LABOUR WELFARE- PAGE 1
LABOUR WELFARE/ PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT/ INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS/ LABOUR AND SOCIAL WELFARE/ HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT MCQs
1. Which of the following types of control involves evaluation of inputs and taking corrective actions before the operation is completed?
(A) Feed Forward Control
(B) Concurrent Control
(C) Feedback Control
(D) Forward Control
Ans: A
2. Which of the following is the process of systematically identifying, assessing and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance?
(A) Manpower Planning
(B) Career Planning
(C) Succession Planning
(D) Strategic Human Resource Planning
Ans: C
3. Which of the following is not a principle under the “Hot Stove Rule” of Douglas Mc Gregor?
(A) Advance Warning
(B) Impersonality and Impartiality
(C) Consistency
(D) Opportunity to defend
Ans: D
4. “Quality Circles in India”, the first book incorporating the process to be adopted in developing, implementing and sustaining quality circles, was authored by
(A) T.V. Rao
(B) D.M. Pestonzee
(C) Udai Pareek
(D) S.R. Udpa
Ans: D
5. The theory that categorized needs being concerned with survival, relationships and desire for personal development is popularly known as
(A) Need Hierarchy Theory
(B) Two Factor Theory
(C) ERG Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Ans: C
6. Which of the following is/are part(s) of transformation process, is/are considered as a part of organizational development?
a. Implementing Strategic Planning and Alignment
b. Assessing the competitors strengths and weaknesses
c. Assessing the environment and changing organisational structure, systems and culture
d. Developing the work climate to enhance teamwork, trust and cooperation
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b, c and d
(C) a, c and d
(D) a, b and d
Ans: C
7. The International Institute of Labour Studies was established in the year:
(A) 1919
(B) 1960
(C) 1926
(D) 1978
Ans: B
8. Which of the following is an illegal industrial action as per law?
(A) Mutual Insurance
(B) Collective Bargaining
(C) Lock out
(D) Gherao
Ans: D
9. Compulsory collective bargaining was advocated by:
(A) G.L. Nanda
(B) Khandubhai Desai
(C) V.V. Giri
(D) Jagjivan Ram
Ans: C
10. The Journal Dinabandhu was being published by:
(A) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
(B) Bombay Mill Hands Association
(C) All India Trade Union Congress
(D) Madras Labour Union
Ans: B
11. Which of the following is the appropriate Government in relation to employment of workmen by a contractor for construction of Railway Staff Quarters in a State headquarters and fixation of minimum wages?
(A) The Central Government
(B) The concerned State Government
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B), but depends on the situation and appeal by the contractor
Ans: A
12. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, which of the following cannot be considered as an industrial despute?
(A) When employer fails to keep his verbal promises
(B) When closure is a pretence
(C) When demand made for alteration of conditions of service of employees in a cooperative society
(D) When the lock-out is in disguise of closure
Ans: C
13. Who had advanced the concepts of “Long Arm of Job” and “Social Invasion of Workplace” explaining the intricate relationship between intramural and extra-mural welfare?
(A) Emile Durkheim
(B) Herbert Spenser
(C) Amitai Etzioni
(D) Charles Spaulding
Ans: D
14. Which of the following is/are determinant(s) of supply of labour?
a. other wage rate
b. non-wage income
c. preferences for work versus leisure
d. number of qualified suppliers
(A) a and b
(B) a, b and d
(C) a, b, c and d
(D) b, c and d
Ans: C
15. Under which of the following incentive plans “a worker is quaranteed a minimum wage on the time basis. Then a standard time is fixed for the completion of every work and if the worker completes the work in less time, he is given bonus of the time actually saved in proportion to the total time”?
(A) Halsey Premium System
(B) Rowan Premium System
(C) Barth System
(D) Emerson Efficiency System
Ans: B
16. AFL-CIO in United States of America is a:
(A) Craft Union
(B) Industrial Union
(C) General Union
(D) National Union
Ans: D
17. Which of the following factor(s) is/are responsible for weakening the trade unions in India?
a. absence of rank and file leadership
b. absence of one union in one industry
c. politicization of unions
d. proactive management
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b, c and d
(C) a and b
(D) a only
Ans: B
18. During the National Emergency Period, how many schemes of workers’ participation in management were introduced by the Government of India?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans: B
19. An association of crane operators in an industrial establishment is an example of:
(A) General Union
(B) Craft Union
(C) Industrial Union
(D) Industrial Federation
Ans: B
20. The factor, which does not include the substance of sound industrial relations policy at the macro-level is
(A) Business proposition, project development
(B) Structure of economy and labour market
(C) Structure of union and employers’ organisations
(D) Policies of the Government
Ans: A
21. Which is not an association of employers?
(A) CIE
(B) AIOE
(C) CITU
(D) IOE
Ans: C
22. Which of the following ‘Codes’ incorporates all the given statements?
(i) Every employee in an industry or unit shall have the freedom and right to join the union of his/her choice
(ii) There shall be no dual membership of unions
(iii) Uninhibited acceptance and respect for democratic functioning
(iv) Regular and democratic elections of executive bodies
(A) Inter-union code of conduct
(B) Code of Discipline
(C) Code of Practice
(D) Industrial Truce Resolution
Ans: A
23. Match the following measures suggested with the committees/ Commissions/ Acts.
Committees/ Commission/Act Measured Suggested
a. The Trade Unions Act i. Improvement of productions, unions to discourage absenteeism, and interruption of work
b. Royal Commission on Labour ii. Growth of collective bargaining recognition of union, prohibition of strikes & lockouts
c. Industrial Policy Resolution iii. Registration of Trade Unions
d. First National Commission on Labour iv. Appointment of Labour Officer
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
Ans: B
24. Due to pursuit of Laissez-Faire policy in economic affairs in the past and faith in promoting autonomy in industrial relations, the government in United Kingdom has followed a policy of non-intervention in the sphere of industry. In this context, find out which of the following is not correct?
(A) The principle of collective bargaining be practised
(B) The principle of developing procedures for free and expeditious settlement
(C) The principle of protecting and saving workers from unfair labour practices
(D) The principle of association of workers in independent trade unions and employers’ association for development of industrial democracy
Ans: C
25. Which of the following is the main function of Labour Relations Act of United Kingdom?
(A) Regulating working conditons
(B) Licencing the industries
(C) Registration of unions
(D) Recognition of unions
Ans: C
26. Which of the following statements relating to the Factories Act is not true?
(A) There is a provision in the Act relating to the constitution of a Managing Committee for the management of the canteen.
(B) There is a provision in the Act regarding the setting up of a safety committee.
(C) The Act does not have a provision relating to the setting up of welfare committee.
(D) The Act has a provision relating to the establishment of a Grievance Committee.
Ans: D
27. What is the role of the Arbitration Board in United Kingdom?
(A) Agreement
(B) Settlement
(C) Award
(D) Collective Agreements Non-legal
Ans: D
28. Which of the following are tripartite bodies?
a. Indian Labour Conference
b. Wage Board
c. Standing Labour Committee
d. Works Committee
(A) a and b
(B) b and c
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Ans: C
29. During whose tenure as a union labour minister, the code of Discipline was adopted?
(A) V.V. Giri
(B) G.L. Nanda
(C) Khandubhai Desai
(D) P.A. Sangma
Ans: B
30. Which four of the Central Trade Union Organizations were signatories to the inter-union code of conduct?
(A) INTUC, AITUC, BMS and UTUC
(B) AITUC, BMS, CITU and HMS
(C) AITUC, HMS, INTUC and UTUC
(D) BMS, CITU, HMS and INTUC
Ans: C
31. Which of the following organizations received a bad publicity in the print and electronic media in 2005 for adopting unfair labour practices and causing police brutality on its workers?
(A) Maruti Udyog Limited
(B) Tata Motors
(C) Honda Motorcycles and Scooters India Limited
(D) Durgapur Steel Plant
Ans: C
32. The shifts that have been taking place in the collective bargaining front in India in the post-liberalisation period include
a. collective to individual contracts.
b. increased wages/incomes and benefits accompanied by erosion of job control.
c. concession bargaining.
d. Attendance, skill or performance-linked rather than age-weighted and seniority based wages and benefits.
(A) only a
(B) a and b
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Ans: D
33. The Second National Commission on Labour recommended that a registered union should be given recognition as a single negotiating agent in an establishment through check-off system, if it is having a minimum of:
(A) 33 percent of workers as members
(B) 60 percent of workers as members
(C) 66 percent of workers as members
(D) 75 percent of workers as workers
Ans: C
34. The British Trades Union Congress was established in the year:
(A) 1862
(B) 1868
(C) 1892
(D) 1900
Ans: B
35. The National Apex Body was established in 1975 comprising of
(A) Representatives of employers belonging only to AIOE, and trade unions belonging only to INTUC
(B) Representatives of employers belonging to AIOE, EFI and AIMO and trade unions belonging to INTUC and HMS
(C) Representatives of employers belonging to AIOE and AIMO and trade unions belonging to INTUC and AITUC
(D) Representatives of employers belonging to AIOE, EFI and AIMO and trade unions belonging to INTUC and AITUC
Ans: B
36. Which of the following is false:
(A) A Multinational Corporation (MNC) is registered in more than one country or has operations in more than one country.
(B) A Multinational Corporation produces and sells goods or services in various countries.
(C) A Multinational Corporation can also be referred to as an international corporation.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: D
37. Fish bone diagram is also known as
(A) Kaizen Diagram
(B) Ishikawa Diagram
(C) Taguchi Diagram
(D) Pareto Diagram
Ans: B
38. Which of the following features characterize the Balance Score Card Method?
a. The score cards are cascading in nature and as such are all pervasive in an organization
b. It is supported by effective communication system
c. Standardization of goals is not rigid
d. Customer focus is an integral part of Balanced Score cards
(A) a, b and c
(B) b, c and d
(C) a, b, and d
(D) a, c and d
Ans: C
39. Affective competence, Intellectual competence and Action-oriented competence as components of key competencies of managers was proposed by
(A) Rabi Kanungo and Sashi B. Mishra
(B) Robert Katz
(C) Henry Mintzberg
(D) Thomas Durand
Ans: A
40. Which of the following statements about performance management are true?
a. It is a moving up process and there will be upheavals and odds
b. To integrate strategy and operation of performance management it would require planning, information and quality management system
c. The entire performance management system is based on reporting and measurement
d. Score carding is not central to the performance management system
(A) a and b
(B) b and c
(C) a, b and c
(D) b, c and d
Ans: C
41. Match the explanation relating to the sources of power mentioned below:
a. Reward Power i. the power legitimately does not belong to the person but gained by access to powerful sources
b. Legitimate Power ii. influencing by specialised skill gained by the person
c. Referrent Power iii. the authority to impose punishment
d. Expert Power iv. the power enjoyed due to hierarchical position
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
42. What composes the ‘SMART’ goals?
(A) Simple, Monetary, Achieved, Reliable, Total
(B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Time Bound
(C) Strategic, Measurable, Analytical, Reportable, Technical
(D) Strategic, Market oriented, Analytical, Reportable, Technical
Ans: B
43. Which of the following is correct about sustainable development?
(A) It aims at continuous development
(B) It deals with regular growth of social interest
(C) It meets the needs of present without hurting future generations
(D) It develops employees for growth of business
Ans: C
44. Based on his 14 principles, Edward Deming is a strong proponent of
(A) increase in quotas to enhance productivity.
(B) inspection at the end of production process.
(C) training and development of employees.
(D) creating quality slogans to motivate workforce.
Ans: C
45. Action learning is a training technique in which
(A) trainee is allowed to work full time analyzing and solving problems in other departments.
(B) trainee moves from department to department to broaden experience.
(C) trainee is presented with written description of organizational problem.
(D) trainee is sent for formal training outside the organisation.
Ans: A
46. Glass ceiling refers to
(A) Moderate difficulties in training of women workforce
(B) Artificial barriers based on attitudinal and organizational bias preventing career growth of women
(C) Personality weaknesses hindering career growth of women
(D) Transperency at higher levels in organisation
Ans: B
47. A person who is citizen of the country where MNC is headquartered, but working in another country with the same company is called
(A) Host Country Nationals
(B) Trans Country Nationals
(C) Third Country Nationals
(D) Parent Country Nationals
Ans: D
48. Which of the following is not a reason for increasing workforce diversity?
(A) Changing demographies
(B) Product Quality Consciousness
(C) Political and Legal Systems
(D) Globalisation of Business
Ans: B
49. Career in Human Resource Management means
(A) A status job
(B) A respectable consistent occupation
(C) A job where a person can earn livelihood
(D) The progression of a person in his occupation over the years
Ans: D
50. Which of the following is not an action of classical change programme?
(A) Refreezing
(B) Removing
(C) Moving
(D) Unfreezing
Ans: B
(A) Feed Forward Control
(B) Concurrent Control
(C) Feedback Control
(D) Forward Control
Ans: A
2. Which of the following is the process of systematically identifying, assessing and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance?
(A) Manpower Planning
(B) Career Planning
(C) Succession Planning
(D) Strategic Human Resource Planning
Ans: C
3. Which of the following is not a principle under the “Hot Stove Rule” of Douglas Mc Gregor?
(A) Advance Warning
(B) Impersonality and Impartiality
(C) Consistency
(D) Opportunity to defend
Ans: D
4. “Quality Circles in India”, the first book incorporating the process to be adopted in developing, implementing and sustaining quality circles, was authored by
(A) T.V. Rao
(B) D.M. Pestonzee
(C) Udai Pareek
(D) S.R. Udpa
Ans: D
5. The theory that categorized needs being concerned with survival, relationships and desire for personal development is popularly known as
(A) Need Hierarchy Theory
(B) Two Factor Theory
(C) ERG Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Ans: C
6. Which of the following is/are part(s) of transformation process, is/are considered as a part of organizational development?
a. Implementing Strategic Planning and Alignment
b. Assessing the competitors strengths and weaknesses
c. Assessing the environment and changing organisational structure, systems and culture
d. Developing the work climate to enhance teamwork, trust and cooperation
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b, c and d
(C) a, c and d
(D) a, b and d
Ans: C
7. The International Institute of Labour Studies was established in the year:
(A) 1919
(B) 1960
(C) 1926
(D) 1978
Ans: B
8. Which of the following is an illegal industrial action as per law?
(A) Mutual Insurance
(B) Collective Bargaining
(C) Lock out
(D) Gherao
Ans: D
9. Compulsory collective bargaining was advocated by:
(A) G.L. Nanda
(B) Khandubhai Desai
(C) V.V. Giri
(D) Jagjivan Ram
Ans: C
10. The Journal Dinabandhu was being published by:
(A) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
(B) Bombay Mill Hands Association
(C) All India Trade Union Congress
(D) Madras Labour Union
Ans: B
11. Which of the following is the appropriate Government in relation to employment of workmen by a contractor for construction of Railway Staff Quarters in a State headquarters and fixation of minimum wages?
(A) The Central Government
(B) The concerned State Government
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B), but depends on the situation and appeal by the contractor
Ans: A
12. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, which of the following cannot be considered as an industrial despute?
(A) When employer fails to keep his verbal promises
(B) When closure is a pretence
(C) When demand made for alteration of conditions of service of employees in a cooperative society
(D) When the lock-out is in disguise of closure
Ans: C
13. Who had advanced the concepts of “Long Arm of Job” and “Social Invasion of Workplace” explaining the intricate relationship between intramural and extra-mural welfare?
(A) Emile Durkheim
(B) Herbert Spenser
(C) Amitai Etzioni
(D) Charles Spaulding
Ans: D
14. Which of the following is/are determinant(s) of supply of labour?
a. other wage rate
b. non-wage income
c. preferences for work versus leisure
d. number of qualified suppliers
(A) a and b
(B) a, b and d
(C) a, b, c and d
(D) b, c and d
Ans: C
15. Under which of the following incentive plans “a worker is quaranteed a minimum wage on the time basis. Then a standard time is fixed for the completion of every work and if the worker completes the work in less time, he is given bonus of the time actually saved in proportion to the total time”?
(A) Halsey Premium System
(B) Rowan Premium System
(C) Barth System
(D) Emerson Efficiency System
Ans: B
16. AFL-CIO in United States of America is a:
(A) Craft Union
(B) Industrial Union
(C) General Union
(D) National Union
Ans: D
17. Which of the following factor(s) is/are responsible for weakening the trade unions in India?
a. absence of rank and file leadership
b. absence of one union in one industry
c. politicization of unions
d. proactive management
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b, c and d
(C) a and b
(D) a only
Ans: B
18. During the National Emergency Period, how many schemes of workers’ participation in management were introduced by the Government of India?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans: B
19. An association of crane operators in an industrial establishment is an example of:
(A) General Union
(B) Craft Union
(C) Industrial Union
(D) Industrial Federation
Ans: B
20. The factor, which does not include the substance of sound industrial relations policy at the macro-level is
(A) Business proposition, project development
(B) Structure of economy and labour market
(C) Structure of union and employers’ organisations
(D) Policies of the Government
Ans: A
21. Which is not an association of employers?
(A) CIE
(B) AIOE
(C) CITU
(D) IOE
Ans: C
22. Which of the following ‘Codes’ incorporates all the given statements?
(i) Every employee in an industry or unit shall have the freedom and right to join the union of his/her choice
(ii) There shall be no dual membership of unions
(iii) Uninhibited acceptance and respect for democratic functioning
(iv) Regular and democratic elections of executive bodies
(A) Inter-union code of conduct
(B) Code of Discipline
(C) Code of Practice
(D) Industrial Truce Resolution
Ans: A
23. Match the following measures suggested with the committees/ Commissions/ Acts.
Committees/ Commission/Act Measured Suggested
a. The Trade Unions Act i. Improvement of productions, unions to discourage absenteeism, and interruption of work
b. Royal Commission on Labour ii. Growth of collective bargaining recognition of union, prohibition of strikes & lockouts
c. Industrial Policy Resolution iii. Registration of Trade Unions
d. First National Commission on Labour iv. Appointment of Labour Officer
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
Ans: B
24. Due to pursuit of Laissez-Faire policy in economic affairs in the past and faith in promoting autonomy in industrial relations, the government in United Kingdom has followed a policy of non-intervention in the sphere of industry. In this context, find out which of the following is not correct?
(A) The principle of collective bargaining be practised
(B) The principle of developing procedures for free and expeditious settlement
(C) The principle of protecting and saving workers from unfair labour practices
(D) The principle of association of workers in independent trade unions and employers’ association for development of industrial democracy
Ans: C
25. Which of the following is the main function of Labour Relations Act of United Kingdom?
(A) Regulating working conditons
(B) Licencing the industries
(C) Registration of unions
(D) Recognition of unions
Ans: C
26. Which of the following statements relating to the Factories Act is not true?
(A) There is a provision in the Act relating to the constitution of a Managing Committee for the management of the canteen.
(B) There is a provision in the Act regarding the setting up of a safety committee.
(C) The Act does not have a provision relating to the setting up of welfare committee.
(D) The Act has a provision relating to the establishment of a Grievance Committee.
Ans: D
27. What is the role of the Arbitration Board in United Kingdom?
(A) Agreement
(B) Settlement
(C) Award
(D) Collective Agreements Non-legal
Ans: D
28. Which of the following are tripartite bodies?
a. Indian Labour Conference
b. Wage Board
c. Standing Labour Committee
d. Works Committee
(A) a and b
(B) b and c
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Ans: C
29. During whose tenure as a union labour minister, the code of Discipline was adopted?
(A) V.V. Giri
(B) G.L. Nanda
(C) Khandubhai Desai
(D) P.A. Sangma
Ans: B
30. Which four of the Central Trade Union Organizations were signatories to the inter-union code of conduct?
(A) INTUC, AITUC, BMS and UTUC
(B) AITUC, BMS, CITU and HMS
(C) AITUC, HMS, INTUC and UTUC
(D) BMS, CITU, HMS and INTUC
Ans: C
31. Which of the following organizations received a bad publicity in the print and electronic media in 2005 for adopting unfair labour practices and causing police brutality on its workers?
(A) Maruti Udyog Limited
(B) Tata Motors
(C) Honda Motorcycles and Scooters India Limited
(D) Durgapur Steel Plant
Ans: C
32. The shifts that have been taking place in the collective bargaining front in India in the post-liberalisation period include
a. collective to individual contracts.
b. increased wages/incomes and benefits accompanied by erosion of job control.
c. concession bargaining.
d. Attendance, skill or performance-linked rather than age-weighted and seniority based wages and benefits.
(A) only a
(B) a and b
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Ans: D
33. The Second National Commission on Labour recommended that a registered union should be given recognition as a single negotiating agent in an establishment through check-off system, if it is having a minimum of:
(A) 33 percent of workers as members
(B) 60 percent of workers as members
(C) 66 percent of workers as members
(D) 75 percent of workers as workers
Ans: C
34. The British Trades Union Congress was established in the year:
(A) 1862
(B) 1868
(C) 1892
(D) 1900
Ans: B
35. The National Apex Body was established in 1975 comprising of
(A) Representatives of employers belonging only to AIOE, and trade unions belonging only to INTUC
(B) Representatives of employers belonging to AIOE, EFI and AIMO and trade unions belonging to INTUC and HMS
(C) Representatives of employers belonging to AIOE and AIMO and trade unions belonging to INTUC and AITUC
(D) Representatives of employers belonging to AIOE, EFI and AIMO and trade unions belonging to INTUC and AITUC
Ans: B
36. Which of the following is false:
(A) A Multinational Corporation (MNC) is registered in more than one country or has operations in more than one country.
(B) A Multinational Corporation produces and sells goods or services in various countries.
(C) A Multinational Corporation can also be referred to as an international corporation.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: D
37. Fish bone diagram is also known as
(A) Kaizen Diagram
(B) Ishikawa Diagram
(C) Taguchi Diagram
(D) Pareto Diagram
Ans: B
38. Which of the following features characterize the Balance Score Card Method?
a. The score cards are cascading in nature and as such are all pervasive in an organization
b. It is supported by effective communication system
c. Standardization of goals is not rigid
d. Customer focus is an integral part of Balanced Score cards
(A) a, b and c
(B) b, c and d
(C) a, b, and d
(D) a, c and d
Ans: C
39. Affective competence, Intellectual competence and Action-oriented competence as components of key competencies of managers was proposed by
(A) Rabi Kanungo and Sashi B. Mishra
(B) Robert Katz
(C) Henry Mintzberg
(D) Thomas Durand
Ans: A
40. Which of the following statements about performance management are true?
a. It is a moving up process and there will be upheavals and odds
b. To integrate strategy and operation of performance management it would require planning, information and quality management system
c. The entire performance management system is based on reporting and measurement
d. Score carding is not central to the performance management system
(A) a and b
(B) b and c
(C) a, b and c
(D) b, c and d
Ans: C
41. Match the explanation relating to the sources of power mentioned below:
a. Reward Power i. the power legitimately does not belong to the person but gained by access to powerful sources
b. Legitimate Power ii. influencing by specialised skill gained by the person
c. Referrent Power iii. the authority to impose punishment
d. Expert Power iv. the power enjoyed due to hierarchical position
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: D
42. What composes the ‘SMART’ goals?
(A) Simple, Monetary, Achieved, Reliable, Total
(B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Time Bound
(C) Strategic, Measurable, Analytical, Reportable, Technical
(D) Strategic, Market oriented, Analytical, Reportable, Technical
Ans: B
43. Which of the following is correct about sustainable development?
(A) It aims at continuous development
(B) It deals with regular growth of social interest
(C) It meets the needs of present without hurting future generations
(D) It develops employees for growth of business
Ans: C
44. Based on his 14 principles, Edward Deming is a strong proponent of
(A) increase in quotas to enhance productivity.
(B) inspection at the end of production process.
(C) training and development of employees.
(D) creating quality slogans to motivate workforce.
Ans: C
45. Action learning is a training technique in which
(A) trainee is allowed to work full time analyzing and solving problems in other departments.
(B) trainee moves from department to department to broaden experience.
(C) trainee is presented with written description of organizational problem.
(D) trainee is sent for formal training outside the organisation.
Ans: A
46. Glass ceiling refers to
(A) Moderate difficulties in training of women workforce
(B) Artificial barriers based on attitudinal and organizational bias preventing career growth of women
(C) Personality weaknesses hindering career growth of women
(D) Transperency at higher levels in organisation
Ans: B
47. A person who is citizen of the country where MNC is headquartered, but working in another country with the same company is called
(A) Host Country Nationals
(B) Trans Country Nationals
(C) Third Country Nationals
(D) Parent Country Nationals
Ans: D
48. Which of the following is not a reason for increasing workforce diversity?
(A) Changing demographies
(B) Product Quality Consciousness
(C) Political and Legal Systems
(D) Globalisation of Business
Ans: B
49. Career in Human Resource Management means
(A) A status job
(B) A respectable consistent occupation
(C) A job where a person can earn livelihood
(D) The progression of a person in his occupation over the years
Ans: D
50. Which of the following is not an action of classical change programme?
(A) Refreezing
(B) Removing
(C) Moving
(D) Unfreezing
Ans: B
51. Which one of the following statements is wrong about OD?
(A) It is a diagnostic process.
(B) It is an intervention mechanism.
(C) It is a punitive mechanism.
(D) It is a value driven mechanism.
Ans: C
52. The ‘Managerial Grid’ model was developed by
(A) Robert Blake and Jane S. Mouton
(B) Lawler and Porter
(C) Fiedler and Garcia
(D) Hersey and Blanchard
Ans: A
53. Assertion (A): Structural inertia is an organizational resistance process to change because organizationshave built in mechanism toproduce stability.
Reason (R): People with a high need for security are likely to resist change because it threatens their feeling of safety.
Codes:
(A) (A) is right and (R) is a correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are right, but the (R) does not explain the (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Ans: B
54. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. Ethnocentric i. These organizations adopt synergistic strategies to function across geographies.
b. Polycentric ii. These organizations create an integrated system with a worldwide approach.
c. Regiocentric iii. These are home country oriented organizations.
d. Geocentric iv. Outward oriented culture where individuals follow the saying that “When in Rome, do as Romans”.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) i iii iv ii
Ans: C
55. The case study method of OD was developed by
(A) Christopher C. Longdell
(B) Eric Berne
(C) Udai Pareek
(D) S.R. Udpa
Ans: A
56. Which one of the following is not a principle of labour legislation?
(A) Principle of Protection
(B) Principle of Social Justice
(C) Principle of Social Security and Welfare
(D) Principle of Reasonable Standard of Living
Ans: D
57. Which one of the following is not based on the principle of welfare?
(A) Mica Mines Labour Welfare Funds Act
(B) Iron Ore Mines Labour Welfare Funds Act
(C) Minimum Wages Act
(D) Dock Workers (Safety, Health, Welfare) Act
Ans: C
58. Which part of the Indian Constitution divides jurisdiction for enactment of Labour Legislations?
(A) Distribution of Legislative Power
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
59. Which Labour Legislation has been enacted on the basis of Right to Association as given under the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Minimum Wages Act
(B) Payment of Wages Act
(C) Trade Unions Act
(D) Industrial Disputes Act
Ans: C
60. Which of the following cannot be said to be a factor influencing the growth of Labour Legislations in India?
(A) Rise of Trade Unions
(B) International Labour Organization
(C) Growth of Humanitarianism
(D) Caste System in India
Ans: D
61. Which one of the following recommended enactment of a wagelegislation in India in order to rectify the problems relating to payment of wages of industrial workers?
(A) National Commission on Labour
(B) Royal Commission on Labour
(C) Labour Investigation Committee
(D) Adarkar Committee
Ans: B
62. Which one of the following is not a type of labour administration machinery in India?
(A) Central Implementation Machinery
(B) Industrial Implementation Machinery
(C) State Implementation Machinery
(D) Regional Implementation Machinery
Ans: B
63. Which one of the following Labour Legislations provides comprehensive benefits to industrial workers in India?
(A) Employee Provident Funds Act
(B) Employees’ Compensation Act
(C) Employees’ State Insurance Act
(D) Maternity Benefit Act
Ans: C
64. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) India has ratified more than eighty Conventions of I.L.O.
(B) Trade Unions Act of 1926 is based on I.L.O. Convention number 87 called Freedom of Association.
(C) I.L.O. is a tripartite body.
(D) Governing Body is an organ of I.L.O.
Ans: A
65. Under which of the following categories the Shops and Commercial Establishment Legislations can be included?
(A) Wage Legislations
(B) Social Security Legislations
(C) Working Conditions Legislations
(D) Welfare Legislations
Ans: C
66. Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act is the result of the ratification by India of which of the following Conventions of I.L.O?
(A) Unemployment Convention, 1919
(B) Forced Labour Convention, 1930
(C) Weekly Rest (Industry Convention) 1921
(D) Right of Association (Agriculture) Convention, 1921
Ans: B
67. The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance Act has now been enhanced from 18 years to
(A) 20 years
(B) 22 years
(C) 24 years
(D) 25 years
Ans: D
68. Which of the following has not been implemented through any legislation at the National level?
(A) Joint Management Council
(B) Workers’ Participation in Management
(C) Recognition of Trade Unions
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
69. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy led to an amendment under which of the following legislations?
(A) Factories Act
(B) Mines Act
(C) Plantation Labour Act
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
70. The provision relating to suspension has been made under which of the following legislations?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Trade Union Act
(C) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
71. What is the wage limit to be eligible to be covered under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
(A) Rs. 6,000
(B) Rs. 6,500
(C) Rs. 7,000
(D) Rs. 7,500
Ans: B
72. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) There is a statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions in India at the Central level.
(B) There is no statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions in India at the Central level.
(C) Code of discipline provides both for Registration and Recognition.
(D) There is provision for recognition under the Inter-Union Code of Conduct.
Ans: B
73. Under which of the following legislations women avail maternity benefit upto six months?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Employees’ State Insurance Act
(C) Both under (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
74. Which of the following legislations apply to unorganized sector workers in India?
(A) Minimum Wages Act
(B) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
(C) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
75. The Factories Act, 1948 requires the appointment of the ‘Safety Officer’ in factories employing at least
(A) 250 workers
(B) 500 workers
(C) 1000 workers
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
26. Who was the founder of the Madras Labour Union?
(A) Ansuya Ben Sarabhai
(B) B.P. Wadia
(C) N.M. Lokhande
(D) Sankarlal Banker
Ans: B
27. Who has defined that “a trade union means an association carried on mainly for the purpose of protecting and advancing the members’ economic interest (higher wages, better conditions of work)”?
(A) Selig Perlman
(B) G.D.H. Cole
(C) Robert F. Hoxie
(D) Frank Tannenbaum
Ans: B
28. Under which of the following legislations there is a provision called ‘protected workmen’?
(A) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(B) Industrial Employment
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
Ans: D
29. Which one of the following is not a machinery for settlement of Industrial Disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(A) Conciliation Officer
(B) Board of Conciliation
(C) Collective Bargaining
(D) Labour Court
Ans: C
30. Creation of a political fund by trade unions under the Trade Union Act is
(A) Compulsory
(B) Optional
(C) by donation from political parties
(D) No such provision in the Act
Ans: B
31. Who among the following mentioned the four major principles of labour legislations?
(A) Frank Tillayard
(B) I.L.O.
(C) R.K. Das
(D) P.L. Mallick
Ans: C
82. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 is an example of
(A) Regulative Labour Legislation
(B) Protective Labour Legislation
(C) Social Security Legislation
(D) Welfare Legislation
Ans: B
83. Which of the following common defences were not available to the employers in cases of compensation for accidents under the common law?
(A) Doctrine of Assumed Risk
(B) Doctrine of Contributory Negligence
(C) Doctrine of Common Employment and Fellow Servant’s responsibility
(D) Doctrine of Natural Risk
Ans: D
84. Which of the following is not a statutory welfare facility under the Factories Act, 1948?
(A) Crèche
(B) Canteen
(C) Transport
(D) First-Aid Boxes
Ans: C
85. The condition of 70 days of employment in the 12 months immediately preceding the date of benefit has been made an eligibility condition for getting
(A) Maternity Benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Disablement benefit under the ESI Act
(C) Gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act
(D) Sickness benefit under the ESI Act
Ans: A
86. Under which Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 Public Utility Services have been listed out?
(A) 1st Schedule
(B) 2nd Schedule
(C) 3rd Schedule
(D) 4th Schedule
Ans: A
87. The minimum rate of subsistence allowance in case of suspension pending enquiry has been given under which of the following legislations?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Trade Union Act
(C) Industrial Employment
(Standing Orders)
(D) None of the above, Act
Ans: C
88. Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
(A) Basic Wage
(B) Dearness Allowance
(C) Incentive
(D) Gratuity
Ans: D
89. Which of the following statements is not correct as per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?
(A) It is applicable to construction industry.
(B) It does not apply to employees in Life Insurance Corporation of India.
(C) Allocable surplus means 67% of the available surplus.
(D) Employee means any person including apprentice.
Ans: D
90. “No discrimination to be made while recruiting men and women workers” is given under which of the following legislations?
(A) Factories Act
(B) Equal Remuneration Act
(C) Employment Exchanges
(Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act
(D) Minimum Wages Act
Ans: B
91. Which of the following is not an extra-mural welfare?
(A) Co-operative consumer facility
(B) Creche for child care
(C) Recreational club
(D) Health and Medical Services
Ans: B
92. “Workers are becoming conscious of their rights and privileges therefore it is prudent to appease the workers” is the philosophy of which theory of labour welfare?
(A) Placating Theory
(B) Policing Theory
(C) Philanthropic Theory
(D) Paternalistic Theory
Ans: A
93. ‘Social Invasion of Work Place’ and long arm of job’ explain the logic behind which of the following welfare activities?
(A) Reducing accidents and promoting safety
(B) Reducing indebtedness through co-operatives
(C) Labour Community Development
(D) All the above
Ans: C
94. Assertion (A): Industrial accidents occur inter-alia due to fatigue.
Reason (R): Fatigue is the result of personal health condition of the worker as well as by overwork, monotony and boredom as part of work experience.
Codes:
(A) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is right and the (R) rightly explains the (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is right.
Ans: B
95. Which of the following statements about welfare officer is not correct?
(A) Welfare Officer is statutory.
(B) The Qualifications and duties of Welfare Officer are prescribed.
(C) ‘Welfare Officer’ is a ‘Third Force’.
(D) Welfare Officer has to represent the employer in cases of industrial dispute.
Ans: D
96. The first Wage Board in India was set up in
(A) 1957
(B) 1958
(C) 1959
(D) 1960
Ans: A
97. Arrange the following in order of their amount in an ascending order:
a. Living Wage
b. Subsistence Wage
c. Fair Wage
d. Minimum Wage
Codes:
(A) b, c, d, a
(B) c, d, b, a
(C) b, d, c, a
(D) d, a, c, b
Ans: C
98. Which of the following cannot be regarded as a method of State Regulation of Wages?
(A) Wage Boards
(B) A Statutory Minimum Wage
(C) Adjudication and arbitration awards
(D) Collective Bargaining
Ans: D
99. Which of the following is regarded as Iron Law of Wage?
(A) Marginal Productivity Theory
(B) Subsistence Theory
(C) Wage Fund Theory
(D) Residual Claimant Theory
Ans: B
100. Which of the following is not a type of unemployment?
(A) Frictional Unemployment
(B) Technological Unemployment
(C) Disguised Unemployment
(D) Migratory Unemployment
Ans: D
(A) It is a diagnostic process.
(B) It is an intervention mechanism.
(C) It is a punitive mechanism.
(D) It is a value driven mechanism.
Ans: C
52. The ‘Managerial Grid’ model was developed by
(A) Robert Blake and Jane S. Mouton
(B) Lawler and Porter
(C) Fiedler and Garcia
(D) Hersey and Blanchard
Ans: A
53. Assertion (A): Structural inertia is an organizational resistance process to change because organizationshave built in mechanism toproduce stability.
Reason (R): People with a high need for security are likely to resist change because it threatens their feeling of safety.
Codes:
(A) (A) is right and (R) is a correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are right, but the (R) does not explain the (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
Ans: B
54. Match the following:
List – I List – II
a. Ethnocentric i. These organizations adopt synergistic strategies to function across geographies.
b. Polycentric ii. These organizations create an integrated system with a worldwide approach.
c. Regiocentric iii. These are home country oriented organizations.
d. Geocentric iv. Outward oriented culture where individuals follow the saying that “When in Rome, do as Romans”.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) i iii iv ii
Ans: C
55. The case study method of OD was developed by
(A) Christopher C. Longdell
(B) Eric Berne
(C) Udai Pareek
(D) S.R. Udpa
Ans: A
56. Which one of the following is not a principle of labour legislation?
(A) Principle of Protection
(B) Principle of Social Justice
(C) Principle of Social Security and Welfare
(D) Principle of Reasonable Standard of Living
Ans: D
57. Which one of the following is not based on the principle of welfare?
(A) Mica Mines Labour Welfare Funds Act
(B) Iron Ore Mines Labour Welfare Funds Act
(C) Minimum Wages Act
(D) Dock Workers (Safety, Health, Welfare) Act
Ans: C
58. Which part of the Indian Constitution divides jurisdiction for enactment of Labour Legislations?
(A) Distribution of Legislative Power
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
59. Which Labour Legislation has been enacted on the basis of Right to Association as given under the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Minimum Wages Act
(B) Payment of Wages Act
(C) Trade Unions Act
(D) Industrial Disputes Act
Ans: C
60. Which of the following cannot be said to be a factor influencing the growth of Labour Legislations in India?
(A) Rise of Trade Unions
(B) International Labour Organization
(C) Growth of Humanitarianism
(D) Caste System in India
Ans: D
61. Which one of the following recommended enactment of a wagelegislation in India in order to rectify the problems relating to payment of wages of industrial workers?
(A) National Commission on Labour
(B) Royal Commission on Labour
(C) Labour Investigation Committee
(D) Adarkar Committee
Ans: B
62. Which one of the following is not a type of labour administration machinery in India?
(A) Central Implementation Machinery
(B) Industrial Implementation Machinery
(C) State Implementation Machinery
(D) Regional Implementation Machinery
Ans: B
63. Which one of the following Labour Legislations provides comprehensive benefits to industrial workers in India?
(A) Employee Provident Funds Act
(B) Employees’ Compensation Act
(C) Employees’ State Insurance Act
(D) Maternity Benefit Act
Ans: C
64. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) India has ratified more than eighty Conventions of I.L.O.
(B) Trade Unions Act of 1926 is based on I.L.O. Convention number 87 called Freedom of Association.
(C) I.L.O. is a tripartite body.
(D) Governing Body is an organ of I.L.O.
Ans: A
65. Under which of the following categories the Shops and Commercial Establishment Legislations can be included?
(A) Wage Legislations
(B) Social Security Legislations
(C) Working Conditions Legislations
(D) Welfare Legislations
Ans: C
66. Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act is the result of the ratification by India of which of the following Conventions of I.L.O?
(A) Unemployment Convention, 1919
(B) Forced Labour Convention, 1930
(C) Weekly Rest (Industry Convention) 1921
(D) Right of Association (Agriculture) Convention, 1921
Ans: B
67. The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance Act has now been enhanced from 18 years to
(A) 20 years
(B) 22 years
(C) 24 years
(D) 25 years
Ans: D
68. Which of the following has not been implemented through any legislation at the National level?
(A) Joint Management Council
(B) Workers’ Participation in Management
(C) Recognition of Trade Unions
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
69. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy led to an amendment under which of the following legislations?
(A) Factories Act
(B) Mines Act
(C) Plantation Labour Act
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
70. The provision relating to suspension has been made under which of the following legislations?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Trade Union Act
(C) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
71. What is the wage limit to be eligible to be covered under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
(A) Rs. 6,000
(B) Rs. 6,500
(C) Rs. 7,000
(D) Rs. 7,500
Ans: B
72. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) There is a statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions in India at the Central level.
(B) There is no statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions in India at the Central level.
(C) Code of discipline provides both for Registration and Recognition.
(D) There is provision for recognition under the Inter-Union Code of Conduct.
Ans: B
73. Under which of the following legislations women avail maternity benefit upto six months?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Employees’ State Insurance Act
(C) Both under (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
74. Which of the following legislations apply to unorganized sector workers in India?
(A) Minimum Wages Act
(B) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
(C) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
75. The Factories Act, 1948 requires the appointment of the ‘Safety Officer’ in factories employing at least
(A) 250 workers
(B) 500 workers
(C) 1000 workers
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
26. Who was the founder of the Madras Labour Union?
(A) Ansuya Ben Sarabhai
(B) B.P. Wadia
(C) N.M. Lokhande
(D) Sankarlal Banker
Ans: B
27. Who has defined that “a trade union means an association carried on mainly for the purpose of protecting and advancing the members’ economic interest (higher wages, better conditions of work)”?
(A) Selig Perlman
(B) G.D.H. Cole
(C) Robert F. Hoxie
(D) Frank Tannenbaum
Ans: B
28. Under which of the following legislations there is a provision called ‘protected workmen’?
(A) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(B) Industrial Employment
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
Ans: D
29. Which one of the following is not a machinery for settlement of Industrial Disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(A) Conciliation Officer
(B) Board of Conciliation
(C) Collective Bargaining
(D) Labour Court
Ans: C
30. Creation of a political fund by trade unions under the Trade Union Act is
(A) Compulsory
(B) Optional
(C) by donation from political parties
(D) No such provision in the Act
Ans: B
31. Who among the following mentioned the four major principles of labour legislations?
(A) Frank Tillayard
(B) I.L.O.
(C) R.K. Das
(D) P.L. Mallick
Ans: C
82. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 is an example of
(A) Regulative Labour Legislation
(B) Protective Labour Legislation
(C) Social Security Legislation
(D) Welfare Legislation
Ans: B
83. Which of the following common defences were not available to the employers in cases of compensation for accidents under the common law?
(A) Doctrine of Assumed Risk
(B) Doctrine of Contributory Negligence
(C) Doctrine of Common Employment and Fellow Servant’s responsibility
(D) Doctrine of Natural Risk
Ans: D
84. Which of the following is not a statutory welfare facility under the Factories Act, 1948?
(A) Crèche
(B) Canteen
(C) Transport
(D) First-Aid Boxes
Ans: C
85. The condition of 70 days of employment in the 12 months immediately preceding the date of benefit has been made an eligibility condition for getting
(A) Maternity Benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Disablement benefit under the ESI Act
(C) Gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act
(D) Sickness benefit under the ESI Act
Ans: A
86. Under which Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 Public Utility Services have been listed out?
(A) 1st Schedule
(B) 2nd Schedule
(C) 3rd Schedule
(D) 4th Schedule
Ans: A
87. The minimum rate of subsistence allowance in case of suspension pending enquiry has been given under which of the following legislations?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Trade Union Act
(C) Industrial Employment
(Standing Orders)
(D) None of the above, Act
Ans: C
88. Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
(A) Basic Wage
(B) Dearness Allowance
(C) Incentive
(D) Gratuity
Ans: D
89. Which of the following statements is not correct as per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?
(A) It is applicable to construction industry.
(B) It does not apply to employees in Life Insurance Corporation of India.
(C) Allocable surplus means 67% of the available surplus.
(D) Employee means any person including apprentice.
Ans: D
90. “No discrimination to be made while recruiting men and women workers” is given under which of the following legislations?
(A) Factories Act
(B) Equal Remuneration Act
(C) Employment Exchanges
(Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act
(D) Minimum Wages Act
Ans: B
91. Which of the following is not an extra-mural welfare?
(A) Co-operative consumer facility
(B) Creche for child care
(C) Recreational club
(D) Health and Medical Services
Ans: B
92. “Workers are becoming conscious of their rights and privileges therefore it is prudent to appease the workers” is the philosophy of which theory of labour welfare?
(A) Placating Theory
(B) Policing Theory
(C) Philanthropic Theory
(D) Paternalistic Theory
Ans: A
93. ‘Social Invasion of Work Place’ and long arm of job’ explain the logic behind which of the following welfare activities?
(A) Reducing accidents and promoting safety
(B) Reducing indebtedness through co-operatives
(C) Labour Community Development
(D) All the above
Ans: C
94. Assertion (A): Industrial accidents occur inter-alia due to fatigue.
Reason (R): Fatigue is the result of personal health condition of the worker as well as by overwork, monotony and boredom as part of work experience.
Codes:
(A) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is right and the (R) rightly explains the (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is right.
Ans: B
95. Which of the following statements about welfare officer is not correct?
(A) Welfare Officer is statutory.
(B) The Qualifications and duties of Welfare Officer are prescribed.
(C) ‘Welfare Officer’ is a ‘Third Force’.
(D) Welfare Officer has to represent the employer in cases of industrial dispute.
Ans: D
96. The first Wage Board in India was set up in
(A) 1957
(B) 1958
(C) 1959
(D) 1960
Ans: A
97. Arrange the following in order of their amount in an ascending order:
a. Living Wage
b. Subsistence Wage
c. Fair Wage
d. Minimum Wage
Codes:
(A) b, c, d, a
(B) c, d, b, a
(C) b, d, c, a
(D) d, a, c, b
Ans: C
98. Which of the following cannot be regarded as a method of State Regulation of Wages?
(A) Wage Boards
(B) A Statutory Minimum Wage
(C) Adjudication and arbitration awards
(D) Collective Bargaining
Ans: D
99. Which of the following is regarded as Iron Law of Wage?
(A) Marginal Productivity Theory
(B) Subsistence Theory
(C) Wage Fund Theory
(D) Residual Claimant Theory
Ans: B
100. Which of the following is not a type of unemployment?
(A) Frictional Unemployment
(B) Technological Unemployment
(C) Disguised Unemployment
(D) Migratory Unemployment
Ans: D