LABOUR WELFARE- PAGE 2
LABOUR WELFARE/ PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT/ INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS/ LABOUR AND SOCIAL WELFARE/ HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT MCQs
1. Who had given the conceptual, human and technical skills concept of managerial skills?
(A) Robert Blake
(B) Henry Mintzberg
(C) Robert Katz
(D) Heinz Weihrich
Ans: C
2. Who had advocated the systems approach model?
(A) John T. Dunlop
(B) Herbert A. Spencer
(C) Charles A. Spaulding
(D) Talcott Parsons
Ans: A
3. Who advocated the theory Z?
(A) Douglas Murray McGregor
(B) William Ouchi and Price
(C) John Galbraith
(D) Jerdee and Caroll
Ans: B
4. Induction is viewed as
(A) Socializing process
(B) Belongingness
(C) Feel at home
(D) All the above
Ans: D
5. Match the following:
Approaches to HRD Propagator
a. Human Capital Approach i. UNDP
b. Socio Psychological Approach ii. Human Development Report of the UN
c. Poverty Alleviation Approach iii. T.W. Schultz
d. World Human Development Approach. iv. David McClelland
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iv iii i ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Ans: A
6. The ongoing globalization in India requires drastic changes under which of the labour legislations?
(A) The Factories Act
(B) The Employees’ State Insurance Act
(C) The Industrial Disputes Act
(D) The Employees’ Provident Funds Act
Ans: C
7. Which of the following conventions has secured highest number of ratifications?
(A) Forced Labour Convention (No 29)
(B) Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organize (No 87)
(C) Equal Remuneration Convention (No 100)
(D) All the above
Ans: D
8. The composition of which of the following is similar to the structure of I.L.O?
(A) Canteen Managing Committee
(B) Standing Labour Committee
(C) Safety Committee
(D) Works Committee
Ans: B
9. Which of the following legislations extends some sort of benefit to retired employees also?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Employees’ Compensation Act
(C) Employees’ State Insurance Act
(D) Payment of Bonus Act
Ans: C
10. Which of the following is not a method for fixing Minimum Wages under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
(A) Notification Method
(B) Committee Method
(C) Bargaining Method
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
11. Which of the following is not an objective of Workers’ Education Scheme in India?
(A) To make workers’ responsible citizens
(B) To make them efficient at work.
(C) To enable them to earn more.
(D) To make them responsible Union members and Officers.
Ans: C
12. Which part of the Indian Constitution has shaped the labour welfare programmes?
(A) Preamble
(B) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
13. Who among the following advocated the theory of full employment?
(A) Beveridge
(B) Keynes
(C) Adam Smith
(D) A.C. Pigou
Ans: B
14. Which of the following provides for recognition of trade unions at the central level?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Trade Unions Act
(C) Code of Discipline in Industry
(D) Inter-Union Code of Conduct
Ans: C
15. Which of the following legislations was based on the recommendations of the B.P. Adarkar Committee Report?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Employees’ Compensation Act
(C) Employees’ Provident Funds Act
(D) Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
Ans: D
16. Which of the following industrial actions has been declared illegal by the Court of Law in India?
(A) Strike
(B) Gherao
(C) Go slow
(D) Lockout
Ans: B
17. The concept of co-operation in Industrial Relations was implemented through which of the following?
(A) Works Committee
(B) Joint Management Councils
(C) Workers’ representatives on the Board of Directors
(D) All the above
Ans: D
18. In which type of collective bargaining workers lose something instead of gaining?
(A) Concession Bargaining
(B) Coalition Bargaining
(C) Productivity Bargaining
(D) All the above
Ans: A
19. From which of the following, representatives are not taken in tripartite bodies in India?
(A) Management
(B) Labour/Trade Unions
(C) Government
(D) I.L.O.
Ans: D
20. Who was the Chairman of the National Commission on Rural Labour?
(A) Ravindra Verma
(B) H. Hanumantappa
(C) G. Ramanujam
(D) V.B. John
Ans: B
21. Which of the following cannot be said to be an objective of Workers’ Participation in Management?
(A) To associate in decision making process of the organization.
(B) To satisfy the urge of self-expression of workers.
(C) To promote a conducive environment in the organisation.
(D) To promote higher income and better conditions of employment for workers.
Ans: D
22. Which of the following combinations is taken as bipartitism in Industrial Relations?
(A) Government and Labour
(B) Government and Employer
(C) Labour and Management
(D) Employers and Consumers
Ans: C
23. In which of the following institutions Central Government prefers to place the labour policies for consultation?
(A) I.L.O.
(B) I.L.C / S.L.C
(C) Labour Ministers’ Conference
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
24. Which of the following prohibits formation or continuance of company unions?
(A) Code of discipline in industry
(B) Code of efficiency and welfare
(C) Inter-union code of conduct
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
25. The ongoing globalization in the country needs reforms in our labour laws. Which of the following forces oppose changes in the existing labour legislations?
(A) Government
(B) Labour and Trade Unions
(C) Employers’ Associations
(D) Human Rights’ Commission
Ans: B
26. In USA collective bargaining mostly takes place at the
(A) Industrial level
(B) Regional level
(C) National level
(D) Enterprise level
Ans: D
27. In which among the following countries Productivity Bargaining was first used?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) U.K.
(D) Germany
Ans: C
28. The purpose of granting recognition to trade unions in USA by NLRB is to
(A) send representatives to I.L.O.
(B) to participate in Government Bodies
(C) to raise labour disputes
(D) to be accepted by Management for Collective Bargaining purposes
Ans: D
29. The recent Industrial Relations problem at Maruti Udyog Ltd. at its Manesar Plant was concerned with
(A) Permanent workers
(B) Contract labour
(C) Displaced persons
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
30. Which of the following statements is not correct in the light of present Industrial Relations scenario in India?
(A) Number of strikes is declining
(B) Rate of unionism is increasing
(C) Number of Lockouts is higher than the number of strikes
(D) Wages are revising
Ans: B
31. Union shop, closed shop, preferential shop are known as
(A) Union Security Measures
(B) Industrial Actions
(C) Organizational Security Measures
(D) All the above
Ans: A
32. Which of the following Federations is associated with International Confederation of Free Trade Unions (ICFTU)?
(A) AITUC
(B) INTUC
(C) BMS
(D) CITU
Ans: B
33. Which of the following can be said to be an Employers’ Association in India?
(A) Chambers of Commerce
(B) Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(C) All India Sugar Mills Employers’ Association
(D) All the above
Ans: D
34. Which of the following strikes are not authorised by Union?
(A) Quickie Strike
(B) Lightning Strike
(C) Wild-Cat Strike
(D) All the above
Ans: D
35. Which of the following legislations deals with collective bargaining in USA?
(A) Labour Management Relations Act
(B) Landrum Griffin Act
(C) OASDHI Act
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
36. Which of the following statements about Economic Reforms in India is not true?
(A) Economic reforms were initiated in July 1991
(B) The balance of payment crisis led to the hurried introduction of Economic reforms
(C) LPG were the three components of Economic reforms
(D) It had least impact on the human resources management
Ans: D
37. Rationalization of human resource means
(A) only downsizing
(B) only increasing the manpower strength
(C) right sizing
(D) skill enhancement only
Ans: C
38. Name the economist turned Finance Minister, who initiated economic reforms in India?
(A) P. Chidambaram
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Yashwant Sinha
Ans: B
39. Kim Cameron defines ‘downsizing’ as a set of activities undertaken on the part of management and designed to improve organizational efficiency, productivity and/or competitiveness. It represents a strategy implemented by managers that affects the size of firm’s workforce, the costs and the work processes.”
From this definition which one is not true?
(A) To improve organizational efficiency
(B) Strategic decision of management
(C) Trade Union approved action plan
(D) Affects the size of firms’ workforce, costs and work processes
Ans: C
40. Which of the following is the meaning of ‘Golden handshake’?
(A) It is a bribe.
(B) It is a gift.
(C) It is a gratis.
(D) It is a compensation.
Ans: D
41. What are the four components of ‘4’ P model of organizational excellence as suggested in Toyota culture?
(A) Plan, policy, procedure, programme
(B) Philosophy, process, people, problem solving
(C) Plan, philosophy, process, product
(D) Philosophy, product, price, promotion
Ans: B
42. Delphi Technique is used in
(A) Planning
(B) Promoting
(C) Forecasting
(D) Pricing
Ans: C
43. Which of the following is not a TQM technique?
(A) Six Sigma
(B) Zero Defect Programmes
(C) Quality Circles
(D) Core Competency
Ans: D
44. Which of the following is a Matrix Organization?
(A) When bureaucratic structure is made less hierarchical
(B) When project structure is superimposed on bureaucratic structure
(C) When project structure is independently created
(D) When projects are geographically dispersed
Ans: B
45. Who had advanced the ‘soft’ and ‘hard’ approach of HRM?
(A) Benjamin Schneider
(B) James Niniger
(C) John Storey
(D) Lloyd Baind
Ans: C
46. The book ‘Competitive Advantage’ is authored by
(A) C.P. Lewis
(B) Michael Porter
(C) C.K. Prahalad
(D) Sumantra Ghosal
Ans: B
47. The concepts of ‘human engineering’ and ‘ergonomics’ are advanced by which school of management thought?
(A) Quantitative School
(B) Human Relations School
(C) Behavioural School
(D) Scientific Management School
Ans: D
48. Which of the following statements about assessment centres is not correct?
(A) It is a simulation exercise.
(B) It is designed to evaluate managerial potential.
(C) It is used only as a selection technique.
(D) It uses interviews, in-basket problem solving exercises and business decision games as methods.
Ans: C
49. Assertion (A): Downsizing is an organisational imperative in the context of open market competition.
Reason (R): Outsourcing strategy gave rise to downsizing.
Codes:
(A) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are right.
(C) (A) right and (R) is wrong.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: B
50. Which one is an underlying value in OD efforts?
(A) Profit maximization by hook or crook.
(B) Coercing the people
(C) Trust and support
(D) Resorting to short cut methods
Ans: C
(A) Robert Blake
(B) Henry Mintzberg
(C) Robert Katz
(D) Heinz Weihrich
Ans: C
2. Who had advocated the systems approach model?
(A) John T. Dunlop
(B) Herbert A. Spencer
(C) Charles A. Spaulding
(D) Talcott Parsons
Ans: A
3. Who advocated the theory Z?
(A) Douglas Murray McGregor
(B) William Ouchi and Price
(C) John Galbraith
(D) Jerdee and Caroll
Ans: B
4. Induction is viewed as
(A) Socializing process
(B) Belongingness
(C) Feel at home
(D) All the above
Ans: D
5. Match the following:
Approaches to HRD Propagator
a. Human Capital Approach i. UNDP
b. Socio Psychological Approach ii. Human Development Report of the UN
c. Poverty Alleviation Approach iii. T.W. Schultz
d. World Human Development Approach. iv. David McClelland
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iv iii i ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Ans: A
6. The ongoing globalization in India requires drastic changes under which of the labour legislations?
(A) The Factories Act
(B) The Employees’ State Insurance Act
(C) The Industrial Disputes Act
(D) The Employees’ Provident Funds Act
Ans: C
7. Which of the following conventions has secured highest number of ratifications?
(A) Forced Labour Convention (No 29)
(B) Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organize (No 87)
(C) Equal Remuneration Convention (No 100)
(D) All the above
Ans: D
8. The composition of which of the following is similar to the structure of I.L.O?
(A) Canteen Managing Committee
(B) Standing Labour Committee
(C) Safety Committee
(D) Works Committee
Ans: B
9. Which of the following legislations extends some sort of benefit to retired employees also?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Employees’ Compensation Act
(C) Employees’ State Insurance Act
(D) Payment of Bonus Act
Ans: C
10. Which of the following is not a method for fixing Minimum Wages under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
(A) Notification Method
(B) Committee Method
(C) Bargaining Method
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
11. Which of the following is not an objective of Workers’ Education Scheme in India?
(A) To make workers’ responsible citizens
(B) To make them efficient at work.
(C) To enable them to earn more.
(D) To make them responsible Union members and Officers.
Ans: C
12. Which part of the Indian Constitution has shaped the labour welfare programmes?
(A) Preamble
(B) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
13. Who among the following advocated the theory of full employment?
(A) Beveridge
(B) Keynes
(C) Adam Smith
(D) A.C. Pigou
Ans: B
14. Which of the following provides for recognition of trade unions at the central level?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Trade Unions Act
(C) Code of Discipline in Industry
(D) Inter-Union Code of Conduct
Ans: C
15. Which of the following legislations was based on the recommendations of the B.P. Adarkar Committee Report?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Employees’ Compensation Act
(C) Employees’ Provident Funds Act
(D) Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
Ans: D
16. Which of the following industrial actions has been declared illegal by the Court of Law in India?
(A) Strike
(B) Gherao
(C) Go slow
(D) Lockout
Ans: B
17. The concept of co-operation in Industrial Relations was implemented through which of the following?
(A) Works Committee
(B) Joint Management Councils
(C) Workers’ representatives on the Board of Directors
(D) All the above
Ans: D
18. In which type of collective bargaining workers lose something instead of gaining?
(A) Concession Bargaining
(B) Coalition Bargaining
(C) Productivity Bargaining
(D) All the above
Ans: A
19. From which of the following, representatives are not taken in tripartite bodies in India?
(A) Management
(B) Labour/Trade Unions
(C) Government
(D) I.L.O.
Ans: D
20. Who was the Chairman of the National Commission on Rural Labour?
(A) Ravindra Verma
(B) H. Hanumantappa
(C) G. Ramanujam
(D) V.B. John
Ans: B
21. Which of the following cannot be said to be an objective of Workers’ Participation in Management?
(A) To associate in decision making process of the organization.
(B) To satisfy the urge of self-expression of workers.
(C) To promote a conducive environment in the organisation.
(D) To promote higher income and better conditions of employment for workers.
Ans: D
22. Which of the following combinations is taken as bipartitism in Industrial Relations?
(A) Government and Labour
(B) Government and Employer
(C) Labour and Management
(D) Employers and Consumers
Ans: C
23. In which of the following institutions Central Government prefers to place the labour policies for consultation?
(A) I.L.O.
(B) I.L.C / S.L.C
(C) Labour Ministers’ Conference
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
24. Which of the following prohibits formation or continuance of company unions?
(A) Code of discipline in industry
(B) Code of efficiency and welfare
(C) Inter-union code of conduct
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
25. The ongoing globalization in the country needs reforms in our labour laws. Which of the following forces oppose changes in the existing labour legislations?
(A) Government
(B) Labour and Trade Unions
(C) Employers’ Associations
(D) Human Rights’ Commission
Ans: B
26. In USA collective bargaining mostly takes place at the
(A) Industrial level
(B) Regional level
(C) National level
(D) Enterprise level
Ans: D
27. In which among the following countries Productivity Bargaining was first used?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) U.K.
(D) Germany
Ans: C
28. The purpose of granting recognition to trade unions in USA by NLRB is to
(A) send representatives to I.L.O.
(B) to participate in Government Bodies
(C) to raise labour disputes
(D) to be accepted by Management for Collective Bargaining purposes
Ans: D
29. The recent Industrial Relations problem at Maruti Udyog Ltd. at its Manesar Plant was concerned with
(A) Permanent workers
(B) Contract labour
(C) Displaced persons
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
30. Which of the following statements is not correct in the light of present Industrial Relations scenario in India?
(A) Number of strikes is declining
(B) Rate of unionism is increasing
(C) Number of Lockouts is higher than the number of strikes
(D) Wages are revising
Ans: B
31. Union shop, closed shop, preferential shop are known as
(A) Union Security Measures
(B) Industrial Actions
(C) Organizational Security Measures
(D) All the above
Ans: A
32. Which of the following Federations is associated with International Confederation of Free Trade Unions (ICFTU)?
(A) AITUC
(B) INTUC
(C) BMS
(D) CITU
Ans: B
33. Which of the following can be said to be an Employers’ Association in India?
(A) Chambers of Commerce
(B) Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(C) All India Sugar Mills Employers’ Association
(D) All the above
Ans: D
34. Which of the following strikes are not authorised by Union?
(A) Quickie Strike
(B) Lightning Strike
(C) Wild-Cat Strike
(D) All the above
Ans: D
35. Which of the following legislations deals with collective bargaining in USA?
(A) Labour Management Relations Act
(B) Landrum Griffin Act
(C) OASDHI Act
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
36. Which of the following statements about Economic Reforms in India is not true?
(A) Economic reforms were initiated in July 1991
(B) The balance of payment crisis led to the hurried introduction of Economic reforms
(C) LPG were the three components of Economic reforms
(D) It had least impact on the human resources management
Ans: D
37. Rationalization of human resource means
(A) only downsizing
(B) only increasing the manpower strength
(C) right sizing
(D) skill enhancement only
Ans: C
38. Name the economist turned Finance Minister, who initiated economic reforms in India?
(A) P. Chidambaram
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Yashwant Sinha
Ans: B
39. Kim Cameron defines ‘downsizing’ as a set of activities undertaken on the part of management and designed to improve organizational efficiency, productivity and/or competitiveness. It represents a strategy implemented by managers that affects the size of firm’s workforce, the costs and the work processes.”
From this definition which one is not true?
(A) To improve organizational efficiency
(B) Strategic decision of management
(C) Trade Union approved action plan
(D) Affects the size of firms’ workforce, costs and work processes
Ans: C
40. Which of the following is the meaning of ‘Golden handshake’?
(A) It is a bribe.
(B) It is a gift.
(C) It is a gratis.
(D) It is a compensation.
Ans: D
41. What are the four components of ‘4’ P model of organizational excellence as suggested in Toyota culture?
(A) Plan, policy, procedure, programme
(B) Philosophy, process, people, problem solving
(C) Plan, philosophy, process, product
(D) Philosophy, product, price, promotion
Ans: B
42. Delphi Technique is used in
(A) Planning
(B) Promoting
(C) Forecasting
(D) Pricing
Ans: C
43. Which of the following is not a TQM technique?
(A) Six Sigma
(B) Zero Defect Programmes
(C) Quality Circles
(D) Core Competency
Ans: D
44. Which of the following is a Matrix Organization?
(A) When bureaucratic structure is made less hierarchical
(B) When project structure is superimposed on bureaucratic structure
(C) When project structure is independently created
(D) When projects are geographically dispersed
Ans: B
45. Who had advanced the ‘soft’ and ‘hard’ approach of HRM?
(A) Benjamin Schneider
(B) James Niniger
(C) John Storey
(D) Lloyd Baind
Ans: C
46. The book ‘Competitive Advantage’ is authored by
(A) C.P. Lewis
(B) Michael Porter
(C) C.K. Prahalad
(D) Sumantra Ghosal
Ans: B
47. The concepts of ‘human engineering’ and ‘ergonomics’ are advanced by which school of management thought?
(A) Quantitative School
(B) Human Relations School
(C) Behavioural School
(D) Scientific Management School
Ans: D
48. Which of the following statements about assessment centres is not correct?
(A) It is a simulation exercise.
(B) It is designed to evaluate managerial potential.
(C) It is used only as a selection technique.
(D) It uses interviews, in-basket problem solving exercises and business decision games as methods.
Ans: C
49. Assertion (A): Downsizing is an organisational imperative in the context of open market competition.
Reason (R): Outsourcing strategy gave rise to downsizing.
Codes:
(A) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are right.
(C) (A) right and (R) is wrong.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: B
50. Which one is an underlying value in OD efforts?
(A) Profit maximization by hook or crook.
(B) Coercing the people
(C) Trust and support
(D) Resorting to short cut methods
Ans: C
51. Who has called the POSDCORB ‘folklore’?
(A) Michael Armstrong
(B) Michael Poole
(C) Rosemary Stewart
(D) Henry Mirzberg
Ans: D
52. Who has called the scientific management a ‘rabble hypotheses?
(A) Peter F. Drucker
(B) Elton Mayo
(C) Douglas McGregor
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
53. ‘Red hot stove’ rule of disciplinary action was suggested by
(A) Douglas McGregor
(B) Dale Yader
(C) Richard P. Calhoon
(D) Fred Luthans
Ans: A
54. “Model Grievance Procedure” is given in the
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Employee State Insurance Act
(C) Industrial Employment (standing orders) Act
(D) Code of Discipline
Ans: D
55. Which of the following is a reason for supporting a wider span of control?
(A) To reduce opportunities for delegations
(B) To have tighter control within the organisation
(C) To increase contact between managers and employees
(D) To reduce a process of delaying
Ans: C
56. A manager may delegate any of the following except
(A) Authority
(B) Work load
(C) Responsibility
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
57. Which of the following is Herzberg’s hygine factors?
(A) Recognition at work place
(B) Reasonable salary
(C) Responsibility for work
(D) Sense of achievement
Ans: B
58. During whose prime ministership the New Economic Policy was introduced in India?
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(D) A.B. Vajpayee
Ans: C
59. Arrange the needs in the order given by Abraham Maslow in his need hierarchy theory of motivation.
(a) Esteem need
(b) Self-actualization need
(c) Physiological need
(d) Safety needs
(e) Social needs
(A) d, a, c, b, e
(B) c, d, e, a, b
(C) a, d, c, b, e
(D) c, e, d, a, b
Ans: B
60. What is the limit of the salary of the supervisor to be covered under the I.D. Act, 1947?
(A) Rs. 1200 per month
(B) Rs. 1600 per month
(C) Rs. 2500 per month
(D) Rs. 3500 per month
Ans: D
61. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. Principle of Protection and Welfare i. The Trade Union Act, 1926
b. Principle of Social Justice ii. Robert Owen
c. Principle of Regulation iii.Payment of Gratuity Act
d. Principle of Social Security iv. The Philadelphia Charter
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iv ii iv i
(D) iv iii i ii
Ans: A
62. The basic postulates on which the ILO standards lie are
(A) Labour is not a commodity
(B) Freedom of expression and of association are essential to sustained progress
(C) Poverty anywhere constitutes danger to prosperity everywhere
(D) All the above
Ans: D
63. Which of the following statements is / are true?
(a) Labour Legislation is part of Social legislation.
(b) Social Legislation is part of Labour Legislation.
(c) Government is the regulatory authority in case of Social Legislation and Labour Legislation.
(d) Civil Law judgement is based on earlier judgements and labour law judgement is based on workers welfare.
(A) All the statements are true.
(B) (b) is true.
(C) (d) is true.
(D) (a), (c) and (d) are true.
Ans: D
64. The article in Indian Constitution that imposes prohibition on traffic in human beings, beggar and other similar forms of forced labour is
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 32
(D) Article 45
Ans: B
65. The Industrial Employment (standing orders) Act, 1946 applies to every establishment employing
(A) 100 workmen
(B) 150 workmen
(C) 150 workmen on any day preceeding 12 months
(D) 150 workmen on any day preceeding 12 months and the government can order by application to establishments employing less than 100.
Ans: D
66. The following persons are constructed as insider of a registered trade union.
(A) Honorary member from the other organization.
(B) Honorary member from other profession.
(C) Politician who guides the registered trade union.
(D) Retired and retrenched membersof the trade union.
Ans: D
67. Workers’ facilitation centres shall be set up by the facilitating agency under the
(A) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(B) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) The unorganized sector workers’ Social Security Act, 2005
Ans: D
68. If the money is due from the employer under the settlement or award, the workman or his assignee can make an application to the appropriate government for the recovery within the period given below.
(A) One year.
(B) One year and also after the said period of the appropriate government is satisfied that the applicant has sufficient cause for not making the application within one year.
(C) Two years.
(D) Three years.
Ans: B
69. Ambulance room shall be provided if
(A) 30 womens workers are employed under Maternity Benefit Act, 1965.
(B) Creche is provided under the Factories Act, 1948.
(C) 500 workers are employed in the factory under the Factories Act, 1948.
(D) The Workmens’ Compensation Act, 1923 is applicable to the factory.
Ans: C
70. The first factory commission was appointed in
(A) 1875
(B) 1881
(C) 1885
(D) 1895
Ans: A
71. Under the payment of Bonus Act, 1965, the gross profits derived by an employer from an establishment in respect of any accounting year shall be computed
(A) In case of Banking Company according to schedule II and in any other case schedule I.
(B) In case of Banking Company according to schedule I and in any other case schedule II.
(C) In case of Banking Company and in any other case schedule I.
(D) In case of Banking Company and in any other case schedule II.
Ans: B
72. Which Act provides for the appointment of conciliation officers and adjudication authorities?
(A) The Factories Act, 1948
(B) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(C) The Trade Unions Act, 1926
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
73. The first to introduce the term collective bargaining:
(A) Sidney and Beatrice webb
(B) Samuel Gompers
(C) Clark Kerr
(D) Robert Hoxie
Ans: A
74. Find the machinery which is not method of settlement of industrial dispute:
(A) Consultation
(B) Works committee
(C) Conciliation
(D) Adjudication
Ans: A
75. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. Human Capital Approach i. David Mcclelland
b. Socio- Psychological Approach ii. UNDP
c. Poverty Alleviation Approach iii.T.W. Scultz
d. World Human Development Approach iv. World Bank
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iv ii i iii
Ans: C
76. A Trade Union means “An association of workers in one or more professions carried on mainly for the purpose of protecting and advancing the members’ economic interest in connection with their daily work”.
Identify the author:
(A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
(B) J. Cunnison
(C) G.D.H. Cole
(D) Clyde E. Dankert
Ans: A
77. A union may claim recognition for an industry in a local area, if it has membership of
(A) 10% of the workers in that industry.
(B) 15% of the workers in that area.
(C) 25% of the workers of that industry in that area.
(D) 30% of the workers in similar industry.
Ans: C
78. Who among the following advocated the Trusteeship Theory of Trade Union?
(A) N.M. Lokhande
(B) B.P. Wadia
(C) G.L. Nanda
(D) M.K. Gandhi
Ans: D
79. Inter and intra-union rivalry in Trade Unions is reduced by
(A) The provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947
(B) By voluntary tripartite code of inter-union rivalry – 1957
(C) By bipartite mutual agreement at the industry level
(D) Above all
Ans: B
80. Match the following trade unions according to the year of formation:
List – I List – II
a. AITUC i. 1947
b. CITU ii. 1948
c. INTUC iii. 1920
d. HMS iv. 1970
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: A
81. ‘Employment Injury’ means personal injury to an employee caused by accident or occupational disease arising out of and in the course of employment being an insurable employment if the accident occurs or occupational disease is contracted only within territorial limits of India and not outside India.
The above statement is
(A) Correct.
(B) Incorrect.
(C) true only in case of occupational injury.
(D) true only in case of accident.
Ans: B
82. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend
(A) Two consecutive meetings
(B) Three meetings intermittently
(C) Three consecutive meetings
(D) Four consecutive meetings
Ans: C
83. Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(A) Individual manager subordinate to an employer cannot act as managing agent.
(B) Managing agent includes an individual manager subordinate to an employer.
(C) Only employer can act as managing agent.
(D) The appropriate government shall appoint managing agent.
Ans: D
84. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(A) Together can be applicable.
(B) The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(C) The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(D) If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
Ans: D
85. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?
(A) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.
(B) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.
(C) List of occupational diseases.
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
86. A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of the executive or any other office bearer of the registered trade union if he attained the age of
(A) Fifteen years
(B) Eighteen years
(C) Twenty one years
(D) Twenty five years
Ans: B
87. The registered trade union can collect political fund from its members as a
(A) General fund
(B) Cannot collect political fund
(C) Separate fund from the interested members
(D) Only from political parties
Ans: C
88. ‘Award’ under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is
(a) Not interim determination of labour court
(b) Not arbitration award under Section 10A
(c) Not final determination of labour court
(d) Not final determination of arbitration award under section 10A
(A) All statements are true.
(B) (a) and (d) are true.
(C) (b) is true.
(D) All statements are wrong.
Ans: D
89. The dispute of individual workman is deemed to be industrial dispute if the dispute or difference is connected with or arising out of the following where no other workman nor any union of workman is a party to the dispute.
(A) Grievance of an individual workman.
(B) Discharge of an individual workman.
(C) Dismissal of an individual workman.
(D) Discharge, dismissal, retrenchment or otherwise termination of services of an individual workman.
Ans: D
90. The ceiling on wage or salary for calculation of Bonus under the
Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is
(A) Rs. 2,500
(B) Rs. 3,500
(C) Rs. 4,500
(D) Rs. 6,500
Ans: B
91. “A desirable state of existence comprehending physical, mental, moral and emotional health or well-being” is the theme of which concept of Labour Welfare?
(A) Social Concept
(B) Total Concept
(C) Relative Concept
(D) Positive Concept
Ans: B
92. Assertion (A): Labour Welfare is relative to time and space.
Reason (R): It shall be universal and perpetual.
(A) Assertion and Reason are right.
(B) Assertion is wrong and Reason is right.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
(D) Assertion is right but its explanation given in Reason is wrong.
Ans: D
93. Minimum conditions of welfare is explained by
(A) Dr.Aykroid’s formula
(B) Subsistence Theory
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
94. Which of the following is not a principle of Labour Welfare?
(A) The Principle of Uniformity
(B) The Principle of Co-ordination and Integration
(C) The principle of Association
(D) The Principle of Timeliness
Ans: A
95. Match the following:
List – I List – II
(Theme) (Theory)
a. The labour welfare philosophy is meant for guarding the interests of labour against the exploitation of employers. i. Trusteeship Theory
b. The labour welfare philosophy exposes the cause of empathic considerations by the employer of employee well-being ii. Placating Theory
c. The employer has to set out a portion of the profits for the benefit of the employees iii. Policing Theory
d. Labour Welfare is provided for pacifying the agitating working class iv. Philanthropic Theory
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
Ans: B
96. “Labour is not a commodity” – is the assertion made by
(A) The Declaration of Philadelphia adopted by 26th session of ILO
(B) The Magna Carta
(C) The Constitution of India
(D) The International Labour Conference
Ans: A
97. Match the following:
Concept Propagators
a. Industrial Democracy i. Karl Marx
b. Industrial Citizenship ii. Robert Owen
c. Class Conflict iii. Peter F. Drucker
d. Welfare Movement iv. Sydney &Beatrize Webbs
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii i ii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: B
98. Assertion (A): Industrial Labour in India has been migratory.
Reason (R): Driving force in migration comes almost entirely from one end of the channel, that is the village end.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(C) (A) is right and (R) also is right.
(D) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
Ans: C
99. Match the following:
Theory of wages Propagators
a. Wage Fund Theory i. John Bates Clark
b. Marginal Productivity Theory ii. John Davidson
c. Bargaining Theory iii. John Stuart Mill
d. Investment Theory iv. Gilelman
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: B
100. The “Marginal Discounted Product of Labour” as a modified version of Marginal Productivity Theory was advanced by
(A) Taussig
(B) Kalecki
(C) Ricardo
(D) Adam Smith
Ans: A
(A) Michael Armstrong
(B) Michael Poole
(C) Rosemary Stewart
(D) Henry Mirzberg
Ans: D
52. Who has called the scientific management a ‘rabble hypotheses?
(A) Peter F. Drucker
(B) Elton Mayo
(C) Douglas McGregor
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
53. ‘Red hot stove’ rule of disciplinary action was suggested by
(A) Douglas McGregor
(B) Dale Yader
(C) Richard P. Calhoon
(D) Fred Luthans
Ans: A
54. “Model Grievance Procedure” is given in the
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Employee State Insurance Act
(C) Industrial Employment (standing orders) Act
(D) Code of Discipline
Ans: D
55. Which of the following is a reason for supporting a wider span of control?
(A) To reduce opportunities for delegations
(B) To have tighter control within the organisation
(C) To increase contact between managers and employees
(D) To reduce a process of delaying
Ans: C
56. A manager may delegate any of the following except
(A) Authority
(B) Work load
(C) Responsibility
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
57. Which of the following is Herzberg’s hygine factors?
(A) Recognition at work place
(B) Reasonable salary
(C) Responsibility for work
(D) Sense of achievement
Ans: B
58. During whose prime ministership the New Economic Policy was introduced in India?
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(D) A.B. Vajpayee
Ans: C
59. Arrange the needs in the order given by Abraham Maslow in his need hierarchy theory of motivation.
(a) Esteem need
(b) Self-actualization need
(c) Physiological need
(d) Safety needs
(e) Social needs
(A) d, a, c, b, e
(B) c, d, e, a, b
(C) a, d, c, b, e
(D) c, e, d, a, b
Ans: B
60. What is the limit of the salary of the supervisor to be covered under the I.D. Act, 1947?
(A) Rs. 1200 per month
(B) Rs. 1600 per month
(C) Rs. 2500 per month
(D) Rs. 3500 per month
Ans: D
61. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. Principle of Protection and Welfare i. The Trade Union Act, 1926
b. Principle of Social Justice ii. Robert Owen
c. Principle of Regulation iii.Payment of Gratuity Act
d. Principle of Social Security iv. The Philadelphia Charter
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iv ii iv i
(D) iv iii i ii
Ans: A
62. The basic postulates on which the ILO standards lie are
(A) Labour is not a commodity
(B) Freedom of expression and of association are essential to sustained progress
(C) Poverty anywhere constitutes danger to prosperity everywhere
(D) All the above
Ans: D
63. Which of the following statements is / are true?
(a) Labour Legislation is part of Social legislation.
(b) Social Legislation is part of Labour Legislation.
(c) Government is the regulatory authority in case of Social Legislation and Labour Legislation.
(d) Civil Law judgement is based on earlier judgements and labour law judgement is based on workers welfare.
(A) All the statements are true.
(B) (b) is true.
(C) (d) is true.
(D) (a), (c) and (d) are true.
Ans: D
64. The article in Indian Constitution that imposes prohibition on traffic in human beings, beggar and other similar forms of forced labour is
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 32
(D) Article 45
Ans: B
65. The Industrial Employment (standing orders) Act, 1946 applies to every establishment employing
(A) 100 workmen
(B) 150 workmen
(C) 150 workmen on any day preceeding 12 months
(D) 150 workmen on any day preceeding 12 months and the government can order by application to establishments employing less than 100.
Ans: D
66. The following persons are constructed as insider of a registered trade union.
(A) Honorary member from the other organization.
(B) Honorary member from other profession.
(C) Politician who guides the registered trade union.
(D) Retired and retrenched membersof the trade union.
Ans: D
67. Workers’ facilitation centres shall be set up by the facilitating agency under the
(A) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(B) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) The unorganized sector workers’ Social Security Act, 2005
Ans: D
68. If the money is due from the employer under the settlement or award, the workman or his assignee can make an application to the appropriate government for the recovery within the period given below.
(A) One year.
(B) One year and also after the said period of the appropriate government is satisfied that the applicant has sufficient cause for not making the application within one year.
(C) Two years.
(D) Three years.
Ans: B
69. Ambulance room shall be provided if
(A) 30 womens workers are employed under Maternity Benefit Act, 1965.
(B) Creche is provided under the Factories Act, 1948.
(C) 500 workers are employed in the factory under the Factories Act, 1948.
(D) The Workmens’ Compensation Act, 1923 is applicable to the factory.
Ans: C
70. The first factory commission was appointed in
(A) 1875
(B) 1881
(C) 1885
(D) 1895
Ans: A
71. Under the payment of Bonus Act, 1965, the gross profits derived by an employer from an establishment in respect of any accounting year shall be computed
(A) In case of Banking Company according to schedule II and in any other case schedule I.
(B) In case of Banking Company according to schedule I and in any other case schedule II.
(C) In case of Banking Company and in any other case schedule I.
(D) In case of Banking Company and in any other case schedule II.
Ans: B
72. Which Act provides for the appointment of conciliation officers and adjudication authorities?
(A) The Factories Act, 1948
(B) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(C) The Trade Unions Act, 1926
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
73. The first to introduce the term collective bargaining:
(A) Sidney and Beatrice webb
(B) Samuel Gompers
(C) Clark Kerr
(D) Robert Hoxie
Ans: A
74. Find the machinery which is not method of settlement of industrial dispute:
(A) Consultation
(B) Works committee
(C) Conciliation
(D) Adjudication
Ans: A
75. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. Human Capital Approach i. David Mcclelland
b. Socio- Psychological Approach ii. UNDP
c. Poverty Alleviation Approach iii.T.W. Scultz
d. World Human Development Approach iv. World Bank
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iv ii i iii
Ans: C
76. A Trade Union means “An association of workers in one or more professions carried on mainly for the purpose of protecting and advancing the members’ economic interest in connection with their daily work”.
Identify the author:
(A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
(B) J. Cunnison
(C) G.D.H. Cole
(D) Clyde E. Dankert
Ans: A
77. A union may claim recognition for an industry in a local area, if it has membership of
(A) 10% of the workers in that industry.
(B) 15% of the workers in that area.
(C) 25% of the workers of that industry in that area.
(D) 30% of the workers in similar industry.
Ans: C
78. Who among the following advocated the Trusteeship Theory of Trade Union?
(A) N.M. Lokhande
(B) B.P. Wadia
(C) G.L. Nanda
(D) M.K. Gandhi
Ans: D
79. Inter and intra-union rivalry in Trade Unions is reduced by
(A) The provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947
(B) By voluntary tripartite code of inter-union rivalry – 1957
(C) By bipartite mutual agreement at the industry level
(D) Above all
Ans: B
80. Match the following trade unions according to the year of formation:
List – I List – II
a. AITUC i. 1947
b. CITU ii. 1948
c. INTUC iii. 1920
d. HMS iv. 1970
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: A
81. ‘Employment Injury’ means personal injury to an employee caused by accident or occupational disease arising out of and in the course of employment being an insurable employment if the accident occurs or occupational disease is contracted only within territorial limits of India and not outside India.
The above statement is
(A) Correct.
(B) Incorrect.
(C) true only in case of occupational injury.
(D) true only in case of accident.
Ans: B
82. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend
(A) Two consecutive meetings
(B) Three meetings intermittently
(C) Three consecutive meetings
(D) Four consecutive meetings
Ans: C
83. Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(A) Individual manager subordinate to an employer cannot act as managing agent.
(B) Managing agent includes an individual manager subordinate to an employer.
(C) Only employer can act as managing agent.
(D) The appropriate government shall appoint managing agent.
Ans: D
84. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(A) Together can be applicable.
(B) The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(C) The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(D) If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
Ans: D
85. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?
(A) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.
(B) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.
(C) List of occupational diseases.
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
86. A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of the executive or any other office bearer of the registered trade union if he attained the age of
(A) Fifteen years
(B) Eighteen years
(C) Twenty one years
(D) Twenty five years
Ans: B
87. The registered trade union can collect political fund from its members as a
(A) General fund
(B) Cannot collect political fund
(C) Separate fund from the interested members
(D) Only from political parties
Ans: C
88. ‘Award’ under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is
(a) Not interim determination of labour court
(b) Not arbitration award under Section 10A
(c) Not final determination of labour court
(d) Not final determination of arbitration award under section 10A
(A) All statements are true.
(B) (a) and (d) are true.
(C) (b) is true.
(D) All statements are wrong.
Ans: D
89. The dispute of individual workman is deemed to be industrial dispute if the dispute or difference is connected with or arising out of the following where no other workman nor any union of workman is a party to the dispute.
(A) Grievance of an individual workman.
(B) Discharge of an individual workman.
(C) Dismissal of an individual workman.
(D) Discharge, dismissal, retrenchment or otherwise termination of services of an individual workman.
Ans: D
90. The ceiling on wage or salary for calculation of Bonus under the
Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is
(A) Rs. 2,500
(B) Rs. 3,500
(C) Rs. 4,500
(D) Rs. 6,500
Ans: B
91. “A desirable state of existence comprehending physical, mental, moral and emotional health or well-being” is the theme of which concept of Labour Welfare?
(A) Social Concept
(B) Total Concept
(C) Relative Concept
(D) Positive Concept
Ans: B
92. Assertion (A): Labour Welfare is relative to time and space.
Reason (R): It shall be universal and perpetual.
(A) Assertion and Reason are right.
(B) Assertion is wrong and Reason is right.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
(D) Assertion is right but its explanation given in Reason is wrong.
Ans: D
93. Minimum conditions of welfare is explained by
(A) Dr.Aykroid’s formula
(B) Subsistence Theory
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
94. Which of the following is not a principle of Labour Welfare?
(A) The Principle of Uniformity
(B) The Principle of Co-ordination and Integration
(C) The principle of Association
(D) The Principle of Timeliness
Ans: A
95. Match the following:
List – I List – II
(Theme) (Theory)
a. The labour welfare philosophy is meant for guarding the interests of labour against the exploitation of employers. i. Trusteeship Theory
b. The labour welfare philosophy exposes the cause of empathic considerations by the employer of employee well-being ii. Placating Theory
c. The employer has to set out a portion of the profits for the benefit of the employees iii. Policing Theory
d. Labour Welfare is provided for pacifying the agitating working class iv. Philanthropic Theory
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
Ans: B
96. “Labour is not a commodity” – is the assertion made by
(A) The Declaration of Philadelphia adopted by 26th session of ILO
(B) The Magna Carta
(C) The Constitution of India
(D) The International Labour Conference
Ans: A
97. Match the following:
Concept Propagators
a. Industrial Democracy i. Karl Marx
b. Industrial Citizenship ii. Robert Owen
c. Class Conflict iii. Peter F. Drucker
d. Welfare Movement iv. Sydney &Beatrize Webbs
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii i ii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: B
98. Assertion (A): Industrial Labour in India has been migratory.
Reason (R): Driving force in migration comes almost entirely from one end of the channel, that is the village end.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(C) (A) is right and (R) also is right.
(D) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
Ans: C
99. Match the following:
Theory of wages Propagators
a. Wage Fund Theory i. John Bates Clark
b. Marginal Productivity Theory ii. John Davidson
c. Bargaining Theory iii. John Stuart Mill
d. Investment Theory iv. Gilelman
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) i iii ii iv
Ans: B
100. The “Marginal Discounted Product of Labour” as a modified version of Marginal Productivity Theory was advanced by
(A) Taussig
(B) Kalecki
(C) Ricardo
(D) Adam Smith
Ans: A