PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION- PAGE 4
UPSC Public Administration MCQs
1. The emergence of New Public Administration is associated with
(A) American Society of Public Administration
(B) Comparative Administration Group
(C) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(D) Minnow brook Conference
Ans: D
2. Factors responsible for the evolution of the study of Comparative Public Administration is/are
(A) Inadequacy of Traditional Approach
(B) Rise of New Techniques and concepts of Research
(C) Desire to develop Comparative Public Administration as an independent subject
(D) All the above
Ans: D
3. A.V. Dicey has given classical exposition of the Rule of Law in his book
(A) Introduction to the study of the Law of the Constitution
(B) Comparative study of the Constitution
(C) Justice and Administrative Law
(D) Public Administration: A Comparative Perspective
Ans: A
4. Who among the following used the expression ‘cow sociologists’ for Hawthorne researchers?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) United Auto Workers in the USA
(D) Comparative Administration Group
Ans: C
5. Which one of the following is not correct according to Weber’s Charismatic Authority?
(A) It is based on the exceptional qualities of the leader.
(B) Administration under this authority is stable.
(C) There is no hierarchical assignment of tasks under this authority.
(D) On the death of a leader under this authority, the question of succession arises.
Ans: B
6. A prismatic society is characterised by
(A) A high degree of homogeneity
(B) A high degree of heterogeneity
(C) A high degree of flexibility
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
7. Which one of the following reasons is not attributed to the emergence of Development Administration?
(A) Abundance of research funding with the CAG
(B) Financial and technical assistance under the USAID programme
(C) Abundance of knowledge and managerial skills in developing countries
(D) Desire for administrative development in developing countries
Ans: C
8. The USA introduced the performance budgeting after the II World War on the recommendations of
(A) Grace Commission
(B) Hoover Commission
(C) Lee Commission
(D) Islington Commission
Ans: B
9. What is not true about the Constituent Assembly?
(A) It was based on the recommendations of Cabinet Mission.
(B) It was constituted by indirect elections.
(C) At least one seat was given to each Indian State.
(D) Seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities in proportion to their population.
Ans: C
10. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Cabinet – Head of the Secretary Union Cabinet
(B) Chief – Head of State Secretary Secretariat
(C) Secretary – Administrative Head of a Ministry
(D) Chief – Head of the Minister State Government
Ans: A
11. Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Inter-State Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) National Development Council
Ans: D
12. Which of the following is not correct about the Budget in India?
(A) The President of India has to put it before both the Houses every financial year.
(B) It is a statement of estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India.
(C) The Constitution refers to it as annual financial statement.
(D) The Indian Constitution clearly mentioned the word Budget.
Ans: D
13. Which one of the following machineries was created in Britain in 1967 to examine complaints of corruption?
(A) Whitley Council
(B) Ombudsman
(C) Parliamentary Commissioner
(D) Procurator-General
Ans: C
14. The President may remove the Chairman or member of the Public Service Commission without making a reference to the Supreme Court. Which is not true in this context?
(A) The Chairman or Member is adjudged as insolvent.
(B) The Chairman or Member engages in some paid employment outside while in office.
(C) The Chairman or Member is guilty of misbehaviour.
(D) The Chairman or Member is unfit to continue in Office due to infirmity of mind or body.
Ans: C
15. Civil Services preliminary examination (objective type) for the selection of candidates for the Civil Services (Main) was recommended by
(A) Hota Committee
(B) Kothari Committee
(C) Satish Chandra Committee
(D) Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee
Ans: B
16. Which one among the following is not the primary source of data collection?
(A) Interview
(B) Observation
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Historical books
Ans: D
17. Smt. Durgabai Deshmukh was the first Chairperson of
(A) Central Social Welfare Board
(B) National Commission for Backward Classes
(C) National Commission for Minorities
(D) National Commission for Women
Ans: A
18. Which of the following Committee was constituted on the recommendations of the Growmore Food Enquiry Committee?
(A) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(D) Rural-Urban Enquiry Committee
Ans: A
19. Article 243-B of Indian Constitution provides for
(A) Constitution of Panchayats
(B) Grama Sabha
(C) Election to the Panchayats
(D) Reservation of Seats in Panchayats
Ans: A
20. The Panchayats are described as “Little Republics” by
(A) Metcalfe
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Hob House
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: A
21. Assertion (A): The tasks of Public Institutions are decided by the Politicians and implemented by Administrators.
Reason (R): Public Institutions perform better when they are decentralized.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A): The Riggsian model of prismatic society is primarily an explanation of the ecology of Thailand.
Reason (R): Riggs’ two-dimensional approach means that the prismatic model would include any society that is differentiated but malintegrated.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
23. Assertion (A): The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the Prime Minister in consultation with the Speaker by warrant under his hand and seal.
Reason (R): The duties, powers and conditions of service of the CAG are laid down in the CAG’s Act, 1971.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
24. Assertion (A): For Simon, administrative man looks for a course of action that is best from those available to him.
Reason (R): For Simon, administrative man is motivated by satisfactory outcome.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
25. Assertion (A): To provide avenues of public employment to suitable educated Indians, a separate civil service called the statutory civil service was created in 1879.
Reason (R): All India Services maintain the integrity of the Nation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
26. Which of the following statements regarding Budget in India are correct?
(i) The Constitution of India calls Budget as Annual Financial Statement.
(ii) Budget is statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India.
(iii) The President of India shall lay it before the House of People.
(iv) The Department of Economic Affairs of Ministry of Finance prepares the Budget of Government of India.
Select correct statements by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
27. Which one of the following has not been associated with PMO?
(A) Bhuvnesh Chaturvedi
(B) Prithvi Raj Chauhan
(C) Brijesh Mishra
(D) N.R. Pillai
Ans: D
28. ‘The Parliament may by law provide for a Legislative Council in each state consisting of members elected by the local Governments’. This recommendation was made by
(A) B.N. Srikrishna Commission
(B) Venkatachelliah Commission
(C) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Justice Punchhi Commission
Ans: C
29. Put the following Chairman of Finance commissions in a sequential order:
(i) K.C. Pant
(ii) A.M. Khusro
(iii) N.K.P. Salve
(iv) C. Rangrajan
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Ans: A
30. The responsive public administration requires:
(i) Institutional safeguards of technical competence
(ii) Flatter organisation
(iii) High calibre of public personnel
(iv) General standard of efficiency
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
31. National Institute of Rural Development was established in 1958. Prior to 1958 it was known as
(A) Central Institute of Planning and Development
(B) Central institute of study and Research in Community Development
(C) Central Institute of Statistical Research
(D) Central Institute of Training and Development
Ans: B
32. Which of the following statements about the functions of NABARD is not correct?
(A) It prepares annual rural credit plans for all the districts in the country.
(B) It undertakes monitoring and evaluation of projects refinanced by it.
(C) It promotes research in the fields of rural banking, agriculture and rural development.
(D) It functions as a regulatory authority in relation to all public sector commercial banks.
Ans: D
33. Which of the following statements regarding All India Services are correct?
(i) New All India services may be created only if Council of States declares to do so by a majority resolution.
(ii) New All India Services may be created if it is necessary or expedient in the national interest.
(iii) All India Services may be created by a law passed by Parliament.
(iv) All India Judicial Service may also be created by Parliament by law.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Ans: B
34. Assertion (A): The social responsibility of the judiciary has now been expanded and the principle of locus standi given a liberal interpretation.
Reason (R): In a social awakened ambience, social action groups are encouraged to approach the courts and come up with public interest litigations for redressing injustice.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
35. “There shall be a District Council, constituted in every district, representing all rural and urban areas in the district and exercising powers and functions in accordance with the provisions of Article 243 G and 243 W of the Constitution.” Which of the following has recommended this?
(A) National Commission for the review of the working of the Constitution.
(B) Punchhi Commission
(C) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
Ans: C
36. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Commissions) (Chair Persons)
a. 13rd Finance Commission i. P.C. Hota
b. 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission ii. R.S. Sarkaria
c. Commission on Civil Service Reform iii. Vijay Kelkar
d. Commission on Centre-State Relations iv. VeerappaMoiley
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) ii iv i ii
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: A
37. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure for a part of any financial year is called
(A) Token Grant
(B) Supplementary Grant
(C) Vote on Account
(D) Vote of Credit
Ans: C
38. Which one of the following is not correct regarding the role of District officer as collector in the district?
(A) Distribution of taccavi loans and their recovery
(B) Assessment of losses to crops because of natural calamities
(C) Sales of excise shops
(D) Administration of Nazul land
Ans: C
39. The Post of the Deputy Collector (non-covenanted Post) was created in the district under the provision of the following Act:
(A) The Charter Act of 1843
(B) The Regulating Act of 1773
(C) The Charter Act of 1833
(D) Pitts India Act of 1784
Ans: C
40. Arrange the followings in chronological order according to their appointments:
(i) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(ii) Sarkaria Commission
(iii) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(iv) Thungan Committee
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Ans: D
41. According to the Constitution of India the Administrative tribunals cannot be established for
(A) Industrial and Labour disputes
(B) Elections to either House of Parliament
(C) Delimitation of Constituencies
(D) Ceiling on Urban property
Ans: C
42. ‘Interview is a process of social interaction’. Who said it?
(A) P.V. Young
(B) M.N. Basu
(C) Goode and Hatt
(D) V.M. Palmer
Ans: C
43. The various steps in Research process are given below. Place them in the ascending order of the stages.
(i) Sampling
(ii) Data analysis
(iii) Problem formulation
(iv) Report writing
Select the answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
Ans: B
44. Which one of the following does not refer to practical orientation of research?
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Oriented Research
(C) Practice Oriented Research
(D) All of the above refer to practical uses
Ans: A
45. “N.G.O. is a private enterprise for social progress.” This statement is made by
(A) Lord Bryce
(B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lord Beveridge
(D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Ans: C
46. Which is not the basis of Public Sector Reform?
(A) Inefficiency
(B) Unprofitability
(C) Lack of Competitiveness
(D) Significance of spillover effects
Ans: D
47. Which of the following are the impacts of global economic integration on sovereign states?
(i) Interdependency of Trade
(ii) Interdependency of development policies and programmes and their impact on economy, employment etc.
(iii) Impact of global governance dynamics on the local policies and reform.
(iv) Conductive environment for both the capital and the labour at the local level under the aegis of global economic integration.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: D
48. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) by replacing Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was introduced in the year?
(A) 1999
(B) 2000
(C) 2001
(D) 2009
Ans: A
49. Which of the following is/are the most common method of privatisation?
(i) Sale to outside owners
(ii) Restitution
(iii) Spontaneous Privatisation
(iv) Management-employees buyout
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only
Ans: C
50. Which of the following is not the function of Competition Commission of India?
(A) To consider and approve all the cases of mergers, acquisition beyond a certain value.
(B) To promote the culture of competition in Indian market.
(C) To conduct in-house market research and sectoral research
(D) To suggest reform in the organisation and functioning of RBI and other banks.
Ans: D
(A) American Society of Public Administration
(B) Comparative Administration Group
(C) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(D) Minnow brook Conference
Ans: D
2. Factors responsible for the evolution of the study of Comparative Public Administration is/are
(A) Inadequacy of Traditional Approach
(B) Rise of New Techniques and concepts of Research
(C) Desire to develop Comparative Public Administration as an independent subject
(D) All the above
Ans: D
3. A.V. Dicey has given classical exposition of the Rule of Law in his book
(A) Introduction to the study of the Law of the Constitution
(B) Comparative study of the Constitution
(C) Justice and Administrative Law
(D) Public Administration: A Comparative Perspective
Ans: A
4. Who among the following used the expression ‘cow sociologists’ for Hawthorne researchers?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) United Auto Workers in the USA
(D) Comparative Administration Group
Ans: C
5. Which one of the following is not correct according to Weber’s Charismatic Authority?
(A) It is based on the exceptional qualities of the leader.
(B) Administration under this authority is stable.
(C) There is no hierarchical assignment of tasks under this authority.
(D) On the death of a leader under this authority, the question of succession arises.
Ans: B
6. A prismatic society is characterised by
(A) A high degree of homogeneity
(B) A high degree of heterogeneity
(C) A high degree of flexibility
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
7. Which one of the following reasons is not attributed to the emergence of Development Administration?
(A) Abundance of research funding with the CAG
(B) Financial and technical assistance under the USAID programme
(C) Abundance of knowledge and managerial skills in developing countries
(D) Desire for administrative development in developing countries
Ans: C
8. The USA introduced the performance budgeting after the II World War on the recommendations of
(A) Grace Commission
(B) Hoover Commission
(C) Lee Commission
(D) Islington Commission
Ans: B
9. What is not true about the Constituent Assembly?
(A) It was based on the recommendations of Cabinet Mission.
(B) It was constituted by indirect elections.
(C) At least one seat was given to each Indian State.
(D) Seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities in proportion to their population.
Ans: C
10. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Cabinet – Head of the Secretary Union Cabinet
(B) Chief – Head of State Secretary Secretariat
(C) Secretary – Administrative Head of a Ministry
(D) Chief – Head of the Minister State Government
Ans: A
11. Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Inter-State Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) National Development Council
Ans: D
12. Which of the following is not correct about the Budget in India?
(A) The President of India has to put it before both the Houses every financial year.
(B) It is a statement of estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India.
(C) The Constitution refers to it as annual financial statement.
(D) The Indian Constitution clearly mentioned the word Budget.
Ans: D
13. Which one of the following machineries was created in Britain in 1967 to examine complaints of corruption?
(A) Whitley Council
(B) Ombudsman
(C) Parliamentary Commissioner
(D) Procurator-General
Ans: C
14. The President may remove the Chairman or member of the Public Service Commission without making a reference to the Supreme Court. Which is not true in this context?
(A) The Chairman or Member is adjudged as insolvent.
(B) The Chairman or Member engages in some paid employment outside while in office.
(C) The Chairman or Member is guilty of misbehaviour.
(D) The Chairman or Member is unfit to continue in Office due to infirmity of mind or body.
Ans: C
15. Civil Services preliminary examination (objective type) for the selection of candidates for the Civil Services (Main) was recommended by
(A) Hota Committee
(B) Kothari Committee
(C) Satish Chandra Committee
(D) Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee
Ans: B
16. Which one among the following is not the primary source of data collection?
(A) Interview
(B) Observation
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Historical books
Ans: D
17. Smt. Durgabai Deshmukh was the first Chairperson of
(A) Central Social Welfare Board
(B) National Commission for Backward Classes
(C) National Commission for Minorities
(D) National Commission for Women
Ans: A
18. Which of the following Committee was constituted on the recommendations of the Growmore Food Enquiry Committee?
(A) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(D) Rural-Urban Enquiry Committee
Ans: A
19. Article 243-B of Indian Constitution provides for
(A) Constitution of Panchayats
(B) Grama Sabha
(C) Election to the Panchayats
(D) Reservation of Seats in Panchayats
Ans: A
20. The Panchayats are described as “Little Republics” by
(A) Metcalfe
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Hob House
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: A
21. Assertion (A): The tasks of Public Institutions are decided by the Politicians and implemented by Administrators.
Reason (R): Public Institutions perform better when they are decentralized.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A): The Riggsian model of prismatic society is primarily an explanation of the ecology of Thailand.
Reason (R): Riggs’ two-dimensional approach means that the prismatic model would include any society that is differentiated but malintegrated.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
23. Assertion (A): The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the Prime Minister in consultation with the Speaker by warrant under his hand and seal.
Reason (R): The duties, powers and conditions of service of the CAG are laid down in the CAG’s Act, 1971.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
24. Assertion (A): For Simon, administrative man looks for a course of action that is best from those available to him.
Reason (R): For Simon, administrative man is motivated by satisfactory outcome.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
25. Assertion (A): To provide avenues of public employment to suitable educated Indians, a separate civil service called the statutory civil service was created in 1879.
Reason (R): All India Services maintain the integrity of the Nation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
26. Which of the following statements regarding Budget in India are correct?
(i) The Constitution of India calls Budget as Annual Financial Statement.
(ii) Budget is statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India.
(iii) The President of India shall lay it before the House of People.
(iv) The Department of Economic Affairs of Ministry of Finance prepares the Budget of Government of India.
Select correct statements by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
27. Which one of the following has not been associated with PMO?
(A) Bhuvnesh Chaturvedi
(B) Prithvi Raj Chauhan
(C) Brijesh Mishra
(D) N.R. Pillai
Ans: D
28. ‘The Parliament may by law provide for a Legislative Council in each state consisting of members elected by the local Governments’. This recommendation was made by
(A) B.N. Srikrishna Commission
(B) Venkatachelliah Commission
(C) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Justice Punchhi Commission
Ans: C
29. Put the following Chairman of Finance commissions in a sequential order:
(i) K.C. Pant
(ii) A.M. Khusro
(iii) N.K.P. Salve
(iv) C. Rangrajan
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Ans: A
30. The responsive public administration requires:
(i) Institutional safeguards of technical competence
(ii) Flatter organisation
(iii) High calibre of public personnel
(iv) General standard of efficiency
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
31. National Institute of Rural Development was established in 1958. Prior to 1958 it was known as
(A) Central Institute of Planning and Development
(B) Central institute of study and Research in Community Development
(C) Central Institute of Statistical Research
(D) Central Institute of Training and Development
Ans: B
32. Which of the following statements about the functions of NABARD is not correct?
(A) It prepares annual rural credit plans for all the districts in the country.
(B) It undertakes monitoring and evaluation of projects refinanced by it.
(C) It promotes research in the fields of rural banking, agriculture and rural development.
(D) It functions as a regulatory authority in relation to all public sector commercial banks.
Ans: D
33. Which of the following statements regarding All India Services are correct?
(i) New All India services may be created only if Council of States declares to do so by a majority resolution.
(ii) New All India Services may be created if it is necessary or expedient in the national interest.
(iii) All India Services may be created by a law passed by Parliament.
(iv) All India Judicial Service may also be created by Parliament by law.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Ans: B
34. Assertion (A): The social responsibility of the judiciary has now been expanded and the principle of locus standi given a liberal interpretation.
Reason (R): In a social awakened ambience, social action groups are encouraged to approach the courts and come up with public interest litigations for redressing injustice.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
35. “There shall be a District Council, constituted in every district, representing all rural and urban areas in the district and exercising powers and functions in accordance with the provisions of Article 243 G and 243 W of the Constitution.” Which of the following has recommended this?
(A) National Commission for the review of the working of the Constitution.
(B) Punchhi Commission
(C) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
Ans: C
36. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Commissions) (Chair Persons)
a. 13rd Finance Commission i. P.C. Hota
b. 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission ii. R.S. Sarkaria
c. Commission on Civil Service Reform iii. Vijay Kelkar
d. Commission on Centre-State Relations iv. VeerappaMoiley
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) ii iv i ii
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: A
37. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure for a part of any financial year is called
(A) Token Grant
(B) Supplementary Grant
(C) Vote on Account
(D) Vote of Credit
Ans: C
38. Which one of the following is not correct regarding the role of District officer as collector in the district?
(A) Distribution of taccavi loans and their recovery
(B) Assessment of losses to crops because of natural calamities
(C) Sales of excise shops
(D) Administration of Nazul land
Ans: C
39. The Post of the Deputy Collector (non-covenanted Post) was created in the district under the provision of the following Act:
(A) The Charter Act of 1843
(B) The Regulating Act of 1773
(C) The Charter Act of 1833
(D) Pitts India Act of 1784
Ans: C
40. Arrange the followings in chronological order according to their appointments:
(i) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(ii) Sarkaria Commission
(iii) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(iv) Thungan Committee
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Ans: D
41. According to the Constitution of India the Administrative tribunals cannot be established for
(A) Industrial and Labour disputes
(B) Elections to either House of Parliament
(C) Delimitation of Constituencies
(D) Ceiling on Urban property
Ans: C
42. ‘Interview is a process of social interaction’. Who said it?
(A) P.V. Young
(B) M.N. Basu
(C) Goode and Hatt
(D) V.M. Palmer
Ans: C
43. The various steps in Research process are given below. Place them in the ascending order of the stages.
(i) Sampling
(ii) Data analysis
(iii) Problem formulation
(iv) Report writing
Select the answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
Ans: B
44. Which one of the following does not refer to practical orientation of research?
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Oriented Research
(C) Practice Oriented Research
(D) All of the above refer to practical uses
Ans: A
45. “N.G.O. is a private enterprise for social progress.” This statement is made by
(A) Lord Bryce
(B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lord Beveridge
(D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Ans: C
46. Which is not the basis of Public Sector Reform?
(A) Inefficiency
(B) Unprofitability
(C) Lack of Competitiveness
(D) Significance of spillover effects
Ans: D
47. Which of the following are the impacts of global economic integration on sovereign states?
(i) Interdependency of Trade
(ii) Interdependency of development policies and programmes and their impact on economy, employment etc.
(iii) Impact of global governance dynamics on the local policies and reform.
(iv) Conductive environment for both the capital and the labour at the local level under the aegis of global economic integration.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: D
48. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) by replacing Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was introduced in the year?
(A) 1999
(B) 2000
(C) 2001
(D) 2009
Ans: A
49. Which of the following is/are the most common method of privatisation?
(i) Sale to outside owners
(ii) Restitution
(iii) Spontaneous Privatisation
(iv) Management-employees buyout
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only
Ans: C
50. Which of the following is not the function of Competition Commission of India?
(A) To consider and approve all the cases of mergers, acquisition beyond a certain value.
(B) To promote the culture of competition in Indian market.
(C) To conduct in-house market research and sectoral research
(D) To suggest reform in the organisation and functioning of RBI and other banks.
Ans: D
51. Which among following is concerned with the definition of Public Administration as socially embedded process of collective relationship, dialogue and action to promote human flourishing for all?
(A) New Public Administration
(B) Third Minnowbrook Conference
(C) New Public Management
(D) New Public Service Theory
Ans: B
52. The scope of Public Administration consists of the study of only three factors namely men, materials and methods. This view is expressed by
(A) P. McQueen
(B) Mooney and Reiley
(C) Louis P. Anderson
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
53. Which of the following is not a matter of difference between public and private administration?
(A) Public Welfare and Public Satisfaction
(B) Public Scrutiny of actions and decisions
(C) Consistency and impartiality in action
(D) POSDCORB activities
Ans: D
54. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Books) (Authors)
a. Public Administration in the Time of Turbulence i. Lord Hewart
b. Toward a new public administration: The Minnowbrook perspective ii. Frank J. Goodnow
c. New Despotism iii. Frank Marini
d. Politics and Administration iv. Dwight Waldo
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i iii ii iv
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: A
55. An informal organization is:
(i) Comparatively stable
(ii) Satisfies social needs of its members.
(iii) Helps members in achievingtheir goals.
(iv) Preserves the cultural values of its members.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Ans: D
56. Assertion (A): Red-tape has been defined as punctilious exactitude in the observance of regulation.
Reason (R): ‘Red tape’ is perhaps the best insurance the public has to receive equal treatment at the hand of government.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
57. Assertion (A): There is no ideal number of persons a supervisor can supervise.
Reason (R): Span of control varies on the basis of factors like function, time, space and delegation of authority.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
58. Woodrow Wilson was a:
(i) President of U.S.A.
(ii) Governor of New Jersey
(iii) Recipient of Nobel Prize
(iv) President of Princeton University
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
59. Which of the following factors influenced the emergence of the theory and practice of Human Relations?
(i) Class antagonisms
(ii) Reaction to Taylorism
(iii) Economic Depression
(iv) Backward material and cultural aspirations of workers.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
60. Assertion (A): Classical writers were concerned with improving the organizational structure as a means of increasing efficiency.
Reason (R): They laid emphasis on the importance of principles for the design of a logical structure of organization.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
61. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Writers) (Books)
a. James G. March and Herbert Simon i. The Principles of Organization
b. Chester Bernard ii. The Human Organization
c. James D. Mooney and Allan C. Reiley iii. Organisations
d. Rensis Likert iv. Organisation and Management
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii iv iii i
(D) iv ii i iii
Ans: B
62. Which one of the following is not an Independent Regulatory Commission in India?
(A) Telecom Regulatory Authority
(B) National Labour Relations Commission
(C) Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission
(D) Securities and Exchange Board
Ans: B
63. Which one among the following books of M.P. Follett was edited by Metcalf and Urwick after the death of M.P. Follett?
(A) Creative Experience
(B) New State
(C) Dynamic Administration
(D) The Speaker of the House of Representative
Ans: C
64. Frederick Herzberg has identified certain determinants of job satisfaction in his two factors theory. Which of the following according to him are not job satisfiers?
(i) Salary
(ii) Achievement
(iii) Working conditions
(iv) Recognition
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (ii) & (iv)
(D) (iii) & (iv)
Ans: C
65. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Concept) (Thinkers)
a. Decision Tree i. Cohen, March and Olson
b. Linking Pin Model ii. Chris Argyris
c. Garbage Can Model iii. Duncan
d. Sensitivity Training iv. Rensis Likert
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i iv ii iii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
66. Rensis Likert has suggested which of the following model for removal of hurdles in traditional hierarchies?
(A) Management System I
(B) The Linking Pin Model
(C) Application of System 4
(D) Science based management
Ans: B
67. Who among following has given the concept of ‘A New Comparative Public Administration’?
(A) Keith M. Henderson
(B) Ira Sharkansky
(C) Dwight Waldo
(D) Robert P. Biller
Ans: A
68. Who said these words about Comparative Public Administration extended meaning of comparison “is the generalized or global framework of thinking about problems”?
(A) John Montgomery
(B) Jack C. Plano
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) Talcott Parsons
Ans: C
69. Robert T. Golembiewski mentions three themes of comparative public administration as:
(i) Significance of focal concerns
(ii) Magnitude of resulting effort
(iii) Motivation for the approach
(iv) Stress on values
Select the correct answer by using code given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
70. Which among the following is not a feature of Industrial model as developed by Fred W. Riggs?
(A) Pre-dominance of ascriptive particularistic and diffuse patterns
(B) High degree of social mobility
(C) Prevalence of voluntary associations performing specific functions
(D) Well-developed occupational systems
Ans: A
71. The salient characteristics of bazaar canteen economy as described by Riggs is/are
(i) Price Indeterminacy
(ii) Agglomeration of values
(iii) Intrusive access to the elites
(iv) Pariah entrepreneurship
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
72. The merit system for recruitment based on competitive examination was introduced first in
(A) Great Britain
(B) United States America
(C) China
(D) India
Ans: C
73. Arrange in descending order the following institutions of Local Government of France:
(i) Canton
(ii) Department
(iii) Commune
(iv) Arrondissement
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
Ans: D
74. Which one of the following is top tier of local government in U.K.?
(A) Metropolitan District
(B) Metropolitan County
(C) Parish
(D) Shire
Ans: B
75. The Hatch Act, 1939 in U.S.A. dealt with
(A) Right to Strike
(B) Political activities of Civil Servants
(C) Right to Association
(D) Machinery for Negotiation
Ans: B
76. Ferrel Heady identifies major features of national bureaucracy in the developing society. These are
(i) The basic pattern of administration is Imitative.
(ii) Widespread discrepancy between Form and Reality.
(iii) Bureaucracy accepts directions from other legitimate branches of government.
(iv) The bureaucracies are deficient in skilled Manpower.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
77. “The bureaucratic structure and its orientation to a development role are not necessarily incompatible.” This statement in the Indian context was made by
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) J.N. Khosla
(C) K.M. Munshi
(D) V.A. PaiPanandikar
Ans: D
78. Which one of the following is not correct about the development administration?
(A) Suitable institutions to accomplish the developmental goals are to be established.
(B) It is essential to build up administrative capacity and capability.
(C) Coordination is a basic component of development administration.
(D) Communication is only a desirable component of the development administration.
Ans: D
79. Assertion (A): In parliamentary form of government the executive is responsible to legislature.
Reason (R): In the constitution of India the provision is made that the council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
80. Decision Making in development administration is
(i) Flexible
(ii) Centralised
(iii) Rigid
(iv) Innovative
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i) & (iv)
Ans: D
81. The President of India makes some appointments by warrant under his hand and seal. These are
(i) Judges of Supreme Court
(ii) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(iii) Attorney-General of India
(iv) Governors of the states
Select correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
82. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Reports) (Year)
a. Montague- Chemsford Report on constitutional reforms in India i. 1955
b. State Reorganization Commission ii. 1918
c. Taxation Enquiry Commission iii. 1954
d. Statutory (Simon) Commission iv. 1927
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) ii i iii iv
Ans: D
83. “Of all the policy making organs in the Government of India, the secretariat stands on an exceptionally high pedestal.” This statement is attributed to
(A) K. Subramanyam
(B) Chand Joshi
(C) S.C. Vajpeyi
(D) S.R. Maheshwari
Ans: D
84. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Parliament’s power to make laws) (Articles)
a. For implementing any international treaty or agreement i. Article 250
b. In the matters enumerated in the State list during Emergency ii. Article 246
c. For imposing a tax not mentioned in concurrent list or state list iii. Article 253
d. The matters enumerated in Union List iv. Article 248
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iv i ii iii
Ans: C
85. Match the List – I with List – II andselect the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Reports of the second administrative reforms commission) (Title of the Report)
a. Crisis Management i. Friction to Fusion
b. Local Government ii. From despair to hope
c. Capacity building for conflict resolution iii. In inspiring journey into future
d. Social capital iv. A Shared Destiny
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) iv i ii iii
Ans: B
86. The importance of personnel administration has increased in recent times due to followings:
(i) Recognition of Human aspect of organization
(ii) Long-range needs of manpower
(iii) Large size of the modern organization
(iv) High wage bills necessitating optimum use of manpower.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
87. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Provisions of Constitution) (Contents)
a. Article 316(1) i. Qualification for member of Union Public Service Commission
b. Article 316(2) ii. Ground for removal of member of Public Service Commission
c. Article 317(3) iii. Further employment under Government of India
d. Article 319 iv. Resignation of members of Public Service Commission
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) i iv ii iii
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: C
88. On the recommendations made by Chief Ministers’ Conference in 1961, the Parliament resolved to create which of the following three new All India Services?
(i) Indian Service of Engineers(Irrigation, Power, Buildings &Roads)
(ii) Indian Medical and Health Service
(iii) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
(iv) Indian Forest Service
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
89. Which of following statements about ‘Right to Strike’ by Civil Servants in India is correct?
(A) It is prohibited by transaction of business rules.
(B) Right to strike is mentioned in Civil Service Conduct Rules.
(C) It is prohibited by law.
(D) Strike by Civil Servants constitutes breach of discipline.
Ans: D
90. Assertion (A): What has been happening in India, in recent times, is Sanskritization of corruption.
Reason (R): People began to adopt corruption not for its inherent utility, but as a means of belonging to the elite class.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
91. Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Tribunals:
(i) Parliament is empowered to make laws for the adjudication or trial by administrative tribunals.
(ii) The disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of services of persons appointed to public services are adjudicated by the said tribunals.
(iii) The jurisdiction and authority of such tribunals is specified by the law passed by the Parliament.
(iv) The administrative tribunals can also be set up for adjudicating disputes relating to foreign exchange and export and import matters.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
92. Consider the following functions of Standing Committees of Parliament in India:
(i) To consider demand for grants.
(ii) To make a report on demand for grants to the Houses of Parliament.
(iii) To consider annual reports of Ministries and make reports there on.
(iv) To consider national basic short term policy documents presented to the houses.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
93. ‘If the Finance Minister is to be held responsible for filling the reservoir and maintaining certain depth of water in it, he must be in a position to regulate the outflow’. This statement is made by
(A) Hoover Commission
(B) Haldane Committee
(C) Donoughmore Committee
(D) Tenth Finance Commission
Ans: B
94. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
(ii) Net proceeds of taxes, duties and other revenues are credited to the consolidated fund of India.
(iii) A law passed by the Parliament has established contingency fund of India to enable advances to be made by the President for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure.
(iv) Prior authorization under Article 115 or Article 116 is required to make advances out of contingency fund of India.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
95. Scientific research intends to :
(i) Generalize Knowledge
(ii) Extend Knowledge
(iii) Correct Knowledge
(iv) Comprehend Knowledge
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
96. “A set of questions which are asked and filled in by an interviewer in a face-to-face situation with another person” is termed as
(A) Questionnaire
(B) Schedule
(C) Interview
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
97. Which one of the following is not an advantage of the interview as a research tool?
(A) Interview is a highly flexible tool allowing a more permissible atmosphere.
(B) Interview has greater opportunity to appraise the accuracy and validity of replies.
(C) The interviewer may be able to differentiate between fact and fiction supplied by informants.
(D) Interviewer may be able to interject guesses and impressions into respondent’s responses.
Ans: D
98. Who of the following described the case study method of research as the social microscope?
(A) Herbert Spencer
(B) E. Burgress
(C) Frederic Le Play
(D) William Healy
Ans: B
99. What is another name of Measure of Central Tendency?
(A) Index Number
(B) Average
(C) Mode
(D) Median
Ans: B
100. The Lakhina (Ahmednagar) experiment was related with
(A) District Administration
(B) Rural Development
(C) Tribal Development
(D) Revenue Administration
Ans: A
(A) New Public Administration
(B) Third Minnowbrook Conference
(C) New Public Management
(D) New Public Service Theory
Ans: B
52. The scope of Public Administration consists of the study of only three factors namely men, materials and methods. This view is expressed by
(A) P. McQueen
(B) Mooney and Reiley
(C) Louis P. Anderson
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
53. Which of the following is not a matter of difference between public and private administration?
(A) Public Welfare and Public Satisfaction
(B) Public Scrutiny of actions and decisions
(C) Consistency and impartiality in action
(D) POSDCORB activities
Ans: D
54. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Books) (Authors)
a. Public Administration in the Time of Turbulence i. Lord Hewart
b. Toward a new public administration: The Minnowbrook perspective ii. Frank J. Goodnow
c. New Despotism iii. Frank Marini
d. Politics and Administration iv. Dwight Waldo
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i iii ii iv
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: A
55. An informal organization is:
(i) Comparatively stable
(ii) Satisfies social needs of its members.
(iii) Helps members in achievingtheir goals.
(iv) Preserves the cultural values of its members.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Ans: D
56. Assertion (A): Red-tape has been defined as punctilious exactitude in the observance of regulation.
Reason (R): ‘Red tape’ is perhaps the best insurance the public has to receive equal treatment at the hand of government.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
57. Assertion (A): There is no ideal number of persons a supervisor can supervise.
Reason (R): Span of control varies on the basis of factors like function, time, space and delegation of authority.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
58. Woodrow Wilson was a:
(i) President of U.S.A.
(ii) Governor of New Jersey
(iii) Recipient of Nobel Prize
(iv) President of Princeton University
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
59. Which of the following factors influenced the emergence of the theory and practice of Human Relations?
(i) Class antagonisms
(ii) Reaction to Taylorism
(iii) Economic Depression
(iv) Backward material and cultural aspirations of workers.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
60. Assertion (A): Classical writers were concerned with improving the organizational structure as a means of increasing efficiency.
Reason (R): They laid emphasis on the importance of principles for the design of a logical structure of organization.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
61. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Writers) (Books)
a. James G. March and Herbert Simon i. The Principles of Organization
b. Chester Bernard ii. The Human Organization
c. James D. Mooney and Allan C. Reiley iii. Organisations
d. Rensis Likert iv. Organisation and Management
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii iv iii i
(D) iv ii i iii
Ans: B
62. Which one of the following is not an Independent Regulatory Commission in India?
(A) Telecom Regulatory Authority
(B) National Labour Relations Commission
(C) Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission
(D) Securities and Exchange Board
Ans: B
63. Which one among the following books of M.P. Follett was edited by Metcalf and Urwick after the death of M.P. Follett?
(A) Creative Experience
(B) New State
(C) Dynamic Administration
(D) The Speaker of the House of Representative
Ans: C
64. Frederick Herzberg has identified certain determinants of job satisfaction in his two factors theory. Which of the following according to him are not job satisfiers?
(i) Salary
(ii) Achievement
(iii) Working conditions
(iv) Recognition
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (ii) & (iv)
(D) (iii) & (iv)
Ans: C
65. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Concept) (Thinkers)
a. Decision Tree i. Cohen, March and Olson
b. Linking Pin Model ii. Chris Argyris
c. Garbage Can Model iii. Duncan
d. Sensitivity Training iv. Rensis Likert
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i iv ii iii
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
66. Rensis Likert has suggested which of the following model for removal of hurdles in traditional hierarchies?
(A) Management System I
(B) The Linking Pin Model
(C) Application of System 4
(D) Science based management
Ans: B
67. Who among following has given the concept of ‘A New Comparative Public Administration’?
(A) Keith M. Henderson
(B) Ira Sharkansky
(C) Dwight Waldo
(D) Robert P. Biller
Ans: A
68. Who said these words about Comparative Public Administration extended meaning of comparison “is the generalized or global framework of thinking about problems”?
(A) John Montgomery
(B) Jack C. Plano
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) Talcott Parsons
Ans: C
69. Robert T. Golembiewski mentions three themes of comparative public administration as:
(i) Significance of focal concerns
(ii) Magnitude of resulting effort
(iii) Motivation for the approach
(iv) Stress on values
Select the correct answer by using code given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
70. Which among the following is not a feature of Industrial model as developed by Fred W. Riggs?
(A) Pre-dominance of ascriptive particularistic and diffuse patterns
(B) High degree of social mobility
(C) Prevalence of voluntary associations performing specific functions
(D) Well-developed occupational systems
Ans: A
71. The salient characteristics of bazaar canteen economy as described by Riggs is/are
(i) Price Indeterminacy
(ii) Agglomeration of values
(iii) Intrusive access to the elites
(iv) Pariah entrepreneurship
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
72. The merit system for recruitment based on competitive examination was introduced first in
(A) Great Britain
(B) United States America
(C) China
(D) India
Ans: C
73. Arrange in descending order the following institutions of Local Government of France:
(i) Canton
(ii) Department
(iii) Commune
(iv) Arrondissement
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
Ans: D
74. Which one of the following is top tier of local government in U.K.?
(A) Metropolitan District
(B) Metropolitan County
(C) Parish
(D) Shire
Ans: B
75. The Hatch Act, 1939 in U.S.A. dealt with
(A) Right to Strike
(B) Political activities of Civil Servants
(C) Right to Association
(D) Machinery for Negotiation
Ans: B
76. Ferrel Heady identifies major features of national bureaucracy in the developing society. These are
(i) The basic pattern of administration is Imitative.
(ii) Widespread discrepancy between Form and Reality.
(iii) Bureaucracy accepts directions from other legitimate branches of government.
(iv) The bureaucracies are deficient in skilled Manpower.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
77. “The bureaucratic structure and its orientation to a development role are not necessarily incompatible.” This statement in the Indian context was made by
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) J.N. Khosla
(C) K.M. Munshi
(D) V.A. PaiPanandikar
Ans: D
78. Which one of the following is not correct about the development administration?
(A) Suitable institutions to accomplish the developmental goals are to be established.
(B) It is essential to build up administrative capacity and capability.
(C) Coordination is a basic component of development administration.
(D) Communication is only a desirable component of the development administration.
Ans: D
79. Assertion (A): In parliamentary form of government the executive is responsible to legislature.
Reason (R): In the constitution of India the provision is made that the council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
80. Decision Making in development administration is
(i) Flexible
(ii) Centralised
(iii) Rigid
(iv) Innovative
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i) & (iv)
Ans: D
81. The President of India makes some appointments by warrant under his hand and seal. These are
(i) Judges of Supreme Court
(ii) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(iii) Attorney-General of India
(iv) Governors of the states
Select correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
82. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Reports) (Year)
a. Montague- Chemsford Report on constitutional reforms in India i. 1955
b. State Reorganization Commission ii. 1918
c. Taxation Enquiry Commission iii. 1954
d. Statutory (Simon) Commission iv. 1927
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) ii i iii iv
Ans: D
83. “Of all the policy making organs in the Government of India, the secretariat stands on an exceptionally high pedestal.” This statement is attributed to
(A) K. Subramanyam
(B) Chand Joshi
(C) S.C. Vajpeyi
(D) S.R. Maheshwari
Ans: D
84. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Parliament’s power to make laws) (Articles)
a. For implementing any international treaty or agreement i. Article 250
b. In the matters enumerated in the State list during Emergency ii. Article 246
c. For imposing a tax not mentioned in concurrent list or state list iii. Article 253
d. The matters enumerated in Union List iv. Article 248
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iv i ii iii
Ans: C
85. Match the List – I with List – II andselect the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Reports of the second administrative reforms commission) (Title of the Report)
a. Crisis Management i. Friction to Fusion
b. Local Government ii. From despair to hope
c. Capacity building for conflict resolution iii. In inspiring journey into future
d. Social capital iv. A Shared Destiny
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) iv i ii iii
Ans: B
86. The importance of personnel administration has increased in recent times due to followings:
(i) Recognition of Human aspect of organization
(ii) Long-range needs of manpower
(iii) Large size of the modern organization
(iv) High wage bills necessitating optimum use of manpower.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
87. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Provisions of Constitution) (Contents)
a. Article 316(1) i. Qualification for member of Union Public Service Commission
b. Article 316(2) ii. Ground for removal of member of Public Service Commission
c. Article 317(3) iii. Further employment under Government of India
d. Article 319 iv. Resignation of members of Public Service Commission
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) i iv ii iii
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: C
88. On the recommendations made by Chief Ministers’ Conference in 1961, the Parliament resolved to create which of the following three new All India Services?
(i) Indian Service of Engineers(Irrigation, Power, Buildings &Roads)
(ii) Indian Medical and Health Service
(iii) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
(iv) Indian Forest Service
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
89. Which of following statements about ‘Right to Strike’ by Civil Servants in India is correct?
(A) It is prohibited by transaction of business rules.
(B) Right to strike is mentioned in Civil Service Conduct Rules.
(C) It is prohibited by law.
(D) Strike by Civil Servants constitutes breach of discipline.
Ans: D
90. Assertion (A): What has been happening in India, in recent times, is Sanskritization of corruption.
Reason (R): People began to adopt corruption not for its inherent utility, but as a means of belonging to the elite class.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
91. Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Tribunals:
(i) Parliament is empowered to make laws for the adjudication or trial by administrative tribunals.
(ii) The disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of services of persons appointed to public services are adjudicated by the said tribunals.
(iii) The jurisdiction and authority of such tribunals is specified by the law passed by the Parliament.
(iv) The administrative tribunals can also be set up for adjudicating disputes relating to foreign exchange and export and import matters.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
92. Consider the following functions of Standing Committees of Parliament in India:
(i) To consider demand for grants.
(ii) To make a report on demand for grants to the Houses of Parliament.
(iii) To consider annual reports of Ministries and make reports there on.
(iv) To consider national basic short term policy documents presented to the houses.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
93. ‘If the Finance Minister is to be held responsible for filling the reservoir and maintaining certain depth of water in it, he must be in a position to regulate the outflow’. This statement is made by
(A) Hoover Commission
(B) Haldane Committee
(C) Donoughmore Committee
(D) Tenth Finance Commission
Ans: B
94. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
(ii) Net proceeds of taxes, duties and other revenues are credited to the consolidated fund of India.
(iii) A law passed by the Parliament has established contingency fund of India to enable advances to be made by the President for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure.
(iv) Prior authorization under Article 115 or Article 116 is required to make advances out of contingency fund of India.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
95. Scientific research intends to :
(i) Generalize Knowledge
(ii) Extend Knowledge
(iii) Correct Knowledge
(iv) Comprehend Knowledge
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
96. “A set of questions which are asked and filled in by an interviewer in a face-to-face situation with another person” is termed as
(A) Questionnaire
(B) Schedule
(C) Interview
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
97. Which one of the following is not an advantage of the interview as a research tool?
(A) Interview is a highly flexible tool allowing a more permissible atmosphere.
(B) Interview has greater opportunity to appraise the accuracy and validity of replies.
(C) The interviewer may be able to differentiate between fact and fiction supplied by informants.
(D) Interviewer may be able to interject guesses and impressions into respondent’s responses.
Ans: D
98. Who of the following described the case study method of research as the social microscope?
(A) Herbert Spencer
(B) E. Burgress
(C) Frederic Le Play
(D) William Healy
Ans: B
99. What is another name of Measure of Central Tendency?
(A) Index Number
(B) Average
(C) Mode
(D) Median
Ans: B
100. The Lakhina (Ahmednagar) experiment was related with
(A) District Administration
(B) Rural Development
(C) Tribal Development
(D) Revenue Administration
Ans: A