LAW- PAGE 12 |
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1. “The new Constitution establishes, indeed a system of Government which is at the most quasi-federal, almost devolutionary in character, a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than the federal state with unitary features” said by
(A) Dr. K.C. Wheare
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: A
2. In which of the following case it was held that ‘Right to Life does not include Right to Die’?
(A) Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab
(B) Chenna Jagdeshwar vs. State of A.P.
(C) State of U.P. vs. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
(D) Deena vs. Union Bank of India
Ans: A
3. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his signature or thumb impression.
Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: C
4. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, within how many days it is transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations?
(A) Thirty days
(B) Twenty four days
(C) Sixty days
(D) Fourteen days
Ans: D
5. Assertion (A): Directive Principles are not enforceable by any Court.
Reason (R): Directive Principles are more or less fundamental in the governance of the country.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Ans: A
6. The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between
(A) A citizen and a State
(B) The Government of India and one State
(C) Two States
(D) The Government of India and one State on one side and one State on the other side
Ans: A
7. In the Constitution of India, provision relating to the formation of new States can be amended by
(A) A Parliamentary resolution which should be ratified by majority of State Legislatures.
(B) A simple majority in each House of Parliament.
(C) 3/4th majority in the Parliament
(D) 2/3rd majorities in the each House of Parliament provided they also constitute the majority of total members of each House.
Ans: B
8. Holding of periodic, free and fair elections by the Election Commission is part of the basic structure of the Constitution as per the following:
(A) Election Commission of India vs. AIADMK
(B) S.S. Dhanoa vs. Union of India
(C) In Gujarat Assembly Election matter
(D) Sadiq Ali vs. Election Commission of India
Ans: C
9. Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued, where a fundamental right is infringed by
(A) A Statute
(B) A Statutory Order
(C) An Executive Order
(D) Private Body
Ans: D
10. Assertion (A): The principles of natural justice ensure fair hearing.
Reason (R): It requires unbiased judge to decide after hearing all parties.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a good explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
11. Prerogative writs to review an administrative action are:
(A) Two: Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus.
(B) Three: Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition.
(C) Four: Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition and Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Quo Warranto.
(D) Five: Writ of Habeas Corpus, Writ of Mandamus, Writ of Quo warranto, Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Prohibition.
Ans: D
12. A mandatory procedural requirement for an administrative tribunal must be
(A) Legal representation
(B) Cross examination
(C) Reasoned decision
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
13. Judicial review of an administrative action means
(A) Review by the Parliament
(B) Review by the Government
(C) Review by the Legislative Assembly
(D) Review by the Judiciary
Ans: D
14. Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II.
List – I
Institution of Lokpal and Lokayukta numerous wide discretionary powers
List – II
(A) Law should be able to control the
(B) Ensure fair hearing
(C) Evaporate maladministration and corruption to bring good governance
(D) Check and control abuse of power and executive excesses
Ans: C
15. Find correct answer:
(A) Administrative law is a branch of public law and is only a part of Constitutional law. It cannot control the Constitutional law.
(B) Administrative law is a branch of private law.
(C) Administrative law is independent to Constitutional law.
(D) Administrative law is neither the branch of public law nor of private law, but a part of Constitutional law.
Ans: A
16. Bentham’s definition of law is imperative in nature because
(A) Law is an assembling of signs.
(B) Law is declaration of volition conceived or adopted by sovereign in a State.
(C) Because it is adopted by non-sovereign State.
(D) (A) & (B) both
Ans: D
17. The term ‘Legal theory’ has been first time used by
(A) Llewlyne
(B) Ihring
(C) Salmond
(D) W. Friedman
Ans: D
18. Bracket theory of corporate personality is also known as
(A) Concession theory
(B) Symbolist theory
(C) Fiction theory
(D) Will theory
Ans: B
19. ‘A’ says to ‘B’ that he will give a sum of rupees five thousand if ‘B’ marries his daughter, this is
(A) Vested Right
(B) Contingent Right
(C) Primary Right
(D) Secondary Right
Ans: B
20. Assertion (A): Kelsen follows Kant in distinguishing between ‘is’ and ‘ought’.
Reason (R): Kelsen is a forerunner of philosophical school.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
21. The possession is the
(A) Five point in ownership
(B) Seven point in ownership
(C) Nine point in ownership
(D) Ten point in ownership
Ans: C
22. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of ‘absolute duties’?
I. Duties owed to persons indefinitely
II. Self-regarding duties
III. Duties owed to the sovereign
IV. Duties owed to the parents
Select the correct answer using the codes
Codes:
(A) I, III and IV
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II and III
Ans: D
23. Which one of the following gets along correctly?
(A) Trust and co-ownership
(B) Legal and contingent ownership
(C) Sole and limited ownership
(D) Legal and equitable ownership
Ans: D
24. A person who causes bodily injury to another who is labouring under a disorder, disease or bodily infirmity and thereby accelerates the death of the person. Under which it shall be deemed to have caused his death?
(A) Explanation I to Section 299
(B) Explanation I to Section 300
(C) Explanation II to Section 299
(D) Explanation II to Section 300
Ans: A
25. In which provision of Indian Penal Code the definition of ‘valuable security’ is explained?
(A) Section 29
(B) Section 30
(C) Section 31
(D) Section 13
Ans: B
26. State the age limit prescribed under Section 82 of Indian Penal Code in which if a child commits an overt act is not considered as an offence?
(A) Under the age of 12 years.
(B) Under the age of 7 years.
(C) Under the age of 16 years.
(D) Under the age of 18 years.
Ans: B
27. When the injury is intentional and sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and death follows. The offence is of the category:
(A) Attempt to murder
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Murder
(D) Attempt to suicide
Ans: C
28. Principle: Theft + Violence or Threat to violence = Robbery.
Facts: M meets B and her child on a river bridge. M takes the child and threatens to fling it down to the river unless B delivers her purse. B in consequence delivers her purse.
What offence ‘M’ has committed?
(A) M is liable for theft.
(B) M is liable for coercion.
(C) M is liable for robbery.
(D) M is liable for extortion.
Ans: C
29. Fill in the gap:
A disability for _________ days constitutes grievous hurt.
(A) A week
(B) A fortnight
(C) A month
(D) A minimum of twenty days
Ans: D
30. Fill in the gap with appropriate word:
Wrongful restraint means keeping a person from out of his _________ of his residence.
(A) House
(B) Place
(C) Hotel
(D) Guest House
Ans: B
31. Fill in the gap which is more appropriate.
Inducing a girl under 18 years of age to go away with him from _________ is an offence of
(A) Normal home
(B) Place of work
(C) Domestic area
(D) Any place
Ans: D
32. Find the correct answer:
The principle of intergenerational equity envisages:
(A) Conservation of options
(B) Conservation of quality
(C) Conservation of access
(D) All the above
Ans: D
33. Find the correct answer:
The Supreme Court allowed compensation of Rs. 23.84 lakhs and later allowed additional compensation of Rs. 47 lakhs to the farmers whose crops got damaged, being irrigated by subsoil water drawn from a stream which was polluted from untreated effluents of 22 industries. It was decided in the case of
(A) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum vs. Union of India
(B) Indian Council for Environment Action vs. Union of India
(C) S. Jagannath vs. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India
Ans: B
34. The concept of sustainable development contains which of the following essentials?
(A) The precautionary principle
(B) The polluter pays principle
(C) The doctrine of public trust
(D) All above
Ans: D
35. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court in Banwasi Seva Ashram vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, permitted the government agency to acquire the forest land, ousting certain tribal dwellers to implement a power project only after they agreed to provide certain facilities approved by the Court.
Reason (R): Because the governmental action had an environmental impact that threatened to dislocate poor forest dwellers and disrupt their life-style infringing their fundamental right to life, which include the right to livelihood.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
Ans: D
36. The Supreme Court observed that noise pollution cannot be tolerated, even if such noise was a direct result of and was connected with religious activities in the case of
(A) A.P. Pollution Control Board vs. Prof M.V. Naidu
(B) Church of God (Full Gospel) in India vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association.
(C) K.M. Chinappa vs. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India
Ans: B
37. Assertion (A): Nobody can claim a fundamental right to create noise pollution by amplifying the sound of his speech with the help of loudspeaker.
Reason (R): While one has a right to speech, others have a right to listen or decline to listen. Anyone who wishes to live in peace, comfort and quiet within his house has a fundamental right to prevent the noise as pollutant ion reaching him.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A)
Ans: D
38. In which of the following cases it was held that there is no reason to compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution?
(A) Samantha vs. State of A.P.
(B) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
(C) Murli Deora vs. Union of India
(D) Sheela Barse vs. Union of India
Ans: C
39. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife is
(A) A fundamental right
(B) One of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(C) One of the Fundamental Duties
(D) Both one of the Directive Principles of State Policy and one of the Fundamental Duties
Ans: D
40. Who stated that international law is not true law but ‘positive international morality’ only, analogous to the rules binding a club or society?
(A) Oscar Schachter
(B) John Austin
(C) Louis Flenkin
(D) Hans Kelson
Ans: B
41. Opino juris sive necessitatis means
(A) Opinions of jurists is necessary evidence for determining rules of international custom
(B) Opinions of jurists is not necessary for ascertaining the rules of international law
(C) The feeling on the part of States that in acting as they do they are fulfilling a legal obligation
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
42. Which of the following cases supports constitutive theory of recognition, namely, the act of recognition alone confers international personality on an entity purporting to be a state or clothes new government with an authority to enter into international relations?
(A) The Arantzazu Mendi, (1939) A.C. P 256
(B) A.M. Luther vs. James Sagor & Co, (1921) 3 K.B. P.532
(C) Tinoco Concessions, (1923) 1 United Nations Reports of International Arbitral Awards P 369
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
43. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Nationality is the evidence of the link or relations of an individual with the State whereas domicile denotes de facto residence of an individual in a State with an intention to permanently settle there.
(B) Nationality is an evidence of residence of an individual with an intention to permanently settle there.
(C) Domicile denotes the link or relations of an individual with the State.
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
44. The Charter of the United Nations came into force on
(A) 26 June 1945
(B) 10 December 1945
(C) 24 October 1945
(D) 1 November 1945
Ans: C
45. A member of the United Nations which has persistently violated the principles contained in the Charter may be expelled from the United Nations by the
(A) Security Council
(B) General Assembly
(C) General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council
(D) Security Council upon the recommendation of the General Assembly
Ans: C
46. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) General Assembly upon recommendation of the Security Council
(D) General Assembly and the Security Council independently of one another
Ans: D
47. Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 the natural guardian of a minor child is
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Both Mother and Father
(D) Either Mother or Father
Ans: B
48. A Muslim wife can relinquish her Mahr
(A) When she is minor
(B) When she has attained the age of puberty
(C) When she is not less than 18 years of age
(D) When she is not less than 21 years of age.
Ans: C
49. In Islamic Law “Faskh” means
(A) Restitution of conjugal rights
(B) Judicial separation
(C) Dissolution or rescission of the contract of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of the husband.
(D) Dissolution on rescission of the contract of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of the wife.
Ans: C
50. Muta marriage is recognised by
(A) Hanafi School
(B) Maliki School
(C) Ithna Ashari School
(D) Hanbali School
Ans: C
(A) Dr. K.C. Wheare
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: A
2. In which of the following case it was held that ‘Right to Life does not include Right to Die’?
(A) Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab
(B) Chenna Jagdeshwar vs. State of A.P.
(C) State of U.P. vs. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
(D) Deena vs. Union Bank of India
Ans: A
3. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his signature or thumb impression.
Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: C
4. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, within how many days it is transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations?
(A) Thirty days
(B) Twenty four days
(C) Sixty days
(D) Fourteen days
Ans: D
5. Assertion (A): Directive Principles are not enforceable by any Court.
Reason (R): Directive Principles are more or less fundamental in the governance of the country.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Ans: A
6. The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between
(A) A citizen and a State
(B) The Government of India and one State
(C) Two States
(D) The Government of India and one State on one side and one State on the other side
Ans: A
7. In the Constitution of India, provision relating to the formation of new States can be amended by
(A) A Parliamentary resolution which should be ratified by majority of State Legislatures.
(B) A simple majority in each House of Parliament.
(C) 3/4th majority in the Parliament
(D) 2/3rd majorities in the each House of Parliament provided they also constitute the majority of total members of each House.
Ans: B
8. Holding of periodic, free and fair elections by the Election Commission is part of the basic structure of the Constitution as per the following:
(A) Election Commission of India vs. AIADMK
(B) S.S. Dhanoa vs. Union of India
(C) In Gujarat Assembly Election matter
(D) Sadiq Ali vs. Election Commission of India
Ans: C
9. Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued, where a fundamental right is infringed by
(A) A Statute
(B) A Statutory Order
(C) An Executive Order
(D) Private Body
Ans: D
10. Assertion (A): The principles of natural justice ensure fair hearing.
Reason (R): It requires unbiased judge to decide after hearing all parties.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a good explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
11. Prerogative writs to review an administrative action are:
(A) Two: Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus.
(B) Three: Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition.
(C) Four: Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition and Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Quo Warranto.
(D) Five: Writ of Habeas Corpus, Writ of Mandamus, Writ of Quo warranto, Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Prohibition.
Ans: D
12. A mandatory procedural requirement for an administrative tribunal must be
(A) Legal representation
(B) Cross examination
(C) Reasoned decision
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
13. Judicial review of an administrative action means
(A) Review by the Parliament
(B) Review by the Government
(C) Review by the Legislative Assembly
(D) Review by the Judiciary
Ans: D
14. Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II.
List – I
Institution of Lokpal and Lokayukta numerous wide discretionary powers
List – II
(A) Law should be able to control the
(B) Ensure fair hearing
(C) Evaporate maladministration and corruption to bring good governance
(D) Check and control abuse of power and executive excesses
Ans: C
15. Find correct answer:
(A) Administrative law is a branch of public law and is only a part of Constitutional law. It cannot control the Constitutional law.
(B) Administrative law is a branch of private law.
(C) Administrative law is independent to Constitutional law.
(D) Administrative law is neither the branch of public law nor of private law, but a part of Constitutional law.
Ans: A
16. Bentham’s definition of law is imperative in nature because
(A) Law is an assembling of signs.
(B) Law is declaration of volition conceived or adopted by sovereign in a State.
(C) Because it is adopted by non-sovereign State.
(D) (A) & (B) both
Ans: D
17. The term ‘Legal theory’ has been first time used by
(A) Llewlyne
(B) Ihring
(C) Salmond
(D) W. Friedman
Ans: D
18. Bracket theory of corporate personality is also known as
(A) Concession theory
(B) Symbolist theory
(C) Fiction theory
(D) Will theory
Ans: B
19. ‘A’ says to ‘B’ that he will give a sum of rupees five thousand if ‘B’ marries his daughter, this is
(A) Vested Right
(B) Contingent Right
(C) Primary Right
(D) Secondary Right
Ans: B
20. Assertion (A): Kelsen follows Kant in distinguishing between ‘is’ and ‘ought’.
Reason (R): Kelsen is a forerunner of philosophical school.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
21. The possession is the
(A) Five point in ownership
(B) Seven point in ownership
(C) Nine point in ownership
(D) Ten point in ownership
Ans: C
22. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of ‘absolute duties’?
I. Duties owed to persons indefinitely
II. Self-regarding duties
III. Duties owed to the sovereign
IV. Duties owed to the parents
Select the correct answer using the codes
Codes:
(A) I, III and IV
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II and III
Ans: D
23. Which one of the following gets along correctly?
(A) Trust and co-ownership
(B) Legal and contingent ownership
(C) Sole and limited ownership
(D) Legal and equitable ownership
Ans: D
24. A person who causes bodily injury to another who is labouring under a disorder, disease or bodily infirmity and thereby accelerates the death of the person. Under which it shall be deemed to have caused his death?
(A) Explanation I to Section 299
(B) Explanation I to Section 300
(C) Explanation II to Section 299
(D) Explanation II to Section 300
Ans: A
25. In which provision of Indian Penal Code the definition of ‘valuable security’ is explained?
(A) Section 29
(B) Section 30
(C) Section 31
(D) Section 13
Ans: B
26. State the age limit prescribed under Section 82 of Indian Penal Code in which if a child commits an overt act is not considered as an offence?
(A) Under the age of 12 years.
(B) Under the age of 7 years.
(C) Under the age of 16 years.
(D) Under the age of 18 years.
Ans: B
27. When the injury is intentional and sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and death follows. The offence is of the category:
(A) Attempt to murder
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Murder
(D) Attempt to suicide
Ans: C
28. Principle: Theft + Violence or Threat to violence = Robbery.
Facts: M meets B and her child on a river bridge. M takes the child and threatens to fling it down to the river unless B delivers her purse. B in consequence delivers her purse.
What offence ‘M’ has committed?
(A) M is liable for theft.
(B) M is liable for coercion.
(C) M is liable for robbery.
(D) M is liable for extortion.
Ans: C
29. Fill in the gap:
A disability for _________ days constitutes grievous hurt.
(A) A week
(B) A fortnight
(C) A month
(D) A minimum of twenty days
Ans: D
30. Fill in the gap with appropriate word:
Wrongful restraint means keeping a person from out of his _________ of his residence.
(A) House
(B) Place
(C) Hotel
(D) Guest House
Ans: B
31. Fill in the gap which is more appropriate.
Inducing a girl under 18 years of age to go away with him from _________ is an offence of
(A) Normal home
(B) Place of work
(C) Domestic area
(D) Any place
Ans: D
32. Find the correct answer:
The principle of intergenerational equity envisages:
(A) Conservation of options
(B) Conservation of quality
(C) Conservation of access
(D) All the above
Ans: D
33. Find the correct answer:
The Supreme Court allowed compensation of Rs. 23.84 lakhs and later allowed additional compensation of Rs. 47 lakhs to the farmers whose crops got damaged, being irrigated by subsoil water drawn from a stream which was polluted from untreated effluents of 22 industries. It was decided in the case of
(A) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum vs. Union of India
(B) Indian Council for Environment Action vs. Union of India
(C) S. Jagannath vs. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India
Ans: B
34. The concept of sustainable development contains which of the following essentials?
(A) The precautionary principle
(B) The polluter pays principle
(C) The doctrine of public trust
(D) All above
Ans: D
35. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court in Banwasi Seva Ashram vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, permitted the government agency to acquire the forest land, ousting certain tribal dwellers to implement a power project only after they agreed to provide certain facilities approved by the Court.
Reason (R): Because the governmental action had an environmental impact that threatened to dislocate poor forest dwellers and disrupt their life-style infringing their fundamental right to life, which include the right to livelihood.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
Ans: D
36. The Supreme Court observed that noise pollution cannot be tolerated, even if such noise was a direct result of and was connected with religious activities in the case of
(A) A.P. Pollution Control Board vs. Prof M.V. Naidu
(B) Church of God (Full Gospel) in India vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association.
(C) K.M. Chinappa vs. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India
Ans: B
37. Assertion (A): Nobody can claim a fundamental right to create noise pollution by amplifying the sound of his speech with the help of loudspeaker.
Reason (R): While one has a right to speech, others have a right to listen or decline to listen. Anyone who wishes to live in peace, comfort and quiet within his house has a fundamental right to prevent the noise as pollutant ion reaching him.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A)
Ans: D
38. In which of the following cases it was held that there is no reason to compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution?
(A) Samantha vs. State of A.P.
(B) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
(C) Murli Deora vs. Union of India
(D) Sheela Barse vs. Union of India
Ans: C
39. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife is
(A) A fundamental right
(B) One of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(C) One of the Fundamental Duties
(D) Both one of the Directive Principles of State Policy and one of the Fundamental Duties
Ans: D
40. Who stated that international law is not true law but ‘positive international morality’ only, analogous to the rules binding a club or society?
(A) Oscar Schachter
(B) John Austin
(C) Louis Flenkin
(D) Hans Kelson
Ans: B
41. Opino juris sive necessitatis means
(A) Opinions of jurists is necessary evidence for determining rules of international custom
(B) Opinions of jurists is not necessary for ascertaining the rules of international law
(C) The feeling on the part of States that in acting as they do they are fulfilling a legal obligation
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
42. Which of the following cases supports constitutive theory of recognition, namely, the act of recognition alone confers international personality on an entity purporting to be a state or clothes new government with an authority to enter into international relations?
(A) The Arantzazu Mendi, (1939) A.C. P 256
(B) A.M. Luther vs. James Sagor & Co, (1921) 3 K.B. P.532
(C) Tinoco Concessions, (1923) 1 United Nations Reports of International Arbitral Awards P 369
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
43. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Nationality is the evidence of the link or relations of an individual with the State whereas domicile denotes de facto residence of an individual in a State with an intention to permanently settle there.
(B) Nationality is an evidence of residence of an individual with an intention to permanently settle there.
(C) Domicile denotes the link or relations of an individual with the State.
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
44. The Charter of the United Nations came into force on
(A) 26 June 1945
(B) 10 December 1945
(C) 24 October 1945
(D) 1 November 1945
Ans: C
45. A member of the United Nations which has persistently violated the principles contained in the Charter may be expelled from the United Nations by the
(A) Security Council
(B) General Assembly
(C) General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council
(D) Security Council upon the recommendation of the General Assembly
Ans: C
46. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) General Assembly upon recommendation of the Security Council
(D) General Assembly and the Security Council independently of one another
Ans: D
47. Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 the natural guardian of a minor child is
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Both Mother and Father
(D) Either Mother or Father
Ans: B
48. A Muslim wife can relinquish her Mahr
(A) When she is minor
(B) When she has attained the age of puberty
(C) When she is not less than 18 years of age
(D) When she is not less than 21 years of age.
Ans: C
49. In Islamic Law “Faskh” means
(A) Restitution of conjugal rights
(B) Judicial separation
(C) Dissolution or rescission of the contract of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of the husband.
(D) Dissolution on rescission of the contract of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of the wife.
Ans: C
50. Muta marriage is recognised by
(A) Hanafi School
(B) Maliki School
(C) Ithna Ashari School
(D) Hanbali School
Ans: C
51. In which of the following case, the court held that “Dower is a sale-price of women”?
(A) Humara Begam’s case
(B) Abdul Kadir’s case
(C) Subrunnissan’s case
(D) Shah Bano’s case
Ans: C
52. “Single Act of adultery” is a ground for
(A) Judicial Separation
(B) Divorce
(C) Divorce and Judicial Separation both
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
53. Dower in Muslim Law is
I. Dowry
II. An obligation imposed upon husband as a mark of respect for wife.
III. Sale price of woman.
IV. Consideration for marriage.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) I, III and IV are correct.
(B) II and III are correct.
(C) II and IV are correct.
(D) I and III are correct.
Ans: C
54. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(Provisions) (Sections of Hindu Marriage Act, 1956)
(i) Registration of Hindu Marriages. (a) Section 13 B
(ii) Divorce by Mutual Consent. (b) Section 16
(iii) Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages. (c) Section 8
(iv) Divorced persons when may marry again (d) Section 15
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: C
55. The movement for protection of human rights gained greater momentum after ______.
(A) American War of Independence.
(B) Second World War
(C) Atlantic Charter, 1941
(D) The European Convention on Human Rights, 1950
Ans: B
56. The following period was designated by the United Nations as the UN Decade for Human Rights Education?
(A) 1995 – 2004
(B) 1982 – 1991
(C) 1998 – 2007
(D) 2001 – 2010
Ans: A
57. Assertion (A): The political implication of the theory of natural rights is that human rights, being inherent in man, existed prior to the birth of the State itself and cannot, therefore, be violated by the State.
Reason (R): Human rights are senior to State.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
58. “You are a human being. You have rights inherent in that reality. You have dignity and worth that exists prior to law.” This is the statement of
(A) Bhagwati, J
(B) Lyn Beth Neylon
(C) Kofi Annan
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
59. ‘No one shall be subjected to arbitrary asset or detention.’ Under which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, this right has been declared?
(A) Article 5
(B) Article 7
(C) Article 8
(D) Article 9
Ans: D
60. Section 19 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides protection to
(A) Army only
(B) Police only
(C) Navy only
(D) All of the above
Ans: A
61. In which of the following cases the jurisprudential basis of the principle to award compensation for violating Human-rights has been laid down by the Supreme Court?
(A) Visakha Vs. State of Rajasthan.
(B) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India.
(C) Ratlam Municipality Vs Vardhichand.
(D) Nilabhati Behra Vs. State of Orissa.
Ans: D
62. “Tortious liability arises from breach of duty, primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages” This definition is given by
(A) Winfield
(B) Salmond
(C) Flemmings
(D) Goodheart
Ans: A
63. The rule currently followed in India to determine remoteness of damages was laid down in
(A) Re Polemis case
(B) Overseas Tankship (U.K.) Ltd. V. Morts Dock Engg. Co. Ltd.
(C) Liesbosch Dredger V. S.S. Edison
(D) Smith V. London and South Western Rly. Co.
Ans: B
64. In an action for the tort of negligence, what is not required to be proved by the plaintiff is that
(A) there is damage
(B) duty-situation arises
(C) breach of duty owed to some one
(D) breach of duty owed to the plaintiff
Ans: C
65. For an action of nuisance defendant can put up the following defences.
1. The place is suitable for the purpose.
2. It is for the benefit of the residents of colony.
3. It is done under statutory authority.
4. Plaintiff has consented to the act.
Select the right code.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(D) 3 and 4 are correct.
Ans: D
66. Which one of the following is not a libel?
(A) A defamatory statement in print
(B) A cinematographic film
(C) Pictures
(D) Sounds or gestures
Ans: D
67. Match List-I with List-II. Use the codes below to select the correct answer.
List – I List - II
(a) Rylands V. Fletcher 1. Defamation
(b) Bourhill V. Young 2. Negligence
(c) Sturges V. Bridgman 3. Liability without fault
(d) Newstead V. London Express 4. Nuisance
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans: D
68. Which of the following statements is true? Select using the codes given below:
1. Words prima facie innocent may also turn out to be defamatory.
2. The plaintiff must explain the hidden defamatory meaning assigned to otherwise innocent looking statement.
3. The plaintiff must show how these words relate to him.
4. Words prima facie innocent cannot be defamatory.
Codes:
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(C) 1 and 4 are correct.
(D) Only 4 is correct.
Ans: B
69. Assertion (A): Every partner may attend diligently to his duties in the conduct of business.
Reason (R): Every partner must be intelligent.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: D
70. Registration of a firm is
(A) Mandatory
(B) Not compulsory
(C) Desirable
(D) Of no use
Ans: B
71. Match an item in List-I with an item in List-II, using codes given below:
List – I List - II
(In case of a partnership) (Case)
(i) Duty to account for personal profits. (a) Pulin V. Mahendra, (1921)34 Cal. LJ405
(ii) Duty not to compete. (b) Suresh Kumar V. Amrit Kumar, AIR 1982 Del. 131.
(iii) Duty of good faith. (c) Gardner V. Mc Cutcheon, 4 Beav. 534 (1842)
(iv) Right to take part in business. (d) Helmore V. Smith, (1886) 35 Ch D. 436 at P. 444
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (d) (b) (a) (c)
(B) (c) (a) (b) (d)
(C) (a) (c) (d) (b)
(D) (c) (a) (d) (b)
Ans: D
72. Which one of the following pairs does not match?
(A) Negotiable instrument – A piece of paper
(B) Negotiability – Acquisition of property by one’s own conduct
(C) Nemo dat quod nonhabet – Negotiable instruments
(D) Negotiable instrument – Transfer by simple delivery
Ans: C
73. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(A) A condition can become warranty when waived by buyer.
(B) A condition can become warranty when buyer accepts goods.
(C) A condition can never become warranty.
(D) Under a condition, a buyer has right to reject goods.
Ans: C
74. Directors are
(A) only agents of a company.
(B) only fiduciaries of a company.
(C) only servants of a company under a contract of employment with the company.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: D
75. Role of doctrine of ultra vires is
(A) to fight virus of ultras.
(B) to protect indoor managers.
(C) to confine corporate action within fixed limits.
(D) to protect directors for exercising their implied authority.
Ans: C
76. By which of the following way a Muslim marriage can be dissolved by a Muslim husband?
(A) Talaq
(B) Illa
(C) Zihar
(D) Above all
Ans: D
77. When a person making a false statement believes the statement to be true and does not intend to mislead to the other party to the contract, it is known as
(A) Mistake
(B) Fraud
(C) Misrepresentation
(D) Undue influence
Ans: C
78. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void.
Reason (R): Law has no force.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
79. A and B are friends. A told to B to show him a new movie in a posh theatre, upon which A promised to offer him lunch in a 5 star hotel. B showed him a movie in a posh theatre, but A gave lunch to B in a road side dhaba. Decide A’s liability using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) A is liable because there was intention to create legal relation between A and B.
(B) A is not liable because there was no intention to crate legal relation between A and B.
(C) B was mistaken.
(D) A was mistaken.
Ans: B
80. Arrange the following concepts in sequence in which they occur, using codes given below:
(i) Offer is communicated.
(ii) Counter offer is made.
(iii) Offer is rejected.
(iv) Counter offer is accepted.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
81. Following are essentials of valid contract:
(i) Parties to contract should have capacity to contract.
(ii) Parties to contract should have legal mind.
(iii) Parties to contract should be intelligent.
(iv) Invitation to offer should be accepted.
Find correct answer, using codes:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (iv) are correct.
(C) All of above are correct.
(D) Only (ii) is correct.
Ans: A
82. Match items in Table-A with items in Table-B, using codes given below:
Table – A Table – B
(a) Ambiguous and uncertain agreements (i) Section 15
(b) Coercion (ii) Section 25(2)
(c) Past consideration (iii) Section 73
(d) Remoteness of damage (iv) Section 29
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(B) (c) (b) (d) (a)
(C) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(D) (a) (d) (c) (b)
Ans: A
83. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Tort is a civil wrong in which claim for unliquidated damages is made.
(B) In tort, action lies against the wrong-doer in a civil court.
(C) For a tortious liability, a jail term can also be awarded.
(D) In some torts an injunction can also be issued against the wrong-doer
Ans: C
84. Which one of the following defences is not available in Law of Tort?
(A) Volenti non-fit injuria
(B) Act of God
(C) Contributory negligence
(D) Inevitable accident
Ans: C
85. ‘Sometimes it happens that the legal right of a person is violated but he does not suffer any harm.’ From which one of the following maxim we can attribute it?
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine damno
(C) Volenti non-fit injuria
(D) Res ipsa loquitur
Ans: B
86. The rule of ‘absolute liability’ was laid down by the Supreme Court of India in the following case:
(A) Rylands vs. Fletcher
(B) M.C. Mehta (Sriram Food and Fertilizer Co.) vs. Union of India
(C) M.C. Mehta (C.N.G. Fuel case) vs. Union of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
87. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India gave the ruling that sovereign immunity of the State is subject to the Fundamental Rights?
(A) Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain vs. State of U.P.
(B) State of Rajasthan Vs Vidhyawati
(C) People’s Union for Democratic Rights vs. State of Bihar
(D) Shyam Sundar vs. State of Rajasthan
Ans: C
88. The rule laid down in Re Polemis case is that the defendant shall be liable for all
(A) Direct consequences of his act.
(B) Direct consequences of his act, if he could foresee some damage to the plaintiff from his act.
(C) Direct consequences of his act, only if he could foresee the kind of damage which has actually occurred.
(D) Foreseeable damage.
Ans: B
89. Match List-I (Jurists) with List-II (Assumptions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Lord T.B. Macauley (i) Preparation of Penal Code of India
(b) Jermy Bentham (ii) UN written jurisprudence on Penal principles
(c) Kelson (iii) Substantive law on crimes
(d) Sir Barnes Peacock (iv) Revision of Penal law
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: A
90. Match List-I (Objectives) with List-II (Propositions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Inchoate crime (i) ‘Whaton’ says it is the beginning but not complete.
(b) Attempt (ii) It does not act towards the commission of offence.
(c) Preparation (iii) Culprit commences to do something.
(d) Intention (iv) When preparation merges itself with attempt.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: B
91. Fill in the blank using appropriate statement.
Non Compos Mentis means ______
(A) Not of sound mind.
(B) Who lacks the requisite mens rea.
(C) Unable to know that the act is either wrong or contrary to law.
(D) A concussion of brain.
Ans: A
92. Fill in the blank using appropriate reason.
Right to private defence by a friend is generally not available because _______
(A) There were no specified circumstances.
(B) Explanation II of Section 300 IPC is a bar for it.
(C) The act was not with an intention to protect the friend.
(D) The offending party was an aggressor.
Ans: B
93. Read Assertion (I) and Reason (II) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (I): Section 95 of IPC is intended to prevent penalization of negligible wrongs of trivial character because:
Reasons (II):
(a) The injury is negligible.
(b) The victim and the wrongdoer were related to each other.
(c) The injured and the offender were not related by circumstances.
(d) The nature of injury was very minor.
Codes:
(A) (a) is true and (d) is the reason while (b) and (c) are not true.
(B) (b) is true and (c) is the reason while (a) and (d) are false.
(C) (c) is true and (d) is the reason while (a) and (b) are not true.
(D) (d) is the only reason while all others (a), (b) and (c) are false.
Ans: A
94. Fill in the blank:
Deceiving dishonestly by inducing a person to retain the property is known as ______ offence.
(A) Concealment
(B) Deception by false pretention
(C) Cheating
(D) Fraud
Ans: C
95. Which of the following amount to Industrial Dispute?
(A) Any dispute between Employers and Employees.
(B) Between Employers and Workmen.
(C) Between Workmen and Workmen.
(D) All these.
Ans: D
96. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “the benefit of running allowance had to be taken into consideration for computing pension only once, at the time of retirement of the employee, not for any future calculation”?
(A) U.O.I. Vs Dhingara and others (2008) I LLJ 867(SC)
(B) Bennet Coleman & Co. vs. Punya Priyadas AIR 1970 SC426
(C) State Bank of Patiala vs. phoolpati (2005) II LLJ 473 (SC)
(D) Pearlite Lines Pvt. Ltd. vs. Manorama Sirse (2004) I LLJ 1041 (SC)
Ans: A
97. Which rights remain unaffected, during the pendency of a proceeding before a court of inquiry under Sections 22, 23 and 33 of the I.D. Act, 1947?
(A) Workmen to go on strike.
(B) The rights of Employer to dismiss or to punish the workmen.
(C) Employer to lock-out his business.
(D) All the above.
Ans: D
98. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), using codes given below, select the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Termination of service does not amount to retrenchment.
Reason (R): Amount of loss of retrenchment is more than amount of termination.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
99. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using codes given below choose correct answer.
Assertion (A): Strike is stoppage of work by a body of persons employed in any service acting in combination.
Reason (R): Combined work is service oriented.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are false.
(D) (A) is true, (R) is false.
Ans: C
100. Trade unionism to be fully effective demands
(A) Union of trade
(B) Trade of union
(C) Democratic spirit and education
(D) Soul-elevating and democratic spirits
Ans: C
(A) Humara Begam’s case
(B) Abdul Kadir’s case
(C) Subrunnissan’s case
(D) Shah Bano’s case
Ans: C
52. “Single Act of adultery” is a ground for
(A) Judicial Separation
(B) Divorce
(C) Divorce and Judicial Separation both
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
53. Dower in Muslim Law is
I. Dowry
II. An obligation imposed upon husband as a mark of respect for wife.
III. Sale price of woman.
IV. Consideration for marriage.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) I, III and IV are correct.
(B) II and III are correct.
(C) II and IV are correct.
(D) I and III are correct.
Ans: C
54. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(Provisions) (Sections of Hindu Marriage Act, 1956)
(i) Registration of Hindu Marriages. (a) Section 13 B
(ii) Divorce by Mutual Consent. (b) Section 16
(iii) Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages. (c) Section 8
(iv) Divorced persons when may marry again (d) Section 15
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: C
55. The movement for protection of human rights gained greater momentum after ______.
(A) American War of Independence.
(B) Second World War
(C) Atlantic Charter, 1941
(D) The European Convention on Human Rights, 1950
Ans: B
56. The following period was designated by the United Nations as the UN Decade for Human Rights Education?
(A) 1995 – 2004
(B) 1982 – 1991
(C) 1998 – 2007
(D) 2001 – 2010
Ans: A
57. Assertion (A): The political implication of the theory of natural rights is that human rights, being inherent in man, existed prior to the birth of the State itself and cannot, therefore, be violated by the State.
Reason (R): Human rights are senior to State.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
58. “You are a human being. You have rights inherent in that reality. You have dignity and worth that exists prior to law.” This is the statement of
(A) Bhagwati, J
(B) Lyn Beth Neylon
(C) Kofi Annan
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
59. ‘No one shall be subjected to arbitrary asset or detention.’ Under which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, this right has been declared?
(A) Article 5
(B) Article 7
(C) Article 8
(D) Article 9
Ans: D
60. Section 19 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides protection to
(A) Army only
(B) Police only
(C) Navy only
(D) All of the above
Ans: A
61. In which of the following cases the jurisprudential basis of the principle to award compensation for violating Human-rights has been laid down by the Supreme Court?
(A) Visakha Vs. State of Rajasthan.
(B) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India.
(C) Ratlam Municipality Vs Vardhichand.
(D) Nilabhati Behra Vs. State of Orissa.
Ans: D
62. “Tortious liability arises from breach of duty, primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages” This definition is given by
(A) Winfield
(B) Salmond
(C) Flemmings
(D) Goodheart
Ans: A
63. The rule currently followed in India to determine remoteness of damages was laid down in
(A) Re Polemis case
(B) Overseas Tankship (U.K.) Ltd. V. Morts Dock Engg. Co. Ltd.
(C) Liesbosch Dredger V. S.S. Edison
(D) Smith V. London and South Western Rly. Co.
Ans: B
64. In an action for the tort of negligence, what is not required to be proved by the plaintiff is that
(A) there is damage
(B) duty-situation arises
(C) breach of duty owed to some one
(D) breach of duty owed to the plaintiff
Ans: C
65. For an action of nuisance defendant can put up the following defences.
1. The place is suitable for the purpose.
2. It is for the benefit of the residents of colony.
3. It is done under statutory authority.
4. Plaintiff has consented to the act.
Select the right code.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(D) 3 and 4 are correct.
Ans: D
66. Which one of the following is not a libel?
(A) A defamatory statement in print
(B) A cinematographic film
(C) Pictures
(D) Sounds or gestures
Ans: D
67. Match List-I with List-II. Use the codes below to select the correct answer.
List – I List - II
(a) Rylands V. Fletcher 1. Defamation
(b) Bourhill V. Young 2. Negligence
(c) Sturges V. Bridgman 3. Liability without fault
(d) Newstead V. London Express 4. Nuisance
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans: D
68. Which of the following statements is true? Select using the codes given below:
1. Words prima facie innocent may also turn out to be defamatory.
2. The plaintiff must explain the hidden defamatory meaning assigned to otherwise innocent looking statement.
3. The plaintiff must show how these words relate to him.
4. Words prima facie innocent cannot be defamatory.
Codes:
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(C) 1 and 4 are correct.
(D) Only 4 is correct.
Ans: B
69. Assertion (A): Every partner may attend diligently to his duties in the conduct of business.
Reason (R): Every partner must be intelligent.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: D
70. Registration of a firm is
(A) Mandatory
(B) Not compulsory
(C) Desirable
(D) Of no use
Ans: B
71. Match an item in List-I with an item in List-II, using codes given below:
List – I List - II
(In case of a partnership) (Case)
(i) Duty to account for personal profits. (a) Pulin V. Mahendra, (1921)34 Cal. LJ405
(ii) Duty not to compete. (b) Suresh Kumar V. Amrit Kumar, AIR 1982 Del. 131.
(iii) Duty of good faith. (c) Gardner V. Mc Cutcheon, 4 Beav. 534 (1842)
(iv) Right to take part in business. (d) Helmore V. Smith, (1886) 35 Ch D. 436 at P. 444
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (d) (b) (a) (c)
(B) (c) (a) (b) (d)
(C) (a) (c) (d) (b)
(D) (c) (a) (d) (b)
Ans: D
72. Which one of the following pairs does not match?
(A) Negotiable instrument – A piece of paper
(B) Negotiability – Acquisition of property by one’s own conduct
(C) Nemo dat quod nonhabet – Negotiable instruments
(D) Negotiable instrument – Transfer by simple delivery
Ans: C
73. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(A) A condition can become warranty when waived by buyer.
(B) A condition can become warranty when buyer accepts goods.
(C) A condition can never become warranty.
(D) Under a condition, a buyer has right to reject goods.
Ans: C
74. Directors are
(A) only agents of a company.
(B) only fiduciaries of a company.
(C) only servants of a company under a contract of employment with the company.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: D
75. Role of doctrine of ultra vires is
(A) to fight virus of ultras.
(B) to protect indoor managers.
(C) to confine corporate action within fixed limits.
(D) to protect directors for exercising their implied authority.
Ans: C
76. By which of the following way a Muslim marriage can be dissolved by a Muslim husband?
(A) Talaq
(B) Illa
(C) Zihar
(D) Above all
Ans: D
77. When a person making a false statement believes the statement to be true and does not intend to mislead to the other party to the contract, it is known as
(A) Mistake
(B) Fraud
(C) Misrepresentation
(D) Undue influence
Ans: C
78. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void.
Reason (R): Law has no force.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
79. A and B are friends. A told to B to show him a new movie in a posh theatre, upon which A promised to offer him lunch in a 5 star hotel. B showed him a movie in a posh theatre, but A gave lunch to B in a road side dhaba. Decide A’s liability using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) A is liable because there was intention to create legal relation between A and B.
(B) A is not liable because there was no intention to crate legal relation between A and B.
(C) B was mistaken.
(D) A was mistaken.
Ans: B
80. Arrange the following concepts in sequence in which they occur, using codes given below:
(i) Offer is communicated.
(ii) Counter offer is made.
(iii) Offer is rejected.
(iv) Counter offer is accepted.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: B
81. Following are essentials of valid contract:
(i) Parties to contract should have capacity to contract.
(ii) Parties to contract should have legal mind.
(iii) Parties to contract should be intelligent.
(iv) Invitation to offer should be accepted.
Find correct answer, using codes:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (iv) are correct.
(C) All of above are correct.
(D) Only (ii) is correct.
Ans: A
82. Match items in Table-A with items in Table-B, using codes given below:
Table – A Table – B
(a) Ambiguous and uncertain agreements (i) Section 15
(b) Coercion (ii) Section 25(2)
(c) Past consideration (iii) Section 73
(d) Remoteness of damage (iv) Section 29
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(B) (c) (b) (d) (a)
(C) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(D) (a) (d) (c) (b)
Ans: A
83. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Tort is a civil wrong in which claim for unliquidated damages is made.
(B) In tort, action lies against the wrong-doer in a civil court.
(C) For a tortious liability, a jail term can also be awarded.
(D) In some torts an injunction can also be issued against the wrong-doer
Ans: C
84. Which one of the following defences is not available in Law of Tort?
(A) Volenti non-fit injuria
(B) Act of God
(C) Contributory negligence
(D) Inevitable accident
Ans: C
85. ‘Sometimes it happens that the legal right of a person is violated but he does not suffer any harm.’ From which one of the following maxim we can attribute it?
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine damno
(C) Volenti non-fit injuria
(D) Res ipsa loquitur
Ans: B
86. The rule of ‘absolute liability’ was laid down by the Supreme Court of India in the following case:
(A) Rylands vs. Fletcher
(B) M.C. Mehta (Sriram Food and Fertilizer Co.) vs. Union of India
(C) M.C. Mehta (C.N.G. Fuel case) vs. Union of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
87. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India gave the ruling that sovereign immunity of the State is subject to the Fundamental Rights?
(A) Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain vs. State of U.P.
(B) State of Rajasthan Vs Vidhyawati
(C) People’s Union for Democratic Rights vs. State of Bihar
(D) Shyam Sundar vs. State of Rajasthan
Ans: C
88. The rule laid down in Re Polemis case is that the defendant shall be liable for all
(A) Direct consequences of his act.
(B) Direct consequences of his act, if he could foresee some damage to the plaintiff from his act.
(C) Direct consequences of his act, only if he could foresee the kind of damage which has actually occurred.
(D) Foreseeable damage.
Ans: B
89. Match List-I (Jurists) with List-II (Assumptions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Lord T.B. Macauley (i) Preparation of Penal Code of India
(b) Jermy Bentham (ii) UN written jurisprudence on Penal principles
(c) Kelson (iii) Substantive law on crimes
(d) Sir Barnes Peacock (iv) Revision of Penal law
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: A
90. Match List-I (Objectives) with List-II (Propositions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Inchoate crime (i) ‘Whaton’ says it is the beginning but not complete.
(b) Attempt (ii) It does not act towards the commission of offence.
(c) Preparation (iii) Culprit commences to do something.
(d) Intention (iv) When preparation merges itself with attempt.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Ans: B
91. Fill in the blank using appropriate statement.
Non Compos Mentis means ______
(A) Not of sound mind.
(B) Who lacks the requisite mens rea.
(C) Unable to know that the act is either wrong or contrary to law.
(D) A concussion of brain.
Ans: A
92. Fill in the blank using appropriate reason.
Right to private defence by a friend is generally not available because _______
(A) There were no specified circumstances.
(B) Explanation II of Section 300 IPC is a bar for it.
(C) The act was not with an intention to protect the friend.
(D) The offending party was an aggressor.
Ans: B
93. Read Assertion (I) and Reason (II) and with the help of codes given below select the correct explanation.
Assertion (I): Section 95 of IPC is intended to prevent penalization of negligible wrongs of trivial character because:
Reasons (II):
(a) The injury is negligible.
(b) The victim and the wrongdoer were related to each other.
(c) The injured and the offender were not related by circumstances.
(d) The nature of injury was very minor.
Codes:
(A) (a) is true and (d) is the reason while (b) and (c) are not true.
(B) (b) is true and (c) is the reason while (a) and (d) are false.
(C) (c) is true and (d) is the reason while (a) and (b) are not true.
(D) (d) is the only reason while all others (a), (b) and (c) are false.
Ans: A
94. Fill in the blank:
Deceiving dishonestly by inducing a person to retain the property is known as ______ offence.
(A) Concealment
(B) Deception by false pretention
(C) Cheating
(D) Fraud
Ans: C
95. Which of the following amount to Industrial Dispute?
(A) Any dispute between Employers and Employees.
(B) Between Employers and Workmen.
(C) Between Workmen and Workmen.
(D) All these.
Ans: D
96. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “the benefit of running allowance had to be taken into consideration for computing pension only once, at the time of retirement of the employee, not for any future calculation”?
(A) U.O.I. Vs Dhingara and others (2008) I LLJ 867(SC)
(B) Bennet Coleman & Co. vs. Punya Priyadas AIR 1970 SC426
(C) State Bank of Patiala vs. phoolpati (2005) II LLJ 473 (SC)
(D) Pearlite Lines Pvt. Ltd. vs. Manorama Sirse (2004) I LLJ 1041 (SC)
Ans: A
97. Which rights remain unaffected, during the pendency of a proceeding before a court of inquiry under Sections 22, 23 and 33 of the I.D. Act, 1947?
(A) Workmen to go on strike.
(B) The rights of Employer to dismiss or to punish the workmen.
(C) Employer to lock-out his business.
(D) All the above.
Ans: D
98. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), using codes given below, select the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Termination of service does not amount to retrenchment.
Reason (R): Amount of loss of retrenchment is more than amount of termination.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
99. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using codes given below choose correct answer.
Assertion (A): Strike is stoppage of work by a body of persons employed in any service acting in combination.
Reason (R): Combined work is service oriented.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are false.
(D) (A) is true, (R) is false.
Ans: C
100. Trade unionism to be fully effective demands
(A) Union of trade
(B) Trade of union
(C) Democratic spirit and education
(D) Soul-elevating and democratic spirits
Ans: C