PSYCHOLOGY- PAGE 3
Psychology MCQs
1. Three A’s – Achievement, Affiliation and Aggression are reflected in
(A) Emotion
(B) Motivation
(C) Ambition
(D) Expectation
Ans: B
2. A fifth test was added to an established selection test battery of four tests. The old and new versions were correlated to an external criterion of job proficiency. The significant change in R2 was noted. This provided an evidence for
(A) Internal consistency of the fifth test with the earlier four tests.
(B) Construct validity of the fifth test.
(C) Reliability of the selection test battery of five tests
(D) Incremental validity of the fifth test.
Ans: D
3. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Phenomenon) (Psychologist)
p. Learned helplessness 1. Bandura
q. Cognitive map 2. Seligman
r. Observational learning 3. Wolpe
s. Systematic desensitization 4. Tolman
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans: A
4. In a 3 × 4 contingency table, using chi-square test, the degrees of freedom associated with the chi-square will be:
(A) 12
(B) 9
(C) 7
(D) 6
Ans: D
5. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Function) (Area of the Brain)
p. Visuo-spatial function 1. Hypothalamus
q. Social norms 2. Cerebellum
r. Releasing factors 3. Orbito-frontal cortex
s. Balance 4. Parietal cortex
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: D
6. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes below:
Assertion (A): In Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS), forced choice format is used.
Reason (R): Forced choice format reduces acquiescence response set.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
7. Why do individuals with high need for achievement quit early when faced by very difficult task?
(A) Get tired easily
(B) Have poor perseverance
(C) Have high anxiety
(D) Have high need for efficiency
Ans: D
8. Assertion (A): According to R. B. Cattell, source traits are important in the understanding of personality.
Reason (R): Oblique rotation is used for uncovering source traits.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans: A
9. Which of the following represents the Tetrad equation as given by Spearman?
(A) r12 × r34 = r14 × r23
(B) r13 × r24 = r14 × r23
(C) r14 × r23 = r13 × r24
(D) All of these
Ans: D
10. What among the following define a problem space?
1. An initial state
2. A goal state
3. A set of operations
(A) 1, 3
(B) 1, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans: D
11. A generalized picture or model of an object or event, learned in the past and stored in memory, is:
(A) Perceptual constancy
(B) Memory trace
(C) Prototype
(D) Cognitive map
Ans: C
12. Assertion (A): We are able to recognize the similarity and differences of two objects.
Reason (R): Dissociable subsystems operate simultaneously in each cerebral hemisphere.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
Ans: A
13. What is the correct sequence of events given below?
1. Releasing of neurotransmitters
2. Post synaptic potential
3. Binding on receptor sites
4. Synthesis of neurotransmitters
Codes:
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans: C
14. Assertion (A): The amplitude of the action potential in a neuron does not go beyond + 40 mV.
Reason (R): Neurons function on “all or none” basis.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans: B
15. A man reflects his anger from his boss to his child, is an example of:
(A) Projection
(B) Reaction Formation
(C) Displacement
(D) Regression
Ans: C
16. Speed and power tests can be distinguished on the basis of:
1. Time limit
2. Difficulty level
3. Verbal/Non-verbal content
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
17. Natural concepts are based on:
(A) Prototypes
(B) A set of rules/properties
(C) Schemas
(D) Propositions
Ans: A
18. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Presentation of reinforcement) (Type of reinforcement)
p. An unpleasant stimulus is presented to decrease behavior 1. Positive reinforcement
q. An unpleasant stimulus is removed to increase behavior 2. Negative reinforcement
r. A pleasant stimulus is presented to increase behavior 3. Positive punishment
s. A pleasant stimulus is removed to decrease behavior 4. Negative punishment
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans: D
19. Short term memory is capable of holding approximately how many items of unrelated information?
(A) One
(B) two to four
(C) five to nine
(D) ten to twelve
Ans: C
20. Learning of fears is best explained by:
(A) Operant conditioning
(B) Classical conditioning
(C) Observational learning
(D) Latent learning
Ans: B
21. Choose the correct sequence of emergence of the following theories of emotion:
1. James – Lange
2. Cannon – Bard
3. Schachter and Singer
4. Darwin
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans: C
22. What is true of drives?
1. Internal states
2. Aroused by tension
3. Underlying need
4. Guided by external stimuli
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
23. Intellectual functioning is mainly in the domain of which lobe of the Cortex?
(A) Occipital lobe
(B) Frontal lobe
(C) Parietal lobe
(D) Temporal lobe
Ans: B
24. A nerve cell that responds to a vertical line but not to horizontal line is an example of
(A) Linear perspective system
(B) Feature detector
(C) Pattern analyzer
(D) Selection and organization process
Ans: B
25. The visual signals from each retina reach striate cortex via which of the following?
(A) Lateral geniculate nucleus
(B) Medical geniculate nucleus
(C) Infero-temporal cortex
(D) Posterior parietal cortex
Ans: A
26. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of given codes.
List – I List – II
(Task) (Type of memory)
p. Free recall and recognition 1. Semantic memory
q. Sentence verification task 2. Sensory memory
r. Priming 3. Episodic memory
s. Scanning task 4. Implicit memory
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans: D
27. Development of Super-Ego, according to Freud is a result of
(A) Identification with the opposite sex parent
(B) Resolution of Oedipus/Electra complex
(C) Age advancement
(D) Anatomical superiority
Ans: B
28. Which of the following dimension/s do not belong to Costa and McCrae’s NEO-PI-R?
1. Conscientiousness
2. Psychoticism
3. Agreeableness
4. Lie scale
Codes:
(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: B
29. When information currently being learned adversely affects the retention of information acquired previously, the phenomena are referred to as:
(A) Distortion
(B) Retroactive interference
(C) Proactive interference
(D) Retrieval failure
Ans: B
30. Read the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Median is used as a measure of scale value in method of equal appearing intervals.
Reason (R): In normal distribution mean, median and mode are identical.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.
Ans: B
31. Assertion (A): Research suggests that delay conditioning is generally the most effective method for establishing a conditioned response.
Reason (R): Conditioned stimulus helps predict forthcoming presentation of the unconditioned stimulus.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
32. Which of the following is not a cause of forgetting?
(A) Interference
(B) Decay
(C) Selective attention
(D) Retrieval inhibition
Ans: C
33. Which of the following attributions of an event with positive outcome shall be optimistic (non depressogenic)?
(A) Internal, stable and specific causes
(B) External, unstable and global causes
(C) Internal, stable and global causes
(D) External, unstable and specific causes
Ans: C
34. Principle stating that a more preferred activity can be used to reinforce a less preferred activity is referred to as:
(A) Trace conditioning
(B) Hull’s principle
(C) Principle of stimulus generalization
(D) Premack principle
Ans: D
35. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin model of human memory which of the following sequence of events is correct?
(A) Attention – sensory memory – short term memory – long term memory – elaborative rehearsal.
(B) Sensory memory – attention – short term memory – elaborative rehearsal – long term memory
(C) Attention – short term memory – sensory memory – elaborative rehearsal – long term memory
(D) Sensory memory – short term memory – attention – long term memory – elaborative rehearsal.
Ans: B
36. Attribution, the process by which we determine the causes behind other’s behaviour, involves focusing on which aspects of behaviour?
(A) Consensus, distinctiveness and attraction
(B) Distinctiveness, consistency and influence
(C) Consensus, consistency and distinctiveness
(D) Distinctiveness, influence and attraction
Ans: C
37. Deliberate application of known strategies to tasks, planning their use in advance, monitoring them in action, evaluating their output and modifying subsequent behaviour on the basis of performance is called.
(A) Self-regulated learning
(B) Implicit learning
(C) Deductive reasoning
(D) Cognitive learning
Ans: A
38. At what level do we understand the complete meaning and sense of a language structure?
(A) Phonemes
(B) Syntax
(C) Prosodic contour
(D) Morphemes
Ans: C
39. In terms of the percentage of common variance shared by the two variables, arrange the following co-relations in descending order:
1. 0.60
2. –0.50
3. –0.70
4. 0.40
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2
Ans: A
40. What do characterize Rapid Eye Movement sleep?
1. Delta waves
2. Loss of muscle tone
3. Low voltage – high frequency waves
4. Higher cerebral activity
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
41. Threshold hypothesis indicates:
(A) Positive correlation between intelligence and creativity upto a particular level of intelligence.
(B) Negative correlation between intelligence and creativity upto a particular level of intelligence.
(C) Curvilinear relationship between intelligence and creativity after a particular level of intelligence.
(D) Negative correlation between intelligence and creativity after a particular level of intelligence
Ans: A
42. Using Sternberg’s theory as the reference, match List-I with List-II.
List – I List – II
(Components) (Type)
p. Experiential 1. Analytic
q. Contextual 2. Creative
r. Componential 3. Practical
4. Successful
Codes:
p q r
(A) 3 4 2
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 4 2 3
(D) 2 1 3
Ans: B
43. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of the given codes:
List – I List – II
(Type of Memory) (Type of Information)
p. echoic memory 1. Episodic information
q. iconic memory 2. Auditory information
r. auto biographical memory 3. Visual information
s. implicit memory 4. priming
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans: B
44. Which of the following illnesses caused by long term abuse of alcohol often involves profound retrograde amnesia?
(A) Alzheimer’s disease
(B) Parkinson’s disease
(C) Huntington’s disease
(D) Korsakoff’s disease
Ans: D
45. Applied behaviour analysis involves four steps. Which of the following two pairs are included?
1. Define and observe
2. Enumerate and reward
3. Observe and reinforce
4. Intervene and test
(A) (1) and (2) are correct.
(B) (1) and (4) are correct.
(C) (2) and (4) are correct.
(D) (3) and (4) are correct.
Ans: B
46. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of given codes:
List – I List – II
(Route) (Processing)
p. Central route to persuasion 1. Heuristic processing
q. Peripheral route to persuasion 2. Elaboration likelihood processing
r. Distinct routes to persuasion 3. Cognitive Dissonance
s. Attitude behaviour discrepancies 4. Systematic processing
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans: A
Instructions for Questions 47 to 50: Read the following passage and answer the four questions that follow:
A psychologist developed a new Anxiety Inventory of 25 items. The Cronbach alpha for the inventory was found to be 0.80. The inventory was administered to a group of 50 anxiety disorder patients before beginning their psychotherapy. The patients had a significantly higher mean than the normative group of normal. The same group of patients was retested after 12 weeks of psychotherapy. The post-test mean was significantly lesser than the pre-test mean. The new Anxiety Inventory was correlated with an established anxiety inventory and the correlation turned out to be 0.20. The norms of the inventory were developed in terms of normalized T scores.
47. What would be the median T score for the new Anxiety Inventory?
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 120
(D) Inadequate data on median T score.
Ans: A
48. The above data indicate that the new inventory has
(A) Satisfactory parallel form reliability
(B) Unsatisfactory parallel form reliability
(C) Satisfactory concurrent validity
(D) Unsatisfactory concurrent validity
Ans: D
49. What can you infer about the internal consistency reliability of the new inventory?
(A) Satisfactory internal consistency reliability
(B) Unsatisfactory internal consistency reliability
(C) Split-half reliability needs to be computed first to infer about internal consistency.
(D) Inadequate data in the above passage to infer about internal consistency.
Ans: A
50. The above data indicate that the new inventory has
(A) Unsatisfactory construct validity
(B) Satisfactory construct validity
(C) Unsatisfactory test-retest reliability
(D) Satisfactory test-retest reliability
Ans: B
(A) Emotion
(B) Motivation
(C) Ambition
(D) Expectation
Ans: B
2. A fifth test was added to an established selection test battery of four tests. The old and new versions were correlated to an external criterion of job proficiency. The significant change in R2 was noted. This provided an evidence for
(A) Internal consistency of the fifth test with the earlier four tests.
(B) Construct validity of the fifth test.
(C) Reliability of the selection test battery of five tests
(D) Incremental validity of the fifth test.
Ans: D
3. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Phenomenon) (Psychologist)
p. Learned helplessness 1. Bandura
q. Cognitive map 2. Seligman
r. Observational learning 3. Wolpe
s. Systematic desensitization 4. Tolman
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans: A
4. In a 3 × 4 contingency table, using chi-square test, the degrees of freedom associated with the chi-square will be:
(A) 12
(B) 9
(C) 7
(D) 6
Ans: D
5. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Function) (Area of the Brain)
p. Visuo-spatial function 1. Hypothalamus
q. Social norms 2. Cerebellum
r. Releasing factors 3. Orbito-frontal cortex
s. Balance 4. Parietal cortex
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: D
6. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes below:
Assertion (A): In Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS), forced choice format is used.
Reason (R): Forced choice format reduces acquiescence response set.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
7. Why do individuals with high need for achievement quit early when faced by very difficult task?
(A) Get tired easily
(B) Have poor perseverance
(C) Have high anxiety
(D) Have high need for efficiency
Ans: D
8. Assertion (A): According to R. B. Cattell, source traits are important in the understanding of personality.
Reason (R): Oblique rotation is used for uncovering source traits.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans: A
9. Which of the following represents the Tetrad equation as given by Spearman?
(A) r12 × r34 = r14 × r23
(B) r13 × r24 = r14 × r23
(C) r14 × r23 = r13 × r24
(D) All of these
Ans: D
10. What among the following define a problem space?
1. An initial state
2. A goal state
3. A set of operations
(A) 1, 3
(B) 1, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans: D
11. A generalized picture or model of an object or event, learned in the past and stored in memory, is:
(A) Perceptual constancy
(B) Memory trace
(C) Prototype
(D) Cognitive map
Ans: C
12. Assertion (A): We are able to recognize the similarity and differences of two objects.
Reason (R): Dissociable subsystems operate simultaneously in each cerebral hemisphere.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
Ans: A
13. What is the correct sequence of events given below?
1. Releasing of neurotransmitters
2. Post synaptic potential
3. Binding on receptor sites
4. Synthesis of neurotransmitters
Codes:
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans: C
14. Assertion (A): The amplitude of the action potential in a neuron does not go beyond + 40 mV.
Reason (R): Neurons function on “all or none” basis.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans: B
15. A man reflects his anger from his boss to his child, is an example of:
(A) Projection
(B) Reaction Formation
(C) Displacement
(D) Regression
Ans: C
16. Speed and power tests can be distinguished on the basis of:
1. Time limit
2. Difficulty level
3. Verbal/Non-verbal content
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
17. Natural concepts are based on:
(A) Prototypes
(B) A set of rules/properties
(C) Schemas
(D) Propositions
Ans: A
18. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Presentation of reinforcement) (Type of reinforcement)
p. An unpleasant stimulus is presented to decrease behavior 1. Positive reinforcement
q. An unpleasant stimulus is removed to increase behavior 2. Negative reinforcement
r. A pleasant stimulus is presented to increase behavior 3. Positive punishment
s. A pleasant stimulus is removed to decrease behavior 4. Negative punishment
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans: D
19. Short term memory is capable of holding approximately how many items of unrelated information?
(A) One
(B) two to four
(C) five to nine
(D) ten to twelve
Ans: C
20. Learning of fears is best explained by:
(A) Operant conditioning
(B) Classical conditioning
(C) Observational learning
(D) Latent learning
Ans: B
21. Choose the correct sequence of emergence of the following theories of emotion:
1. James – Lange
2. Cannon – Bard
3. Schachter and Singer
4. Darwin
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans: C
22. What is true of drives?
1. Internal states
2. Aroused by tension
3. Underlying need
4. Guided by external stimuli
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
23. Intellectual functioning is mainly in the domain of which lobe of the Cortex?
(A) Occipital lobe
(B) Frontal lobe
(C) Parietal lobe
(D) Temporal lobe
Ans: B
24. A nerve cell that responds to a vertical line but not to horizontal line is an example of
(A) Linear perspective system
(B) Feature detector
(C) Pattern analyzer
(D) Selection and organization process
Ans: B
25. The visual signals from each retina reach striate cortex via which of the following?
(A) Lateral geniculate nucleus
(B) Medical geniculate nucleus
(C) Infero-temporal cortex
(D) Posterior parietal cortex
Ans: A
26. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of given codes.
List – I List – II
(Task) (Type of memory)
p. Free recall and recognition 1. Semantic memory
q. Sentence verification task 2. Sensory memory
r. Priming 3. Episodic memory
s. Scanning task 4. Implicit memory
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans: D
27. Development of Super-Ego, according to Freud is a result of
(A) Identification with the opposite sex parent
(B) Resolution of Oedipus/Electra complex
(C) Age advancement
(D) Anatomical superiority
Ans: B
28. Which of the following dimension/s do not belong to Costa and McCrae’s NEO-PI-R?
1. Conscientiousness
2. Psychoticism
3. Agreeableness
4. Lie scale
Codes:
(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: B
29. When information currently being learned adversely affects the retention of information acquired previously, the phenomena are referred to as:
(A) Distortion
(B) Retroactive interference
(C) Proactive interference
(D) Retrieval failure
Ans: B
30. Read the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Median is used as a measure of scale value in method of equal appearing intervals.
Reason (R): In normal distribution mean, median and mode are identical.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.
Ans: B
31. Assertion (A): Research suggests that delay conditioning is generally the most effective method for establishing a conditioned response.
Reason (R): Conditioned stimulus helps predict forthcoming presentation of the unconditioned stimulus.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
32. Which of the following is not a cause of forgetting?
(A) Interference
(B) Decay
(C) Selective attention
(D) Retrieval inhibition
Ans: C
33. Which of the following attributions of an event with positive outcome shall be optimistic (non depressogenic)?
(A) Internal, stable and specific causes
(B) External, unstable and global causes
(C) Internal, stable and global causes
(D) External, unstable and specific causes
Ans: C
34. Principle stating that a more preferred activity can be used to reinforce a less preferred activity is referred to as:
(A) Trace conditioning
(B) Hull’s principle
(C) Principle of stimulus generalization
(D) Premack principle
Ans: D
35. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin model of human memory which of the following sequence of events is correct?
(A) Attention – sensory memory – short term memory – long term memory – elaborative rehearsal.
(B) Sensory memory – attention – short term memory – elaborative rehearsal – long term memory
(C) Attention – short term memory – sensory memory – elaborative rehearsal – long term memory
(D) Sensory memory – short term memory – attention – long term memory – elaborative rehearsal.
Ans: B
36. Attribution, the process by which we determine the causes behind other’s behaviour, involves focusing on which aspects of behaviour?
(A) Consensus, distinctiveness and attraction
(B) Distinctiveness, consistency and influence
(C) Consensus, consistency and distinctiveness
(D) Distinctiveness, influence and attraction
Ans: C
37. Deliberate application of known strategies to tasks, planning their use in advance, monitoring them in action, evaluating their output and modifying subsequent behaviour on the basis of performance is called.
(A) Self-regulated learning
(B) Implicit learning
(C) Deductive reasoning
(D) Cognitive learning
Ans: A
38. At what level do we understand the complete meaning and sense of a language structure?
(A) Phonemes
(B) Syntax
(C) Prosodic contour
(D) Morphemes
Ans: C
39. In terms of the percentage of common variance shared by the two variables, arrange the following co-relations in descending order:
1. 0.60
2. –0.50
3. –0.70
4. 0.40
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2
Ans: A
40. What do characterize Rapid Eye Movement sleep?
1. Delta waves
2. Loss of muscle tone
3. Low voltage – high frequency waves
4. Higher cerebral activity
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
41. Threshold hypothesis indicates:
(A) Positive correlation between intelligence and creativity upto a particular level of intelligence.
(B) Negative correlation between intelligence and creativity upto a particular level of intelligence.
(C) Curvilinear relationship between intelligence and creativity after a particular level of intelligence.
(D) Negative correlation between intelligence and creativity after a particular level of intelligence
Ans: A
42. Using Sternberg’s theory as the reference, match List-I with List-II.
List – I List – II
(Components) (Type)
p. Experiential 1. Analytic
q. Contextual 2. Creative
r. Componential 3. Practical
4. Successful
Codes:
p q r
(A) 3 4 2
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 4 2 3
(D) 2 1 3
Ans: B
43. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of the given codes:
List – I List – II
(Type of Memory) (Type of Information)
p. echoic memory 1. Episodic information
q. iconic memory 2. Auditory information
r. auto biographical memory 3. Visual information
s. implicit memory 4. priming
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans: B
44. Which of the following illnesses caused by long term abuse of alcohol often involves profound retrograde amnesia?
(A) Alzheimer’s disease
(B) Parkinson’s disease
(C) Huntington’s disease
(D) Korsakoff’s disease
Ans: D
45. Applied behaviour analysis involves four steps. Which of the following two pairs are included?
1. Define and observe
2. Enumerate and reward
3. Observe and reinforce
4. Intervene and test
(A) (1) and (2) are correct.
(B) (1) and (4) are correct.
(C) (2) and (4) are correct.
(D) (3) and (4) are correct.
Ans: B
46. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of given codes:
List – I List – II
(Route) (Processing)
p. Central route to persuasion 1. Heuristic processing
q. Peripheral route to persuasion 2. Elaboration likelihood processing
r. Distinct routes to persuasion 3. Cognitive Dissonance
s. Attitude behaviour discrepancies 4. Systematic processing
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans: A
Instructions for Questions 47 to 50: Read the following passage and answer the four questions that follow:
A psychologist developed a new Anxiety Inventory of 25 items. The Cronbach alpha for the inventory was found to be 0.80. The inventory was administered to a group of 50 anxiety disorder patients before beginning their psychotherapy. The patients had a significantly higher mean than the normative group of normal. The same group of patients was retested after 12 weeks of psychotherapy. The post-test mean was significantly lesser than the pre-test mean. The new Anxiety Inventory was correlated with an established anxiety inventory and the correlation turned out to be 0.20. The norms of the inventory were developed in terms of normalized T scores.
47. What would be the median T score for the new Anxiety Inventory?
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 120
(D) Inadequate data on median T score.
Ans: A
48. The above data indicate that the new inventory has
(A) Satisfactory parallel form reliability
(B) Unsatisfactory parallel form reliability
(C) Satisfactory concurrent validity
(D) Unsatisfactory concurrent validity
Ans: D
49. What can you infer about the internal consistency reliability of the new inventory?
(A) Satisfactory internal consistency reliability
(B) Unsatisfactory internal consistency reliability
(C) Split-half reliability needs to be computed first to infer about internal consistency.
(D) Inadequate data in the above passage to infer about internal consistency.
Ans: A
50. The above data indicate that the new inventory has
(A) Unsatisfactory construct validity
(B) Satisfactory construct validity
(C) Unsatisfactory test-retest reliability
(D) Satisfactory test-retest reliability
Ans: B
51. Below given are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R), indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): For solution to any problem one generally compares his state of knowledge to the goal state.
Reason (R): Finding sub-goals are necessary for reducing the difference between end goals and knowledge.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Ans: C
52. Mental Retardation is associated with
(A) Trisomy 14
(B) Trisomy 21
(C) Trisomy 12
(D) Trisomy 23
Ans: B
53. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Technique) (Therapeutic approach)
p. Empty Chair method 1. Existential therapy
q. Logo therapy 2. Transactional analysis
r. Re-parenting 3. Cognitive therapy
s. Cognitive restructuring 4. Gestalt therapy
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans: A
54. Match the following items of List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using codes given below.
List – I List – II
p. Dementia Praecox 1. Wolpe
q. Systematic Desensitization 2. Bendura
r. Modelling 3. Bleuler
s. Schizophrenia 4. Kraeplin
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans: C
55. Which of the following is not true of the theory given by Rogers?
(A) An individual reacts to situations in terms of the way he or she perceives them, in ways consistent with his or her self-concepts and views of the world.
(B) Our essence is created by our choices because our choices reflect the values on which we base our order and life.
(C) The most basic striving of an individual is towards maintenance, enhancement and actualization of self.
(D) A perceived threat to the self is followed by a defense – including limiting the perception and behaviour and the introduction of self-defense mechanisms.
Ans: B
56. Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-actualized person?
(A) Problem cent rather than self centred.
(B) Open to enculturation.
(C) Accept themselves and others as they are
(D) Perceive reality efficiently and can tolerate uncertainty.
Ans: B
57. What is the correct sequence of the emergence of the following Ego Strengths?
(A) Loyalty, Love, Care, Wisdom
(B) Loyalty, Care, Love, Wisdom
(C) Care, Love, Loyalty, Wisdom
(D) Care, Loyalty, Wisdom, Love
Ans: A
58. Which of the following methods are employed to study Memory Processes?
1. Free recall and Recognition
2. Observation and Recognition
3. Conditioning and Neuroimaging.
4. Concurrent memory task paradigm and Neuroimaging.
Codes:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
Ans: D
59. Patients with damage to the frontal lobes behave as if they lack control systems that monitor their processing resources appropriately. They are said to suffer from
(A) Gertsman Syndrome
(B) Dysexecutive Syndrome
(C) Korsakoff’s Syndrome
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
60. Given below are two statements, the first labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Melanie Klein developed play therapy where children work out their unconscious feeling and conflicts while playing with toys or crafts.
Reason (R): It is difficult to apply the method of Dream Analysis and Free Association on children because of their inability to express verbally.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
61. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using code below:
Assertion (A): Many evidences strongly suggest that there is no possibility that all of many human performances classified as intellectuals represent a unitary attribute determined by unitary set of factors.
Reason (R): This may be because of what is called intelligence is a mixture of different attributes having different determinants.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
62. A child was classified as a case of mental retardation. On DSM IV / IV (TR), this diagnosis would be recorded on:
(A) Axis I
(B) Axis II
(C) Axis III
(D) Axis IV
Ans: B
63. Out of following which are the appropriate explanations as stated by Cattell in his ‘gf’ and ‘gc’ theory of Intelligence?
1. ‘gf’ is mainly determined by genetic factors.
2. The speed of growth of ‘gf’ is very fast in early childhood and it starts declining in late adulthood – in late twenties.
3. ‘gc’ separates itself from ‘gf’ as a result of the effect of learning and other experiences.
4. Individual differences are more in ‘gc’ than ‘gf’.
Codes:
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: C
64. Out of the following theories of intelligence which one is regarded as latest one?
(A) Sternberg’s theory
(B) Mayer and Salovey theory
(C) Jensen’s theory
(D) Cattell’s theory
Ans: A
65. Moods are ______ and then emotions. Choose the correct code for the features given below:
1. Longer lasting
2. More intense
3. Less intense
4. Shorter lasting
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans: C
66. Read the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Emotion is construed to have a prototypic form of expression, a pattern of consistent autonomic changes, and a distinct subjective feeling state.
Reason (R): The three response systems respond similarly in an emotional situation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
67. Awareness of one’s own thought a process enabling effective learning through correction is called:
(A) Algorithm
(B) Analogies
(C) Meta cognition
(D) Constructive process
Ans: C
68. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Theory builders) (Theories)
p. Aristotle 1. The contents of our mind are the sum of our sensory experiences.
q. John Locke 2. All knowledge of the external world is gained through experiences provided by the five senses.
r. George Berkeley 3. The task of Psychology was to reduce perception to its constituent elements.
s. E.B. Tichener 4. The world of objects does not exist when it is not sensed.
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans: A
69. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Concepts) (Descriptions)
p. Anger 1. Physical or verbal behaviour intended to hurt someone.
q. Displacement 2. The blocking of goal directed behaviour.
r. Aggression 3. Redirecting the reaction to a target other than source of frustration.
s. Frustration 4. An emotional readiness to aggress.
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: D
70. Given below are the two statements, the first labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Memories of eye witnesses are fragile as many factors can distort their memories.
Reason (R): Post event information can interfere with their memories to a great extent.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
Q. Nos. 71 to 75. Read the following passage and answer the five questions that follow:
A researcher wanted to study the effect of stress on reaction time and whether the effect of stress is moderated by the stimulus complexity – Low and High. The researcher had a hypothesis that increased stress would adversely affect the reaction speed. From an initial pool of 160 subjects, four groups of 40 subjects each were formed and routine reaction time experiment was performed. Group I was tested under relaxed condition and low stimulus complexity Group II was tested under stressful condition and law stimulus complexity Group III was tested under relaxed condition and high stimulus complexity and Group IV was tested under stressful condition, and high stimulus complexity. The fore-period was randomly varied. The data were analyzed by following suitable ANOVA model. Among the various F ratios, the F ratio computed as ‘MSAXB/MSerror’, yielded interesting results.
71. The design in this study would be best labelled as
(A) Randomized four-group design with single IV.
(B) 2 × 2 factorial design.
(C) 2 × 2 factorial design with a covariate.
(D) Randomized blocked design.
Ans: B
72. What would be the degrees of freedom for the main effect of stress?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 156
Ans: A
73. The significant F ratio computed as ‘MSAXB/MSerror’ indicates that
(A) The main effect of stress is significant.
(B) The main effect of stimulus complexity is significant.
(C) The effect of stress is moderated by stimulus complexity.
(D) Every group differs from remaining groups significantly.
Ans: C
74. Which of the following statement/s is/are false in this experiment?
1. Stress is an independent variable.
2. Stimulus complexity is a covariate.
3. Fore-period duration is an ‘independent’ variable.
4. Reaction time is a dependent variable.
Codes:
(A) 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans: D
75. Which of the following is the assumption/s which should be satisfied while carrying out the ANOVA in this study?
1. Heterogeneity of variance.
2. Independence of scores within each cell.
3. Normal distribution of the residuals from the model.
4. Homogeneity of covariance matrices.
Codes:
(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: B
76. Which of the following is not one of the Big Five personality factors?
(A) Submissiveness
(B) Agreeableness
(C) Extroversion
(D) Openness to experience
Ans: A
77. Read the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The level of arousal for optimal performance varies for different tasks.
Reason (R): Too little arousal can be non-motivating, too high arousal can be disruptive.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
78. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Behaviour) (Expression mode)
a. Tone 1. Facial
b. Crying 2. Glanduar
c. Laugh 3. Varbal
d. Eyebrow 4. Muscular
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans: A
79. A slow graded electrical potential produced by a receptor cell in response to a physical stimulus is
(A) Receptor potential
(B) Generator potential
(C) Transduction
(D) Arousal
Ans: A
80. This area contains ‘Somoto Sensory Cortex’
(A) Parietal lobe
(B) Frontal lobe
(C) Temporal lobe
(D) Occipital lobe
Ans: A
81. Give the correct sequence of the location of following glands in human body from top to bottom
(A) Thyroid – Adrenal – Pancreas – Pituitary
(B) Thyroid – Pancreas – Pituitary– Adrenal
(C) Pituitary – Adrenal – Thyroid – Pancreas
(D) Pituitary – Thyroid – Adrenal – Pancreas
Ans: D
82. A complex behaviour that is rigidly patterned throughout a species and is unlearned is called
(A) Imprinting
(B) Instinct
(C) Emotion
(D) Feeling
Ans: B
83. Our tendency to perceive objects as unchanging despite changes in sensory input is an illustration of
(A) Figure-Ground relationship
(B) Perceptual constancy
(C) Binocular cues
(D) Linear perspective
Ans: B
84. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): As compared to other methods of psychological research, experimental method is usually considered to be best suited for studying cause and effect relationship.
Reason (R): Secondary variance is more efficiently controlled in experimental method.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following conclusion is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
85. Consider the following three types of psychological researches:
1. Field experiment
2. Laboratory experiment
3. Ex post facto study
Arrange these typical investigations in descending order in terms of the researcher’s ability to control secondary variance.
(A) 3, 1, 2
(B) 2, 1, 3
(C) 3, 2, 1
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans: B
86. What is the correct sequence of development of the following personality tests?
1. Maudsley Personality Inventory
2. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2
3. Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory
4. NEO PI-3
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 2, 4, 1, 3
(D) 1, 3, 2, 4
Ans: D
87. Perceiving one thing in relation to another when both are presented simultaneously is called
(A) Simultaneous perception
(B) Figure-Ground perception
(C) Consecutive perception
(D) Successive perception
Ans: B
88. Verbal behaviour that is reinforced when someone else’s verbal response is repeated verbation is called
(A) Autoclitic behaviour
(B) Echoic behaviour
(C) Reinforced behaviour
(D) Operant behaviour
Ans: B
89. Which of the following are essential to Spearman’s methodology of theory development?
I. Tetral equation
II. Tetral difference
III. Specific factor
IV. Neurological basis of intelligence
Codes:
(A) I, II and III
(B) I, III and IV
(C) II, III and IV
(D) I, II and IV
Ans: A
90. Dissociable sub-systems operate simultaneously in each hemisphere and help us recognize similarity at one level and differences at another level in the perceived pattern. This system consists of
1. Top-down processing system
2. Abstract category sub-system
3. Bottom-up processing system
4. Specific-exemplar sub-system
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
Ans: C
91. Based on Eysenkian theory of personality, what are the correct sequence levels of personality from bottom to top?
1. Habit level
2. Trait level
3. Type level
4. S.R. level
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3
(D) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans: C
92. Speed and power tests cannot be differentiated on the basis of
I. Time limit
II. Verbal content
III. Non-verbal content
IV. Difficulty level
Codes:
(A) I and IV
(B) II and IV
(C) II and III
(D) I, III and IV
Ans: C
93. According to two factors of Retroactive Interference, RI is caused by two factors: One is unlearning of the first task during the time one is engaged in the second task. What is the second factor?
(A) Unlearning of the responses of second task.
(B) Competition of the first task responses with the second task responses that inhibits the recall responses of the first task at the time of recall.
(C) Inability to recall responses from first task.
(D) Decaying of memory-traces of responses of first task.
Ans: B
94. One of the difficulties with the survey method is
(A) Inability to examine changes over time.
(B) That subjects may give dishonest or inaccurate responses.
(C) The relatively small number of subjects used.
(D) The impossibility of getting a representative sample.
Ans: B
95. A cell in a contingency table had an obtained frequency of 16 and an expected frequency of 25. What would be the contribution of this cell to the total chi-square value?
(A) 3.24
(B) 5.06
(C) 9.00
(D) 81.00
Ans: A
Questions 96 to 100: Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions which follow:
The notion of true score is at the heart of classical reliability theory. This model proposes that the obtained score on a variable is a sum of true score and the random error of measurement, the two components being independent. Using this model, various ways of computing reliability have been developed. One of the ways of examining the reliability of a test is to test the homogeneity of test items or the internal consistency. The most widely used method of estimating the reliability is split half technique, also called as odd-even reliability. In this context, Spearman Brown correction is important. Kuder- Richardson reliability and Chronbach Alpha are the two other methods of studying internal consistency.
Another important type of reliability is the interscorer reliability. This reliability is not useful for objective tests, but for certain types it is quite important. There are also other types of reliability such as parallel form reliability and test retest reliability, the latter concerned with temporal stability of the test results.
96. Reliability can be defined as
(A) (True score variance) / (Total variance)
(B) (Error variance) / (Total variance
(C) (True score variance) / (Error variance
(D) (Error variance) / (Total score variance
Ans: A
97. For a newly developed test, the scores on odd and even part correlated by 0.4. After applying Spearman-Brown formula
(A) The corrected reliability would by 0.8.
(B) The corrected reliability would be 0.4.
(C) The corrected reliability would be greater than 0.4 and lesser than 0.8.
(D) The corrected reliability would be lesser than 0.4.
Ans: C
98. Which of the following statement is true for tests with dichotomous items?
(A) Chronbach Alpha is greater than Kuder-Richardson reliability.
(B) Chronbach Alpha is smaller than Kuder-Richardson reliability.
(C) Chronbach Alpha and Kuder- Richardson reliability are equal.
(D) Chronbach Alpha may be greater or smaller than Kuder- Richardson reliability.
Ans: C
99. For which of the following types of tests interscorer reliability is relevant?
1. Objective personality inventories
2. Projective tests
3. Achievement tests with descriptive items
4. Intelligence tests
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans: D
100. If two groups are administered the same test with a time gap of eight weeks, we would be able to compute
(A) Test-retest reliability
(B) Parallel form reliability
(C) Interscorer reliability
(D) None of the above reliabilities can be computed.
Ans: D
Assertion (A): For solution to any problem one generally compares his state of knowledge to the goal state.
Reason (R): Finding sub-goals are necessary for reducing the difference between end goals and knowledge.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Ans: C
52. Mental Retardation is associated with
(A) Trisomy 14
(B) Trisomy 21
(C) Trisomy 12
(D) Trisomy 23
Ans: B
53. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Technique) (Therapeutic approach)
p. Empty Chair method 1. Existential therapy
q. Logo therapy 2. Transactional analysis
r. Re-parenting 3. Cognitive therapy
s. Cognitive restructuring 4. Gestalt therapy
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans: A
54. Match the following items of List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using codes given below.
List – I List – II
p. Dementia Praecox 1. Wolpe
q. Systematic Desensitization 2. Bendura
r. Modelling 3. Bleuler
s. Schizophrenia 4. Kraeplin
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans: C
55. Which of the following is not true of the theory given by Rogers?
(A) An individual reacts to situations in terms of the way he or she perceives them, in ways consistent with his or her self-concepts and views of the world.
(B) Our essence is created by our choices because our choices reflect the values on which we base our order and life.
(C) The most basic striving of an individual is towards maintenance, enhancement and actualization of self.
(D) A perceived threat to the self is followed by a defense – including limiting the perception and behaviour and the introduction of self-defense mechanisms.
Ans: B
56. Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-actualized person?
(A) Problem cent rather than self centred.
(B) Open to enculturation.
(C) Accept themselves and others as they are
(D) Perceive reality efficiently and can tolerate uncertainty.
Ans: B
57. What is the correct sequence of the emergence of the following Ego Strengths?
(A) Loyalty, Love, Care, Wisdom
(B) Loyalty, Care, Love, Wisdom
(C) Care, Love, Loyalty, Wisdom
(D) Care, Loyalty, Wisdom, Love
Ans: A
58. Which of the following methods are employed to study Memory Processes?
1. Free recall and Recognition
2. Observation and Recognition
3. Conditioning and Neuroimaging.
4. Concurrent memory task paradigm and Neuroimaging.
Codes:
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
Ans: D
59. Patients with damage to the frontal lobes behave as if they lack control systems that monitor their processing resources appropriately. They are said to suffer from
(A) Gertsman Syndrome
(B) Dysexecutive Syndrome
(C) Korsakoff’s Syndrome
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
60. Given below are two statements, the first labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Melanie Klein developed play therapy where children work out their unconscious feeling and conflicts while playing with toys or crafts.
Reason (R): It is difficult to apply the method of Dream Analysis and Free Association on children because of their inability to express verbally.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
61. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using code below:
Assertion (A): Many evidences strongly suggest that there is no possibility that all of many human performances classified as intellectuals represent a unitary attribute determined by unitary set of factors.
Reason (R): This may be because of what is called intelligence is a mixture of different attributes having different determinants.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
62. A child was classified as a case of mental retardation. On DSM IV / IV (TR), this diagnosis would be recorded on:
(A) Axis I
(B) Axis II
(C) Axis III
(D) Axis IV
Ans: B
63. Out of following which are the appropriate explanations as stated by Cattell in his ‘gf’ and ‘gc’ theory of Intelligence?
1. ‘gf’ is mainly determined by genetic factors.
2. The speed of growth of ‘gf’ is very fast in early childhood and it starts declining in late adulthood – in late twenties.
3. ‘gc’ separates itself from ‘gf’ as a result of the effect of learning and other experiences.
4. Individual differences are more in ‘gc’ than ‘gf’.
Codes:
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: C
64. Out of the following theories of intelligence which one is regarded as latest one?
(A) Sternberg’s theory
(B) Mayer and Salovey theory
(C) Jensen’s theory
(D) Cattell’s theory
Ans: A
65. Moods are ______ and then emotions. Choose the correct code for the features given below:
1. Longer lasting
2. More intense
3. Less intense
4. Shorter lasting
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans: C
66. Read the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Emotion is construed to have a prototypic form of expression, a pattern of consistent autonomic changes, and a distinct subjective feeling state.
Reason (R): The three response systems respond similarly in an emotional situation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
67. Awareness of one’s own thought a process enabling effective learning through correction is called:
(A) Algorithm
(B) Analogies
(C) Meta cognition
(D) Constructive process
Ans: C
68. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Theory builders) (Theories)
p. Aristotle 1. The contents of our mind are the sum of our sensory experiences.
q. John Locke 2. All knowledge of the external world is gained through experiences provided by the five senses.
r. George Berkeley 3. The task of Psychology was to reduce perception to its constituent elements.
s. E.B. Tichener 4. The world of objects does not exist when it is not sensed.
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans: A
69. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Concepts) (Descriptions)
p. Anger 1. Physical or verbal behaviour intended to hurt someone.
q. Displacement 2. The blocking of goal directed behaviour.
r. Aggression 3. Redirecting the reaction to a target other than source of frustration.
s. Frustration 4. An emotional readiness to aggress.
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans: D
70. Given below are the two statements, the first labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Memories of eye witnesses are fragile as many factors can distort their memories.
Reason (R): Post event information can interfere with their memories to a great extent.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
Q. Nos. 71 to 75. Read the following passage and answer the five questions that follow:
A researcher wanted to study the effect of stress on reaction time and whether the effect of stress is moderated by the stimulus complexity – Low and High. The researcher had a hypothesis that increased stress would adversely affect the reaction speed. From an initial pool of 160 subjects, four groups of 40 subjects each were formed and routine reaction time experiment was performed. Group I was tested under relaxed condition and low stimulus complexity Group II was tested under stressful condition and law stimulus complexity Group III was tested under relaxed condition and high stimulus complexity and Group IV was tested under stressful condition, and high stimulus complexity. The fore-period was randomly varied. The data were analyzed by following suitable ANOVA model. Among the various F ratios, the F ratio computed as ‘MSAXB/MSerror’, yielded interesting results.
71. The design in this study would be best labelled as
(A) Randomized four-group design with single IV.
(B) 2 × 2 factorial design.
(C) 2 × 2 factorial design with a covariate.
(D) Randomized blocked design.
Ans: B
72. What would be the degrees of freedom for the main effect of stress?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 156
Ans: A
73. The significant F ratio computed as ‘MSAXB/MSerror’ indicates that
(A) The main effect of stress is significant.
(B) The main effect of stimulus complexity is significant.
(C) The effect of stress is moderated by stimulus complexity.
(D) Every group differs from remaining groups significantly.
Ans: C
74. Which of the following statement/s is/are false in this experiment?
1. Stress is an independent variable.
2. Stimulus complexity is a covariate.
3. Fore-period duration is an ‘independent’ variable.
4. Reaction time is a dependent variable.
Codes:
(A) 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans: D
75. Which of the following is the assumption/s which should be satisfied while carrying out the ANOVA in this study?
1. Heterogeneity of variance.
2. Independence of scores within each cell.
3. Normal distribution of the residuals from the model.
4. Homogeneity of covariance matrices.
Codes:
(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: B
76. Which of the following is not one of the Big Five personality factors?
(A) Submissiveness
(B) Agreeableness
(C) Extroversion
(D) Openness to experience
Ans: A
77. Read the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The level of arousal for optimal performance varies for different tasks.
Reason (R): Too little arousal can be non-motivating, too high arousal can be disruptive.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
78. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Behaviour) (Expression mode)
a. Tone 1. Facial
b. Crying 2. Glanduar
c. Laugh 3. Varbal
d. Eyebrow 4. Muscular
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans: A
79. A slow graded electrical potential produced by a receptor cell in response to a physical stimulus is
(A) Receptor potential
(B) Generator potential
(C) Transduction
(D) Arousal
Ans: A
80. This area contains ‘Somoto Sensory Cortex’
(A) Parietal lobe
(B) Frontal lobe
(C) Temporal lobe
(D) Occipital lobe
Ans: A
81. Give the correct sequence of the location of following glands in human body from top to bottom
(A) Thyroid – Adrenal – Pancreas – Pituitary
(B) Thyroid – Pancreas – Pituitary– Adrenal
(C) Pituitary – Adrenal – Thyroid – Pancreas
(D) Pituitary – Thyroid – Adrenal – Pancreas
Ans: D
82. A complex behaviour that is rigidly patterned throughout a species and is unlearned is called
(A) Imprinting
(B) Instinct
(C) Emotion
(D) Feeling
Ans: B
83. Our tendency to perceive objects as unchanging despite changes in sensory input is an illustration of
(A) Figure-Ground relationship
(B) Perceptual constancy
(C) Binocular cues
(D) Linear perspective
Ans: B
84. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): As compared to other methods of psychological research, experimental method is usually considered to be best suited for studying cause and effect relationship.
Reason (R): Secondary variance is more efficiently controlled in experimental method.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following conclusion is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
85. Consider the following three types of psychological researches:
1. Field experiment
2. Laboratory experiment
3. Ex post facto study
Arrange these typical investigations in descending order in terms of the researcher’s ability to control secondary variance.
(A) 3, 1, 2
(B) 2, 1, 3
(C) 3, 2, 1
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans: B
86. What is the correct sequence of development of the following personality tests?
1. Maudsley Personality Inventory
2. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2
3. Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory
4. NEO PI-3
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 2, 4, 1, 3
(D) 1, 3, 2, 4
Ans: D
87. Perceiving one thing in relation to another when both are presented simultaneously is called
(A) Simultaneous perception
(B) Figure-Ground perception
(C) Consecutive perception
(D) Successive perception
Ans: B
88. Verbal behaviour that is reinforced when someone else’s verbal response is repeated verbation is called
(A) Autoclitic behaviour
(B) Echoic behaviour
(C) Reinforced behaviour
(D) Operant behaviour
Ans: B
89. Which of the following are essential to Spearman’s methodology of theory development?
I. Tetral equation
II. Tetral difference
III. Specific factor
IV. Neurological basis of intelligence
Codes:
(A) I, II and III
(B) I, III and IV
(C) II, III and IV
(D) I, II and IV
Ans: A
90. Dissociable sub-systems operate simultaneously in each hemisphere and help us recognize similarity at one level and differences at another level in the perceived pattern. This system consists of
1. Top-down processing system
2. Abstract category sub-system
3. Bottom-up processing system
4. Specific-exemplar sub-system
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
Ans: C
91. Based on Eysenkian theory of personality, what are the correct sequence levels of personality from bottom to top?
1. Habit level
2. Trait level
3. Type level
4. S.R. level
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3
(D) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans: C
92. Speed and power tests cannot be differentiated on the basis of
I. Time limit
II. Verbal content
III. Non-verbal content
IV. Difficulty level
Codes:
(A) I and IV
(B) II and IV
(C) II and III
(D) I, III and IV
Ans: C
93. According to two factors of Retroactive Interference, RI is caused by two factors: One is unlearning of the first task during the time one is engaged in the second task. What is the second factor?
(A) Unlearning of the responses of second task.
(B) Competition of the first task responses with the second task responses that inhibits the recall responses of the first task at the time of recall.
(C) Inability to recall responses from first task.
(D) Decaying of memory-traces of responses of first task.
Ans: B
94. One of the difficulties with the survey method is
(A) Inability to examine changes over time.
(B) That subjects may give dishonest or inaccurate responses.
(C) The relatively small number of subjects used.
(D) The impossibility of getting a representative sample.
Ans: B
95. A cell in a contingency table had an obtained frequency of 16 and an expected frequency of 25. What would be the contribution of this cell to the total chi-square value?
(A) 3.24
(B) 5.06
(C) 9.00
(D) 81.00
Ans: A
Questions 96 to 100: Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions which follow:
The notion of true score is at the heart of classical reliability theory. This model proposes that the obtained score on a variable is a sum of true score and the random error of measurement, the two components being independent. Using this model, various ways of computing reliability have been developed. One of the ways of examining the reliability of a test is to test the homogeneity of test items or the internal consistency. The most widely used method of estimating the reliability is split half technique, also called as odd-even reliability. In this context, Spearman Brown correction is important. Kuder- Richardson reliability and Chronbach Alpha are the two other methods of studying internal consistency.
Another important type of reliability is the interscorer reliability. This reliability is not useful for objective tests, but for certain types it is quite important. There are also other types of reliability such as parallel form reliability and test retest reliability, the latter concerned with temporal stability of the test results.
96. Reliability can be defined as
(A) (True score variance) / (Total variance)
(B) (Error variance) / (Total variance
(C) (True score variance) / (Error variance
(D) (Error variance) / (Total score variance
Ans: A
97. For a newly developed test, the scores on odd and even part correlated by 0.4. After applying Spearman-Brown formula
(A) The corrected reliability would by 0.8.
(B) The corrected reliability would be 0.4.
(C) The corrected reliability would be greater than 0.4 and lesser than 0.8.
(D) The corrected reliability would be lesser than 0.4.
Ans: C
98. Which of the following statement is true for tests with dichotomous items?
(A) Chronbach Alpha is greater than Kuder-Richardson reliability.
(B) Chronbach Alpha is smaller than Kuder-Richardson reliability.
(C) Chronbach Alpha and Kuder- Richardson reliability are equal.
(D) Chronbach Alpha may be greater or smaller than Kuder- Richardson reliability.
Ans: C
99. For which of the following types of tests interscorer reliability is relevant?
1. Objective personality inventories
2. Projective tests
3. Achievement tests with descriptive items
4. Intelligence tests
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans: D
100. If two groups are administered the same test with a time gap of eight weeks, we would be able to compute
(A) Test-retest reliability
(B) Parallel form reliability
(C) Interscorer reliability
(D) None of the above reliabilities can be computed.
Ans: D