PHARMACOLOGY- PAGE 1
Pharmacology MCQs
1:-Valbenazine is
A:-VMAT2 inhibitor B:-MAO-B inhibitor C:-COMT inhibitor D:-MAO-A inhibitor
Ans: A
2:-Concerning streptogramin, which of the following statement is false?
A:-Active against MRSA B:-Induce cytochrome P450 enzyme
C:-Useful against vancomycin resistant enterococci D:-Excreted mainly through feces
Ans: B
3:-The minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its
A:-Potency B:-Therapeutic index C:-Diffusibility D:-Efficacy
Ans: A
4:-First line ACT under NVBDCP for chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria
A:-Artesunate + sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine B:-Artemether + lumefantrine
C:-Artesunate + mefloquine D:-Arterolane + piperaquine
Ans: A
5:-About first order kinetics, true statement is
A:-Fixed amount of the drug is eliminated B:-Clearance remains constant
C:-Half-life increases with dose D:-Decreased clearance with increase in dose
Ans: B
6:-Antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is
A:-Physical antagonism B:-Physiological antagonism
C:-Competitive equilibrium antagonism D:-Competitive non equilibrium antagonism
Ans: B
7:-Which of the following is not associated with hydrochlorothiazide treatment
A:-Hyponatremia B:-Hypokalemia C:-Hypocalcemia D:-Hyperuricemia
Ans: C
8:-Aminoglycosides are not useful in the treatment of infections with
A:-Pseudomonas B:-E Coli C:-Klebsiella D:-Clostridium difficile
Ans: D
9:-Drug preferred in the treatment of swine flu
A:-Abacavir B:-Oseltamivir C:-Acyclovir D:-Tenofovir
Ans: B
10:-The name of ahlquist is associated with
A:-Classification of cholinergic receptors B:-Classification of adrenergic receptors
C:-Classification of histamine receptors D:-Classification of serotonin receptors
Ans: B
11:-All of the following are disease modifying anti-rheumatoid drugs except
A:-Etanercept B:-Anakinra C:-Infliximab D:-Cetuximab
Ans: D
12:-Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist is
A:-Prasugrel B:-Ticlopidine C:-Tirofiban D:-Cangrelor
Ans: C
13:-Preferred drug in the treatment of drug induced parkinsonism
A:-Levodopa B:-Selegiline C:-Trihexyphenidyl D:-Tolcapone
Ans: C
14:-Stimulation of which receptor will release renin?
A:-Alpha 1 B:-Alpha 2 C:-Beta 1 D:-Beta 2
Ans: C
15:-Evolocumab is used in
A:-Hyperlipidemia B:-Bronchial asthma C:-Migraine D:-Breast cancer
Ans: A
16:-5-HT1A partial agonist among the following
A:-Ketanserin B:-Hydroxyzine C:-Cyproheptadine D:-Buspirone
Ans: D
17:-All of the following can be used as local anaesthetics except
A:-Dexmedetomidine B:-Centbucridine C:-Diphenhydramine D:-Benzyl alcohol
Ans: A
18:-All of the following drugs are included under RNTCP for the treatment of XDR-TB except
A:-Capreomycin B:-Levofloxacin C:-Clofazimine D:-Linezolid
Ans: B
19:-Denosumab is used for the treatment of
A:-Rheumatoid arthritis B:-Osteoarthritis C:-Osteoporosis D:-Systematic lupus erythematosus
Ans: C
20:-Anthelmintic agent with immunomodulatory action
A:-Albendazole B:-Pyrantel pamoate C:-Piperazine D:-Levamisole
Ans: D
21:-Domperidone is
A:- antagonist B:- agonist C:-D2 antagonist D:-D2 agonist
Ans: C
22:-Drug of choice in neurocysticercosis
A:-Praziquantel B:-Albendazole C:-Ivermectin D:-Pyrantal pamoate
Ans: B
23:-Stiripentol is an
A:-Antipsychotic B:-Antiepileptic C:-Antiparkinsonian D:-Antidepressant
Ans: B
24:-All are catecholamines except
A:-Epinephrine B:-Norepinephrine C:-Dopamine D:-Phenylephrine
Ans: D
25:-Fastest acting antimalarial drug
A:-Chloroquine B:-Quinine C:-Mefloquine D:-Artesunate
Ans: D
26:-The mechanism of action of sofosbuvir is
A:-NS5B polymerase inhibitor B:-NS5A inhibitor C:-NS3 Protease inhibitor D:-Neuraminidase inhibitor
Ans: A
27:-Drug which is not of microbial origin
A:-Lovastatin B:-Ivermectin C:-Paclitaxel D:-Sirolimus
Ans: C
28:-Essential drugs are
A:-Life saving drugs B:-Drugs meeting the health needs of majority of population
C:-Drugs that must be available in emergency departments D:-Drugs that are listed in pharmacopoeia of a nation
Ans: B
29:-Loading dose of a drug primarily depends on
A:-Volume of distribution B:-Clearance C:-Rate of administration D:-Plasma half-life
Ans: A
30:-Selective estrogen receptor down regulator is
A:-Clomiphene citrate B:-Toremifene C:-Letrozole D:-Fulvestrant
Ans: D
31:-Ocular anti inflammatory agent among the following
A:-Flurbiprofen B:-Indomethacin C:-Mefenamic acid D:-Piroxicam
Ans: A
32:-NMDA receptor antagonist useful in Alzheimer's disease
A:-Galantamine B:-Memantine C:-Donepezil D:-Co Dergocrine
Ans: B
33:-Uses of ACE inhibitors are all except
A:-Hypertension B:-Congestive cardiac failure C:-Myocardial infarction D:-Variant angina
Ans: D
34:-Teriparatide can be used for the treatment of
A:-Osteoporosis B:-Polycystic ovarian disease C:-Hyperparathyroidism D:-Hypocalcemia
Ans: A
35:-Drug of choice in trigeminal neuralgia
A:-Carbamazepine B:-Phenytoin C:-Lamotrigine D:-Sodium valproate
Ans: A
36:-Conversion of T4 to T3 is inhibited by all EXCEPT
A:-Propranolol B:-Propylthiouracil C:-Carbimazole D:-Amiodarone
Ans: C
37:-Diuretic with anti remodelling action
A:-Furosemide B:-Hydrochlorothiazide C:-Amiloride D:-Spironolactone
Ans: D
38:-Mu receptor is responsible for all the following effects EXCEPT
A:-Miosis B:-Bronchodilation C:-Euphoria D:-Hypothermia
Ans: B
39:-Most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic is
A:-Procaine B:-Prilocaine C:-Bupivacaine D:-Tetracaine
Ans: C
40:-A normal distribution curve depends on
A:-Mean and sample size B:-Mean and median C:-Range and sample size D:-Mean and standard deviation
Ans: D
41:-SSRI useful in the treatment of premature ejaculation
A:-Dapoxetine B:-Duloxetine C:-Venlafaxine D:-Sertraline
Ans: A
42:-In a clinical trial, comparison of efficacy of a new drug with an existing drug is done in
A:-Phase I B:-Phase II C:-Phase III D:-Phase IV
Ans: C
43:-All of the following are short acting insulin analogs except
A:-Insulin lispro B:-Insulin aspart C:-Insulin glargine D:-Insulin glulisine
Ans: C
44:-Etravirine is
A:-Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor B:-Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C:-Integrase inhibitor D:-Entry inhibitor
Ans: B
45:-Physiological salt solution used for mammalian smooth muscle experiments
A:-Tyrode solution B:-Frog ringer solution C:-De Jalon solution D:-Mc even solution
Ans: A
46:-Drug most likely to cause malignant hyperthermia is
A:-Propofol B:-Ketamine C:-Halothane D:-Thiopentone sodium
Ans: C
47:-Squalene epoxidase inhibitor is
A:-Terbinafine B:-Griseofulvin C:-Miconazole D:-Tolnaftate
Ans: A
48:-Penicillin G is the drug of choice in
A:-Rickettsial infection B:-Leptospirosis C:-Typhoid D:-Bacterial dysentery
Ans: B
49:-cAMP is the second messenger for the following receptors except
A:-Histamine B:-Adrenergic C:-Serotonin D:-Dopamin
Ans: C
50:-Glucocorticoid with the least mineralocorticoid activity is
A:-Deflazacort B:-Prednisolone C:-Methylprednisolone D:-Hydrocortisone
Ans: A
A:-VMAT2 inhibitor B:-MAO-B inhibitor C:-COMT inhibitor D:-MAO-A inhibitor
Ans: A
2:-Concerning streptogramin, which of the following statement is false?
A:-Active against MRSA B:-Induce cytochrome P450 enzyme
C:-Useful against vancomycin resistant enterococci D:-Excreted mainly through feces
Ans: B
3:-The minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its
A:-Potency B:-Therapeutic index C:-Diffusibility D:-Efficacy
Ans: A
4:-First line ACT under NVBDCP for chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria
A:-Artesunate + sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine B:-Artemether + lumefantrine
C:-Artesunate + mefloquine D:-Arterolane + piperaquine
Ans: A
5:-About first order kinetics, true statement is
A:-Fixed amount of the drug is eliminated B:-Clearance remains constant
C:-Half-life increases with dose D:-Decreased clearance with increase in dose
Ans: B
6:-Antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is
A:-Physical antagonism B:-Physiological antagonism
C:-Competitive equilibrium antagonism D:-Competitive non equilibrium antagonism
Ans: B
7:-Which of the following is not associated with hydrochlorothiazide treatment
A:-Hyponatremia B:-Hypokalemia C:-Hypocalcemia D:-Hyperuricemia
Ans: C
8:-Aminoglycosides are not useful in the treatment of infections with
A:-Pseudomonas B:-E Coli C:-Klebsiella D:-Clostridium difficile
Ans: D
9:-Drug preferred in the treatment of swine flu
A:-Abacavir B:-Oseltamivir C:-Acyclovir D:-Tenofovir
Ans: B
10:-The name of ahlquist is associated with
A:-Classification of cholinergic receptors B:-Classification of adrenergic receptors
C:-Classification of histamine receptors D:-Classification of serotonin receptors
Ans: B
11:-All of the following are disease modifying anti-rheumatoid drugs except
A:-Etanercept B:-Anakinra C:-Infliximab D:-Cetuximab
Ans: D
12:-Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist is
A:-Prasugrel B:-Ticlopidine C:-Tirofiban D:-Cangrelor
Ans: C
13:-Preferred drug in the treatment of drug induced parkinsonism
A:-Levodopa B:-Selegiline C:-Trihexyphenidyl D:-Tolcapone
Ans: C
14:-Stimulation of which receptor will release renin?
A:-Alpha 1 B:-Alpha 2 C:-Beta 1 D:-Beta 2
Ans: C
15:-Evolocumab is used in
A:-Hyperlipidemia B:-Bronchial asthma C:-Migraine D:-Breast cancer
Ans: A
16:-5-HT1A partial agonist among the following
A:-Ketanserin B:-Hydroxyzine C:-Cyproheptadine D:-Buspirone
Ans: D
17:-All of the following can be used as local anaesthetics except
A:-Dexmedetomidine B:-Centbucridine C:-Diphenhydramine D:-Benzyl alcohol
Ans: A
18:-All of the following drugs are included under RNTCP for the treatment of XDR-TB except
A:-Capreomycin B:-Levofloxacin C:-Clofazimine D:-Linezolid
Ans: B
19:-Denosumab is used for the treatment of
A:-Rheumatoid arthritis B:-Osteoarthritis C:-Osteoporosis D:-Systematic lupus erythematosus
Ans: C
20:-Anthelmintic agent with immunomodulatory action
A:-Albendazole B:-Pyrantel pamoate C:-Piperazine D:-Levamisole
Ans: D
21:-Domperidone is
A:- antagonist B:- agonist C:-D2 antagonist D:-D2 agonist
Ans: C
22:-Drug of choice in neurocysticercosis
A:-Praziquantel B:-Albendazole C:-Ivermectin D:-Pyrantal pamoate
Ans: B
23:-Stiripentol is an
A:-Antipsychotic B:-Antiepileptic C:-Antiparkinsonian D:-Antidepressant
Ans: B
24:-All are catecholamines except
A:-Epinephrine B:-Norepinephrine C:-Dopamine D:-Phenylephrine
Ans: D
25:-Fastest acting antimalarial drug
A:-Chloroquine B:-Quinine C:-Mefloquine D:-Artesunate
Ans: D
26:-The mechanism of action of sofosbuvir is
A:-NS5B polymerase inhibitor B:-NS5A inhibitor C:-NS3 Protease inhibitor D:-Neuraminidase inhibitor
Ans: A
27:-Drug which is not of microbial origin
A:-Lovastatin B:-Ivermectin C:-Paclitaxel D:-Sirolimus
Ans: C
28:-Essential drugs are
A:-Life saving drugs B:-Drugs meeting the health needs of majority of population
C:-Drugs that must be available in emergency departments D:-Drugs that are listed in pharmacopoeia of a nation
Ans: B
29:-Loading dose of a drug primarily depends on
A:-Volume of distribution B:-Clearance C:-Rate of administration D:-Plasma half-life
Ans: A
30:-Selective estrogen receptor down regulator is
A:-Clomiphene citrate B:-Toremifene C:-Letrozole D:-Fulvestrant
Ans: D
31:-Ocular anti inflammatory agent among the following
A:-Flurbiprofen B:-Indomethacin C:-Mefenamic acid D:-Piroxicam
Ans: A
32:-NMDA receptor antagonist useful in Alzheimer's disease
A:-Galantamine B:-Memantine C:-Donepezil D:-Co Dergocrine
Ans: B
33:-Uses of ACE inhibitors are all except
A:-Hypertension B:-Congestive cardiac failure C:-Myocardial infarction D:-Variant angina
Ans: D
34:-Teriparatide can be used for the treatment of
A:-Osteoporosis B:-Polycystic ovarian disease C:-Hyperparathyroidism D:-Hypocalcemia
Ans: A
35:-Drug of choice in trigeminal neuralgia
A:-Carbamazepine B:-Phenytoin C:-Lamotrigine D:-Sodium valproate
Ans: A
36:-Conversion of T4 to T3 is inhibited by all EXCEPT
A:-Propranolol B:-Propylthiouracil C:-Carbimazole D:-Amiodarone
Ans: C
37:-Diuretic with anti remodelling action
A:-Furosemide B:-Hydrochlorothiazide C:-Amiloride D:-Spironolactone
Ans: D
38:-Mu receptor is responsible for all the following effects EXCEPT
A:-Miosis B:-Bronchodilation C:-Euphoria D:-Hypothermia
Ans: B
39:-Most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic is
A:-Procaine B:-Prilocaine C:-Bupivacaine D:-Tetracaine
Ans: C
40:-A normal distribution curve depends on
A:-Mean and sample size B:-Mean and median C:-Range and sample size D:-Mean and standard deviation
Ans: D
41:-SSRI useful in the treatment of premature ejaculation
A:-Dapoxetine B:-Duloxetine C:-Venlafaxine D:-Sertraline
Ans: A
42:-In a clinical trial, comparison of efficacy of a new drug with an existing drug is done in
A:-Phase I B:-Phase II C:-Phase III D:-Phase IV
Ans: C
43:-All of the following are short acting insulin analogs except
A:-Insulin lispro B:-Insulin aspart C:-Insulin glargine D:-Insulin glulisine
Ans: C
44:-Etravirine is
A:-Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor B:-Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C:-Integrase inhibitor D:-Entry inhibitor
Ans: B
45:-Physiological salt solution used for mammalian smooth muscle experiments
A:-Tyrode solution B:-Frog ringer solution C:-De Jalon solution D:-Mc even solution
Ans: A
46:-Drug most likely to cause malignant hyperthermia is
A:-Propofol B:-Ketamine C:-Halothane D:-Thiopentone sodium
Ans: C
47:-Squalene epoxidase inhibitor is
A:-Terbinafine B:-Griseofulvin C:-Miconazole D:-Tolnaftate
Ans: A
48:-Penicillin G is the drug of choice in
A:-Rickettsial infection B:-Leptospirosis C:-Typhoid D:-Bacterial dysentery
Ans: B
49:-cAMP is the second messenger for the following receptors except
A:-Histamine B:-Adrenergic C:-Serotonin D:-Dopamin
Ans: C
50:-Glucocorticoid with the least mineralocorticoid activity is
A:-Deflazacort B:-Prednisolone C:-Methylprednisolone D:-Hydrocortisone
Ans: A
51:-Macrolide which achieves extensive tissue distribution is
A:-Azithromycin B:-Roxithromycin C:-Clarithromycin D:-Erythromycin
Ans: A
52:-Choose the wrong statement about metronidazole
A:-Preferred drug in intestinal amoebiasis B:-Highly useful in anaerobic infections
C:-Can product disulfiram like reaction with alcohol D:-Drug of choice for eradicating amoebic cysts from colon
Ans: D
53:-Docetaxel acts on the following cell cycle phase
A:-S phase B:-G1 phase C:-M phase D:-G2 phase
Ans: C
54:-Gum hypertrophy is caused by all these drugs except
A:-Phenytoin B:-Verapamil C:-Nifedipine D:-Cyclosporine
Ans: B
55:-Drug of choice in digoxin induced ventricular arrhythmia
A:-Propafenone B:-Lignocaine C:-Quindine D:-Procainamide
Ans: B
56:-All are T type calcium channel blockers except
A:-Flunarizine B:-Ethosuximide C:-Sodium valproate D:-Diltiazem
Ans: D
57:-The physical half life of is
A:-8 minutes B:-8 hours C:-8 days D:-8 weeks
Ans: C
58:-The neuromuscular blocking drug that can be used safety in patients with renal and hepatic dysfunction
A:-Atracurium B:-Mivacurium C:-Pancuronium D:-Rocuronium
Ans: A
59:-The 5-alpha reductase inhibitor effective in the treatment of male pattern baldness
A:-Flutamide B:-Finasteride C:-Bicalutamide D:-Tadalafil
Ans: B
60:-All of the following drugs are used in hypertensive emergencies except
A:-sodium nitroprusside B:-Losartan
C:-Labetalol D:-Esmolol
Ans: B
61:-Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is
A:-Flumazenil B:-Gabapentin C:-Beta carboline D:-Zopiclone
Ans: C
62:-All are properties of digoxin except
A:-Low steady margin B:-High volume of distribution
C:-inhibits Na+K+ATPase D:-Metabolized in liver
Ans: D
63:-Febuxostate is
A:-Non purine inhibitor of xanthine oxidase B:-Used in acute gout C:-Uricosuric drug D:-Given intravenously
Ans: A
64:-The drug with the least oral bioavailability among the following
A:-Ampicillin B:-Gentamicin C:-Doxycycline D:-Ciprofloxacin
Ans: B
65:-Prostaglandin analog used in the treatment of constipation predominant IBS
A:-Lubiprostone B:-Alosetron C:-Prucalopride D:-Cisapride
Ans: A
66:-A metal chelator which can be used in the treatment of a collagen vascular disease but may precipitate yet another collagen vascular disease
A:-Penicillamine B:-Desferrioxamine C:-Dimercaprol D:-Calcium disodium edetate
Ans: A
67:-Neurokinin receptor antagonist used in the treatment of chemotherapy induced vomitting
A:-Dronabinol B:-Ondansetron C:-Aprepitant D:-Rimonabant
Ans: C
68:-All are pharmacogenetically mediated reactions except
A:-Adenosine deaminase deficiency B:-Succinylcholine apnoea C:-Coumarin insensitivity D:-G6PD deficiency
Ans: A
69:-Which one of the following antimicrobial agent has got a ketolide structure
A:-Linezolid B:-Streptogramins C:-Aztreonam D:-Telithromycin
Ans: D
70:-Preferred drug for the treatment of pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia
A:-Erythromycin B:-Co-trimoxazole C:-Doxycycline D:-Clindamycin
Ans: B
71:-Which of the following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action?
A:-Ether B:-Nitrous oxide C:-Halothane D:-Ketamine
Ans: B
72:-The dose limiting toxicity of doxorubicin is
A:-Hepatic centrilobular necrosis B:-Congestive cardiac failure C:-Proximal tubular necrosis D:-Peripheral neuropathy
Ans: B
73:-Characteristic feature of piperacillin is
A:-Acid labile and penicillinase resistant B:-Acid resistant and penicillinase labile
C:-Acid labile and penicillinase labile D:-Acid resistant and penicillinase resistant
Ans: C
74:-Cytochrome P450 isoenzyme involved in the metabolism of most of the drugs is
A:-CYP2E1 B:-CYP2D6 C:-CYP3A4 D:-CYP2C19
Ans: C
75:-Antipsychotic with prokinetic action
A:-Levosulpiride B:-Amisulpride C:-Loxapine D:-Pimozide
Ans: A
76:-Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant that acts via adrenergic agonism
A:-Tizanidine B:-Brimonidine C:-Baclofen D:-Chlormezanone
Ans: A
77:-Which of the following is a phase 2 reaction?
A:-Oxidation B:-Acetylation C:-Hydrolysis D:-Reduction
Ans: B
78:-All of the following are anti seizure drugs useful for migraine prophylaxis except
A:-Gabapentin B:-Topiramate C:-Vigabatrin D:-Sodium valproate
Ans: C
79:-The following are mixed agonist antagonist except
A:-Pentazocine B:-Nalbuphine C:-Fentanyl D:-Nalorphine
Ans: C
80:-Chlorpromazine has all the following actions in addition to its anti dopaminergic effect except
A:-Anticholinergic action B:-Antihistaminic action C:-Alpha adrenergic blocking action D:-Beta adrenergic blocking action Ans: D
A:-Azithromycin B:-Roxithromycin C:-Clarithromycin D:-Erythromycin
Ans: A
52:-Choose the wrong statement about metronidazole
A:-Preferred drug in intestinal amoebiasis B:-Highly useful in anaerobic infections
C:-Can product disulfiram like reaction with alcohol D:-Drug of choice for eradicating amoebic cysts from colon
Ans: D
53:-Docetaxel acts on the following cell cycle phase
A:-S phase B:-G1 phase C:-M phase D:-G2 phase
Ans: C
54:-Gum hypertrophy is caused by all these drugs except
A:-Phenytoin B:-Verapamil C:-Nifedipine D:-Cyclosporine
Ans: B
55:-Drug of choice in digoxin induced ventricular arrhythmia
A:-Propafenone B:-Lignocaine C:-Quindine D:-Procainamide
Ans: B
56:-All are T type calcium channel blockers except
A:-Flunarizine B:-Ethosuximide C:-Sodium valproate D:-Diltiazem
Ans: D
57:-The physical half life of is
A:-8 minutes B:-8 hours C:-8 days D:-8 weeks
Ans: C
58:-The neuromuscular blocking drug that can be used safety in patients with renal and hepatic dysfunction
A:-Atracurium B:-Mivacurium C:-Pancuronium D:-Rocuronium
Ans: A
59:-The 5-alpha reductase inhibitor effective in the treatment of male pattern baldness
A:-Flutamide B:-Finasteride C:-Bicalutamide D:-Tadalafil
Ans: B
60:-All of the following drugs are used in hypertensive emergencies except
A:-sodium nitroprusside B:-Losartan
C:-Labetalol D:-Esmolol
Ans: B
61:-Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is
A:-Flumazenil B:-Gabapentin C:-Beta carboline D:-Zopiclone
Ans: C
62:-All are properties of digoxin except
A:-Low steady margin B:-High volume of distribution
C:-inhibits Na+K+ATPase D:-Metabolized in liver
Ans: D
63:-Febuxostate is
A:-Non purine inhibitor of xanthine oxidase B:-Used in acute gout C:-Uricosuric drug D:-Given intravenously
Ans: A
64:-The drug with the least oral bioavailability among the following
A:-Ampicillin B:-Gentamicin C:-Doxycycline D:-Ciprofloxacin
Ans: B
65:-Prostaglandin analog used in the treatment of constipation predominant IBS
A:-Lubiprostone B:-Alosetron C:-Prucalopride D:-Cisapride
Ans: A
66:-A metal chelator which can be used in the treatment of a collagen vascular disease but may precipitate yet another collagen vascular disease
A:-Penicillamine B:-Desferrioxamine C:-Dimercaprol D:-Calcium disodium edetate
Ans: A
67:-Neurokinin receptor antagonist used in the treatment of chemotherapy induced vomitting
A:-Dronabinol B:-Ondansetron C:-Aprepitant D:-Rimonabant
Ans: C
68:-All are pharmacogenetically mediated reactions except
A:-Adenosine deaminase deficiency B:-Succinylcholine apnoea C:-Coumarin insensitivity D:-G6PD deficiency
Ans: A
69:-Which one of the following antimicrobial agent has got a ketolide structure
A:-Linezolid B:-Streptogramins C:-Aztreonam D:-Telithromycin
Ans: D
70:-Preferred drug for the treatment of pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia
A:-Erythromycin B:-Co-trimoxazole C:-Doxycycline D:-Clindamycin
Ans: B
71:-Which of the following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action?
A:-Ether B:-Nitrous oxide C:-Halothane D:-Ketamine
Ans: B
72:-The dose limiting toxicity of doxorubicin is
A:-Hepatic centrilobular necrosis B:-Congestive cardiac failure C:-Proximal tubular necrosis D:-Peripheral neuropathy
Ans: B
73:-Characteristic feature of piperacillin is
A:-Acid labile and penicillinase resistant B:-Acid resistant and penicillinase labile
C:-Acid labile and penicillinase labile D:-Acid resistant and penicillinase resistant
Ans: C
74:-Cytochrome P450 isoenzyme involved in the metabolism of most of the drugs is
A:-CYP2E1 B:-CYP2D6 C:-CYP3A4 D:-CYP2C19
Ans: C
75:-Antipsychotic with prokinetic action
A:-Levosulpiride B:-Amisulpride C:-Loxapine D:-Pimozide
Ans: A
76:-Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant that acts via adrenergic agonism
A:-Tizanidine B:-Brimonidine C:-Baclofen D:-Chlormezanone
Ans: A
77:-Which of the following is a phase 2 reaction?
A:-Oxidation B:-Acetylation C:-Hydrolysis D:-Reduction
Ans: B
78:-All of the following are anti seizure drugs useful for migraine prophylaxis except
A:-Gabapentin B:-Topiramate C:-Vigabatrin D:-Sodium valproate
Ans: C
79:-The following are mixed agonist antagonist except
A:-Pentazocine B:-Nalbuphine C:-Fentanyl D:-Nalorphine
Ans: C
80:-Chlorpromazine has all the following actions in addition to its anti dopaminergic effect except
A:-Anticholinergic action B:-Antihistaminic action C:-Alpha adrenergic blocking action D:-Beta adrenergic blocking action Ans: D
81. Alkaline diuresis is done for treatment of poisoning due to
(A) morphine
(B) amphetamine
(C) phenobarbitone
(D) atropine
Ans: C
82. Low Vd means
(A) the drug has lowhalf life
(B) the drug does not accumulate in tissues
(C) the drug has lowbio availability
(D) the drug has weak plasma protein binding
Ans: B
83. Factors affecting absorption are
(A) aqueous solubility
(B) area of absorbing surface
(C) vascularity
(D)all of the above
Ans: D
84. Device which produce a mist of the drug solution generated by pressurised air
(A) metered dose inhaler
(B) spinhaler
(C) jet nebulizer
(D) rotahaler
Ans: C
85. Which parental route of administration has 100% bioavailability
(A) intravenous (B) intramuscular
(C) subcutaneous (D) intradermal
Ans: A
86. The chief advantage of the sublingual route is
(A) Only lipid soluble, non irritating drugs can be administered
(B) Actionproduced in minutes
(C) Bypasses the liner
(D) Relatively rapid absorption
Ans: C
87. Carbenicillin and Anti-platelet drug use results in
(A) Platelet count down
(B) Increases risk of bleeding
(C) Stops bleeding
(D) No effect
Ans: B
88. Nocebo produces
(A) Positive pharmaco dynamic effect
(B) Positive pharmaco kinetic effect
(C) Negative pharmaco dynamic effect
(D) Negative pharmaco kinetic effect
Ans; C
89. G6P.D. deficiency is due to
(A) X linked trait
(B) Y linked trait
(C) Z linked trait
(D) X and Y linked trait
Ans: A
90. What is pharmacogenetics?
(A) Variability in drug response
(B) Peak drug response
(C) Nullifural drug response
(D) Lowdrug response
Ans: A
91. Choose the antiepileptic drug is indicated in refractory partial metabolic acidosis and renal stones
(A) Topiramate
(B) Levetiracetam
(C) Pregabalin
(D) Zonisamide
Ans: D
92. Choose the antipsychotic drug which causes retinal deposits (Browning of vision)
(A) Thioridazine
(B) Chlorpromazine
(C) Clozapine
(D) Haloperidol
Ans: A
93. Pick the correct statement from the following on Alzheimer's disease
(A) Donepezil overdose is associated with tachycardia
(B) Rivastigmine acts through NMDA receptors
(C) Associated depression in Alzheimers disease is treated with tricyclic antidepressants
(D) Donepezil can slow down the progression of mild and moderate Alzheimer's disease for atleast 2 years
Ans: D
94. Choose the statement which is incorrect about Atyical antidepressants
(A) Bupropion sustained release formulation is marketed to treat smoking deaddiction
(B) Sexual dysfunction is not a problem with the use of mirtazapine
(C) Trazodone causes tachycardia and Arrhythmias .
(D) Venlagaxine does not interact with cholinergic, adrenergic and histaminergic receptors
Ans: C
95. Select a drug from the following which has been used to produce a non specific 'awakening' effect in hepatic coma
(A) Promethazine
(B) Levodopa
(C) Carbidopa
(D) Amantadine
Ans: B
96. Choose the antipsychotic drug with least sedative extrapyramidal side effects
(A) Ziprasidone (B) Haloperidol (C) Loxapine (D) Quetiapine
Ans: A
(A) morphine
(B) amphetamine
(C) phenobarbitone
(D) atropine
Ans: C
82. Low Vd means
(A) the drug has lowhalf life
(B) the drug does not accumulate in tissues
(C) the drug has lowbio availability
(D) the drug has weak plasma protein binding
Ans: B
83. Factors affecting absorption are
(A) aqueous solubility
(B) area of absorbing surface
(C) vascularity
(D)all of the above
Ans: D
84. Device which produce a mist of the drug solution generated by pressurised air
(A) metered dose inhaler
(B) spinhaler
(C) jet nebulizer
(D) rotahaler
Ans: C
85. Which parental route of administration has 100% bioavailability
(A) intravenous (B) intramuscular
(C) subcutaneous (D) intradermal
Ans: A
86. The chief advantage of the sublingual route is
(A) Only lipid soluble, non irritating drugs can be administered
(B) Actionproduced in minutes
(C) Bypasses the liner
(D) Relatively rapid absorption
Ans: C
87. Carbenicillin and Anti-platelet drug use results in
(A) Platelet count down
(B) Increases risk of bleeding
(C) Stops bleeding
(D) No effect
Ans: B
88. Nocebo produces
(A) Positive pharmaco dynamic effect
(B) Positive pharmaco kinetic effect
(C) Negative pharmaco dynamic effect
(D) Negative pharmaco kinetic effect
Ans; C
89. G6P.D. deficiency is due to
(A) X linked trait
(B) Y linked trait
(C) Z linked trait
(D) X and Y linked trait
Ans: A
90. What is pharmacogenetics?
(A) Variability in drug response
(B) Peak drug response
(C) Nullifural drug response
(D) Lowdrug response
Ans: A
91. Choose the antiepileptic drug is indicated in refractory partial metabolic acidosis and renal stones
(A) Topiramate
(B) Levetiracetam
(C) Pregabalin
(D) Zonisamide
Ans: D
92. Choose the antipsychotic drug which causes retinal deposits (Browning of vision)
(A) Thioridazine
(B) Chlorpromazine
(C) Clozapine
(D) Haloperidol
Ans: A
93. Pick the correct statement from the following on Alzheimer's disease
(A) Donepezil overdose is associated with tachycardia
(B) Rivastigmine acts through NMDA receptors
(C) Associated depression in Alzheimers disease is treated with tricyclic antidepressants
(D) Donepezil can slow down the progression of mild and moderate Alzheimer's disease for atleast 2 years
Ans: D
94. Choose the statement which is incorrect about Atyical antidepressants
(A) Bupropion sustained release formulation is marketed to treat smoking deaddiction
(B) Sexual dysfunction is not a problem with the use of mirtazapine
(C) Trazodone causes tachycardia and Arrhythmias .
(D) Venlagaxine does not interact with cholinergic, adrenergic and histaminergic receptors
Ans: C
95. Select a drug from the following which has been used to produce a non specific 'awakening' effect in hepatic coma
(A) Promethazine
(B) Levodopa
(C) Carbidopa
(D) Amantadine
Ans: B
96. Choose the antipsychotic drug with least sedative extrapyramidal side effects
(A) Ziprasidone (B) Haloperidol (C) Loxapine (D) Quetiapine
Ans: A