PRECISION INSTRUMENTS
PRECISION INSTRUMENTS MCQs
1. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(A) Carbon (B) Aluminium
(C) Tungsten (D) Nickel
Ans: C
2. Abiotic natural resource is
(A) Land (B) Coal
(C) Flora (D) Fauna
Ans: A
3. IPCC does NOT prepare comprehensive report on:
(A) Socio-economic knowledge on climate change
(B) Cause of climate change
(C) Mitigation of climatic change
(D) Action plan on climate change
Ans: D
4. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.
(A) Lubricant keep out dirt (B) Lubricant act as a seal
(C) Lubricant transmit fluid power (D) Lubricant enhance corrosion
Ans: D
5. ________ is the lowest temperature at which the lubricating oil will pour.
(A) Viscosity (B) Pour point
(C) Fire point (D) None of the mentioned
Ans: B
6. Presence of sulphur in the boiler fuel leads to
(A) corrosion (B) erosion
(C) low heat transfer (D) none of the above
Ans: A
7. The composition of cartridge brass is
(A) 70% Cu and 30% Zn (B) 60% Cu and 40% Zn
(C) 50% Cu and 50% Zn (D) 20% Cu and 80% Zn
Ans: A
8. The treatment that should be given to the water from a deep tube well is:
(A) Pre-settling only (B) Coagulation and flocculation only
(C) Filtration only (D) Disinfection only
Ans: D
9. Diamond cutting tools are not recommended for machining of ferrous metals due to
(A) high tool hardness (B) high thermal conductivity of work material
(C) poor tool toughness (D) chemical affinity of tool material with iron
Ans: D
10. Which of the following is NOT a variety of silica (SiO2)?
(A) Jasper (B) Coesite
(C) Stishovite (D) Flinkite
Ans: D
11. A good textile fibre should be ________ Crystalline
(A) 100% (B) 25%
(C) 90% (D) 67%
Ans: D
12. Presence of ________ in a dry gaseous fuel does not contribute to its calorific value.
(A) Sulphur (B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen (D) Carbon
Ans: B
13. A coal having high amount of volatile matter
(A) would require smaller combustion chamber.
(B) produces very little of tar and gas on carbonisation.
(C) ignites easily and burns with long smoky flame.
(D) all the above.
Ans: D
14. Viscosity index is a measure for the change of viscosity with change in
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure
(C) Volume (D) All of the above
Ans: A
15. Type of Lubrication system is used in Aircraft Engines
(A) Mist lubrication system (B) Wet sump system
(C) Dry sump system (D) Splash system
Ans: C
16. A direct product of anaerobic digestion is
(A) Ethanol (B) Biodiesel
(C) Syngas (D) Biogas
Ans: D
17. Brittle fracture is more dangerous than ductile fracture because ________ .
(A) No warning sign
(B) Crack propagates at very high speeds
(C) No need for extra stress during crack propagation
(D) All the above
Ans: D
18. Which test measures hardness
(A) Brinell test (B) Rockwell test
(C) Vicker’s test (D) All of these tests.
Ans: D
19. IZOD test measures
(A) Hardness (B) Ductility
(C) Impact-strength (D) Grain size
Ans: C
20. Two blocks which are at different states are brought into contact with each other and allowed to reach a final state of thermal equilibrium. The final temperature attained is specified by
(A) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (B) First law of thermodynamics
(C) Second law of thermodynamics (D) Third law of thermodynamics
Ans: A
21. The materials such as lead and barium, which are added with polymers to minimize the effect of heat, sunlight and ozone are called as
(A) Binders (B) Blenders
(C) Stabilisers (D) Fillers
Ans: C
22. Gross and net calorific value of a fuel will be the same
(A) If its ash content is zero.
(B) If its carbon content is very low.
(C) If its hydrogen/hydrogen compound content is zero.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C
23. A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark ignition engine because
(A) The air standard efficiency of diesel cycle is higher than the Otto cycle, at a fixed compression ratio
(B) Self-ignition temperature of diesel is higher than that of gasoline.
(C) The compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of a Spark Ignition engine
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
24. Al-alloys for engine/automobile parts are reinforced to increase its
(A) Strength (B) Wear resistance
(C) Elastic modulus (D) Density
Ans: B
25. The chemically neutral refractory is
(A) Graphite (B) Silica
(C) Dolomite (D) None of the Above
Ans: A
26. The Process of reheating Martensite steel to reduce brittleness without significant loss in hardness is called
(A) Normalising (B) Annealing
(C) Tempering (D) Hardening
Ans: C
27. Which of the following are intensive properties?
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Density (3) Pressure (4) Entropy
Select the correct answer from below:
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 4
Ans: B
28. Which one of the following thermodynamic processes approximates the steaming of food in a pressure cooker?
(A) Isenthalpic process (B) Isobaric process
(C) Isochoric process (D) Isothermal process
Ans: C
29. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
I. The first law of thermodynamics is a law of conservation of energy.
II. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind converts energy into equivalent work.
III. A closed system does not exchange work or energy with its surroundings.
IV. The second law of thermodynamics stipulated the law of conservation of energy and entropy
(A) Only I (B) I and III
(C) II and IV (D) I, II and III
Ans: A
30. Which one of the following cycles has the highest thermal efficiency for given maximum and minimum cycle temperature?
(A) Brayton cycle (B) Otto cycle
(C) Diesel Cycle (D) Stirling cycle
Ans: D
31. A hydraulic power station has the following major items in the hydraulic circuit:
(1) Draft tube (2) Runner (3) Guide wheel (4) Penstock
The correct sequence of these items in the direction of flow is:
(A) 4, 2, 3, 1 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 3, 2, 4
Ans: B
32. The use of a draft tube in a reaction type water turbine helps to:
(A) Prevent air from entering
(B) Increase the flow rate
(C) Convert the kinetic energy to pressure energy
(D) Eliminate eddies in the downstream
Ans: C
33. The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts, irrespective of its position, is known as
(A) Moment of inertia (B) Centre of percussion
(C) Centre of mass (D) Centre of gravity
Ans: D
34. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
(A) Force (B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration (D) Speed
Ans: D
35. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
(A) spark plug
(B) injector
(C) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
(D) none of the above
Ans: C
36. Which one of the following phenomenon occurs when gas in a piston in cylinder assembly expands reversibly at constant pressure?
(A) Heat is added to the gas
(B) Heat is removed from the gas
(C) Gas does work from its own stored energy
(D) Gas undergoes adiabatic expansion
Ans: A
37. Statement (I) : Thermometers using different thermometric property substance may give different readings except at two fixed points
Statement (II) : Thermodynamic temperature scale is independent of any particular thermometric substance.
(A) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are individually true and statement (II) is the correct explanation of statement (I).
(B) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are individually true but statement (II) is not the correct explanation of statement (I).
(C) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false.
(D) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true.
Ans: B
38. Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
(1) Change in internal energy is zero
(2) Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
39. Which one of the following sets of thermodynamic laws/relations is directly involved in determining the final properties during an adiabatic mixing process?
(A) The first and second law of thermodynamics
(B) The second law of thermodynamics and steady flow relations
(C) Perfect gas relationship and steady flow relations
(D) The first law of thermodynamics and perfect gas relationship
Ans: D
40. A thermodynamic system is considered to be an isolated one if
(A) Mass transfer and entropy change are zero
(B) Entropy change and energy transfer are zero
(C) Energy transfer and mass transfer are zero
(D) Mass transfer and volume change are zero
Ans: C
41. Statement (I) : All constant entropy processes are adiabatic, but all adiabatic processes are not isentropic
Statement (II) : An adiabatic process which resist the exchange of energy to the surroundings may have irreversibility due to friction and heat conduction.
(A) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are individually true and statement (II) is the correct explanation of statement (I).
(B) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are individually true but statement (II) is not the correct explanation of statement (I).
(C) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false.
(D) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true.
Ans: D
42. Unit of power is
(A) hp (B) W
(C) N-m/s (D) All above
Ans: D
43. For a four cylinder, four stroke SI engine operating at 4000 rpm, the number of times for which the spark will trigger in one minute will be
(A) 2000 (B) 4000
(C) 8000 (D) None of the above
Ans: C
44. When heat is added or subtracted, resulting in a change of temperature is called as
(A) Sensible heat (B) Latent heat
(C) Specific heat (D) Heat capacity
Ans: A
45. The objective of energy conservation and management is
(A) To minimize energy costs (B) To minimize environmental effects
(C) (A) & (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
46. Energy available in fuels is stored as
(A) Heat Energy (B) Chemical Energy
(C) Atomic Energy (D) Explosive Energy
Ans: B
47. If LPG has Gross Calorific Value of 50,000 kJ/kg, then 12 kWh of Heat is equivalent to around ———— kg LPG
(A) 0.96 (B) 0.86
(C) 8.6 (D) 86
Ans: B
48. One lux is equal to ________ .
(A) one lumen per meter (B) one lumen per m3
(C) one lumen per m2 (D) None
Ans: C
49. Which of the following light source has least life?
(A) Sodium vapor (B) Mercury Vapour
(C) Halogen (D) Incandescent
Ans: D
50. The minimum illuminance required for non-working interiors as per IS 3646 is ___.
(A) 100 lux (B) 50 lux
(C) 20 lux (D) 1000 lux
Ans: C
(A) Carbon (B) Aluminium
(C) Tungsten (D) Nickel
Ans: C
2. Abiotic natural resource is
(A) Land (B) Coal
(C) Flora (D) Fauna
Ans: A
3. IPCC does NOT prepare comprehensive report on:
(A) Socio-economic knowledge on climate change
(B) Cause of climate change
(C) Mitigation of climatic change
(D) Action plan on climate change
Ans: D
4. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.
(A) Lubricant keep out dirt (B) Lubricant act as a seal
(C) Lubricant transmit fluid power (D) Lubricant enhance corrosion
Ans: D
5. ________ is the lowest temperature at which the lubricating oil will pour.
(A) Viscosity (B) Pour point
(C) Fire point (D) None of the mentioned
Ans: B
6. Presence of sulphur in the boiler fuel leads to
(A) corrosion (B) erosion
(C) low heat transfer (D) none of the above
Ans: A
7. The composition of cartridge brass is
(A) 70% Cu and 30% Zn (B) 60% Cu and 40% Zn
(C) 50% Cu and 50% Zn (D) 20% Cu and 80% Zn
Ans: A
8. The treatment that should be given to the water from a deep tube well is:
(A) Pre-settling only (B) Coagulation and flocculation only
(C) Filtration only (D) Disinfection only
Ans: D
9. Diamond cutting tools are not recommended for machining of ferrous metals due to
(A) high tool hardness (B) high thermal conductivity of work material
(C) poor tool toughness (D) chemical affinity of tool material with iron
Ans: D
10. Which of the following is NOT a variety of silica (SiO2)?
(A) Jasper (B) Coesite
(C) Stishovite (D) Flinkite
Ans: D
11. A good textile fibre should be ________ Crystalline
(A) 100% (B) 25%
(C) 90% (D) 67%
Ans: D
12. Presence of ________ in a dry gaseous fuel does not contribute to its calorific value.
(A) Sulphur (B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen (D) Carbon
Ans: B
13. A coal having high amount of volatile matter
(A) would require smaller combustion chamber.
(B) produces very little of tar and gas on carbonisation.
(C) ignites easily and burns with long smoky flame.
(D) all the above.
Ans: D
14. Viscosity index is a measure for the change of viscosity with change in
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure
(C) Volume (D) All of the above
Ans: A
15. Type of Lubrication system is used in Aircraft Engines
(A) Mist lubrication system (B) Wet sump system
(C) Dry sump system (D) Splash system
Ans: C
16. A direct product of anaerobic digestion is
(A) Ethanol (B) Biodiesel
(C) Syngas (D) Biogas
Ans: D
17. Brittle fracture is more dangerous than ductile fracture because ________ .
(A) No warning sign
(B) Crack propagates at very high speeds
(C) No need for extra stress during crack propagation
(D) All the above
Ans: D
18. Which test measures hardness
(A) Brinell test (B) Rockwell test
(C) Vicker’s test (D) All of these tests.
Ans: D
19. IZOD test measures
(A) Hardness (B) Ductility
(C) Impact-strength (D) Grain size
Ans: C
20. Two blocks which are at different states are brought into contact with each other and allowed to reach a final state of thermal equilibrium. The final temperature attained is specified by
(A) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (B) First law of thermodynamics
(C) Second law of thermodynamics (D) Third law of thermodynamics
Ans: A
21. The materials such as lead and barium, which are added with polymers to minimize the effect of heat, sunlight and ozone are called as
(A) Binders (B) Blenders
(C) Stabilisers (D) Fillers
Ans: C
22. Gross and net calorific value of a fuel will be the same
(A) If its ash content is zero.
(B) If its carbon content is very low.
(C) If its hydrogen/hydrogen compound content is zero.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: C
23. A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark ignition engine because
(A) The air standard efficiency of diesel cycle is higher than the Otto cycle, at a fixed compression ratio
(B) Self-ignition temperature of diesel is higher than that of gasoline.
(C) The compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of a Spark Ignition engine
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
24. Al-alloys for engine/automobile parts are reinforced to increase its
(A) Strength (B) Wear resistance
(C) Elastic modulus (D) Density
Ans: B
25. The chemically neutral refractory is
(A) Graphite (B) Silica
(C) Dolomite (D) None of the Above
Ans: A
26. The Process of reheating Martensite steel to reduce brittleness without significant loss in hardness is called
(A) Normalising (B) Annealing
(C) Tempering (D) Hardening
Ans: C
27. Which of the following are intensive properties?
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Density (3) Pressure (4) Entropy
Select the correct answer from below:
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 4
Ans: B
28. Which one of the following thermodynamic processes approximates the steaming of food in a pressure cooker?
(A) Isenthalpic process (B) Isobaric process
(C) Isochoric process (D) Isothermal process
Ans: C
29. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
I. The first law of thermodynamics is a law of conservation of energy.
II. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind converts energy into equivalent work.
III. A closed system does not exchange work or energy with its surroundings.
IV. The second law of thermodynamics stipulated the law of conservation of energy and entropy
(A) Only I (B) I and III
(C) II and IV (D) I, II and III
Ans: A
30. Which one of the following cycles has the highest thermal efficiency for given maximum and minimum cycle temperature?
(A) Brayton cycle (B) Otto cycle
(C) Diesel Cycle (D) Stirling cycle
Ans: D
31. A hydraulic power station has the following major items in the hydraulic circuit:
(1) Draft tube (2) Runner (3) Guide wheel (4) Penstock
The correct sequence of these items in the direction of flow is:
(A) 4, 2, 3, 1 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 3, 2, 4
Ans: B
32. The use of a draft tube in a reaction type water turbine helps to:
(A) Prevent air from entering
(B) Increase the flow rate
(C) Convert the kinetic energy to pressure energy
(D) Eliminate eddies in the downstream
Ans: C
33. The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts, irrespective of its position, is known as
(A) Moment of inertia (B) Centre of percussion
(C) Centre of mass (D) Centre of gravity
Ans: D
34. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
(A) Force (B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration (D) Speed
Ans: D
35. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
(A) spark plug
(B) injector
(C) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
(D) none of the above
Ans: C
36. Which one of the following phenomenon occurs when gas in a piston in cylinder assembly expands reversibly at constant pressure?
(A) Heat is added to the gas
(B) Heat is removed from the gas
(C) Gas does work from its own stored energy
(D) Gas undergoes adiabatic expansion
Ans: A
37. Statement (I) : Thermometers using different thermometric property substance may give different readings except at two fixed points
Statement (II) : Thermodynamic temperature scale is independent of any particular thermometric substance.
(A) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are individually true and statement (II) is the correct explanation of statement (I).
(B) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are individually true but statement (II) is not the correct explanation of statement (I).
(C) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false.
(D) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true.
Ans: B
38. Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
(1) Change in internal energy is zero
(2) Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
39. Which one of the following sets of thermodynamic laws/relations is directly involved in determining the final properties during an adiabatic mixing process?
(A) The first and second law of thermodynamics
(B) The second law of thermodynamics and steady flow relations
(C) Perfect gas relationship and steady flow relations
(D) The first law of thermodynamics and perfect gas relationship
Ans: D
40. A thermodynamic system is considered to be an isolated one if
(A) Mass transfer and entropy change are zero
(B) Entropy change and energy transfer are zero
(C) Energy transfer and mass transfer are zero
(D) Mass transfer and volume change are zero
Ans: C
41. Statement (I) : All constant entropy processes are adiabatic, but all adiabatic processes are not isentropic
Statement (II) : An adiabatic process which resist the exchange of energy to the surroundings may have irreversibility due to friction and heat conduction.
(A) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are individually true and statement (II) is the correct explanation of statement (I).
(B) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are individually true but statement (II) is not the correct explanation of statement (I).
(C) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false.
(D) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true.
Ans: D
42. Unit of power is
(A) hp (B) W
(C) N-m/s (D) All above
Ans: D
43. For a four cylinder, four stroke SI engine operating at 4000 rpm, the number of times for which the spark will trigger in one minute will be
(A) 2000 (B) 4000
(C) 8000 (D) None of the above
Ans: C
44. When heat is added or subtracted, resulting in a change of temperature is called as
(A) Sensible heat (B) Latent heat
(C) Specific heat (D) Heat capacity
Ans: A
45. The objective of energy conservation and management is
(A) To minimize energy costs (B) To minimize environmental effects
(C) (A) & (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
46. Energy available in fuels is stored as
(A) Heat Energy (B) Chemical Energy
(C) Atomic Energy (D) Explosive Energy
Ans: B
47. If LPG has Gross Calorific Value of 50,000 kJ/kg, then 12 kWh of Heat is equivalent to around ———— kg LPG
(A) 0.96 (B) 0.86
(C) 8.6 (D) 86
Ans: B
48. One lux is equal to ________ .
(A) one lumen per meter (B) one lumen per m3
(C) one lumen per m2 (D) None
Ans: C
49. Which of the following light source has least life?
(A) Sodium vapor (B) Mercury Vapour
(C) Halogen (D) Incandescent
Ans: D
50. The minimum illuminance required for non-working interiors as per IS 3646 is ___.
(A) 100 lux (B) 50 lux
(C) 20 lux (D) 1000 lux
Ans: C
51. The average rated life of CFL is ________ .
(A) 1,00,000 hours (B) 10,000 hours
(C) 100 hours (D) 1,000 hours
Ans: B
52. A cylindrical wire, 1 meter in length, has a resistance of 100 Ohm. What would be the resistance of a wire made from the same material if both the length and diameter are doubled?
(A) 200 Ohm (B) 400 Ohm
(C) 100 Ohm (D) 50 Ohm
Ans: D
53. The wiring system generally employed in public buildings (offices) is
(A) Cleat wiring (B) Conduit wiring
(C) T.S. wiring (D) Casing – capping wiring
Ans: B
54. The capacitor used in auto transformer circuit for sodium vapor lamps, is for
(A) protection against accidental power failure
(B) controlling illumination level of the lamp
(C) for regulating discharge voltage
(D) for improving the power factor of the circuit
Ans: D
55. In a Semi-direct fittings used in lighting,
(A) not less than 90 % of the total luminous flux is directed in the lower hemisphere
(B) more than 60% but less than 90% of the total flux is in the lower hemisphere
(C) not less than 40 % and not more than 60% of the total luminous flux is directed in the lower hemisphere
(D) not less than 90% of the total flux is directed in the upper hemisphere
Ans: B
56. The most common type of fault is
(A) Single line to ground fault (B) Line to line fault
(C) Double line to ground fault (D) three phase fault
Ans: A
57. For a current of about 10A to 15 A which material is used as the fusing element?
(A) Copper (B) Silver
(C) Alloy of lead and tin (D) Zinc
Ans: C
58. Directional over-current relay is used for protection of
(A) Long transmission line (B) large power transformer
(C) ring main distribution line (D) radial distribution line
Ans: C
59. Miniature Circuit Breaker is a small
(A) Fuse (B) Magnetic switch
(C) Electromagnetic switch (D) Two-way switch
Ans: C
60. The objective of earthing or grounding is:
(A) to provide as low resistance possible to the ground
(B) to provide as high resistance possible to the ground
(C) to provide flow of positive, negative and zero sequence currents
(D) none of the above
Ans: A
61. Isolators used in transmission lines are capable of breaking
(A) fault current (B) no current
(C) charging current (D) load current
Ans: B
62. Under voltage relays are mostly used for
(A) transformer protection (B) bus-bar protection
(C) motor protection (D) feeder protection
Ans: C
63. All fossil fuels are composed of
(A) Methane (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulfur (D) Hydrocarbons
Ans: D
64. The optimum angle for setting a solar collector to obtain the highest average radiation for a given location is
(A) 0° (B) 45°
(C) 54° (D) Equal to the latitude of given location
Ans: D
65. An anemometer is used to determine
(A) Wind speed (B) Wind direction
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Ans: A
66. Retained earnings are
(A) an indication of a company’s liquidity.
(B) the same as cash in the bank.
(C) not important when determining dividends.
(D) the cumulative earnings of the company after dividends.
Ans: D
67. Geothermal resources are commonly classified by the
(A) Depth and volume of magma present
(B) Amount of hydrocarbon present
(C) Porosity of rock at the source
(D) Temperature and amount of fluid present
Ans: D
68. Water stored behind a hydroelectric dam is an example of
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy
(C) Electrical energy (D) All of these
Ans: B
69. Thyristor can be protected from over voltages by using
(A) voltage clamping device. (B) fuse
(C) heat sink (D) snubber circuit
Ans: A
70. The smallest integer that can be represented by an 8-bit number in 2’s complement form is
(A) –256 (B) –128
(C) –127 (D) 0
Ans: B
71. How many bits are represented in 8 KB?
(A) 8000 (B) 8192
(C) 4000 (D) 65536
Ans: B
72. The number 84 in BCD (Binary Coded Decimal) is
(A) 1000 0100 (B) 0100 0100
(C) 1000 101 (D) 1000 1100
Ans: A
73. What is the 2’s complement of 0011 0101 1001 1100 number?
(A) 1100 1010 1100 1011 (B) 1100 1010 0110 0011
(C) 1100 1010 0110 0100 (D) None of the above
Ans: C
74. The device that can both feed data into and accept data from a computer is
(A) ALU (B) CPU
(C) Input-Output device (D) All of the above
Ans: C
75. A compiler means
(A) A person who compiles source programs
(B) Keypunch operator
(C) The same thing as a programmer
(D) A program which translates source program into object program
Ans: D
76. ________ memory in a computer is both readable and writable, randomly.
(A) RAM (B) ROM
(C) PROM (D) EPROM
Ans: A
77. The quantity of heat required to raise 1 kg of a substance by 1° C is known as
(A) sensible heat (B) specific heat
(C) latent heat (D) calorie
Ans: B
78. Which of the following is not a Primary Energy Source?
(A) Oil (B) Natural Gas
(C) Electricity (D) Wood
Ans: C
79. Which of the following material has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance?
(A) Brass (B) Copper
(C) Aluminium (D) Carbon
Ans: D
80. Baud, the unit for measuring data transmission speed, is equal to
(A) Number of bits per second (B) Number of bytes per second
(C) Number of characters per second (D) None of the above
Ans: A
81. The flowchart symbol that represents input is ________
(A) A rectangle (B) A parallelogram
(C) A triangle (D) A square
Ans: B
82. Part of algorithm which is repeated for fixed number of times is classified as
(A) Iteration (B) selection
(C) sequence (D) reverse action
Ans: A
83. Data can be stored permanently on ________
(A) RAM (B) Magnetic Disk
(C) Printers (D) Cache memory
Ans: B
84. The secondary storage device that follows the sequential mode of access is
(A) Optical Disk (B) Magnetic Disk
(C) Magnetic Tape (D) None
Ans: C
85. The functional unit of a computer that is responsible for performing arithmetical and logical operations is called
(A) Input-output unit (B) secondary storage unit
(C) microprocessor (D) primary storage unit
Ans: C
86. Trojan – Horse programs
(A) do not usually work
(B) are hidden programs intended for malicious usage and that do not show up on the system
(C) usually are immediately discovered
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
87. The operating system of a computer is responsible for managing
(A) memory (B) processor
(C) disk device (D) all of the above
Ans: D
88. ________ address assigned to a computer is a logical address whereas, ________ address assigned to it is the physical address of a computer.
(A) MAC, URL (B) IP, MAC
(C) Physical, Logical (D) Domain name, IP
Ans: B
89. If XYZ, Inc., repurchased 50 percent of its outstanding common stock from the open (secondary) market, the result would be
(A) a decline in EPS (B) an increase in cash
(C) a decrease in total assets (D) an increase in the number of stockholders
Ans: C
90. β(Beta) of a security measures its:
(A) Diversifiable risk (B) Financial risk
(C) Market risk (D) None of above
Ans: C
91. Which of the following is a Profitability Ratio?
(A) Proprietary Ratio (B) Debt –Equity Ratio
(C) Price Earnings Ratio (D) Fixed Asset Ratio
Ans: C
92. Spontaneous financing includes
(A) Accounts receivables (B) Accounts payable
(C) Short term loans (D) Line of credit
Ans: B
93. Net working capital refers to
(A) Total assets minus fixed assets (B) Current assets minus current liabilities
(C) Current assets minus inventories (D) Current assets
Ans: B
94. Marketable securities are primarily
(A) short-term debt instruments. (B) short-term equity securities
(C) long-term debt instruments (D) long-term equity securities
Ans: A
95. A capital investment is one that
(A) has the prospect of long-term benefits.
(B) has the prospect of short-term benefits.
(C) is only undertaken by large corporations.
(D) applies only to investment in fixed assets.
Ans: A
96. Managerial options can be viewed as
(A) Methods for reducing agency risk through the use of incentives.
(B) Methods for reducing total firm risk through diversification.
(C) Strategies for increasing management compensation.
(D) Opportunities for altering management decisions in the future.
Ans: D
97. Financial intermediaries __________.
(A) do not invest in new long-term securities
(B) include insurance companies and pension funds
(C) include the national and regional stock exchanges
(D) are usually underwriting syndicates
Ans: B
98. “Shareholder wealth” in a firm is represented by:
(A) the number of people employed in the firm.
(B) the book value of the firm’s assets less the book value of its liabilities.
(C) the amount of salary paid to its employees.
(D) the market price per share of the firm’s common stock.
Ans: D
99. Color rendering index of Halogen lamps compared to low pressure sodium vapor lamps is ___.
(A) Poor (B) Excellent
(C) Average (D) Very poor
Ans: B
100. The long-run objective of financial management is to:
(A) maximize earnings per share.
(B) maximize the value of the firm’s common stock.
(C) maximize return on investment.
(D) maximize market share.
Ans: B
(A) 1,00,000 hours (B) 10,000 hours
(C) 100 hours (D) 1,000 hours
Ans: B
52. A cylindrical wire, 1 meter in length, has a resistance of 100 Ohm. What would be the resistance of a wire made from the same material if both the length and diameter are doubled?
(A) 200 Ohm (B) 400 Ohm
(C) 100 Ohm (D) 50 Ohm
Ans: D
53. The wiring system generally employed in public buildings (offices) is
(A) Cleat wiring (B) Conduit wiring
(C) T.S. wiring (D) Casing – capping wiring
Ans: B
54. The capacitor used in auto transformer circuit for sodium vapor lamps, is for
(A) protection against accidental power failure
(B) controlling illumination level of the lamp
(C) for regulating discharge voltage
(D) for improving the power factor of the circuit
Ans: D
55. In a Semi-direct fittings used in lighting,
(A) not less than 90 % of the total luminous flux is directed in the lower hemisphere
(B) more than 60% but less than 90% of the total flux is in the lower hemisphere
(C) not less than 40 % and not more than 60% of the total luminous flux is directed in the lower hemisphere
(D) not less than 90% of the total flux is directed in the upper hemisphere
Ans: B
56. The most common type of fault is
(A) Single line to ground fault (B) Line to line fault
(C) Double line to ground fault (D) three phase fault
Ans: A
57. For a current of about 10A to 15 A which material is used as the fusing element?
(A) Copper (B) Silver
(C) Alloy of lead and tin (D) Zinc
Ans: C
58. Directional over-current relay is used for protection of
(A) Long transmission line (B) large power transformer
(C) ring main distribution line (D) radial distribution line
Ans: C
59. Miniature Circuit Breaker is a small
(A) Fuse (B) Magnetic switch
(C) Electromagnetic switch (D) Two-way switch
Ans: C
60. The objective of earthing or grounding is:
(A) to provide as low resistance possible to the ground
(B) to provide as high resistance possible to the ground
(C) to provide flow of positive, negative and zero sequence currents
(D) none of the above
Ans: A
61. Isolators used in transmission lines are capable of breaking
(A) fault current (B) no current
(C) charging current (D) load current
Ans: B
62. Under voltage relays are mostly used for
(A) transformer protection (B) bus-bar protection
(C) motor protection (D) feeder protection
Ans: C
63. All fossil fuels are composed of
(A) Methane (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulfur (D) Hydrocarbons
Ans: D
64. The optimum angle for setting a solar collector to obtain the highest average radiation for a given location is
(A) 0° (B) 45°
(C) 54° (D) Equal to the latitude of given location
Ans: D
65. An anemometer is used to determine
(A) Wind speed (B) Wind direction
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Ans: A
66. Retained earnings are
(A) an indication of a company’s liquidity.
(B) the same as cash in the bank.
(C) not important when determining dividends.
(D) the cumulative earnings of the company after dividends.
Ans: D
67. Geothermal resources are commonly classified by the
(A) Depth and volume of magma present
(B) Amount of hydrocarbon present
(C) Porosity of rock at the source
(D) Temperature and amount of fluid present
Ans: D
68. Water stored behind a hydroelectric dam is an example of
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy
(C) Electrical energy (D) All of these
Ans: B
69. Thyristor can be protected from over voltages by using
(A) voltage clamping device. (B) fuse
(C) heat sink (D) snubber circuit
Ans: A
70. The smallest integer that can be represented by an 8-bit number in 2’s complement form is
(A) –256 (B) –128
(C) –127 (D) 0
Ans: B
71. How many bits are represented in 8 KB?
(A) 8000 (B) 8192
(C) 4000 (D) 65536
Ans: B
72. The number 84 in BCD (Binary Coded Decimal) is
(A) 1000 0100 (B) 0100 0100
(C) 1000 101 (D) 1000 1100
Ans: A
73. What is the 2’s complement of 0011 0101 1001 1100 number?
(A) 1100 1010 1100 1011 (B) 1100 1010 0110 0011
(C) 1100 1010 0110 0100 (D) None of the above
Ans: C
74. The device that can both feed data into and accept data from a computer is
(A) ALU (B) CPU
(C) Input-Output device (D) All of the above
Ans: C
75. A compiler means
(A) A person who compiles source programs
(B) Keypunch operator
(C) The same thing as a programmer
(D) A program which translates source program into object program
Ans: D
76. ________ memory in a computer is both readable and writable, randomly.
(A) RAM (B) ROM
(C) PROM (D) EPROM
Ans: A
77. The quantity of heat required to raise 1 kg of a substance by 1° C is known as
(A) sensible heat (B) specific heat
(C) latent heat (D) calorie
Ans: B
78. Which of the following is not a Primary Energy Source?
(A) Oil (B) Natural Gas
(C) Electricity (D) Wood
Ans: C
79. Which of the following material has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance?
(A) Brass (B) Copper
(C) Aluminium (D) Carbon
Ans: D
80. Baud, the unit for measuring data transmission speed, is equal to
(A) Number of bits per second (B) Number of bytes per second
(C) Number of characters per second (D) None of the above
Ans: A
81. The flowchart symbol that represents input is ________
(A) A rectangle (B) A parallelogram
(C) A triangle (D) A square
Ans: B
82. Part of algorithm which is repeated for fixed number of times is classified as
(A) Iteration (B) selection
(C) sequence (D) reverse action
Ans: A
83. Data can be stored permanently on ________
(A) RAM (B) Magnetic Disk
(C) Printers (D) Cache memory
Ans: B
84. The secondary storage device that follows the sequential mode of access is
(A) Optical Disk (B) Magnetic Disk
(C) Magnetic Tape (D) None
Ans: C
85. The functional unit of a computer that is responsible for performing arithmetical and logical operations is called
(A) Input-output unit (B) secondary storage unit
(C) microprocessor (D) primary storage unit
Ans: C
86. Trojan – Horse programs
(A) do not usually work
(B) are hidden programs intended for malicious usage and that do not show up on the system
(C) usually are immediately discovered
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
87. The operating system of a computer is responsible for managing
(A) memory (B) processor
(C) disk device (D) all of the above
Ans: D
88. ________ address assigned to a computer is a logical address whereas, ________ address assigned to it is the physical address of a computer.
(A) MAC, URL (B) IP, MAC
(C) Physical, Logical (D) Domain name, IP
Ans: B
89. If XYZ, Inc., repurchased 50 percent of its outstanding common stock from the open (secondary) market, the result would be
(A) a decline in EPS (B) an increase in cash
(C) a decrease in total assets (D) an increase in the number of stockholders
Ans: C
90. β(Beta) of a security measures its:
(A) Diversifiable risk (B) Financial risk
(C) Market risk (D) None of above
Ans: C
91. Which of the following is a Profitability Ratio?
(A) Proprietary Ratio (B) Debt –Equity Ratio
(C) Price Earnings Ratio (D) Fixed Asset Ratio
Ans: C
92. Spontaneous financing includes
(A) Accounts receivables (B) Accounts payable
(C) Short term loans (D) Line of credit
Ans: B
93. Net working capital refers to
(A) Total assets minus fixed assets (B) Current assets minus current liabilities
(C) Current assets minus inventories (D) Current assets
Ans: B
94. Marketable securities are primarily
(A) short-term debt instruments. (B) short-term equity securities
(C) long-term debt instruments (D) long-term equity securities
Ans: A
95. A capital investment is one that
(A) has the prospect of long-term benefits.
(B) has the prospect of short-term benefits.
(C) is only undertaken by large corporations.
(D) applies only to investment in fixed assets.
Ans: A
96. Managerial options can be viewed as
(A) Methods for reducing agency risk through the use of incentives.
(B) Methods for reducing total firm risk through diversification.
(C) Strategies for increasing management compensation.
(D) Opportunities for altering management decisions in the future.
Ans: D
97. Financial intermediaries __________.
(A) do not invest in new long-term securities
(B) include insurance companies and pension funds
(C) include the national and regional stock exchanges
(D) are usually underwriting syndicates
Ans: B
98. “Shareholder wealth” in a firm is represented by:
(A) the number of people employed in the firm.
(B) the book value of the firm’s assets less the book value of its liabilities.
(C) the amount of salary paid to its employees.
(D) the market price per share of the firm’s common stock.
Ans: D
99. Color rendering index of Halogen lamps compared to low pressure sodium vapor lamps is ___.
(A) Poor (B) Excellent
(C) Average (D) Very poor
Ans: B
100. The long-run objective of financial management is to:
(A) maximize earnings per share.
(B) maximize the value of the firm’s common stock.
(C) maximize return on investment.
(D) maximize market share.
Ans: B