HOMEOPATHY- PATHOLOGY AND MICROBIOLOGY
HOMEOPATHY- PATHOLOGY AND MICROBIOLOGY MCQs
1. Streptococcal T.S.S. is due to the the following virulence factor:
(A) Streptolysin O (B) M protein (C) Pyogenic exotoxin (D) Carbohydrate cell wall
Ans: A
2. After spleenectomy most common infection:
(A) Streptococcus pyogen (B) Pneumococcus (C) E.coli (D) Klebsiella
Ans: B
3. Gonococci initially infect:
(A) Vagina (B) Cervix (C) Uterus (D) Fallopian tube
Ans: B
4. Most common complication of diphtheria is:
(A) Endocarditits (B) Myocarditits (C) Pneumonitis (D) Meningitis
Ans: B
5. Absence of vi antibody in a typhoid patient has:
(A) Good prognosis (B) No relation with prognosis (C) Bad prognosis (D) Indicate widal negative
Ans: C
6. Lactose non fermenting are all except:
(A) Shigella sonni (B) Shigella boydii (C) Shigella dysentrae (D) Shigella flexineri
Ans: A
7. H. pylori is found in:
(A) Epithelilal lining (B) Mucous layer (C) Sub mucous layer (D) Lamina propria
Ans: A
8. Food poisioning within 24 hours is caused by:
(A) Vibrio chlorae (B) Staph.aureus (C) Clostridium botulinum (D) None of the above
Ans: B
9. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by:
(A) Cogaulase (B) Epidermolytic toxin (C) Enterotoxin (D) Haemolysin
Ans: B
10. Heating at 60°c for 30 minute will isolate:
(A) Enterococci (B) Micrococci (C) Stereptococci (D) Staphylococci
Ans: A
11. Aspergilloma has;
(A) Septatehyphae (B) No hyphae (C) Metachromatic hyphae (D) Pseudohyphae
Ans: D
12. Malt worker lung is caused by
(A) Aspergillus clevatus (B) Micropolyspora (C) Pseudomonus (D) Aspergillus fumigitus
Ans: A
13. Candidiasis is frequently associated with all except
(A) lUCD User (B) Pregnancy (C) OCP USER (D) Diabetes
Ans: A
14. Farmer lung caused by
(A) Aspergillosis (B) Histoplasmacapsulatum (C) Micromonospora fanai (D) All of the above
Ans: C
15. The fungus which is not dimorphic is
(A) Blastomyces (B) cyptococcus (C) Coccidioides (D) Histoplasmacapsulatum
Ans: B
16. Madura foot is caused by
(A) Nocardia (B) Candida albicans (C) Tenia versicolor (D) Blastomycosis
Ans: A
17. Asteroid bodies and cigar shaped globi may be produced by
(A) Phillophora (B) Sporotrichosis (C) Aspergillus (D) Wering shoes and shokes
Ans: B
18. Tenia pedis isseen in person
(A) In very cold countries (B) Walking bare foot (C) Wearing shoes and socks (D) Sokaed in water
Ans: C
19. The granules discharge in mycetoma contain
(A) Fungal colonies (B) Bone spicule (C) Pus cell (D) Inflamatory cell
Ans: A
20. Swelling of foot with multiple sinus discharging granules is due to
(A) Chancroid (B) LGV (C) Granuloma insuinale (D) Actinomycosis
Ans: D
21. Anaphylaxis is due to:
(A) Acute miasm (B) Chronic miasm (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: A
22. Purpura miliaris can be prevented by:
(A) Belladonna (B) Aconite (C) Phosphorus (D) Arnica
Ans: B
23. The word epidemic was derived from:
(A) German (B) Greek (C) Latin (D) None of the above
Ans: B
24. According to Hahnemann the cause of greater part of all true disease are:
(A) Acute miasm (B) Idiosyncrasy (C) Syphilitic miasm (D) Infectious miasm
Ans: D
25. Fixed miasm include :
(A) ASIATIC CHOLRA (B) Small pox (C) Yellow fever (D) Hydrophobia
Ans: B
26. Whopping cough is a _______ type of miasm:
(A) RECURRING (B) Non recurring (C) Both (D) fixed
Ans: B
27. Atherosclerosis is due to:
(A) Psora (B) syphylis (C) All three miasm (D) Sycosis
Ans: B
28. For treatment of masked spurious syphilis or pseduosyphilis treated with large mercurial preparation, Hahnemann recommended to use:
(A) Sulphur (B) Merc sol (C) Heparsulph (D) Acid nitric
Ans: C
29. Antipsoric treatment in case female should be given during :
(A) Menstrual flow (B) Four days after menses set in (C) Mid menstrual period (D) Before menses
Ans: B
30. Following disease is due to non recurring miasm:
(A) Malaria (B) Influenja (C) Mumps (D) Yellow fever
Ans: C
31. The miasm of measles and scarlatina has been termed as:
(A) Half spiritual miasm (B) Recurrent acute miasm (C) Fixed miasm (D) None of the above
Ans: A
32. HAHNEMANN advice external application for the treatment of:
(A) scabies (B) Fig warts (C) Leprosy (D) Gonorrhoea
Ans: B
33. A gouty rheumatic diathesis, engrafted on a gonorrhoeal or syphilitic patient which medicine is indicated :
(A) Rhus tox (B) Thuja (C) Nitric acid (D) Benzoic acid
Ans: D
34. The remedies that served to arouse the organism to reaction, so that indicated remedies will act is known as :
(A) Cognate (B) Intercurrent (C) Follows well (D) Complementary
Ans: B
35. As per Hahnemann cancer is result of:
(A) Latent psora (B) Psora, syphilis and sycosis (C) Secondary psora (D) Psora
Ans: C
36. Plasma membrane of cell is bounded to cytoskeleton by which protein:
(A) Spectrin (B) Laminin (C) Ankyrin (D) Tubulin
Ans: C
37. Example of metaplasia are the following except:
(A) Myositis ossificans (B) Barret oesophagus (C) Breast enlargement at puberty (D) Respiratory tract in chronic smoker
Ans: C
38. Irreversible cell injury is indicated by :
(A) Myelin figure (B) ATP depletion (C) Shifting of Ribosome (D) Accumulation of calcium in mitochondria
Ans: D
39. Pain during inflammation is mediated by :
(A) Nitric Oxide (B) Bradykinine (C) Leukotrine (D) Chemokines
Ans: B
40. Major basic protein is found in :
(A) Eosinophil (B) Nutrophil (C) Basophil (D) Macrophage
Ans: A
41. Ramsay hunt syndrome is caused by
(A) HBV (B) HIV (C) HSV (D) HZV
Ans: D
42. Dengue haemorrhagic fever is caused by:
(A) Type 1 Dengue virus (B) Reinfection with a deferent serotype of dengue virus
(C) Reinfection with a same serotype of dengue virus (D) Infection in an immune compromised host
Ans: B
43. Smallest DNA Virus is
(A) Pox virus (B) Herpes virus (C) Adenovirus (D) Parvo virus
Ans: D
44. Chronic hepatitis is caused by
(A) Hep. A (B) Hep. B (C) Hep. E (D) Hep. C
Ans: D
45. Rota virus is detected by
(A) Antibody in serum (B) Antigen in stool (C) Stool culture (D) Demonstration of virus
Ans: B
46. HIV Can be detected and can be confirmed by
(A) PCR (B) Reverse transcriptase - PCR (C) Mimic PCFR (D) Real time PCR
Ans: B
47. Which virus can cause haemorrhages
(A) Adeno virus (B) Corona virus (C) Parvovirus (D) HPV
Ans: A
48. H5 N1 may be best described as a
(A) Vaccine for HIV (B) New strain of Plasmodium falsiparum (C) Bird flu virus (D) Agent for JE
Ans: C
49. All are RNA virus except
(A) Hep C (B) HEP. B (C) Hep. A (D) Hep. D
Ans: B
50. Which of the following statement about hepatitis C is true
(A) DNA virus (B) Does not cause Co - infection with Hep. B
(C) Most common indication of liver transplantation (D) Does not cause liver cancer
Ans: C
(A) Streptolysin O (B) M protein (C) Pyogenic exotoxin (D) Carbohydrate cell wall
Ans: A
2. After spleenectomy most common infection:
(A) Streptococcus pyogen (B) Pneumococcus (C) E.coli (D) Klebsiella
Ans: B
3. Gonococci initially infect:
(A) Vagina (B) Cervix (C) Uterus (D) Fallopian tube
Ans: B
4. Most common complication of diphtheria is:
(A) Endocarditits (B) Myocarditits (C) Pneumonitis (D) Meningitis
Ans: B
5. Absence of vi antibody in a typhoid patient has:
(A) Good prognosis (B) No relation with prognosis (C) Bad prognosis (D) Indicate widal negative
Ans: C
6. Lactose non fermenting are all except:
(A) Shigella sonni (B) Shigella boydii (C) Shigella dysentrae (D) Shigella flexineri
Ans: A
7. H. pylori is found in:
(A) Epithelilal lining (B) Mucous layer (C) Sub mucous layer (D) Lamina propria
Ans: A
8. Food poisioning within 24 hours is caused by:
(A) Vibrio chlorae (B) Staph.aureus (C) Clostridium botulinum (D) None of the above
Ans: B
9. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by:
(A) Cogaulase (B) Epidermolytic toxin (C) Enterotoxin (D) Haemolysin
Ans: B
10. Heating at 60°c for 30 minute will isolate:
(A) Enterococci (B) Micrococci (C) Stereptococci (D) Staphylococci
Ans: A
11. Aspergilloma has;
(A) Septatehyphae (B) No hyphae (C) Metachromatic hyphae (D) Pseudohyphae
Ans: D
12. Malt worker lung is caused by
(A) Aspergillus clevatus (B) Micropolyspora (C) Pseudomonus (D) Aspergillus fumigitus
Ans: A
13. Candidiasis is frequently associated with all except
(A) lUCD User (B) Pregnancy (C) OCP USER (D) Diabetes
Ans: A
14. Farmer lung caused by
(A) Aspergillosis (B) Histoplasmacapsulatum (C) Micromonospora fanai (D) All of the above
Ans: C
15. The fungus which is not dimorphic is
(A) Blastomyces (B) cyptococcus (C) Coccidioides (D) Histoplasmacapsulatum
Ans: B
16. Madura foot is caused by
(A) Nocardia (B) Candida albicans (C) Tenia versicolor (D) Blastomycosis
Ans: A
17. Asteroid bodies and cigar shaped globi may be produced by
(A) Phillophora (B) Sporotrichosis (C) Aspergillus (D) Wering shoes and shokes
Ans: B
18. Tenia pedis isseen in person
(A) In very cold countries (B) Walking bare foot (C) Wearing shoes and socks (D) Sokaed in water
Ans: C
19. The granules discharge in mycetoma contain
(A) Fungal colonies (B) Bone spicule (C) Pus cell (D) Inflamatory cell
Ans: A
20. Swelling of foot with multiple sinus discharging granules is due to
(A) Chancroid (B) LGV (C) Granuloma insuinale (D) Actinomycosis
Ans: D
21. Anaphylaxis is due to:
(A) Acute miasm (B) Chronic miasm (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: A
22. Purpura miliaris can be prevented by:
(A) Belladonna (B) Aconite (C) Phosphorus (D) Arnica
Ans: B
23. The word epidemic was derived from:
(A) German (B) Greek (C) Latin (D) None of the above
Ans: B
24. According to Hahnemann the cause of greater part of all true disease are:
(A) Acute miasm (B) Idiosyncrasy (C) Syphilitic miasm (D) Infectious miasm
Ans: D
25. Fixed miasm include :
(A) ASIATIC CHOLRA (B) Small pox (C) Yellow fever (D) Hydrophobia
Ans: B
26. Whopping cough is a _______ type of miasm:
(A) RECURRING (B) Non recurring (C) Both (D) fixed
Ans: B
27. Atherosclerosis is due to:
(A) Psora (B) syphylis (C) All three miasm (D) Sycosis
Ans: B
28. For treatment of masked spurious syphilis or pseduosyphilis treated with large mercurial preparation, Hahnemann recommended to use:
(A) Sulphur (B) Merc sol (C) Heparsulph (D) Acid nitric
Ans: C
29. Antipsoric treatment in case female should be given during :
(A) Menstrual flow (B) Four days after menses set in (C) Mid menstrual period (D) Before menses
Ans: B
30. Following disease is due to non recurring miasm:
(A) Malaria (B) Influenja (C) Mumps (D) Yellow fever
Ans: C
31. The miasm of measles and scarlatina has been termed as:
(A) Half spiritual miasm (B) Recurrent acute miasm (C) Fixed miasm (D) None of the above
Ans: A
32. HAHNEMANN advice external application for the treatment of:
(A) scabies (B) Fig warts (C) Leprosy (D) Gonorrhoea
Ans: B
33. A gouty rheumatic diathesis, engrafted on a gonorrhoeal or syphilitic patient which medicine is indicated :
(A) Rhus tox (B) Thuja (C) Nitric acid (D) Benzoic acid
Ans: D
34. The remedies that served to arouse the organism to reaction, so that indicated remedies will act is known as :
(A) Cognate (B) Intercurrent (C) Follows well (D) Complementary
Ans: B
35. As per Hahnemann cancer is result of:
(A) Latent psora (B) Psora, syphilis and sycosis (C) Secondary psora (D) Psora
Ans: C
36. Plasma membrane of cell is bounded to cytoskeleton by which protein:
(A) Spectrin (B) Laminin (C) Ankyrin (D) Tubulin
Ans: C
37. Example of metaplasia are the following except:
(A) Myositis ossificans (B) Barret oesophagus (C) Breast enlargement at puberty (D) Respiratory tract in chronic smoker
Ans: C
38. Irreversible cell injury is indicated by :
(A) Myelin figure (B) ATP depletion (C) Shifting of Ribosome (D) Accumulation of calcium in mitochondria
Ans: D
39. Pain during inflammation is mediated by :
(A) Nitric Oxide (B) Bradykinine (C) Leukotrine (D) Chemokines
Ans: B
40. Major basic protein is found in :
(A) Eosinophil (B) Nutrophil (C) Basophil (D) Macrophage
Ans: A
41. Ramsay hunt syndrome is caused by
(A) HBV (B) HIV (C) HSV (D) HZV
Ans: D
42. Dengue haemorrhagic fever is caused by:
(A) Type 1 Dengue virus (B) Reinfection with a deferent serotype of dengue virus
(C) Reinfection with a same serotype of dengue virus (D) Infection in an immune compromised host
Ans: B
43. Smallest DNA Virus is
(A) Pox virus (B) Herpes virus (C) Adenovirus (D) Parvo virus
Ans: D
44. Chronic hepatitis is caused by
(A) Hep. A (B) Hep. B (C) Hep. E (D) Hep. C
Ans: D
45. Rota virus is detected by
(A) Antibody in serum (B) Antigen in stool (C) Stool culture (D) Demonstration of virus
Ans: B
46. HIV Can be detected and can be confirmed by
(A) PCR (B) Reverse transcriptase - PCR (C) Mimic PCFR (D) Real time PCR
Ans: B
47. Which virus can cause haemorrhages
(A) Adeno virus (B) Corona virus (C) Parvovirus (D) HPV
Ans: A
48. H5 N1 may be best described as a
(A) Vaccine for HIV (B) New strain of Plasmodium falsiparum (C) Bird flu virus (D) Agent for JE
Ans: C
49. All are RNA virus except
(A) Hep C (B) HEP. B (C) Hep. A (D) Hep. D
Ans: B
50. Which of the following statement about hepatitis C is true
(A) DNA virus (B) Does not cause Co - infection with Hep. B
(C) Most common indication of liver transplantation (D) Does not cause liver cancer
Ans: C
51. Hormones are best assessed by:
(A) ELISA (B) RIA (C) Electrophoresis (D) Flowcytometry
Ans: B
52. HOW MANNY TITLE are there in WHOQOL - BREF
(A) 26 (B) 27 (C) 30 (D) 25
Ans: A
53. Job’s syndrome is following type of immunodeficiency disease:
(A) Cellular immuno deficiency (B) Humoral immunodeficiency (C) Disorder of phagocytosis (D) Disorder of complement
Ans: C
55. BMI is express as
(A) BODY weight /height (cm) (B) Body weight in (kg) / height in (m2)
(C) Body in grams /height in (mm2) (D) Body weight (kg ) / height in (inches)
Ans: B
56. Red infract is seen in :
(A) Heart (B) Kidney (C) Spleen (D) Lung
Ans: D
57. Most common cause of death in primary amyloidosis is:
(A) Renal failure (B) Cardiac failure (C) Septicaemia (D) Respiratory failure
Ans: A
58. Onion peel appearance of spleenic capsule is seen is:
(A) Scleroderma (B) Sjogrens syndrome (C) RA (D) SLE
Ans: D
59. Organ most vulnerable to ischemia due to shock:
(A) Adrenal (B) Heart (C) Kidney (D) Lungs
Ans: B
60. Commonest Route of infection of pyogenic liver abscess is:
(A) Trauma (B) Ascending infections (C) Lymphatic (D) Haematogenus
Ans: B
61. Commonest source of pulmonary embolism is, except:
(A) Pelvic vein (B) Deep leg vein (C) Superficial leg vein (D) Infract
Ans: B
62. Alpha 1 antitrypsin defciency causes :
(A) Centri aciner emphysema (B) Paraseptal emphysema (C) Irregular emphysema (D) Pan aciner emphysema
Ans: D
63. Summons deals with which section of CrPC
(A) SECTION - 162 (B) S. 61 TO 69 CrPC (C) S. 27 CrPC (D) S. 41 CrPC
Ans: B
64. Dying declaration deals with which section of Indian Evidence Act (IEA)
(A) S.32 IEA (B) S.162 IEA (C) S.31 IEA (D) S.61 IEA
Ans: A
65. Number of CCRH unit in India
(A) 28 (B) 24 (C) 27 (D) 20
Ans: B
66. HOMOEOPATHIC psychiatric hospital in india is at;
(A) New Delhi (B) Kolkata (C) Kottyam (D) Thiruvananthapuram
Ans: C
67. When was the ministry of AYUSH formed
(A) 2014 (B) 2011 (C) 2016 (D) 2013
Ans: A
68. How many countries in world have legal Recognition of homoeopathy as an individual system of medicine
(A) 28 (B) 80 (C) 42 (D) 18
Ans: C
69. Closure of the neural tube begin at which of the following levels;
(A) Cervical region (B) Cephalic region
(C) Thoracic region (D) Caudal region
Ans: A
70. Mental Foramen is located near:
(A) First premolar of mandible (B) Canine of Mandible (C) Second Molar of mandible (D) Canine of Maxilla
Ans: A
71. Grossly pigmented liver is seen in:
(A) Gilbert syndrome (B) Dubin jonson syndrome (C) Rotors syndromes (D) Criggler nager syndrome
Ans: B
72. Commonest complication of TB Meningites :
(A) Cerebral inflammation (B) Tuberculoma (C) Haemorrhage (D) Brain abscess
Ans: A
73. Berger disease is:
(A) IgM Nepheropathy (B) IgE Nepheropathy (C) IgA Nephropathy (D) IgG Nephropathy
Ans: C
74. In ulcerative colitis what is seen :
(A) Crypt loss (B) Cryptitis (C) Crypt branching (D) Proliferating mucosa
Ans: B
75. Asbestosis is usually related to :
(A) Small cell CA (B) Mesothelioma (C) Squamous cell CA (D) Large cell CA lung
Ans: B
76. Nucleic acid is not found in :
(A) Virus (B) Prions (C) Bacteria (D) Fungus
Ans: B
77. Indicator used in autoclave is:
(A) Clostridium tetani (B) Bacillus pumilis (C) Bacillus steareothermophllius (D) Bacillus subtilis vas Niger
Ans: C
78. All of the following Vibrios sp are halophilic except:
(A) V. Cholera (B) V. parahaemolyticus (C) Alginolyticus (D) V.fluvialis
Ans: A
79. Which organism escapes pasteurization :
(A) Pneumococcus (B) Coxiella Burnetii (C) Anthrax Bacilli (D) Staph, aureus
Ans: B
80. Sterilization of culture media containing serum is by:
(A) Autoclaving (B) Gamma radiation (C) Micropore filter (D) Centrifugation
Ans: C
81. In nutrient agar concentration of agar is :
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
Ans: B
82. Sputum can be disinfected by all except:
(A) Autoclaving (B) Chlorohexidine (C) Boiling (D) Cresol
Ans: B
83. Which of the following is most registrant to antiseptic
(A) Spore (B) Prions (C) Fungus (D) Cyst
Ans: B
84. Shortened incubation period is for which food poisoning :
(A) Vibrio cholerae (B) Staph. Aureus (C) Salmonelosis (D) Bacillus cereus
Ans: D
85. Which component of strep.pyogenes has cross reactivity to synovium of human tissue:
(A) Capsular hyaluronic acid (B) Cell wall protein (C) Group A carbohydrate antigen (D) peptidoglycan
Ans: A
86. Agar is used for solidifying culture media for cultivation of bacteria as:
(A) Agar is cheaper (B) Agar is non nutritious (C) Gelatin melts at 37 degree centigrade (D) Gelatin is not easily available
Ans: C
87. Heart lung machine are sterilised by :
(A) Aqueous solution of iodine (B) Glutaraldehyde (C) Ethylene (D) Carbolic acid
Ans: C
88. Temperature required for autoclaving is :
(A) 100°C for 60 minutes (B) 100°C for 90 minutes (C) 121°C for 15 minutes (D) 121°C for 30 minutes
Ans: C
89. Population doubling time of mycobacterium tuberculosis is :
(A) 2 hours (B) 5 hours (C) 20 hours (D) 20 days
Ans: C
90. Sporulation occur in :
(A) Lag phase (B) Stationary phase (C) Log phase (D) Decline phase
Ans: B
91. Which does not stimulate active immunity:
(A) Clinical infection (B) Subclinical infection (C) Transplacental antibody in new born (D) Vaccination
Ans: C
92. Real time PCR is used for:
(A) Multiplication of proteins (B) For quantitative detection of PCR material
(C) M unification of specific segments of DNA (D) Multification of RNA
Ans: B
93. Howel body and D Heinz bodies in spleen are destroyed by:
(A) Macrophage (B) Dendritic cell (C) T helper cell (D) Bcell
Ans: D
94. Casoni test is type of:
(A) TYPE 1 HYPERSENSITIVY (B) TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVY (C) TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVY (D) TYPE IV HYPERSENSITIVY
Ans: A
95. IgM appears in foetus at what gestational age:
(A) 10 WEEKS (B) AT BIRTH (C) 30 WEEKS (D) 20 WEEKS
Ans: D
96. Macrophage are major source of:
(A) IL — 5 (B) IL — 1 (C) IL — 7 (D) IFN – Y
Ans: B
97. Most common auto immune disease in young man:
(A) Reiter’s disease (B) Ankylosing spondylosis (C) CIDP (D) Inclusion body myositis
Ans: A
98. Heterophile agglutination test is:
(A) Widal test (B) VDRL (C) Streptococcus MG agglutination (D) Khan test
Ans: C
99. Authorisation needed for exhumation of the body
(A) From the executive magistrate (B) From any government doctor (C) 2nd class judicial magistrate (D) None of the above
Ans: A
100. Witness deals with
(A) Section 137 IEA (B) S.151 IPC (C) S.118 TO 134 IEA (D) S.159 IEA
Ans: C
(A) ELISA (B) RIA (C) Electrophoresis (D) Flowcytometry
Ans: B
52. HOW MANNY TITLE are there in WHOQOL - BREF
(A) 26 (B) 27 (C) 30 (D) 25
Ans: A
53. Job’s syndrome is following type of immunodeficiency disease:
(A) Cellular immuno deficiency (B) Humoral immunodeficiency (C) Disorder of phagocytosis (D) Disorder of complement
Ans: C
55. BMI is express as
(A) BODY weight /height (cm) (B) Body weight in (kg) / height in (m2)
(C) Body in grams /height in (mm2) (D) Body weight (kg ) / height in (inches)
Ans: B
56. Red infract is seen in :
(A) Heart (B) Kidney (C) Spleen (D) Lung
Ans: D
57. Most common cause of death in primary amyloidosis is:
(A) Renal failure (B) Cardiac failure (C) Septicaemia (D) Respiratory failure
Ans: A
58. Onion peel appearance of spleenic capsule is seen is:
(A) Scleroderma (B) Sjogrens syndrome (C) RA (D) SLE
Ans: D
59. Organ most vulnerable to ischemia due to shock:
(A) Adrenal (B) Heart (C) Kidney (D) Lungs
Ans: B
60. Commonest Route of infection of pyogenic liver abscess is:
(A) Trauma (B) Ascending infections (C) Lymphatic (D) Haematogenus
Ans: B
61. Commonest source of pulmonary embolism is, except:
(A) Pelvic vein (B) Deep leg vein (C) Superficial leg vein (D) Infract
Ans: B
62. Alpha 1 antitrypsin defciency causes :
(A) Centri aciner emphysema (B) Paraseptal emphysema (C) Irregular emphysema (D) Pan aciner emphysema
Ans: D
63. Summons deals with which section of CrPC
(A) SECTION - 162 (B) S. 61 TO 69 CrPC (C) S. 27 CrPC (D) S. 41 CrPC
Ans: B
64. Dying declaration deals with which section of Indian Evidence Act (IEA)
(A) S.32 IEA (B) S.162 IEA (C) S.31 IEA (D) S.61 IEA
Ans: A
65. Number of CCRH unit in India
(A) 28 (B) 24 (C) 27 (D) 20
Ans: B
66. HOMOEOPATHIC psychiatric hospital in india is at;
(A) New Delhi (B) Kolkata (C) Kottyam (D) Thiruvananthapuram
Ans: C
67. When was the ministry of AYUSH formed
(A) 2014 (B) 2011 (C) 2016 (D) 2013
Ans: A
68. How many countries in world have legal Recognition of homoeopathy as an individual system of medicine
(A) 28 (B) 80 (C) 42 (D) 18
Ans: C
69. Closure of the neural tube begin at which of the following levels;
(A) Cervical region (B) Cephalic region
(C) Thoracic region (D) Caudal region
Ans: A
70. Mental Foramen is located near:
(A) First premolar of mandible (B) Canine of Mandible (C) Second Molar of mandible (D) Canine of Maxilla
Ans: A
71. Grossly pigmented liver is seen in:
(A) Gilbert syndrome (B) Dubin jonson syndrome (C) Rotors syndromes (D) Criggler nager syndrome
Ans: B
72. Commonest complication of TB Meningites :
(A) Cerebral inflammation (B) Tuberculoma (C) Haemorrhage (D) Brain abscess
Ans: A
73. Berger disease is:
(A) IgM Nepheropathy (B) IgE Nepheropathy (C) IgA Nephropathy (D) IgG Nephropathy
Ans: C
74. In ulcerative colitis what is seen :
(A) Crypt loss (B) Cryptitis (C) Crypt branching (D) Proliferating mucosa
Ans: B
75. Asbestosis is usually related to :
(A) Small cell CA (B) Mesothelioma (C) Squamous cell CA (D) Large cell CA lung
Ans: B
76. Nucleic acid is not found in :
(A) Virus (B) Prions (C) Bacteria (D) Fungus
Ans: B
77. Indicator used in autoclave is:
(A) Clostridium tetani (B) Bacillus pumilis (C) Bacillus steareothermophllius (D) Bacillus subtilis vas Niger
Ans: C
78. All of the following Vibrios sp are halophilic except:
(A) V. Cholera (B) V. parahaemolyticus (C) Alginolyticus (D) V.fluvialis
Ans: A
79. Which organism escapes pasteurization :
(A) Pneumococcus (B) Coxiella Burnetii (C) Anthrax Bacilli (D) Staph, aureus
Ans: B
80. Sterilization of culture media containing serum is by:
(A) Autoclaving (B) Gamma radiation (C) Micropore filter (D) Centrifugation
Ans: C
81. In nutrient agar concentration of agar is :
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
Ans: B
82. Sputum can be disinfected by all except:
(A) Autoclaving (B) Chlorohexidine (C) Boiling (D) Cresol
Ans: B
83. Which of the following is most registrant to antiseptic
(A) Spore (B) Prions (C) Fungus (D) Cyst
Ans: B
84. Shortened incubation period is for which food poisoning :
(A) Vibrio cholerae (B) Staph. Aureus (C) Salmonelosis (D) Bacillus cereus
Ans: D
85. Which component of strep.pyogenes has cross reactivity to synovium of human tissue:
(A) Capsular hyaluronic acid (B) Cell wall protein (C) Group A carbohydrate antigen (D) peptidoglycan
Ans: A
86. Agar is used for solidifying culture media for cultivation of bacteria as:
(A) Agar is cheaper (B) Agar is non nutritious (C) Gelatin melts at 37 degree centigrade (D) Gelatin is not easily available
Ans: C
87. Heart lung machine are sterilised by :
(A) Aqueous solution of iodine (B) Glutaraldehyde (C) Ethylene (D) Carbolic acid
Ans: C
88. Temperature required for autoclaving is :
(A) 100°C for 60 minutes (B) 100°C for 90 minutes (C) 121°C for 15 minutes (D) 121°C for 30 minutes
Ans: C
89. Population doubling time of mycobacterium tuberculosis is :
(A) 2 hours (B) 5 hours (C) 20 hours (D) 20 days
Ans: C
90. Sporulation occur in :
(A) Lag phase (B) Stationary phase (C) Log phase (D) Decline phase
Ans: B
91. Which does not stimulate active immunity:
(A) Clinical infection (B) Subclinical infection (C) Transplacental antibody in new born (D) Vaccination
Ans: C
92. Real time PCR is used for:
(A) Multiplication of proteins (B) For quantitative detection of PCR material
(C) M unification of specific segments of DNA (D) Multification of RNA
Ans: B
93. Howel body and D Heinz bodies in spleen are destroyed by:
(A) Macrophage (B) Dendritic cell (C) T helper cell (D) Bcell
Ans: D
94. Casoni test is type of:
(A) TYPE 1 HYPERSENSITIVY (B) TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVY (C) TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVY (D) TYPE IV HYPERSENSITIVY
Ans: A
95. IgM appears in foetus at what gestational age:
(A) 10 WEEKS (B) AT BIRTH (C) 30 WEEKS (D) 20 WEEKS
Ans: D
96. Macrophage are major source of:
(A) IL — 5 (B) IL — 1 (C) IL — 7 (D) IFN – Y
Ans: B
97. Most common auto immune disease in young man:
(A) Reiter’s disease (B) Ankylosing spondylosis (C) CIDP (D) Inclusion body myositis
Ans: A
98. Heterophile agglutination test is:
(A) Widal test (B) VDRL (C) Streptococcus MG agglutination (D) Khan test
Ans: C
99. Authorisation needed for exhumation of the body
(A) From the executive magistrate (B) From any government doctor (C) 2nd class judicial magistrate (D) None of the above
Ans: A
100. Witness deals with
(A) Section 137 IEA (B) S.151 IPC (C) S.118 TO 134 IEA (D) S.159 IEA
Ans: C