STATISTICS-PAGE 4
STATISTICS MCQ- PAGE 4
1. Which of the following is best to show the percentage of the production of different crops in Rajasthan during 2016-2017
A) Histogram B) Ogive curve
C) Stem and leaf chart D) Pie chart
Ans: D
2. The mean of 20 observations is 25. What will be the mean of new set of observation, if 3 is added to each observation.
A) 26 B) 28
C) 30 D) 32
Ans: B
3. The coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.6, their covariance is 4.8. The variance of X is 9. Then the standard deviation of Y is -
A) 4.8/3*0.6
B) 0.6/4.8*3
C) 4.8*0.6/3
D) 4.8/9*0.6
Ans: A
4. What is the meaning of multicollinerity ?
(A) A state of very high correlation among dependent variable.
(B) A state of very high inter correlations among independent variable.
(C) A close association between dependent and independent variable.
(D) A significant difference between dependent and independent variable.
Ans: B
5. Principle component analysis explaining the total variance is used for
(A) Factor analysis (B) Conjoint analysis
(C) Clusture analysis (D) Discriminant analysis
Ans: A
6. What is secondary data ?
(A) Data originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the research problem.
(B) Data collected for some purpose other than the problem at hand.
(C) Data collected for dealing with specific problem.
(D) Data compiled for certain purposes.
Ans: B
7. This consists of two lists of explanation of variables and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
a. Independent variable 1. Variables linking a causeand-effect relationship.
b. Dependent variable 2. Unmeasured variables affecting the cause-and-effect relationship.
c. Extraneous variable 3. Change variables.
d. Intervening variable 4. Outcome/effect variables.
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans: C
8. Regression analysis is used for one of the following :
(A) To analyze associative relationship between a metric dependent variable and one or more dependent variable.
(B) To establish relationship between two and more independent variables.
(C) To find the direct relationship between two variables of a dependent variable.
(D) To study the relationship of one predictor variable.
Ans: A
9. This consists of type of researches and its characteristics. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
a. Explorative 1. Determining, evaluating and selecting best course of actions in a given situation.
b. Conclusive 2. Obtaining evidence regarding causeand-effect relationship.
c. Casual 3. Classification of characteristics of relevant groups.
d. Descriptive 4. Provision of insights into and understanding of the problem.
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans: B
10. Which one of the following primarily makes differentiation between a “concept” and a “variable” in Social Science Research ?
(A) Predictability (B) Objectivity (C) Measurability (D) Variability
Ans: C
11. The statement of hypothesis is framed in the form of one of the following :
(A) Interrogative
(B) Declarative
(C) Assertive
(D) Conclusive
Ans: B
12. Standard deviation is
(A) The square root of the variance
(B) The square root of the median
(C) The square root of mode
(D) The square root of dispersion
Ans: A
13. Which one of the following is scheduled method ?
(A) Self administered
(B) Online survey
(C) Mail Survey
(D) Administered by enumerator
Ans: D
A) Histogram B) Ogive curve
C) Stem and leaf chart D) Pie chart
Ans: D
2. The mean of 20 observations is 25. What will be the mean of new set of observation, if 3 is added to each observation.
A) 26 B) 28
C) 30 D) 32
Ans: B
3. The coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.6, their covariance is 4.8. The variance of X is 9. Then the standard deviation of Y is -
A) 4.8/3*0.6
B) 0.6/4.8*3
C) 4.8*0.6/3
D) 4.8/9*0.6
Ans: A
4. What is the meaning of multicollinerity ?
(A) A state of very high correlation among dependent variable.
(B) A state of very high inter correlations among independent variable.
(C) A close association between dependent and independent variable.
(D) A significant difference between dependent and independent variable.
Ans: B
5. Principle component analysis explaining the total variance is used for
(A) Factor analysis (B) Conjoint analysis
(C) Clusture analysis (D) Discriminant analysis
Ans: A
6. What is secondary data ?
(A) Data originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the research problem.
(B) Data collected for some purpose other than the problem at hand.
(C) Data collected for dealing with specific problem.
(D) Data compiled for certain purposes.
Ans: B
7. This consists of two lists of explanation of variables and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
a. Independent variable 1. Variables linking a causeand-effect relationship.
b. Dependent variable 2. Unmeasured variables affecting the cause-and-effect relationship.
c. Extraneous variable 3. Change variables.
d. Intervening variable 4. Outcome/effect variables.
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans: C
8. Regression analysis is used for one of the following :
(A) To analyze associative relationship between a metric dependent variable and one or more dependent variable.
(B) To establish relationship between two and more independent variables.
(C) To find the direct relationship between two variables of a dependent variable.
(D) To study the relationship of one predictor variable.
Ans: A
9. This consists of type of researches and its characteristics. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
a. Explorative 1. Determining, evaluating and selecting best course of actions in a given situation.
b. Conclusive 2. Obtaining evidence regarding causeand-effect relationship.
c. Casual 3. Classification of characteristics of relevant groups.
d. Descriptive 4. Provision of insights into and understanding of the problem.
Codes : a b c d
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans: B
10. Which one of the following primarily makes differentiation between a “concept” and a “variable” in Social Science Research ?
(A) Predictability (B) Objectivity (C) Measurability (D) Variability
Ans: C
11. The statement of hypothesis is framed in the form of one of the following :
(A) Interrogative
(B) Declarative
(C) Assertive
(D) Conclusive
Ans: B
12. Standard deviation is
(A) The square root of the variance
(B) The square root of the median
(C) The square root of mode
(D) The square root of dispersion
Ans: A
13. Which one of the following is scheduled method ?
(A) Self administered
(B) Online survey
(C) Mail Survey
(D) Administered by enumerator
Ans: D
14. Which of the following two permissible statistical tools used when opinions are collected in nominal scale ?
(A) ANOVA & Regression (B) Chi-square & Binomial test (C) Friedman & Correlation (D) E-test & Z-test
Ans: B
15. Which is the correct meaning of nonparametric test ?
(A) It is a hypothesis testing procedures to measure variable on a nominal scale.
(B) It is a test of hypothesis to measure variables collected in an interval scale.
(C) It is a measurement of variables with the help of a ratio scale.
(D) It is a method of testing hypothesis with staple scale.
Ans: A
16. Mann-Whitnny independent sample test falls in the category of
(A) Parametric test (B) Symmetric test (C) Median test (D) Non-parametric test
Ans: D
17. Regression analysis is a statistical procedure for analyzing associate relationship between a
(A) Non-metric dependent variable and one independent variable
(B) Metric dependent variable and more independent variable
(C) Non-metric independent variable and one or more dependent variable
(D) Metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables
Ans: D
18. Snowball sampling is a
(A) Probability sampling technique to gather data in an informal way
(B) Non-probability sampling technique to gather data in a formal way
(C) Census method of collecting data with the help of key focused group
(D) Method of selecting respondents randomenly and subsequently with the help of reference
Ans: D
19. Factor analysis refers to
(A) A type of method of explaining data in a sequential order
(B) A type of tool of arranging the data in a descending order
(C) A class of procedures used for data reduction
(D) A class of procedures used for data clustering
Ans: C
20. The eigen value is calculated to find the
(A) The summarization of data explained by each factor
(B) The reduction of data explained by each factor
(C) The total variance explained by each factor
(D) The factor loadings of all the variables on all the factors extracted
Ans: C
(A) ANOVA & Regression (B) Chi-square & Binomial test (C) Friedman & Correlation (D) E-test & Z-test
Ans: B
15. Which is the correct meaning of nonparametric test ?
(A) It is a hypothesis testing procedures to measure variable on a nominal scale.
(B) It is a test of hypothesis to measure variables collected in an interval scale.
(C) It is a measurement of variables with the help of a ratio scale.
(D) It is a method of testing hypothesis with staple scale.
Ans: A
16. Mann-Whitnny independent sample test falls in the category of
(A) Parametric test (B) Symmetric test (C) Median test (D) Non-parametric test
Ans: D
17. Regression analysis is a statistical procedure for analyzing associate relationship between a
(A) Non-metric dependent variable and one independent variable
(B) Metric dependent variable and more independent variable
(C) Non-metric independent variable and one or more dependent variable
(D) Metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables
Ans: D
18. Snowball sampling is a
(A) Probability sampling technique to gather data in an informal way
(B) Non-probability sampling technique to gather data in a formal way
(C) Census method of collecting data with the help of key focused group
(D) Method of selecting respondents randomenly and subsequently with the help of reference
Ans: D
19. Factor analysis refers to
(A) A type of method of explaining data in a sequential order
(B) A type of tool of arranging the data in a descending order
(C) A class of procedures used for data reduction
(D) A class of procedures used for data clustering
Ans: C
20. The eigen value is calculated to find the
(A) The summarization of data explained by each factor
(B) The reduction of data explained by each factor
(C) The total variance explained by each factor
(D) The factor loadings of all the variables on all the factors extracted
Ans: C
21. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India ?
(A) Pie diagram
(B) Chorochromatic technique
(C) Isopleth technique
(D) Dot method
Ans: B
22. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification ?
(A) Qualitative
(B) Normative
(C) Spatial
(D) Quantitative
Ans: C
23. Which one of the following is not a source of data ?
(A) Administrative records
(B) Population census
(C) GIS
(D) Sample survey
Ans: A
Questions 24 to 26 are based on the following data :
Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The data, thus, obtained is as follows :
X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68
63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64
24. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 69
(B) 68
(C) 67
(D) 66
Ans: B
25. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 63
(B) 62
(C) 61
(D) 60
Ans: C
26. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 66
(B) 65
(C) 64
(D) 63
Ans: B
27. Standard deviation is a measure of
(A) Chance
(B) Deviation from mean valve
(C) Central tendency
(D) Deviation from median value
Ans: B
28. Following are true about mode
I. It is the most commonly observed value.
II. It is a measure of central tendency.
III. It is not affected by extreme values.
IV. It is often used for calculation of standard deviation.
(A) I, II and IV correct
(B) II and III correct
(C) I, III and IV correct
(D) I, II and III correct
Ans: D
29. Match the following
List – I List – II
(Type of Data) (Tests of significance)
(a) n = < 30 in each group two groups, qualitative (i) standard error of difference between two means
(b) n = < 30 in each group two groups, quantitative (ii) standard error of difference between two proportions
(c) n > 100 in each group two groups, qualitative (iii) ‘t’ test
(d) n > 100 each group two groups, Quantitative (iv) ‘X2’ test
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Ans: B
30. Type I error is
(A) Accepting a Null Hypothesis
(B) Accepting a Null Hypothesis when false
(C) Rejecting a Null Hypothesis
(D) Rejecting a Null Hypothesis when true
Ans: D
31. Assertion (A): Bar charts and Histograms are pictorial diagrams of frequency distribution.
Reason (R): The frequency in both bar charts and histograms is usually given on y axis.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
32. Assertion (A): In probability sampling each item has a known probability of being in the sample.
Reason (R): Snowball sampling is a probability sampling.
(B) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
33. Nested case – control study is a type of
(A) Retrospective study
(B) Prospective study
(C) Descriptive study
(D) Cross-sectional study
Ans: B
34. Which of the following are measures of dispersion?
I. Mean Deviation
II. Mode
III. Standard Deviation
IV. Inter-quartile range
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct
(B) I, III and IV are correct
(C) II, III and IV are correct
(D) I and III are correct
Ans: B
35. Which of the following are parametric test of significance?
I. Analysis of variance
II. χ2 test
III. ‘t’ test
IV. ‘Z’ test
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and IV are correct
(C) I and III are correct
(D) I, III and IV are correct
Ans: D
36. Which of the following are probability sampling methods?
I. Simple Random Sampling
II. Cluster Sampling
III. Stratified Sampling
IV. Quota Sampling
Codes:
(A) II and IV are correct
(B) I, II and III are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct
(D) II and III are correct
Ans: B
37. Which of the following are the asymmetrical frequency distributions?
I. Normal Distribution
II. Bimodal Distribution
III. ‘J’ shaped Distribution
IV. ‘V’ shaped Distribution
Codes:
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and IV are correct
(C) II, III and IV are correct
(D) I and II are correct
Ans: C
38. Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:
Assertion (A): Geometric mean is a commonly used measure in demography.
Reason (R): Population growth is exponential.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion (A): Geometric mean is a commonly used measure in demography.
Reason (R): Population growth is exponential.
Ans: A
39. Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:
Assertion (A): Geometric mean is a commonly used measure in demography.
Reason (R): Population growth is exponential.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion (A): A selection bias can be controlled at the time of analysis by stratification.
Reason (R): Berksonian bias is an example of selection bias.
Ans: D
40. List – I (Type of Graph) List – II (Indication of)
(a) Ogive curve i. Correlation
(b) Bar chart ii. Area diagram
(c) Histogram iii. Discrete data
(d) Scatter diagram iv. Cumulative frequency
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii ii i iii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: A
41. Statistical power of a study is related to
(A) α error
(B) β error
(C) systematic error
(D) γ error
Ans: B
42. In estimation of statistical probability, Z score is applicable to
(A) Normal distribution
(B) Skewed distribution
(C) Binomial distribution
(D) Poisson distribution
Ans: A
43. In right sided skewed distribution the median is
(A) Smaller than the mean
(B) Larger than the mean
(C) Equal to the mean
(D) At any position in relation to the mean
Ans: A
44. The following are examples of Qualitative Tables except:
(A) One way table
(B) Higher order table
(C) Frequency table
(D) Two way table
Ans: C
45. The best statement which describes a histogram is as follows:
(A) Bars may be divided into two or more parts.
(B) The bars are joined together.
(C) Bars have uniform colour or shade.
(D) Bars have different shades.
Ans: B
46. The best statement describing a frequency polygon is
(A) Shows scatter of data
(B) shows lowest and highest values
(C) Joining the dots gives a curve with many angles
(D) Explains trend over a period of time
Ans: C
47. The followings are measures of central tendency in statistics except:
(A) Mean
(B) Range
(C) Mode
(D) Median
Ans: B
48. The best statement describing a Quantile is
(A) least influenced by extremes of values.
(B) Made by plotting the cumulative frequencies against the end points of corresponding class intervals.
(C) Values of a variable in an ordered series.
(D) It can be used to identify the middle value.
Ans: C
49. The following are measures of Dispersion except:
(A) Range
(B) Mean Deviation
(C) Standard Deviation
(D) Median
Ans: D
50. Mean root squared deviation is
(A) Variance
(B) Mean deviation
(C) Standard deviation
(D) Co-efficient of variation
Ans: C
(A) Pie diagram
(B) Chorochromatic technique
(C) Isopleth technique
(D) Dot method
Ans: B
22. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification ?
(A) Qualitative
(B) Normative
(C) Spatial
(D) Quantitative
Ans: C
23. Which one of the following is not a source of data ?
(A) Administrative records
(B) Population census
(C) GIS
(D) Sample survey
Ans: A
Questions 24 to 26 are based on the following data :
Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The data, thus, obtained is as follows :
X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68
63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64
24. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 69
(B) 68
(C) 67
(D) 66
Ans: B
25. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 63
(B) 62
(C) 61
(D) 60
Ans: C
26. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 66
(B) 65
(C) 64
(D) 63
Ans: B
27. Standard deviation is a measure of
(A) Chance
(B) Deviation from mean valve
(C) Central tendency
(D) Deviation from median value
Ans: B
28. Following are true about mode
I. It is the most commonly observed value.
II. It is a measure of central tendency.
III. It is not affected by extreme values.
IV. It is often used for calculation of standard deviation.
(A) I, II and IV correct
(B) II and III correct
(C) I, III and IV correct
(D) I, II and III correct
Ans: D
29. Match the following
List – I List – II
(Type of Data) (Tests of significance)
(a) n = < 30 in each group two groups, qualitative (i) standard error of difference between two means
(b) n = < 30 in each group two groups, quantitative (ii) standard error of difference between two proportions
(c) n > 100 in each group two groups, qualitative (iii) ‘t’ test
(d) n > 100 each group two groups, Quantitative (iv) ‘X2’ test
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Ans: B
30. Type I error is
(A) Accepting a Null Hypothesis
(B) Accepting a Null Hypothesis when false
(C) Rejecting a Null Hypothesis
(D) Rejecting a Null Hypothesis when true
Ans: D
31. Assertion (A): Bar charts and Histograms are pictorial diagrams of frequency distribution.
Reason (R): The frequency in both bar charts and histograms is usually given on y axis.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
32. Assertion (A): In probability sampling each item has a known probability of being in the sample.
Reason (R): Snowball sampling is a probability sampling.
(B) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
33. Nested case – control study is a type of
(A) Retrospective study
(B) Prospective study
(C) Descriptive study
(D) Cross-sectional study
Ans: B
34. Which of the following are measures of dispersion?
I. Mean Deviation
II. Mode
III. Standard Deviation
IV. Inter-quartile range
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct
(B) I, III and IV are correct
(C) II, III and IV are correct
(D) I and III are correct
Ans: B
35. Which of the following are parametric test of significance?
I. Analysis of variance
II. χ2 test
III. ‘t’ test
IV. ‘Z’ test
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and IV are correct
(C) I and III are correct
(D) I, III and IV are correct
Ans: D
36. Which of the following are probability sampling methods?
I. Simple Random Sampling
II. Cluster Sampling
III. Stratified Sampling
IV. Quota Sampling
Codes:
(A) II and IV are correct
(B) I, II and III are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct
(D) II and III are correct
Ans: B
37. Which of the following are the asymmetrical frequency distributions?
I. Normal Distribution
II. Bimodal Distribution
III. ‘J’ shaped Distribution
IV. ‘V’ shaped Distribution
Codes:
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and IV are correct
(C) II, III and IV are correct
(D) I and II are correct
Ans: C
38. Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:
Assertion (A): Geometric mean is a commonly used measure in demography.
Reason (R): Population growth is exponential.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion (A): Geometric mean is a commonly used measure in demography.
Reason (R): Population growth is exponential.
Ans: A
39. Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:
Assertion (A): Geometric mean is a commonly used measure in demography.
Reason (R): Population growth is exponential.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion (A): A selection bias can be controlled at the time of analysis by stratification.
Reason (R): Berksonian bias is an example of selection bias.
Ans: D
40. List – I (Type of Graph) List – II (Indication of)
(a) Ogive curve i. Correlation
(b) Bar chart ii. Area diagram
(c) Histogram iii. Discrete data
(d) Scatter diagram iv. Cumulative frequency
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii ii i iii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: A
41. Statistical power of a study is related to
(A) α error
(B) β error
(C) systematic error
(D) γ error
Ans: B
42. In estimation of statistical probability, Z score is applicable to
(A) Normal distribution
(B) Skewed distribution
(C) Binomial distribution
(D) Poisson distribution
Ans: A
43. In right sided skewed distribution the median is
(A) Smaller than the mean
(B) Larger than the mean
(C) Equal to the mean
(D) At any position in relation to the mean
Ans: A
44. The following are examples of Qualitative Tables except:
(A) One way table
(B) Higher order table
(C) Frequency table
(D) Two way table
Ans: C
45. The best statement which describes a histogram is as follows:
(A) Bars may be divided into two or more parts.
(B) The bars are joined together.
(C) Bars have uniform colour or shade.
(D) Bars have different shades.
Ans: B
46. The best statement describing a frequency polygon is
(A) Shows scatter of data
(B) shows lowest and highest values
(C) Joining the dots gives a curve with many angles
(D) Explains trend over a period of time
Ans: C
47. The followings are measures of central tendency in statistics except:
(A) Mean
(B) Range
(C) Mode
(D) Median
Ans: B
48. The best statement describing a Quantile is
(A) least influenced by extremes of values.
(B) Made by plotting the cumulative frequencies against the end points of corresponding class intervals.
(C) Values of a variable in an ordered series.
(D) It can be used to identify the middle value.
Ans: C
49. The following are measures of Dispersion except:
(A) Range
(B) Mean Deviation
(C) Standard Deviation
(D) Median
Ans: D
50. Mean root squared deviation is
(A) Variance
(B) Mean deviation
(C) Standard deviation
(D) Co-efficient of variation
Ans: C
51. For calculation of positive predictive value the denominator is
(A) True positives + false negatives
(B) False positives + True negatives
(C) True positives + false positives
(D) True positives + True negatives
Ans: C
52. Which of the following study designs can be used to calculate the incidence directly?
(A) Cross sectional
(B) Case control
(C) Retrospective
(D) Prospective
Ans: D
53. All are characteristics of common source single exposure epidemic curve except
(A) Curve rises and falls rapidly
(B) Clustering of cases in narrow interval
(C) Secondary waves
(D) Single peak
Ans: C
54. Case control study measures all except
(A) Odds Ratio
(B) Relative Risk
(C) Exposure Rate
(D) Incident Rates
Ans: D
55. In Biostatistics all are the parameters excepts
(A) μ
(B) N
(C) σ
(D) n
Ans: D
56. List – I List - II
(Type of Study) (Feature)
(a) Case-Control Study (i) Odd’s Ratio
(b) Ecological Study (ii) Population Level
(c) Cohort Study (iii) Incidence
(d) Cross-sectional Study (iv) Prevalence
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: C
57. List – I List - II
(Type of data) (Test of Significance)
(a) Quantitative data sample size less than 30 (i) χ2 test
(b) Qualitative data sample size more than 30 (ii) Standard error of difference between two proportions
(c) Quantitative data sample size more than 30 (iii) ‘t’-test
(d) Qualitative data sample size less than 30 (iv) Standard error of difference between two means
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
58. The scatter diagrammes represent
(A) Constants
(B) Characteristics
(C) Regressions
(D) Correlations
Ans: A
59. Random allocation of subjects to study and control groups is undertaken in
(A) Cross sectional study
(B) Case control study
(C) Cohort study
(D) Clinical trial
Ans: D
60. Which of the following methods are accepted methods of randomisation?
I. Lottery method
II. Table of Random Numbers
III. Computer program for randomisation
IV. Odd-even day randomisation
(A) I, II & III are correct.
(B) II, III & IV are correct.
(C) III & IV are correct.
(D) II & IV are correct.
Ans: A
61. “Yates correction” is applied to
(A) Standard error of mean
(B) Standard error of proportion
(C) Paired ‘t’ test
(D) Chi square test
Ans: D
62. Following are the asymmetrical frequency distributions:
I. Skewed distribution
II. Normal distribution
III. Bimodal distribution
IV. ‘J’ shaped distribution
(A) I, II, III are correct.
(B) I, III, IV are correct.
(C) II, III, IV are correct.
(D) I, II, IV are correct.
Ans: B
63. Diagram in which area of the rectangle is proportional to the frequency of the class intervals with unequal length
A) Bar diagram B) Frequency polygon C) Histogram D) Multi bar diagram
Ans: C
64. Algebraic sum of the deviations of a set of values from their arithmetic mean is :
A) Positive
B) Zero
C) Negative
D) ±1
Ans: B
65. If the distribution is moderately assymetrical then 3(mean - median) is equal to
A) (mode - mean) B) median - mode C) 3 median - 2 mean D) mean - mode
Ans: D
66. While comparing two groups it is observed that coefficient of variation of one group is 2 along with mean as 4, while in other group coefficient of variation is 3 and mean is 8 . The ratio of two standard deviations is :
A) 2/3 B) 3/4 C) 1/2 D) 1/3
Ans: D
67. A given data has mean = 6.5 , median = 6.3 and mode = 5.4 . It represents :
A) leptokurtic distribution B) mesokurtic distribution C) negatively skewed distribution D) positively skewed distribution
Ans: D
68. Complete idea of a distribution is formed with :
A) measure of central tendency B) measure of disperson C) skewness and kurtosis D) All of these
Ans: D
69. Let correlation coefficient between X and Y is positive then the sign of both the regression coefficient is :
A) positive B) negative C) both positive and negative D) opposite
Ans: A
70. If the regression equation is a good fit then the multiple correlation coefficient R is -
A) zero B) near to 1 C) negative D) >1
Ans: B
71. Let two unbiased coins are tossed. Expected value of the number of heads is :
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1/2
Ans: A
72. In normal probability distribution all central moments of odd order are
A) 1 B) zero C) <1 D) none of these
Ans: B
73. In which distribution probability density function at all the points through out the range of X is same
A) Exponential B) Gamma C) Rectangular D) Beta
Ans: C
74. Which one is not true for the assumption of t-test?
A) sample size is small B) sample is drawn from a normal population
C) sample observations are independent D) population variance is known
Ans: D
75. Let statistic t follows student t-distribution with n degrees of freedom. If n=1 then this distribution reduced to
A) Gamma distribution B) Standard cauchy distribution C) Exponential distribution D) Beta distribution of type-II
Ans: B
76. Mode of F - distribution is always
A) greater than 1 B) zero C) less than 1 D) none of these
Ans: C
77. Which one of the following statement in not correct :
A) Principal component is the normalized linear combination with maximum variance.
B) Principal component turn out to be the characteristic vector of covariance matrix.
C) Principal component method is used in factor analysis.
D) The generalized variance of the vector of principal component is not the generalized variance of the original vector.
Ans: D
78. Which one is not true
A) Accept Ho when in fact it is false called, type -II error
B) Type -II error is not very serious
C) Correct decision of rejecting null hypothesis when it is false is known as power of test
D) We may reject Ho when it is false, is type-I error
Ans: D
79. Which one is not true:
A) The probability that the statistic will fall in the critical region is α
B) α is the probability of committing type- II error
C) α is the probability of committing type- I error
D) probability of committing type- I error is level of significance
Ans: B
80. If the direction of the difference is not known, the critical region will be in both ends of the sampling distribution, the test is known as
A) one tailed test B) two tailed test
C) both one tailed test and two tailed test
D) None of these
Ans: B
81. In a sign test r is the number of positive sign, then the distribution of r is
A) Poisson B) Binomial C) Negative Binomial D) Rectangular
Ans: B
82. In a nonparametric median test the test criteria follows the distribution
A) Binomial B) Hypergoemetric C) Poisson D) none of these
Ans: B
83. For Kolmogorov-Smirnov two sample test, which one is not true
A) Observations are taken at least on ordinal scale
B) Two samples are independent
C) Empirical distribution is compared with population cumulative distribution function
D) Two empirical distribution of two samples are compared
Ans: C
84. In case of sign test for paired samples, the hypothesis is to test the
A) difference of means B) difference of median C) difference of two distribution functions D) none of these
Ans: B
85. The error mainly arising at the stage of ascertainment and processing of data is
A) sampling error B) non- sampling error
C) both sampling error and non- sampling error D) none of these
Ans: B
86. A sample of size 2 from a population of size 5 is drwan using simple random sampling, the probability of selecting one sample is
A) 2/5 B) 1/5 C) 1/10 D) none of these
Ans: C
87. When the procedure of selecting units in the stratra is specified then which of the following statement is NOT correct for the procedure of stratification?
A) Determining the number of stratra B) Allocation of sample size to the stratra
C) Determination of stratra such that the sampling variance is minimized for the given cost D) none of these
Ans: D
88. Experimental error is due to:
A) extraneous factors B) experimenter's mistake C) variation in treatments D) None of these
Ans: A
89. For which design two way local control holds true
A) CRD B) RBD C) LSD D) BIBD
Ans: C
90. The price of certain commodities for four years is computed. It is observed that quarterly average of first quarter is 360 and over all average of four quarters is 320. Seasonal index of first quarter is -
A) 112.5 B) 88.88 C) 0.88 D) 1.125
Ans: A
91. In cyclic variation, the objective is to
A) eliminate trend B) eliminate seasonal effect
C) eliminate trend and eliminate seasonal effect from time series data D) None of these
Ans: C
92. Paasche's index number possess :
A) no bias B) downward bias C) upward bias D) none of these
Ans: B
93. Fertility rates mainly depend upon :
A) total population B) total female population C) female population in the child bearing age D) none of these
Ans: C
94. Number of children born alive per 1000 women of child bearing age in a given year and region is
A) Total fertility rate B) Age specific fertility rate C) General fertility rate D) General martial fertility rate
Ans: C
95. Which of the following are the assumptions of Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR) are
(1) There is no mortality of newly born female children till they attain the highest reproductive age.
(2) There are no gains or loses due to migration.
(3) The current fertility rate is maintained till their highest child bearing age.
Which one is most appropriate for GRR ?
A) (1) and (2)
B) (1) and (3)
C) (2) and (3)
D) (1) , (2) and (3)
Ans: D
96. If total fertility rate is 1050 and the ratio of female birth to male is 100 : 110 then gross reproductive rate is :
A) 500 B) 2500 C) 550 D) 1155
Ans: A
97. In which year planning cell was set up in CSO ?
A) 1950 B) 1955 C) 1952 D) 1953
Ans: B
98. NSSO is an autonomous body since the year:
A) 1960 B) 1965 C) 1970 D) 1971
Ans: D
99. Functioning of CSO is:
(A) to co-ordinate the activities of statistical officer at the centre and state.
(B) to estimate the yearly income of the country.
A) (A)
B) (B)
C) both (A) and (B)
D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: C
100. Which one of the following method is not true for the calculation of National income ?
A) Survey Method B) Output or production method C) Income method D) Expenditure method
Ans: A
(A) True positives + false negatives
(B) False positives + True negatives
(C) True positives + false positives
(D) True positives + True negatives
Ans: C
52. Which of the following study designs can be used to calculate the incidence directly?
(A) Cross sectional
(B) Case control
(C) Retrospective
(D) Prospective
Ans: D
53. All are characteristics of common source single exposure epidemic curve except
(A) Curve rises and falls rapidly
(B) Clustering of cases in narrow interval
(C) Secondary waves
(D) Single peak
Ans: C
54. Case control study measures all except
(A) Odds Ratio
(B) Relative Risk
(C) Exposure Rate
(D) Incident Rates
Ans: D
55. In Biostatistics all are the parameters excepts
(A) μ
(B) N
(C) σ
(D) n
Ans: D
56. List – I List - II
(Type of Study) (Feature)
(a) Case-Control Study (i) Odd’s Ratio
(b) Ecological Study (ii) Population Level
(c) Cohort Study (iii) Incidence
(d) Cross-sectional Study (iv) Prevalence
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: C
57. List – I List - II
(Type of data) (Test of Significance)
(a) Quantitative data sample size less than 30 (i) χ2 test
(b) Qualitative data sample size more than 30 (ii) Standard error of difference between two proportions
(c) Quantitative data sample size more than 30 (iii) ‘t’-test
(d) Qualitative data sample size less than 30 (iv) Standard error of difference between two means
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
58. The scatter diagrammes represent
(A) Constants
(B) Characteristics
(C) Regressions
(D) Correlations
Ans: A
59. Random allocation of subjects to study and control groups is undertaken in
(A) Cross sectional study
(B) Case control study
(C) Cohort study
(D) Clinical trial
Ans: D
60. Which of the following methods are accepted methods of randomisation?
I. Lottery method
II. Table of Random Numbers
III. Computer program for randomisation
IV. Odd-even day randomisation
(A) I, II & III are correct.
(B) II, III & IV are correct.
(C) III & IV are correct.
(D) II & IV are correct.
Ans: A
61. “Yates correction” is applied to
(A) Standard error of mean
(B) Standard error of proportion
(C) Paired ‘t’ test
(D) Chi square test
Ans: D
62. Following are the asymmetrical frequency distributions:
I. Skewed distribution
II. Normal distribution
III. Bimodal distribution
IV. ‘J’ shaped distribution
(A) I, II, III are correct.
(B) I, III, IV are correct.
(C) II, III, IV are correct.
(D) I, II, IV are correct.
Ans: B
63. Diagram in which area of the rectangle is proportional to the frequency of the class intervals with unequal length
A) Bar diagram B) Frequency polygon C) Histogram D) Multi bar diagram
Ans: C
64. Algebraic sum of the deviations of a set of values from their arithmetic mean is :
A) Positive
B) Zero
C) Negative
D) ±1
Ans: B
65. If the distribution is moderately assymetrical then 3(mean - median) is equal to
A) (mode - mean) B) median - mode C) 3 median - 2 mean D) mean - mode
Ans: D
66. While comparing two groups it is observed that coefficient of variation of one group is 2 along with mean as 4, while in other group coefficient of variation is 3 and mean is 8 . The ratio of two standard deviations is :
A) 2/3 B) 3/4 C) 1/2 D) 1/3
Ans: D
67. A given data has mean = 6.5 , median = 6.3 and mode = 5.4 . It represents :
A) leptokurtic distribution B) mesokurtic distribution C) negatively skewed distribution D) positively skewed distribution
Ans: D
68. Complete idea of a distribution is formed with :
A) measure of central tendency B) measure of disperson C) skewness and kurtosis D) All of these
Ans: D
69. Let correlation coefficient between X and Y is positive then the sign of both the regression coefficient is :
A) positive B) negative C) both positive and negative D) opposite
Ans: A
70. If the regression equation is a good fit then the multiple correlation coefficient R is -
A) zero B) near to 1 C) negative D) >1
Ans: B
71. Let two unbiased coins are tossed. Expected value of the number of heads is :
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1/2
Ans: A
72. In normal probability distribution all central moments of odd order are
A) 1 B) zero C) <1 D) none of these
Ans: B
73. In which distribution probability density function at all the points through out the range of X is same
A) Exponential B) Gamma C) Rectangular D) Beta
Ans: C
74. Which one is not true for the assumption of t-test?
A) sample size is small B) sample is drawn from a normal population
C) sample observations are independent D) population variance is known
Ans: D
75. Let statistic t follows student t-distribution with n degrees of freedom. If n=1 then this distribution reduced to
A) Gamma distribution B) Standard cauchy distribution C) Exponential distribution D) Beta distribution of type-II
Ans: B
76. Mode of F - distribution is always
A) greater than 1 B) zero C) less than 1 D) none of these
Ans: C
77. Which one of the following statement in not correct :
A) Principal component is the normalized linear combination with maximum variance.
B) Principal component turn out to be the characteristic vector of covariance matrix.
C) Principal component method is used in factor analysis.
D) The generalized variance of the vector of principal component is not the generalized variance of the original vector.
Ans: D
78. Which one is not true
A) Accept Ho when in fact it is false called, type -II error
B) Type -II error is not very serious
C) Correct decision of rejecting null hypothesis when it is false is known as power of test
D) We may reject Ho when it is false, is type-I error
Ans: D
79. Which one is not true:
A) The probability that the statistic will fall in the critical region is α
B) α is the probability of committing type- II error
C) α is the probability of committing type- I error
D) probability of committing type- I error is level of significance
Ans: B
80. If the direction of the difference is not known, the critical region will be in both ends of the sampling distribution, the test is known as
A) one tailed test B) two tailed test
C) both one tailed test and two tailed test
D) None of these
Ans: B
81. In a sign test r is the number of positive sign, then the distribution of r is
A) Poisson B) Binomial C) Negative Binomial D) Rectangular
Ans: B
82. In a nonparametric median test the test criteria follows the distribution
A) Binomial B) Hypergoemetric C) Poisson D) none of these
Ans: B
83. For Kolmogorov-Smirnov two sample test, which one is not true
A) Observations are taken at least on ordinal scale
B) Two samples are independent
C) Empirical distribution is compared with population cumulative distribution function
D) Two empirical distribution of two samples are compared
Ans: C
84. In case of sign test for paired samples, the hypothesis is to test the
A) difference of means B) difference of median C) difference of two distribution functions D) none of these
Ans: B
85. The error mainly arising at the stage of ascertainment and processing of data is
A) sampling error B) non- sampling error
C) both sampling error and non- sampling error D) none of these
Ans: B
86. A sample of size 2 from a population of size 5 is drwan using simple random sampling, the probability of selecting one sample is
A) 2/5 B) 1/5 C) 1/10 D) none of these
Ans: C
87. When the procedure of selecting units in the stratra is specified then which of the following statement is NOT correct for the procedure of stratification?
A) Determining the number of stratra B) Allocation of sample size to the stratra
C) Determination of stratra such that the sampling variance is minimized for the given cost D) none of these
Ans: D
88. Experimental error is due to:
A) extraneous factors B) experimenter's mistake C) variation in treatments D) None of these
Ans: A
89. For which design two way local control holds true
A) CRD B) RBD C) LSD D) BIBD
Ans: C
90. The price of certain commodities for four years is computed. It is observed that quarterly average of first quarter is 360 and over all average of four quarters is 320. Seasonal index of first quarter is -
A) 112.5 B) 88.88 C) 0.88 D) 1.125
Ans: A
91. In cyclic variation, the objective is to
A) eliminate trend B) eliminate seasonal effect
C) eliminate trend and eliminate seasonal effect from time series data D) None of these
Ans: C
92. Paasche's index number possess :
A) no bias B) downward bias C) upward bias D) none of these
Ans: B
93. Fertility rates mainly depend upon :
A) total population B) total female population C) female population in the child bearing age D) none of these
Ans: C
94. Number of children born alive per 1000 women of child bearing age in a given year and region is
A) Total fertility rate B) Age specific fertility rate C) General fertility rate D) General martial fertility rate
Ans: C
95. Which of the following are the assumptions of Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR) are
(1) There is no mortality of newly born female children till they attain the highest reproductive age.
(2) There are no gains or loses due to migration.
(3) The current fertility rate is maintained till their highest child bearing age.
Which one is most appropriate for GRR ?
A) (1) and (2)
B) (1) and (3)
C) (2) and (3)
D) (1) , (2) and (3)
Ans: D
96. If total fertility rate is 1050 and the ratio of female birth to male is 100 : 110 then gross reproductive rate is :
A) 500 B) 2500 C) 550 D) 1155
Ans: A
97. In which year planning cell was set up in CSO ?
A) 1950 B) 1955 C) 1952 D) 1953
Ans: B
98. NSSO is an autonomous body since the year:
A) 1960 B) 1965 C) 1970 D) 1971
Ans: D
99. Functioning of CSO is:
(A) to co-ordinate the activities of statistical officer at the centre and state.
(B) to estimate the yearly income of the country.
A) (A)
B) (B)
C) both (A) and (B)
D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: C
100. Which one of the following method is not true for the calculation of National income ?
A) Survey Method B) Output or production method C) Income method D) Expenditure method
Ans: A