19. Following are the duties of a Front Office Manager:
I. Recommend and monitor a front office budget and plan for the year.
II. Lead, train and motivate front office team
III. Approve expenses of the Front Office Department
IV. Ensure the safety and hygiene of the Front Office and its staff.
(A) I, II, III and IV are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) II, III and IV are correct.
(D) I and IV are correct.
Ans: (A)
20. This consists of two lists of alternative forms of lodging and accommodation:
List – I (Term) List – II (Statements)
i. Paradors 1. Travellers are provided with overnight lodging at rock bottom prices
ii. Pensions 2. Old buildings converted into hostels by government and offer at reasonable prices with full meal plans.
iii. Condominiums 3. Large home that was turned into a guest house offer food and lodging
iv. Youth hostels 4. Individually owned residential units under common management offer apartment style accommodation with kitchen facilities
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)
(C) (2) (3) (4) (1)
(D) (4) (1) (2) (3)
Ans: (C)
21. Assertion (A): Hotel business is very lucrative as it satisfies two physiological needs of all human beings – shelter and food.
Reason (R): Hotel specializes in providing facilities and amenities to the business corporate.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (C)
22. Which is an open jaw itinerary?
(A) Delhi → Chennai → Mammalapuram → Madurai → Delhi
(B) Delhi → Nagpur → Chennai
(C) Chennai → Madurai → Cochin → Chennai
(D) Kolkata → Bhubaneshwar → Chennai → Kolkata
Ans: (A)
23. Which are the dangerous goods in airlines?
(a) Copra
(b) Adhesives
(c) Mercury
(d) Bleaching Powder
(A) (a), (b) only
(B) (c), (d) only
(C) All of them
(D) None of them
Ans: (C)
24. Which is a Green field airport?
(A) Indira Gandhi Airport, Delhi
(B) Rajiv Gandhi Airport, Hyderabad
(C) Birsa Munda Airport, Ranchi
(D) Lok Nayak Jay Prakash Airport, Patna
Ans: (B)
25. The free baggage allowance for first class and business class passengers in airlines is
(A) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 145 cms for each bag.
(B) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 158 cms for each bag.
(C) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 268 cms for each bag.
(D) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 278 cms for each bag.
Ans: (B)
26. Calculate the flying time if a flight leaves Detroit (–0500 hrs) at 1405 hrs and arrives Mumbai (+0530 hrs) at 2300 hrs next day
(A) 22:25 hrs
(B) 20:25 hrs
(C) 18:35 hrs
(D) 18:25 hrs
Ans: (A)
27. This consists of two lists of railway zones and headquarters and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Railway Zones) List – II (Headquarter)
i. Central 1. Mumbai (Churchgate)
ii. North Central 2. Allahabad
iii. East Central 3. Hajipur
iv. Western 4. Mumbai (CST)
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (4) (2) (3) (1)
(D) (1) (3) (2) (4)
Ans: (B)
28. Which section of waterways are declared as National Waterway?
I. Allahabad – Haldia
II. Sadia – Dhubri
III. Kottapuram – Kollam
IV. Jabalpur – Surat
(A) I, II & III are correct
(B) II & III are correct
(C) None of the above is correct
(D) All of the above are correct
Ans: (A)
29. Arrange the following Global Distribution Systems based on the year of its introduction:
I. SABRE
II. SMART
III. AMADEUS
IV. WORLD SPAN
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) IV, III, II, I
Ans: (A)
30. Following countries come under IATA Traffic Conference Area – I
I. U.S.A.
II. Greenland
III. Iceland
IV. Russia
(A) I and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) III and IV are correct
(D) I and IV are correct
Ans: (B)
31. Which countries are not part of the European Union, but member of Schengen VISA?
(A) Finland and Denmark
(B) United Kingdom and Portugal
(C) Norway and Iceland
(D) Spain and Greece
Ans: (C)
32. Travel propensity is a measure of
(A) The percentage of a population engaging in tourism
(B) The ratio of day trip to overnight visits.
(C) Tourism market share of a country
(D) Frequency of travel of a population
Ans: (D)
33. Which Sea attracts over 160 million tourists a year?
(A) Mediterranean Sea
(B) Caribbean Sea
(C) South China Sea
(D) Caspian Sea
Ans: (A)
34. Which of the following is not a London based airport?
(A) South Hampton
(B) Heathrow
(C) Gatwick
(D) Stansted
Ans: (A)
35. “Petra” one of the seven wonders is located in
(A) Syria
(B) Lebanon
(C) Jordon
(D) Israel
Ans: (C)
36. This consists of two lists of air ports and city and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Airport) List – II (City)
i. Swami Vivekananda Airport 1. Ranchi
ii. Birsa Munda Airport 2. Raipur
iii. Chaudhary Charan Singh Airport 3. Varanasi
iv. Lal Bahadur Shastri Airport 4. Lucknow
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (2) (1) (4) (3)
(D) (4) (2) (1) (3)
Ans: (C)
37. Which pairs are correctly matched?
List – I (Airlines) List – II (Headquarter)
I. Cathay Pacific 1. Sharjah
II. Lufthansa 2. Cologne
III. Emirates 3. Hong Kong
IV. KLM 4. Amsterdam
Codes:
(A) I & III are correct.
(B) II & IV are correct
(C) All are correct
(D) None of them are correct
Ans: (B)
38. The production concept in marketing emphasis on
(A) High quality goods
(B) Large volume of goods
(C) The product with best possible features
(D) Products and services emphasising on environment
Ans: (B)
39. A skeptical buyer is one
(A) who makes impulsive purchase
(B) who carefully weighs the cost and benefit
(C) has a negative image about product
(D) is keen to return the product
Ans: (B)
40. “REVPAR” is a test which
(A) measures income before fixed cost
(B) insists on performance measures based on increase in operating margins
(C) assumes that room revenue is a good indicator of a hotel’s overall performance
(D) indicates what a business unit wants to achieve
Ans: (C)
41. The percentage relationship of an organization’s sales to total industry sales referred as
(A) Market share
(B) Profit maximization
(C) Target rate of return
(D) Direct response sales
Ans: (A)
42. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) It is one of the theory of motivation – Behavioural theory
(B) It is a strategy to differentiate products and companies – Branding
(C) Tourism products and attractions – Pull factors
(D) The film produced by the Ministry of Tourism – Himalayan Adventure
Ans: (A)
43. Which one of the following key statistics is not associated with factor analysis?
(A) Bartlett’s test of sphericity
(B) Communality
(C) Eigen value
(D) MANOVA
Ans: (D)
44. Which one of the following is not the probability sampling method?
(A) Systematic sampling
(B) Snowball sampling
(C) Cluster sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Ans: (B)
45. This consists of two lists of types of validity and its meaning and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Types of Validity) List – II (Meaning)
i. Content validity 1. It addresses the question of what construct or characteristic the scale is measuring
ii. Criterion validity 2. It measures the extent to which the scale correlates positively with other measures of the same construct
iii. Construct validity 3. It consists of a subjective but systematic evaluation of the representativeness the content of a scale for measuring task at hand
iv. Convergent validity 4. It examines whether the measurement scale performs as expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (3) (4) (2)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (2) (3) (1) (2)
(D) (3) (4) (1) (2)
Ans: (D)
46. Which one of the following is not a comparative scale?
(A) Rank order
(B) Constant sum
(C) Q-sort
(D) Likert
Ans: (D)
47. The process of monitoring performance, comparing it with goals and correcting any significant deviations is known as
(A) Planning
(B) Organizing
(C) Leading
(D) Controlling
Ans: (D)
48. The attitude that regards home country management practices as superior to foreign country practices is known as
(A) Ethnocentric
(B) Polycentric
(C) Geocentric
(D) Isocentric
Ans: (A)
49. Strategic planning is best described by the statement from the following:
(A) Facts are difficult to gather and plans cover short period of time.
(B) Facts are difficult to gather and plans cover long period of time.
(C) Facts are easy to gather and plans are developed mainly by upper level managers.
(D) Facts are easy to gather and plans are developed mainly by lower level managers.
Ans: (B)
50. The sales forecasting technique that utilizes specialized knowledge based on interaction with customers is
(A) sum of executive opinion
(B) sales force estimation
(C) time series analysis
(D) all of the above
Ans: (B)
(A) Ecotourism
(B) Nature tourism
(C) Sustainable tourism
(D) Sex tourism
Ans: (A)
2. The trail blazing research publication “Tourism Ecotourism and Protection areas” was published in 1996 by
(A) U.N. World Tourism Organisation
(B) World Conservation Union
(C) World Conservation Organisation
(D) World Wildlife Fund
Ans: (B)
3. Assertion (A): If the masses were to take to ecotourism in a big, aggressive manner, ecotourism would turn out to have negative connotations.
Reason (R): Ecotourism should never have mass concentration. It should be extensive, not intensive.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (A)
4. TERN was established in 2006 and managed by UNWTO for Risk and crisis management. What is TERN?
(A) Tourism Emergency Response Network
(B) Tourism Emergency Regulation Network
(C) Tourism Emergency Response Netlog
(D) Tourism Emergency Regulation Netlog
Ans: (A)
5. Push factors in Tourism are
(A) Facilities
(B) Prestige
(C) Services
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
6. Pull factors in Tourism are
(A) Rest and Relaxation
(B) Escape
(C) Amenities
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
7. UFTAA divides the world into how many regions?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 11
(D) 12
Ans: (C)
8. Arrange the following railway properties according to the year they appeared on the world heritage list:
I. Darjeeling Mountain Railway
II. Nilgiris Mountain Railway
III. Kalka-Shimla Railway
IV. C.S.T. Mumbai
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) I, III, II, IV
(C) I, IV, II, III
(D) IV, III, II, I
Ans: (B)
9. The following are relevant to Thar Desert. Use the code:
I. Luni River
II. Camels
III. Sedimentary Rocks
IV. Crescent shape dunes
Codes:
(A) I, II, III, IV are correct
(B) I, II are correct
(C) I, II, IV are correct
(D) I, IV are correct
Ans: (C)
10. What is the Vehicle (Vahana) of Goddess river Ganga?
(A) Tortoise
(B) Crocodile
(C) Dolphin
(D) Serpant
Ans: (D)
11. Under which tree did Queen Mayadevi give birth to Siddharth?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Peepal
(C) Neem
(D) Shala
Ans: (D)
12. This consists of two lists of places and temples and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Places) List – II (Temples)
i. Jharkhand 1. Vishnupad
ii. Chhattisgarh 2. Virupaksh
iii. Karnataka 3. Vaidyanath temple
iv. Bihar 4. Danteshwari
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (2) (1) (3) (4)
(D) (3) (4) (2) (1)
Ans: (D)
13. This consists of two lists of statement phobia and terms and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Phobia) List – II (Statement)
i. Hodophobia 1. Fear of cooking
ii. Pteromerhano phobia 2. Fear of height
iii. Mageiroco phobia 3. Fear of travel
iv. Acrophobia 4. Fear of flying
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (4) (3) (1) (2)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (3) (4) (1) (2)
(D) (4) (2) (1) (3)
Ans: (C)
14. “Bibi-ka-Maqbara” the replica of the Taj Mahal is located in which city?
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Aurangabad
(C) Ahmednagar
(D) Ahmedpur
Ans: (B)
15. “Partie” system is an organizational structure for
(A) Dividing the housekeeping department into various sections
(B) Dividing the front office department into various sections
(C) Dividing the food and beverage service department into various sections
(D) Dividing the kitchen into various sections
Ans: (D)
16. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Chilling dishes at 3 °C immediately after cooking and holding at 0 ° to 3 °C – Cook chill
(B) Freezing food to–18 °C to –20 °C soon after cooking and holding them at this temperature till required – Cook freeze
(C) Chilling dishes to 36 °C immediately after cooking and holding at this temperature – Blast chilling
(D) Freezing dishes to –18 °C to –20 °C immediately after cooking and holding at this temperature – Blast freezing
Ans: (C)
17. Assertion (A): Standard recipe is a written document on the method of preparing a dish with portion size, list of ingredients and their quantity.
Reason (R): Standard operating instruction for the department to perform its task for food preparation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (B)
18. The overhead cost is considered in menu pricing which include the following:
(A) Food cost, Labour cost, rent and rates
(B) All expenses except food cost and labour cost
(C) Labour cost, gas, electricity, water and telephones
(D) Food cost, gas, electricity, rent and rates
Ans: (B)
19. Following are the duties of a Front Office Manager:
I. Recommend and monitor a front office budget and plan for the year.
II. Lead, train and motivate front office team
III. Approve expenses of the Front Office Department
IV. Ensure the safety and hygiene of the Front Office and its staff.
(A) I, II, III and IV are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) II, III and IV are correct.
(D) I and IV are correct.
Ans: (A)
20. This consists of two lists of alternative forms of lodging and accommodation:
List – I (Term) List – II (Statements)
i. Paradors 1. Travellers are provided with overnight lodging at rock bottom prices
ii. Pensions 2. Old buildings converted into hostels by government and offer at reasonable prices with full meal plans.
iii. Condominiums 3. Large home that was turned into a guest house offer food and lodging
iv. Youth hostels 4. Individually owned residential units under common management offer apartment style accommodation with kitchen facilities
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)
(C) (2) (3) (4) (1)
(D) (4) (1) (2) (3)
Ans: (C)
21. Assertion (A): Hotel business is very lucrative as it satisfies two physiological needs of all human beings – shelter and food.
Reason (R): Hotel specializes in providing facilities and amenities to the business corporate.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (C)
22. Which is an open jaw itinerary?
(A) Delhi → Chennai → Mammalapuram → Madurai → Delhi
(B) Delhi → Nagpur → Chennai
(C) Chennai → Madurai → Cochin → Chennai
(D) Kolkata → Bhubaneshwar → Chennai → Kolkata
Ans: (A)
23. Which are the dangerous goods in airlines?
(a) Copra
(b) Adhesives
(c) Mercury
(d) Bleaching Powder
(A) (a), (b) only
(B) (c), (d) only
(C) All of them
(D) None of them
Ans: (C)
24. Which is a Green field airport?
(A) Indira Gandhi Airport, Delhi
(B) Rajiv Gandhi Airport, Hyderabad
(C) Birsa Munda Airport, Ranchi
(D) Lok Nayak Jay Prakash Airport, Patna
Ans: (B)
25. The free baggage allowance for first class and business class passengers in airlines is
(A) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 145 cms for each bag.
(B) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 158 cms for each bag.
(C) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 268 cms for each bag.
(D) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 278 cms for each bag.
Ans: (B)
26. Calculate the flying time if a flight leaves Detroit (–0500 hrs) at 1405 hrs and arrives Mumbai (+0530 hrs) at 2300 hrs next day
(A) 22:25 hrs
(B) 20:25 hrs
(C) 18:35 hrs
(D) 18:25 hrs
Ans: (A)
27. This consists of two lists of railway zones and headquarters and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Railway Zones) List – II (Headquarter)
i. Central 1. Mumbai (Churchgate)
ii. North Central 2. Allahabad
iii. East Central 3. Hajipur
iv. Western 4. Mumbai (CST)
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (4) (2) (3) (1)
(D) (1) (3) (2) (4)
Ans: (B)
28. Which section of waterways are declared as National Waterway?
I. Allahabad – Haldia
II. Sadia – Dhubri
III. Kottapuram – Kollam
IV. Jabalpur – Surat
(A) I, II & III are correct
(B) II & III are correct
(C) None of the above is correct
(D) All of the above are correct
Ans: (A)
29. Arrange the following Global Distribution Systems based on the year of its introduction:
I. SABRE
II. SMART
III. AMADEUS
IV. WORLD SPAN
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) IV, III, II, I
Ans: (A)
30. Following countries come under IATA Traffic Conference Area – I
I. U.S.A.
II. Greenland
III. Iceland
IV. Russia
(A) I and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) III and IV are correct
(D) I and IV are correct
Ans: (B)
31. Which countries are not part of the European Union, but member of Schengen VISA?
(A) Finland and Denmark
(B) United Kingdom and Portugal
(C) Norway and Iceland
(D) Spain and Greece
Ans: (C)
32. Travel propensity is a measure of
(A) The percentage of a population engaging in tourism
(B) The ratio of day trip to overnight visits.
(C) Tourism market share of a country
(D) Frequency of travel of a population
Ans: (D)
33. Which Sea attracts over 160 million tourists a year?
(A) Mediterranean Sea
(B) Caribbean Sea
(C) South China Sea
(D) Caspian Sea
Ans: (A)
34. Which of the following is not a London based airport?
(A) South Hampton
(B) Heathrow
(C) Gatwick
(D) Stansted
Ans: (A)
35. “Petra” one of the seven wonders is located in
(A) Syria
(B) Lebanon
(C) Jordon
(D) Israel
Ans: (C)
36. This consists of two lists of air ports and city and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Airport) List – II (City)
i. Swami Vivekananda Airport 1. Ranchi
ii. Birsa Munda Airport 2. Raipur
iii. Chaudhary Charan Singh Airport 3. Varanasi
iv. Lal Bahadur Shastri Airport 4. Lucknow
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (2) (1) (4) (3)
(D) (4) (2) (1) (3)
Ans: (C)
37. Which pairs are correctly matched?
List – I (Airlines) List – II (Headquarter)
I. Cathay Pacific 1. Sharjah
II. Lufthansa 2. Cologne
III. Emirates 3. Hong Kong
IV. KLM 4. Amsterdam
Codes:
(A) I & III are correct.
(B) II & IV are correct
(C) All are correct
(D) None of them are correct
Ans: (B)
38. The production concept in marketing emphasis on
(A) High quality goods
(B) Large volume of goods
(C) The product with best possible features
(D) Products and services emphasising on environment
Ans: (B)
39. A skeptical buyer is one
(A) who makes impulsive purchase
(B) who carefully weighs the cost and benefit
(C) has a negative image about product
(D) is keen to return the product
Ans: (B)
40. “REVPAR” is a test which
(A) measures income before fixed cost
(B) insists on performance measures based on increase in operating margins
(C) assumes that room revenue is a good indicator of a hotel’s overall performance
(D) indicates what a business unit wants to achieve
Ans: (C)
41. The percentage relationship of an organization’s sales to total industry sales referred as
(A) Market share
(B) Profit maximization
(C) Target rate of return
(D) Direct response sales
Ans: (A)
42. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) It is one of the theory of motivation – Behavioural theory
(B) It is a strategy to differentiate products and companies – Branding
(C) Tourism products and attractions – Pull factors
(D) The film produced by the Ministry of Tourism – Himalayan Adventure
Ans: (A)
43. Which one of the following key statistics is not associated with factor analysis?
(A) Bartlett’s test of sphericity
(B) Communality
(C) Eigen value
(D) MANOVA
Ans: (D)
44. Which one of the following is not the probability sampling method?
(A) Systematic sampling
(B) Snowball sampling
(C) Cluster sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Ans: (B)
45. This consists of two lists of types of validity and its meaning and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I (Types of Validity) List – II (Meaning)
i. Content validity 1. It addresses the question of what construct or characteristic the scale is measuring
ii. Criterion validity 2. It measures the extent to which the scale correlates positively with other measures of the same construct
iii. Construct validity 3. It consists of a subjective but systematic evaluation of the representativeness the content of a scale for measuring task at hand
iv. Convergent validity 4. It examines whether the measurement scale performs as expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (1) (3) (4) (2)
(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (2) (3) (1) (2)
(D) (3) (4) (1) (2)
Ans: (D)
46. Which one of the following is not a comparative scale?
(A) Rank order
(B) Constant sum
(C) Q-sort
(D) Likert
Ans: (D)
47. The process of monitoring performance, comparing it with goals and correcting any significant deviations is known as
(A) Planning
(B) Organizing
(C) Leading
(D) Controlling
Ans: (D)
48. The attitude that regards home country management practices as superior to foreign country practices is known as
(A) Ethnocentric
(B) Polycentric
(C) Geocentric
(D) Isocentric
Ans: (A)
49. Strategic planning is best described by the statement from the following:
(A) Facts are difficult to gather and plans cover short period of time.
(B) Facts are difficult to gather and plans cover long period of time.
(C) Facts are easy to gather and plans are developed mainly by upper level managers.
(D) Facts are easy to gather and plans are developed mainly by lower level managers.
Ans: (B)
50. The sales forecasting technique that utilizes specialized knowledge based on interaction with customers is
(A) sum of executive opinion
(B) sales force estimation
(C) time series analysis
(D) all of the above
Ans: (B)
51. Which one is an example of non-marketing trade barrier in tourism marketing?
(A) Cultural barriers
(B) Socio-political barriers
(C) Environmental barriers
(D) Technological barriers
Ans: (B)
52. Which of the segmentation method is based on behavioural correlate?
(A) Demographical Segmentation
(B) Psychographical segmentation
(C) Benefit sought segmentation
(D) Usage segmentation
Ans: (D)
53. Incredible India campaign is an advertising campaign where the copy of the theme is based on
(A) Testimonial evidence
(B) Rationality of offer
(C) Social campaign
(D) Anti-fear campaign
Ans: (A)
54. Marketing information system consists of
I. Analytical Marketing System
II. Internal-record System
III. Marketing Research System
IV. Marketing Intelligence System
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I, II and IV
(D) II and IV
Ans: (D)
55. ‘Make my trip.com’ is an example of
(A) Infomediary
(B) Intermediary
(C) Direct marketing company
(D) Aggregator
Ans: (D)
56. In tourism marketing “Destination facilities” consider to be an element of
(A) Core benefit
(B) Generic product
(C) Expected product
(D) Augmented product
Ans: (B)
57. Assertion (A): Tourism Distribution Channels have profound effects on the competitiveness andprofitability of tourismorganisations.
Reason (R): Distribution is becoming the most critical factors for the competitiveness of tourism organisations.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: (B)
58. A manager that creates an organisation’s goals, overall strategy and operating policies would be performing what level of management
(A) Top level
(B) Middle level
(C) First level
(D) Low level
Ans: (A)
59. Which one of the following is not one of the four categories of resources used by an organisation?
(A) Information resources
(B) Human resources
(C) Physical resources
(D) Intellectual resources
Ans: (D)
60. Which one of the following is not one of the three interpersonal roles inherent in a Manager’s Job?
(A) Figure head
(B) Spokesperson
(C) Liason
(D) Leader
Ans: (B)
61. The implementation of the principles of sustainable tourism stipulated by the UNWTO are the responsibilities of
(A) The Central Government
(B) The District Administration
(C) The State Government
(D) The Non-governmental Organisation
Ans: (B)
62. The Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Shrine is one of the well-known “Shakti” Sites in Jammu Kashmir and is managed
(A) Jointly by State and Central Government
(B) By State Government and the Shrine Board
(C) By Autonomous Board
(D) By District Administration
Ans: (C)
63. The gap in the national tourism policy can be minimized if
I. Evaluation of short comings of past policies is carried out
II. Feasibility study with focus on positive and negative impacts of policy implementations.
III. Centralized and controlled approaches are eliminated.
IV. Views of Political Leaders are considered for implementation
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I and III are correct
Ans: (A)
64. Indicate which of the following item(s) are liabilities:
I. Interest owned by a hotel on loan.
II. Interest owed to the hotel forlate payments.
III. Account receivable
IV. A building owned by the hotel.
(A) I
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and IV
Ans: (C)
65. Which of the following is not a section of an operating statement?
(A) Revenue
(B) Expenses
(C) Profit
(D) Net worth
Ans: (D)
66. Total liabilities are subtracted from total assets to compute the net worth of the hotel, also called as
(A) Equity
(B) Revenue
(C) Profit
(D) Loss
Ans: (A)
67. A measurement of the amount of the money that a business has on hand at any point of time
(A) Cash Flow
(B) Long-term debt
(C) Fixed Asset
(D) Funds Flow
Ans: (A)
68. To accurately monitor the hotel’s financial performance the statement normally prepared at the end of the year is known as
(A) Operating Statement
(B) Financial Statement
(C) Cash Flow Statement
(D) Funds Flow Statement
Ans: (B)
69. Which of the following is not a control technique?
(A) Zero based budgeting
(B) Breakeven analysis
(C) PERT
(D) JIT
Ans: (D)
70. Grapevine in an organisation is likely to develop in
(A) A formal group
(B) The top brass
(C) an informal group
(D) The external environment
Ans: (C)
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. Answer the questions from (71-75).
The Buddha is considered as a divine being and as a consequence of this, everything connected with him is considered to be sacred. The places connected with the life and legend of Buddha acquired unqualified glory and sanctity. Eight places have been identified as the ‘Eight great spots’.
The first four places are related to the important historical events in Buddha’s life and the remaining four are the places where it is believed that Buddha had performed miracles. These eight places have become sacred places of Buddhist pilgrimage.
71. This consists of two lists of places and events. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List-I List-II
(Places) (Events)
(i) Lumbini (1) Where Buddha attained enlightenment
(ii) Gaya (2) Where Buddha was born
(iii) Sarnath (3) Where Buddha attained Nirvana
(iv) Kusinagar (4) Where Buddha delivered his first sermon
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (2) (1) (3) (4)
(B) (2) (3) (4) (1)
(C) (2) (1) (4) (3)
(D) (2) (4) (1) (3)
Ans: (C)
72. Which one of the following is a World Heritage Site?
(A) Sarnath
(B) Bodhgaya
(C) Sravasti
(D) Vaishali
Ans: (B)
73. Assertion (A): The National Emblem of India is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka the Emperor.
Reason (R): The Emblem was adopted on 15th August 1947.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but(R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: (C)
74. Identify the four places where Buddha had performed miracles
(A) Sravasti, Rajgir, Sankasya, Vaishali
(B) Sarnath, Sankasya, Vaishali, Sanchi
(C) Kusinagar, Rajgir, Vaishali, Gaya
(D) Sravasti, Kusinagar, Rajgir, Sanchi
Ans: (A)
75. This consists of two lists, the first being the forms of four Noble Truths given by Buddha. The second explains the core meaning. The candidate has to match an item in one list with one item in the other.
List-I List-II
(Noble Truth) (Core meaning)
(i) First (1) Cessation of sorrow of pain
(ii) Second (2) Every sorrow has a cause
(iii) Third (3) Existence of Suffering
(iv) Fourth (4) Removal of sorrow in all its forms
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (3) (1) (2) (4)
(B) (3) (4) (2) (1)
(C) (3) (2) (1) (4)
(D) (3) (4) (1) (2)
Ans: (C)
76. A documents issued by the Mughal Government to the foreign travellers for their free movement was known as
(A) Dastak
(B) Cartez
(C) Dastur-ul-amal
(D) Ain-i Sarkar
Ans: (A)
77. It is a body of water formed where fresh water from rivers and streams flows into the ocean, mixing with the seawater without making a delta
(A) Strait
(B) Estuary
(C) Prairie
(D) Atoll
Ans: (B)
78. Identify the oldest hospitality chain in India:
(A) The Oberoi Group of Hotels
(B) The Leela Palaces, Hotels and Resorts
(C) The ITC Welcome Group Hotels
(D) The Taj Hotels, Resorts and Palaces
Ans: (D)
79. KOT and BOT are
(A) food and alcoholic drinks order ticket
(B) Complimentary ticket for food and alcoholic drinks
(C) Managers entitlement ticket to dine in restaurant
(D) Food and alcoholic drink stock record
Ans: (A)
80. P-V Ratio Profit-Volume ratio is expressed in percentages and is calculated using the formula
(A) Contribution/Sales × 100
(B) Sales/Contribution × 100
(C) (Fixed cost – Variable cost)/ Sales × 100
(D) (Total cost – Fixed)/ cost Sales × 100
Ans: (A)
81. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Designer hotels based on a theme which provide luxurious personalized services and facilities to their clientele – Boutique Hotels
(B) These hotels are situated in large cities mostly have European plan i.e. only room and no meals – Transit Hotels
(C) These hotels are mainly located on the surface of the water. The facilities and services of these hotels are similar to those of a regular hotel – Residential / Apartment Hotels
(D) These hotels cater specially to the transient passengers and airline crew who are waiting for a connecting flight – Capsule Hotels
Ans: (A)
82. Which one of following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) It is a very attractive manmade resort – Disneyland
(B) It is an Indian concept where ancient Indian Maharajas converted their palaces into hotels after they were stripped of their princely privileges – Palace Hotels
(C) In this type of hotels, each room or suite is owned by several people who will schedule their visit well in advance with management office to ensure that the room or suite is available – Time share Hotels
(D) It is a type of hotel where guests are fed traditional Indian food of royalty and served by liveried waiting staff – Palace on Wheels
Ans: (D)
83. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?
(A) In this type of pricing plan, charges include room rent and all meals – Continental Plan
(B) Setting a standard with a comparable competitor is – Branding
(C) A strategy of maximizing revenue – Yield Management
(D) A room with a sofa cum bed ideally situated beside swimming pools or beaches
Ans: (C)
84. ‘Revpar’ is a term used in the hotel industry to establish
(A) The Rack Rate
(B) The Occupancy Rate
(C) The Room Rate
(D) The Revenue per Available Room
Ans: (D)
85. Which is a Greenfield airport?
(A) Devenhalli Airport, Bengaluru
(B) Indira Gandhi Airport, Delhi
(C) Lok Nayak Jayprakash Airport, Patna
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Airport, Ahmedabad
Ans: (A)
86. In which year Air India and Indian Airlines merged as NACIL?
(A) 2006
(B) 2007
(C) 2008
(D) 2009
Ans: (B)
87. Which event is associated with Centenary year of Civil Aviation?
(A) Flight of Hery Piquet from Allahabad to Naini
(B) Maiden flight of JRD Tata from Karachi to Bombay.
(C) Direct flight from London to Bombay
(D) Flying show over Hooghly River in Calcutta
Ans: (A)
88. Calculate the flying time a flight leaves Ho Chi Minh City (+ 00700 Hrs) at 2005 Hrs and arrives Frankfurt (+0100 Hrs) at 0615 next day.
(A) 15.10 Hrs
(B) 16.10 Hrs
(C) 14.10 Hrs
(D) 17.10 Hrs
Ans: (B)
89. Free baggage allowance for economy class passengers in airlines is
(A) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 273 cms.
(B) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 158 cms.
(C) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 115 cms.
(D) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 315 cms.
Ans: (A)
90. Which statement is true?
(A) Immigration check is done for all passengers, Indian or foreigners at the time of arrival and departure.
(B) Immigration check is done for Indians at the time of departure.
(C) Immigration check is done for foreigners at the time of arrival.
(D) Immigration check is done randomly.
Ans: (A)
91. Assertion (A): Bermuda Agreement between UK and USA is the basis of bilateral agreements among nations in the field of civil aviation.
Reason (R): It was signed in 1945.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is true.
Ans: (C)
92. Arrange the following trains in the order in which they were started:
I. The Deccan Odyssey
II. Royal Rajasthan
III. Palace on Wheels
IV. The Nilgiri Express
Codes:
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) IV, III, II and I
(C) IV, III, I and II
(D) IV, II, III and I
Ans: (C)
93. Which of the following is the leading International healthcare accrediting agency?
(A) Trent International Accrediting Scheme
(B) Joint Commission International
(C) NABH – National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Health
(D) UKAF – United Kingdom Accreditation Forum
Ans: (B)
94. T GV is famous for
(A) Airlines
(B) Railway
(C) Cruise ship
(D) Resorts
Ans: (B)
95. Assertion (A): In India both tour operators and travel agents assemble and sell tour packages.
Reason (R): Tour operators are wholesalers and travel agents are retailers.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) & (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (AB)
96. Which group of sequential itinerary is/are correct?
I. Orland → Dublin → Milan → Dubai
II. Tel Aviv → Islamabad → Kathmandu → Yangon
III. Boston → Madrid → Athens → Istanbul
IV. Athens → Karachi → Dhaka → Bangkok
Codes:
(A) I, III & IV are correct.
(B) II, III & IV are correct.
(C) I & II are correct.
(D) All are correct.
Ans: (D)
97. Wholesaler in the parlance of Tourism Industry is
(A) Airline
(B) Tour operator
(C) Hotel
(D) Travel Agency
Ans: (B)
98. Leaving a destination in a better condition than you found it is known as
(A) Enhansive sustainability
(B) Sustainable tourism
(C) Eco-tourism
(D) Clean-up tourism
Ans: (A)
99. What is cognitive dissonance?
(A) It is a tendency of the buyer to purchase the cheapest brand available in the market.
(B) It is the pre-purchase research activity carried out by a prospective customer.
(C) Discomfort caused by post purchase conflict.
(D) It is the set of the bargaining tools that a buyer uses to get the best deal from the seller.
Ans: (C)
100. The online selling of goods and services to final consumers is known as
(A) B2B online marketing
(B) B2C online marketing
(C) C2B online marketing
(D) C2C online marketing
Ans: (B)
(A) Cultural barriers
(B) Socio-political barriers
(C) Environmental barriers
(D) Technological barriers
Ans: (B)
52. Which of the segmentation method is based on behavioural correlate?
(A) Demographical Segmentation
(B) Psychographical segmentation
(C) Benefit sought segmentation
(D) Usage segmentation
Ans: (D)
53. Incredible India campaign is an advertising campaign where the copy of the theme is based on
(A) Testimonial evidence
(B) Rationality of offer
(C) Social campaign
(D) Anti-fear campaign
Ans: (A)
54. Marketing information system consists of
I. Analytical Marketing System
II. Internal-record System
III. Marketing Research System
IV. Marketing Intelligence System
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I, II and IV
(D) II and IV
Ans: (D)
55. ‘Make my trip.com’ is an example of
(A) Infomediary
(B) Intermediary
(C) Direct marketing company
(D) Aggregator
Ans: (D)
56. In tourism marketing “Destination facilities” consider to be an element of
(A) Core benefit
(B) Generic product
(C) Expected product
(D) Augmented product
Ans: (B)
57. Assertion (A): Tourism Distribution Channels have profound effects on the competitiveness andprofitability of tourismorganisations.
Reason (R): Distribution is becoming the most critical factors for the competitiveness of tourism organisations.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: (B)
58. A manager that creates an organisation’s goals, overall strategy and operating policies would be performing what level of management
(A) Top level
(B) Middle level
(C) First level
(D) Low level
Ans: (A)
59. Which one of the following is not one of the four categories of resources used by an organisation?
(A) Information resources
(B) Human resources
(C) Physical resources
(D) Intellectual resources
Ans: (D)
60. Which one of the following is not one of the three interpersonal roles inherent in a Manager’s Job?
(A) Figure head
(B) Spokesperson
(C) Liason
(D) Leader
Ans: (B)
61. The implementation of the principles of sustainable tourism stipulated by the UNWTO are the responsibilities of
(A) The Central Government
(B) The District Administration
(C) The State Government
(D) The Non-governmental Organisation
Ans: (B)
62. The Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Shrine is one of the well-known “Shakti” Sites in Jammu Kashmir and is managed
(A) Jointly by State and Central Government
(B) By State Government and the Shrine Board
(C) By Autonomous Board
(D) By District Administration
Ans: (C)
63. The gap in the national tourism policy can be minimized if
I. Evaluation of short comings of past policies is carried out
II. Feasibility study with focus on positive and negative impacts of policy implementations.
III. Centralized and controlled approaches are eliminated.
IV. Views of Political Leaders are considered for implementation
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I and III are correct
Ans: (A)
64. Indicate which of the following item(s) are liabilities:
I. Interest owned by a hotel on loan.
II. Interest owed to the hotel forlate payments.
III. Account receivable
IV. A building owned by the hotel.
(A) I
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and IV
Ans: (C)
65. Which of the following is not a section of an operating statement?
(A) Revenue
(B) Expenses
(C) Profit
(D) Net worth
Ans: (D)
66. Total liabilities are subtracted from total assets to compute the net worth of the hotel, also called as
(A) Equity
(B) Revenue
(C) Profit
(D) Loss
Ans: (A)
67. A measurement of the amount of the money that a business has on hand at any point of time
(A) Cash Flow
(B) Long-term debt
(C) Fixed Asset
(D) Funds Flow
Ans: (A)
68. To accurately monitor the hotel’s financial performance the statement normally prepared at the end of the year is known as
(A) Operating Statement
(B) Financial Statement
(C) Cash Flow Statement
(D) Funds Flow Statement
Ans: (B)
69. Which of the following is not a control technique?
(A) Zero based budgeting
(B) Breakeven analysis
(C) PERT
(D) JIT
Ans: (D)
70. Grapevine in an organisation is likely to develop in
(A) A formal group
(B) The top brass
(C) an informal group
(D) The external environment
Ans: (C)
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. Answer the questions from (71-75).
The Buddha is considered as a divine being and as a consequence of this, everything connected with him is considered to be sacred. The places connected with the life and legend of Buddha acquired unqualified glory and sanctity. Eight places have been identified as the ‘Eight great spots’.
The first four places are related to the important historical events in Buddha’s life and the remaining four are the places where it is believed that Buddha had performed miracles. These eight places have become sacred places of Buddhist pilgrimage.
71. This consists of two lists of places and events. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List-I List-II
(Places) (Events)
(i) Lumbini (1) Where Buddha attained enlightenment
(ii) Gaya (2) Where Buddha was born
(iii) Sarnath (3) Where Buddha attained Nirvana
(iv) Kusinagar (4) Where Buddha delivered his first sermon
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (2) (1) (3) (4)
(B) (2) (3) (4) (1)
(C) (2) (1) (4) (3)
(D) (2) (4) (1) (3)
Ans: (C)
72. Which one of the following is a World Heritage Site?
(A) Sarnath
(B) Bodhgaya
(C) Sravasti
(D) Vaishali
Ans: (B)
73. Assertion (A): The National Emblem of India is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka the Emperor.
Reason (R): The Emblem was adopted on 15th August 1947.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but(R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: (C)
74. Identify the four places where Buddha had performed miracles
(A) Sravasti, Rajgir, Sankasya, Vaishali
(B) Sarnath, Sankasya, Vaishali, Sanchi
(C) Kusinagar, Rajgir, Vaishali, Gaya
(D) Sravasti, Kusinagar, Rajgir, Sanchi
Ans: (A)
75. This consists of two lists, the first being the forms of four Noble Truths given by Buddha. The second explains the core meaning. The candidate has to match an item in one list with one item in the other.
List-I List-II
(Noble Truth) (Core meaning)
(i) First (1) Cessation of sorrow of pain
(ii) Second (2) Every sorrow has a cause
(iii) Third (3) Existence of Suffering
(iv) Fourth (4) Removal of sorrow in all its forms
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (3) (1) (2) (4)
(B) (3) (4) (2) (1)
(C) (3) (2) (1) (4)
(D) (3) (4) (1) (2)
Ans: (C)
76. A documents issued by the Mughal Government to the foreign travellers for their free movement was known as
(A) Dastak
(B) Cartez
(C) Dastur-ul-amal
(D) Ain-i Sarkar
Ans: (A)
77. It is a body of water formed where fresh water from rivers and streams flows into the ocean, mixing with the seawater without making a delta
(A) Strait
(B) Estuary
(C) Prairie
(D) Atoll
Ans: (B)
78. Identify the oldest hospitality chain in India:
(A) The Oberoi Group of Hotels
(B) The Leela Palaces, Hotels and Resorts
(C) The ITC Welcome Group Hotels
(D) The Taj Hotels, Resorts and Palaces
Ans: (D)
79. KOT and BOT are
(A) food and alcoholic drinks order ticket
(B) Complimentary ticket for food and alcoholic drinks
(C) Managers entitlement ticket to dine in restaurant
(D) Food and alcoholic drink stock record
Ans: (A)
80. P-V Ratio Profit-Volume ratio is expressed in percentages and is calculated using the formula
(A) Contribution/Sales × 100
(B) Sales/Contribution × 100
(C) (Fixed cost – Variable cost)/ Sales × 100
(D) (Total cost – Fixed)/ cost Sales × 100
Ans: (A)
81. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Designer hotels based on a theme which provide luxurious personalized services and facilities to their clientele – Boutique Hotels
(B) These hotels are situated in large cities mostly have European plan i.e. only room and no meals – Transit Hotels
(C) These hotels are mainly located on the surface of the water. The facilities and services of these hotels are similar to those of a regular hotel – Residential / Apartment Hotels
(D) These hotels cater specially to the transient passengers and airline crew who are waiting for a connecting flight – Capsule Hotels
Ans: (A)
82. Which one of following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) It is a very attractive manmade resort – Disneyland
(B) It is an Indian concept where ancient Indian Maharajas converted their palaces into hotels after they were stripped of their princely privileges – Palace Hotels
(C) In this type of hotels, each room or suite is owned by several people who will schedule their visit well in advance with management office to ensure that the room or suite is available – Time share Hotels
(D) It is a type of hotel where guests are fed traditional Indian food of royalty and served by liveried waiting staff – Palace on Wheels
Ans: (D)
83. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?
(A) In this type of pricing plan, charges include room rent and all meals – Continental Plan
(B) Setting a standard with a comparable competitor is – Branding
(C) A strategy of maximizing revenue – Yield Management
(D) A room with a sofa cum bed ideally situated beside swimming pools or beaches
Ans: (C)
84. ‘Revpar’ is a term used in the hotel industry to establish
(A) The Rack Rate
(B) The Occupancy Rate
(C) The Room Rate
(D) The Revenue per Available Room
Ans: (D)
85. Which is a Greenfield airport?
(A) Devenhalli Airport, Bengaluru
(B) Indira Gandhi Airport, Delhi
(C) Lok Nayak Jayprakash Airport, Patna
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Airport, Ahmedabad
Ans: (A)
86. In which year Air India and Indian Airlines merged as NACIL?
(A) 2006
(B) 2007
(C) 2008
(D) 2009
Ans: (B)
87. Which event is associated with Centenary year of Civil Aviation?
(A) Flight of Hery Piquet from Allahabad to Naini
(B) Maiden flight of JRD Tata from Karachi to Bombay.
(C) Direct flight from London to Bombay
(D) Flying show over Hooghly River in Calcutta
Ans: (A)
88. Calculate the flying time a flight leaves Ho Chi Minh City (+ 00700 Hrs) at 2005 Hrs and arrives Frankfurt (+0100 Hrs) at 0615 next day.
(A) 15.10 Hrs
(B) 16.10 Hrs
(C) 14.10 Hrs
(D) 17.10 Hrs
Ans: (B)
89. Free baggage allowance for economy class passengers in airlines is
(A) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 273 cms.
(B) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 158 cms.
(C) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 115 cms.
(D) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 315 cms.
Ans: (A)
90. Which statement is true?
(A) Immigration check is done for all passengers, Indian or foreigners at the time of arrival and departure.
(B) Immigration check is done for Indians at the time of departure.
(C) Immigration check is done for foreigners at the time of arrival.
(D) Immigration check is done randomly.
Ans: (A)
91. Assertion (A): Bermuda Agreement between UK and USA is the basis of bilateral agreements among nations in the field of civil aviation.
Reason (R): It was signed in 1945.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is true.
Ans: (C)
92. Arrange the following trains in the order in which they were started:
I. The Deccan Odyssey
II. Royal Rajasthan
III. Palace on Wheels
IV. The Nilgiri Express
Codes:
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) IV, III, II and I
(C) IV, III, I and II
(D) IV, II, III and I
Ans: (C)
93. Which of the following is the leading International healthcare accrediting agency?
(A) Trent International Accrediting Scheme
(B) Joint Commission International
(C) NABH – National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Health
(D) UKAF – United Kingdom Accreditation Forum
Ans: (B)
94. T GV is famous for
(A) Airlines
(B) Railway
(C) Cruise ship
(D) Resorts
Ans: (B)
95. Assertion (A): In India both tour operators and travel agents assemble and sell tour packages.
Reason (R): Tour operators are wholesalers and travel agents are retailers.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) & (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (AB)
96. Which group of sequential itinerary is/are correct?
I. Orland → Dublin → Milan → Dubai
II. Tel Aviv → Islamabad → Kathmandu → Yangon
III. Boston → Madrid → Athens → Istanbul
IV. Athens → Karachi → Dhaka → Bangkok
Codes:
(A) I, III & IV are correct.
(B) II, III & IV are correct.
(C) I & II are correct.
(D) All are correct.
Ans: (D)
97. Wholesaler in the parlance of Tourism Industry is
(A) Airline
(B) Tour operator
(C) Hotel
(D) Travel Agency
Ans: (B)
98. Leaving a destination in a better condition than you found it is known as
(A) Enhansive sustainability
(B) Sustainable tourism
(C) Eco-tourism
(D) Clean-up tourism
Ans: (A)
99. What is cognitive dissonance?
(A) It is a tendency of the buyer to purchase the cheapest brand available in the market.
(B) It is the pre-purchase research activity carried out by a prospective customer.
(C) Discomfort caused by post purchase conflict.
(D) It is the set of the bargaining tools that a buyer uses to get the best deal from the seller.
Ans: (C)
100. The online selling of goods and services to final consumers is known as
(A) B2B online marketing
(B) B2C online marketing
(C) C2B online marketing
(D) C2C online marketing
Ans: (B)