GEOLOGY- PAGE 3
Geology MCQs- Page 3
1. Which of the following statement is correct for the radii of various species having the same nuclear charge but difference oxidation states -
A) Increases with the increase in the oxidation number of the species.
B) Decreases with the increase in the oxidation number of the species.
C) May decrease or increase with the increase in the oxidation number of species.
D) Does not depend upon the oxidation Number of species.
Ans: B
2. Which of the following element has highest negative value of Electron affinity ?
A) F
B) Cl
C) Br
D) I
Ans: B
3. The false statement about the Schottky defect is :
A) This sort of defect occurs mainly in ionic compounds.
B) Cordination number in such compounds is usually low.
C) Positive and negative ions are of almost similar size.
D) NaCl shows this type of defect.
Ans: B
4. Which of the following lanthanide does not occur in nature ?
A) Promethium
B) Cerium
C) Gadolinium
D) Neodymium
Ans: A
5. Which of the following is not the property of a solution formed by alkali metal in liquid ammonia ?
A) The colour of solution is blue.
B) The colour of the solution is independent of the metal involved.
C) It is diamagnetic in nature.
D) It conducts electricity.
Ans: C
6. Which of the following is not a point defect -
A) Schottky defect
B) Frenkel defect
C) Metal excess defect
D) Edge dislocation
Ans: D
7. Which of the following statement is not true
A) The subsidary quantum number describes the shape of the orbital.
B) For l = 0 , the shape of the orbital is spherical.
C) For l = 1, the shape of the orbital is dumbell shaped.
D) The subsidary quantum number describes the energy of the orbital.
Ans: D
8. Which of the following member of Lanthanoid series is commonly found in +4 Oxidation state ?
A) Promethium
B) Samarium
C) Europium
D) Cerium
Ans: D
9. Choose the false statement among the following :
A) Hard acids have acceptor metal atom of small size.
B) Soft bases have acceptor metal atom of large size.
C) Soft acids have acceptor metal atom of large size.
D) Hard bases have atoms of high electronegativity.
Ans: B
10. Which of the following is not a method for concentration of ores
A) Leaching
B) Roasting
C) Hydraulic wash
D) Magnetic Separation
Ans: B
11. Which of the following is not the ore of copper ?
A) Copper glance
B) Malachite
C) Cuprite
D) Siderite
Ans: D
12. Zinc can not be obtained from the following ore -
A) Calamine
B) Zinc Blende
C) Zincite
D) Malachite
Ans: D
13. Which of the following is not the method of refining of extracted metal -
A) Distillation
B) Electrolysis
C) Chromatographic methods
D) Leaching
Ans: D
14. Copper metal is refined by using the following method -
A) Vapour phase refining
B) Electrolytic refining
C) Distillation
D) Chromatographic method
Ans: B
15. Which of the following types of faults are related to Schuppen structures?
A:-Thrust faults
B:-Reverse faults
C:-Normal faults
D:-Enechelon faults
Ans: A
16. The system of classification of igneous rocks based primarily on the silica saturation principle, according to which "certain minerals cannot exist in the presence of free silica".
A:-CIPW classification
B:-Rosenbuch's classification
C:-IUGS classification
D:-Shand's classification
Ans: D
17. The metamorphic structure produced by thermal metamorphism of argillaceous rocks, which is chracterized by spotted apperarnce due to the development of equi-dimensional minerals and porphyroblasts of andalusite, cordierite, biotite, chloritoid, etc.
A:-Maculose structure
B:-Gneissose structure
C:-Granulose structure
D:-Cataclastic structure
Ans: A
18. A helpful guide in geochemical prospecting in assessing the relative values of the various elements present and which tells about the amount of a particular element present in the parent rock not affected by dispersion or migration.
A:-Threshold value
B:-Anomalous value
C:-Background value
D:-Leakage value
Ans: C
19. The typical crystal form in Isometric system, which is bounded by 12 faces, each of which is a pentagon but with one edge longer than the other four similar edges.
A:-Trapezohedron
B:-Diploid
C:-Dodecahedron
D:-Pyritohedron
Ans: D
20. Under which category do the Radiolarian and Diatomaceous oozes come?
A:-Calcareous organic deposits
B:-Siliceous organic deposits
C:-Phosphatic organic deposits
D:-Carbonaceous organic deposits
Ans: B
21. The other name for non-spatial data in GIS
A:-Attribute data
B:-Vector data
C:-Raster data
D:-Geographic data
Ans: A
22. Which of the following environmental impacts of mining and quarrying has large scale effects on the hydrosphere?
A:-Land degradation
B:-Acid mine drainage
C:-Deforestation
D:-Air pollution
Ans: B
23. Which of the following descriptions is correct for a brachiopod shell?
A:-Inequilateral and unequal
B:-Equilateral and unequal
C:-Equilateral and equal
D:-Inequilateral and equal
Ans: B
24. The type mineral of Normal Class of Orthorhombic system
A:-Baryte
B:-Calcite
C:-Gypsum
D:-Beryl
Ans: A
25. Which of the following is the correct hierarchical order of increasing abundance of the most common elements
of the continental crust of the earth?
A:-Fe → Ca → Al → O → Si
B:-Al → O → Fe → Si → Ca
C:-Si → Al → Fe → Ca → O
D:-Ca → Fe → Al → Si → O
Ans: D
26. The elements having a strong affinity for silicates are called
A:-Chalcophile elements
B:-Lithophile elements
C:-Atmospheric elements
D:-Siderophile elements
Ans: B
27. The measures taken to reduce both the effect of natural hazards and to reduce the scale of intensity of a forthcoming disaster.
A:-Response
B:-Recovery
C:-Mitigation
D:-Preparedness
Ans: C
28. A sedimentary deposit that exhibits extraordinary fossil richness or completeness with exceptional preservation, sometimes including preserved soft tissues.
A:-Biozone
B:-Lagerstätte
C:-Hemera
D:-Epibole
Ans: B
29. The largest felsic volcanic province of India.
A:-Maleri Volcanic Suite
B:-Dras Volcanics
C:-Deccan Basalt Province
D:-Malani Igneous Suite
Ans: D
30. The chemical weathering process which is responsible for the conversion of potash feldspar (orthoclase) in the rocks to clay mineral and colloidal silica.
A:-Hydrolysis
B:-Hydration
C:-Oxidation
D:-Solution
Ans: A
31. The Kerala coast is described as a __________ coast, falling under the 'Terrigenous coast of primarily morphologic disequilibrium'.
A:-Dalmation
B:-Divergent
C:-Submergent
D:-Emergent
Ans: C
32. In the concept of Integrated Solid Waste Management (ISWM), which of the following comes at the top of the hierarchy?
A:-Disposal
B:-Reduction
C:-Reuse
D:-Recovery
Ans: B
33. Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?
A:-A perched aquifer is a special type of unconfined aquifer
B:-Confined aquifers are also known as pressure aquifers
C:-The water level in a well penetrating a confined aquifer defines the elevation of the piezometric surface at that point
D:-Pumping from a well in a leaky aquifer removes water by only horizontal flow within the aquifer
Ans: D
34. The system of geochronological dating that has been very valuable in studying the oldest components of the continental crust because of its survival through various alteration processes.
A:-Sm-Nd system
B:-Rb-Sr system
C:-K-Ar system
D:-U-Pb system
Ans: A
35. The typical texture exhibited by lamprophytes
A:-Rapakivi texture
B:-Panidiomorphic texture
C:-Ophitic texture
D:-Poikilitic texture
Ans: B
36. Which of the following is the correct sequence of Barrowian zones according to the increasing grade of metamorphism?
A:-Biotite zone → Garnet zone → Chlorite zone → Kyanite zone → Sillimanite zone → Staurolite zone
B:-Chlorite zone → Biotite zone → Sillimanite zone → Garnet zone → Staurolite zone → Kyanite zone
C:-Sillimanite zone → Chlorite zone → Biotite zone → Kyanite zone → Garnet zone → Staurolite zone
D:-Chlorite zone → Biotite zone → Garnet zone → Staurolite zone → Kyanite zone → Sillimanite zone
Ans: D
37. The mouth of most echinoids is provided with five hard teeth arranged in a circlet forming an apparatus known as ___________.
A:-Cranidium
B:-Escutcheon
C:-Aristotle's lantern
D:-Apical disc
Ans: C
38. The oldest gneiss in Western Dharwar craton is a suite of trondhjemitic gneisses with associated tonalities and granodiorites known as
A:-Gorur Gneiss
B:-Peninsular Gneiss
C:-Champion Gneiss
D:-Tirodi Gneiss
Ans: A
39. Match the following and choose the correct answer.
(1) Chevron fold (a) Concentric fold
(2) Box fold (b) Concertina fold
(3) Parallel fold (c) Nappe fold
(4) Recumbent fold (d) Coffer fold
A:-1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
B:-1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
C:-1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
D:-1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
Ans: D
40. The storage coefficient of storativity for an unconfined aquifer corresponds to its
A:-Hydraulic conductivity
B:-Specific retention
C:-Specific yield
D:-Transmissivity
Ans: C
41. The quality of groundwater samples falling in Area-7 of the diamond-shaped field of the Hill-Piper Trilinear diagram.
A:-Saline water
B:-Good water
C:-Relatively good water
D:-Hard water
Ans: A
42. The capacity of a remote sensor to discriminate two targets based on its reflectance/ emittance difference
A:-Spectral resolution
B:-Temporal resolution
C:-Radiometric resolution
D:-Spatial resolution
Ans: C
43. Which of the following is the correct order of precipitation of metallic sulphides according to increasing solubilities in the zone of supergene enrichment?
A:-Co, Pb, Ag, Cu, Zn
B:-Ag, Cu, Pb, Zn, Co
C:-Cu, Zn, Ag, Co, Pb
D:-Pb, Ag, Cu, Co, Zn
Ans: B
44. Which of the following mining methods is related to the recovery of metalliferous nodules or crust from the deep oceans?
A:-Breast stopping system
B:-Sluicing system
C:-Continuous line bucket system
D:-Drag line system
Ans: C
45. In the five major petroliferous basins of India, hydrocarbon entrapment is mainly in the classic reservoirs except the
A:-Cambay Basin
B:-Krishna-Godavari Basin
C:-Cauvery Basin
D:-Bombay Offshore Basin
Ans: D
46. Match the following and choose the correct answer.
Plant Indicators Element
(a) Ocimum centraliafricanum (1) Silver
(b) Eriogonum ovalifolium (2) Gold
(c) Viola calaminaria (3) Copper
(d) Equisetum avense (4) Zinc
A:-a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
B:-a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
C:-a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
D:-a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
Ans: D
47. The type of mass wasting confined to channels
A:-Mudflow
B:-Earthflow
C:-Solifluction
D:-Debris slide
Ans: A
48. Which of the following soils are the dominant soils of the humid temperate regions?
A:-Tundra soils
B:-Chernozems
C:-Laterite soils
D:-Podzols
Ans: D
49. The X-ray spectrometer used for the investigation of crystal structure was first developed by
A:-W.H. Bragg and W.L. Bragg
B:-Friedrich and Knipping
C:-Auguste Bravais
D:-Debye and Scherrer
Ans: A
50. A kind of metallic colour shown by non-metallic minerals like hypershenes in which a peculiar play of light appears when the minerals are examined so that their crystal faces or cleavage faces are at a particular angle to the incident illumination.
A:-Opalescence
B:-Iridescence
C:-Schillerization
D:-Phosphorescence
Ans: C
A) Increases with the increase in the oxidation number of the species.
B) Decreases with the increase in the oxidation number of the species.
C) May decrease or increase with the increase in the oxidation number of species.
D) Does not depend upon the oxidation Number of species.
Ans: B
2. Which of the following element has highest negative value of Electron affinity ?
A) F
B) Cl
C) Br
D) I
Ans: B
3. The false statement about the Schottky defect is :
A) This sort of defect occurs mainly in ionic compounds.
B) Cordination number in such compounds is usually low.
C) Positive and negative ions are of almost similar size.
D) NaCl shows this type of defect.
Ans: B
4. Which of the following lanthanide does not occur in nature ?
A) Promethium
B) Cerium
C) Gadolinium
D) Neodymium
Ans: A
5. Which of the following is not the property of a solution formed by alkali metal in liquid ammonia ?
A) The colour of solution is blue.
B) The colour of the solution is independent of the metal involved.
C) It is diamagnetic in nature.
D) It conducts electricity.
Ans: C
6. Which of the following is not a point defect -
A) Schottky defect
B) Frenkel defect
C) Metal excess defect
D) Edge dislocation
Ans: D
7. Which of the following statement is not true
A) The subsidary quantum number describes the shape of the orbital.
B) For l = 0 , the shape of the orbital is spherical.
C) For l = 1, the shape of the orbital is dumbell shaped.
D) The subsidary quantum number describes the energy of the orbital.
Ans: D
8. Which of the following member of Lanthanoid series is commonly found in +4 Oxidation state ?
A) Promethium
B) Samarium
C) Europium
D) Cerium
Ans: D
9. Choose the false statement among the following :
A) Hard acids have acceptor metal atom of small size.
B) Soft bases have acceptor metal atom of large size.
C) Soft acids have acceptor metal atom of large size.
D) Hard bases have atoms of high electronegativity.
Ans: B
10. Which of the following is not a method for concentration of ores
A) Leaching
B) Roasting
C) Hydraulic wash
D) Magnetic Separation
Ans: B
11. Which of the following is not the ore of copper ?
A) Copper glance
B) Malachite
C) Cuprite
D) Siderite
Ans: D
12. Zinc can not be obtained from the following ore -
A) Calamine
B) Zinc Blende
C) Zincite
D) Malachite
Ans: D
13. Which of the following is not the method of refining of extracted metal -
A) Distillation
B) Electrolysis
C) Chromatographic methods
D) Leaching
Ans: D
14. Copper metal is refined by using the following method -
A) Vapour phase refining
B) Electrolytic refining
C) Distillation
D) Chromatographic method
Ans: B
15. Which of the following types of faults are related to Schuppen structures?
A:-Thrust faults
B:-Reverse faults
C:-Normal faults
D:-Enechelon faults
Ans: A
16. The system of classification of igneous rocks based primarily on the silica saturation principle, according to which "certain minerals cannot exist in the presence of free silica".
A:-CIPW classification
B:-Rosenbuch's classification
C:-IUGS classification
D:-Shand's classification
Ans: D
17. The metamorphic structure produced by thermal metamorphism of argillaceous rocks, which is chracterized by spotted apperarnce due to the development of equi-dimensional minerals and porphyroblasts of andalusite, cordierite, biotite, chloritoid, etc.
A:-Maculose structure
B:-Gneissose structure
C:-Granulose structure
D:-Cataclastic structure
Ans: A
18. A helpful guide in geochemical prospecting in assessing the relative values of the various elements present and which tells about the amount of a particular element present in the parent rock not affected by dispersion or migration.
A:-Threshold value
B:-Anomalous value
C:-Background value
D:-Leakage value
Ans: C
19. The typical crystal form in Isometric system, which is bounded by 12 faces, each of which is a pentagon but with one edge longer than the other four similar edges.
A:-Trapezohedron
B:-Diploid
C:-Dodecahedron
D:-Pyritohedron
Ans: D
20. Under which category do the Radiolarian and Diatomaceous oozes come?
A:-Calcareous organic deposits
B:-Siliceous organic deposits
C:-Phosphatic organic deposits
D:-Carbonaceous organic deposits
Ans: B
21. The other name for non-spatial data in GIS
A:-Attribute data
B:-Vector data
C:-Raster data
D:-Geographic data
Ans: A
22. Which of the following environmental impacts of mining and quarrying has large scale effects on the hydrosphere?
A:-Land degradation
B:-Acid mine drainage
C:-Deforestation
D:-Air pollution
Ans: B
23. Which of the following descriptions is correct for a brachiopod shell?
A:-Inequilateral and unequal
B:-Equilateral and unequal
C:-Equilateral and equal
D:-Inequilateral and equal
Ans: B
24. The type mineral of Normal Class of Orthorhombic system
A:-Baryte
B:-Calcite
C:-Gypsum
D:-Beryl
Ans: A
25. Which of the following is the correct hierarchical order of increasing abundance of the most common elements
of the continental crust of the earth?
A:-Fe → Ca → Al → O → Si
B:-Al → O → Fe → Si → Ca
C:-Si → Al → Fe → Ca → O
D:-Ca → Fe → Al → Si → O
Ans: D
26. The elements having a strong affinity for silicates are called
A:-Chalcophile elements
B:-Lithophile elements
C:-Atmospheric elements
D:-Siderophile elements
Ans: B
27. The measures taken to reduce both the effect of natural hazards and to reduce the scale of intensity of a forthcoming disaster.
A:-Response
B:-Recovery
C:-Mitigation
D:-Preparedness
Ans: C
28. A sedimentary deposit that exhibits extraordinary fossil richness or completeness with exceptional preservation, sometimes including preserved soft tissues.
A:-Biozone
B:-Lagerstätte
C:-Hemera
D:-Epibole
Ans: B
29. The largest felsic volcanic province of India.
A:-Maleri Volcanic Suite
B:-Dras Volcanics
C:-Deccan Basalt Province
D:-Malani Igneous Suite
Ans: D
30. The chemical weathering process which is responsible for the conversion of potash feldspar (orthoclase) in the rocks to clay mineral and colloidal silica.
A:-Hydrolysis
B:-Hydration
C:-Oxidation
D:-Solution
Ans: A
31. The Kerala coast is described as a __________ coast, falling under the 'Terrigenous coast of primarily morphologic disequilibrium'.
A:-Dalmation
B:-Divergent
C:-Submergent
D:-Emergent
Ans: C
32. In the concept of Integrated Solid Waste Management (ISWM), which of the following comes at the top of the hierarchy?
A:-Disposal
B:-Reduction
C:-Reuse
D:-Recovery
Ans: B
33. Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?
A:-A perched aquifer is a special type of unconfined aquifer
B:-Confined aquifers are also known as pressure aquifers
C:-The water level in a well penetrating a confined aquifer defines the elevation of the piezometric surface at that point
D:-Pumping from a well in a leaky aquifer removes water by only horizontal flow within the aquifer
Ans: D
34. The system of geochronological dating that has been very valuable in studying the oldest components of the continental crust because of its survival through various alteration processes.
A:-Sm-Nd system
B:-Rb-Sr system
C:-K-Ar system
D:-U-Pb system
Ans: A
35. The typical texture exhibited by lamprophytes
A:-Rapakivi texture
B:-Panidiomorphic texture
C:-Ophitic texture
D:-Poikilitic texture
Ans: B
36. Which of the following is the correct sequence of Barrowian zones according to the increasing grade of metamorphism?
A:-Biotite zone → Garnet zone → Chlorite zone → Kyanite zone → Sillimanite zone → Staurolite zone
B:-Chlorite zone → Biotite zone → Sillimanite zone → Garnet zone → Staurolite zone → Kyanite zone
C:-Sillimanite zone → Chlorite zone → Biotite zone → Kyanite zone → Garnet zone → Staurolite zone
D:-Chlorite zone → Biotite zone → Garnet zone → Staurolite zone → Kyanite zone → Sillimanite zone
Ans: D
37. The mouth of most echinoids is provided with five hard teeth arranged in a circlet forming an apparatus known as ___________.
A:-Cranidium
B:-Escutcheon
C:-Aristotle's lantern
D:-Apical disc
Ans: C
38. The oldest gneiss in Western Dharwar craton is a suite of trondhjemitic gneisses with associated tonalities and granodiorites known as
A:-Gorur Gneiss
B:-Peninsular Gneiss
C:-Champion Gneiss
D:-Tirodi Gneiss
Ans: A
39. Match the following and choose the correct answer.
(1) Chevron fold (a) Concentric fold
(2) Box fold (b) Concertina fold
(3) Parallel fold (c) Nappe fold
(4) Recumbent fold (d) Coffer fold
A:-1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
B:-1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
C:-1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
D:-1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
Ans: D
40. The storage coefficient of storativity for an unconfined aquifer corresponds to its
A:-Hydraulic conductivity
B:-Specific retention
C:-Specific yield
D:-Transmissivity
Ans: C
41. The quality of groundwater samples falling in Area-7 of the diamond-shaped field of the Hill-Piper Trilinear diagram.
A:-Saline water
B:-Good water
C:-Relatively good water
D:-Hard water
Ans: A
42. The capacity of a remote sensor to discriminate two targets based on its reflectance/ emittance difference
A:-Spectral resolution
B:-Temporal resolution
C:-Radiometric resolution
D:-Spatial resolution
Ans: C
43. Which of the following is the correct order of precipitation of metallic sulphides according to increasing solubilities in the zone of supergene enrichment?
A:-Co, Pb, Ag, Cu, Zn
B:-Ag, Cu, Pb, Zn, Co
C:-Cu, Zn, Ag, Co, Pb
D:-Pb, Ag, Cu, Co, Zn
Ans: B
44. Which of the following mining methods is related to the recovery of metalliferous nodules or crust from the deep oceans?
A:-Breast stopping system
B:-Sluicing system
C:-Continuous line bucket system
D:-Drag line system
Ans: C
45. In the five major petroliferous basins of India, hydrocarbon entrapment is mainly in the classic reservoirs except the
A:-Cambay Basin
B:-Krishna-Godavari Basin
C:-Cauvery Basin
D:-Bombay Offshore Basin
Ans: D
46. Match the following and choose the correct answer.
Plant Indicators Element
(a) Ocimum centraliafricanum (1) Silver
(b) Eriogonum ovalifolium (2) Gold
(c) Viola calaminaria (3) Copper
(d) Equisetum avense (4) Zinc
A:-a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
B:-a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
C:-a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
D:-a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
Ans: D
47. The type of mass wasting confined to channels
A:-Mudflow
B:-Earthflow
C:-Solifluction
D:-Debris slide
Ans: A
48. Which of the following soils are the dominant soils of the humid temperate regions?
A:-Tundra soils
B:-Chernozems
C:-Laterite soils
D:-Podzols
Ans: D
49. The X-ray spectrometer used for the investigation of crystal structure was first developed by
A:-W.H. Bragg and W.L. Bragg
B:-Friedrich and Knipping
C:-Auguste Bravais
D:-Debye and Scherrer
Ans: A
50. A kind of metallic colour shown by non-metallic minerals like hypershenes in which a peculiar play of light appears when the minerals are examined so that their crystal faces or cleavage faces are at a particular angle to the incident illumination.
A:-Opalescence
B:-Iridescence
C:-Schillerization
D:-Phosphorescence
Ans: C
51. The type of remote sensing characteristic of the 0.1-100 cm wavelength band of the electromagnetic spectrum.
A:-Visible remote sensing
B:-Optical remote sensing
C:-Thermal Infra-red remote sensing
D:-Microwave remote sensing
Ans: D
52. The Milankovitch theory is related to which of the following stratigraphic techniques?
A:-Cyclostratigraphy
B:-Sequence stratigraphy
C:-Chemostratigraphy
D:-Magnetostratigraphy
Ans: A
53. Match the following and find the correct answer.
(a) Chitravati Group (1) Gulcheru Quartzite
(b) Kistna Group (2) Bairenkonda Quartzite
(c) Papaghni Group (3) Srisailam Quartzite
(d) Nallamalai Group (4) Banganapalle Quartzite
(e) Kurnool Group (5) Pulivendla Quartzite
A:-a-4, b-2, c-3, d-5, e-1
B:-a-5, b-3, c-2, d-4, e-1
C:-a-5, b-3, c-1, d-2, e-4
D:-a-3, b-5, c-2, d-1, e-4
Ans: C
54. Which of the following statement related to graptolites is correct?
A:-Order Graptoloidea were benthonic and Order Dendroidea were planktonic
B:-Only the planktonic graptolites are sufficiently numerous and widespread to have biostratigrahic value
C:-Graptolites are important index fossils for dating Mesozoic rocks
D:-Graptolite fossils are richest in rocks formed on the outer parts of continental slopes
Ans: B
55. Inequigranular alkali peridotites containing rounded and corroded phenocrysts of olivine, phlogopite, Mg-rich ilmenite and pyrope in a fine grained matrix of olivine, phlogopite, serpentine, perovskite, spinel, calcite and/or dolomite.
A:-Lherzolites
B:-Carbonatites
C:-Komatites
D:-Kimberlites
Ans: D
56. Sandstone with abundance of feldspar usually derived from the disintegration of granite
A:-Greywacke
B:-Arenite
C:-Arkose
D:-Ganister
Ans: C
57. Who among the following established the term 'Ordovician' for the geological period of Palaeozoic Era?
A:-Roderick Murchison
B:-Adam Sedgwick
C:-J.D. Dana
D:-Charles Lapworth
Ans: D
58. The famous Panna diamond field in India is situated in the country of rocks belonging to
A:-Kaimur Group
B:-Rewa Group
C:-Semri Group
D:-Bhander Group
Ans: B
59. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A:-RADAR is a type of passive remote sensing system
B:-Along-track scanner is also known as Push-broom scanner
C:-SPOT is the earth observation satellite launched by NASA
D:-The first operational earth observation remote sensing satellite of India is Aryabhatta
Ans: B
60. If groundwater is extracted at a rate exceeding the recharge in a groundwater basin, it will result in
A:-Mining yield
B:-Specific yield
C:-Safe yield
D:-Perennial yield
Ans: A
61. Which of the following water well construction methods is best suited for silt, sand, gravel less than 5 cm and
soft to hard consolidate rock formations?
A:-Rotary percussion method
B:-Reverse circulation rotary method
C:-Cable tool method
D:-Jetted well method
Ans: A
62. The type of ore dressing or mineral processing that refers to particle size reduction
A:-Sizing
B:-Concentration
C:-Dewatering
D:-Communition
Ans: D
63. A medium grained metamorphic rock consisting mainly of omphacite and pyrope
A:-Khondalite
B:-Eclogite
C:-Hornfels
D:-Amphibolite
Ans: B
64. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A:-Warkalli Beds : Palaeocene
B:-Niniyur Beds : Early Cretaceous
C:-Bagh Beds : Late Cretaceous
D:-Lameta Beds : Late Jurassic
Ans: C
65. The sediment filled troughs formed by normal faulting in the early stages of spreading of a Mid-Oceanic Ridge
A:-Sinks
B:-Triple junctions
C:-Aulacogens
D:-Arc-Trenches
Ans: C
66. One of the best methods for the accurate determination of the degree of hardness of minerals is by the use of an instrument called
A:-Pycnometer
B:-Sclerometer
C:-Pyrometer
D:-Lysimeter
Ans: B
67. The equivalents of Wayanad Group of rocks of Kerala stratigraphy in the Dharwar craton
A:-Chitradurga group
B:-Sargur group
C:-Bababudan group
D:-Peninsular Gneissic complex
Ans: B
68. Which of the following statements related to the Bowen's Reaction Series is CORRECT?
A:-Reactions between crystals and melt occur only during certain portions of the cooling sequence in the series
B:-The minerals that occur at the upper portions of the series are characteristic of granites
C:-The left branch of the series consist of a variety of mineral types that form a continuous reactions series
D:-The minerals that occur lower in the series crystallize at higher temperatures and are characteristic of basalts
Ans: A
69. In an unconfined coastal aquifer with a hydrostatic balance or equilibrium between fresh water and saline water under typical water conditions, the Ghyben-Herzberg relation shows that
A:-the elevation of the water table above MSL is 40 times the depth of freshwater-saline water interface below MSL
B:-the freshwater-saline water interface lies above MSL at a height of 40 times the elevation of water table above MSL
C:-the depth of the freshwater-saline water interface below MSL is equal to the elevation of water table above MSL
D:-the freshwater-saline water interface lies below MSL at a depth of 40 times the elevation of water table above MSL
Ans: D
70. Magnitude of covalent radii of elements does not depend upon -
A) Effective nuclear charge
B) Principle Quantum number
C) Spin Quantum number
D) Multiplicity of the bond between the atoms
Ans: C
71. What is the ratio of transverse strain to axial strain called?
A:-Poisson's ratio
B:-Bulk modulus
C:-Rigidity modulus
D:-Rheidity ratio
Ans: A
72. Petrofabric analysis of rocks involves the study of mostly __________ minerals.
A:-Isotropic
B:-Uniaxial
C:-Biaxial
D:-Tabular/Bladed
Ans: B
73. Which of the following systems of ranking of streams tells us that stream orders do not reflect any increments except approximate doubling of the discharge, assuming that streams of the same order in the same drainage basin are approximately equal in discharge?
A:-Horton' system
B:-Shreve's system
C:-Leopold's system
D:-Strahler's system
Ans: D
74. The stratigraphic succession that has provided the Markrana Marbles, the exellernt building stones used in the construction of the Taj Mahal at Agra.
A:-Aravalli Group
B:-Ajabgarh Group
C:-Raialo Group
D:-Gwalior Group
Ans: C
75. An ion displaced from a regular site to an interstitial site is called :
(A) Schottky imperfection (B) Frenkel imperfection (C) Dislocation (D) Twinning
Ans: B
76. In a phase diagram, alloy compositions to the left of the eutectic mixture are called :
(A) Hypereutectic alloys (B) Peritectic alloy (C) Eutectic alloy (D) Hypoeutectic alloy
Ans: D
77. Fe-C alloys with more than 2 % carbon are called :
(A) Cast irons (B) Alloy steels (C) High carbon steels (D) Stainless steels
Ans: A
78. A process in which steel is heated to a temperature above the critical point and quenched in oil or water is known as :
(A) Normalising (B) Annealing (C) Hardening (D) Tempering
Ans: C
79. The property of a material by which the material weakly magnetized in a direction opposite, to the external magnetic field :
(A) Paramagnetic (B) Diamagnetic
(C) Ferrimagnetic (D) Ferromagnetic
Ans: B
80. Which is the most suited material for the fabrication of boiler riser tubes?
(A) Alloy steel (B) Carbon steel
(C) Mild steel (D) High carbon steel
Ans: A
81. The critical temperature and pressure of steam are :
(A) 375°C, 225 bar (B) 323°C, 252 bar (C) 348°C, 184 bar (D) 409°C, 165 bar
Ans: A
82. The mechanical efficiency of a 60 kW engine is 80%. What is the mechanical efficiency at 50% of rated load, if the frictional power is assumed as constant with load?
(A) 66.7% (B) 76.7% (C) 50% (D) 80%
Ans: A
83. Simplex method of solving linear programming problems uses :
(A) All the points in the feasible region (B) Only the corner points of the feasible region
(C) Intermediate points within the non-feasible region (D) Interior points in the feasible region
Ans: D
84. A refrigerating machine working on Reversed Carnot Cycle takes 3 kW from a space with temperature 150 K. What is the power required to run the system in kW and the COP, if the heat is rejected at 300 K?
(A) 5,1 (B) 5,2 (C) 3.1 (D) 1,3
Ans: C
85. What is the specific humidity in kg/kg of dry air of the given air which is under a pressure of 100 kPa and with DBT 35°C, DPT 20°C and the corresponding saturation pressure 5 kPa and 2 kPa respectively?
(A) 0.0226 (B) 0.0216 (G) 0.0236 (D) 0.0126
Ans: D
86. In a room, the latent heat load and the sensible heat load are 50 kJ/sec and 30 kJ/sec respectively. Then the sensible heat factor is :
(A) 0.375 (B) 0.6 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.25
Ans: A
87. Which dimension less number has a significant role in forced convection?
(A) Prandtl number (B) Reynolds number (C) Peclet number (D) Mach number
Ans: B
88. What is the increase in energy radiated, when the surface temperature of the solid is doubled?
(A) 50% (B) 200% (C) 1600% (D) 2000%
Ans: C
89. The inlet and outlet temperatures of hot and cold fluid in a heat exchanger is 200, 170 and 40, 100 respectively. What is the capacity ratio of the heat exchanger?
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.5 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.3
Ans: A
90. Which of the following is not the inversion of a double slider crank mechanism?
(A) Scotch-yoke mechanism (B) Whitworth quick return mechanism (C) Elliptical trammel (D) Oldham’s coupling
Ans: B
91. The module of two numbers of 20° full depth involute profiled gears which are in mesh is 5. What is the centre distance between the gears, if the number of teeth are 20 and 40?
(A) 150 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 100
Ans: A
92. The linear velocity of a flat belt is 6 m/s. What is the power transmitted, if the tension on the tight and slack side are 1000 N and 500 N respectively?
(A) 9 kW (B) 5 kW (C) 3 kW (D) 6 Kw
Ans: C
93. The speed of an engine changes from 400 to 420 in a cycle. What is the coefficient of fluctuation of speed?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.048 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.041
Ans: B
94. What is the realiability of a system when its subsystems are put in series and having reliability 0.7, 0.6 and 0.9?
(A) 0.61 (B) 0.73 (C) 0.37 (D) 0.35
Ans: A
95. The number of masses rotating in different planes will be in dynamic balance if :
(A) Net force equal to zero (B) Resultant couple equal to zero
(C) Both force and resultant couple equal to zero (D) None of these
Ans: C
96. Which of the following is not a control chart used in statistical quality control?
(A) X-chart (B) P-chart (C) SIMO chart (D) R-chart
Ans: C
97. Filler material is used in :
(A) Spot welding (B) Seam welding (C) Gas welding (D) Projection welding
Ans: C
98. Spinning is a process comprising :
(A) Bending and drawing (B) Bending and rolling (C) Stretching and rolling (D) Bending and stretching
Ans: D
99. The best extrusion method for high-strength super alloys :
(A) Hydrostatic extrusion (B) Indirect extrusion (C) Direct extrusion (D) Impact extrusion
Ans: A
100. Discontinuous chips in metal cutting operations are produced in machining :
(A) Ductile material (B) Brittle material (C) Hand material (D) Soft material
Ans: B
A:-Visible remote sensing
B:-Optical remote sensing
C:-Thermal Infra-red remote sensing
D:-Microwave remote sensing
Ans: D
52. The Milankovitch theory is related to which of the following stratigraphic techniques?
A:-Cyclostratigraphy
B:-Sequence stratigraphy
C:-Chemostratigraphy
D:-Magnetostratigraphy
Ans: A
53. Match the following and find the correct answer.
(a) Chitravati Group (1) Gulcheru Quartzite
(b) Kistna Group (2) Bairenkonda Quartzite
(c) Papaghni Group (3) Srisailam Quartzite
(d) Nallamalai Group (4) Banganapalle Quartzite
(e) Kurnool Group (5) Pulivendla Quartzite
A:-a-4, b-2, c-3, d-5, e-1
B:-a-5, b-3, c-2, d-4, e-1
C:-a-5, b-3, c-1, d-2, e-4
D:-a-3, b-5, c-2, d-1, e-4
Ans: C
54. Which of the following statement related to graptolites is correct?
A:-Order Graptoloidea were benthonic and Order Dendroidea were planktonic
B:-Only the planktonic graptolites are sufficiently numerous and widespread to have biostratigrahic value
C:-Graptolites are important index fossils for dating Mesozoic rocks
D:-Graptolite fossils are richest in rocks formed on the outer parts of continental slopes
Ans: B
55. Inequigranular alkali peridotites containing rounded and corroded phenocrysts of olivine, phlogopite, Mg-rich ilmenite and pyrope in a fine grained matrix of olivine, phlogopite, serpentine, perovskite, spinel, calcite and/or dolomite.
A:-Lherzolites
B:-Carbonatites
C:-Komatites
D:-Kimberlites
Ans: D
56. Sandstone with abundance of feldspar usually derived from the disintegration of granite
A:-Greywacke
B:-Arenite
C:-Arkose
D:-Ganister
Ans: C
57. Who among the following established the term 'Ordovician' for the geological period of Palaeozoic Era?
A:-Roderick Murchison
B:-Adam Sedgwick
C:-J.D. Dana
D:-Charles Lapworth
Ans: D
58. The famous Panna diamond field in India is situated in the country of rocks belonging to
A:-Kaimur Group
B:-Rewa Group
C:-Semri Group
D:-Bhander Group
Ans: B
59. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A:-RADAR is a type of passive remote sensing system
B:-Along-track scanner is also known as Push-broom scanner
C:-SPOT is the earth observation satellite launched by NASA
D:-The first operational earth observation remote sensing satellite of India is Aryabhatta
Ans: B
60. If groundwater is extracted at a rate exceeding the recharge in a groundwater basin, it will result in
A:-Mining yield
B:-Specific yield
C:-Safe yield
D:-Perennial yield
Ans: A
61. Which of the following water well construction methods is best suited for silt, sand, gravel less than 5 cm and
soft to hard consolidate rock formations?
A:-Rotary percussion method
B:-Reverse circulation rotary method
C:-Cable tool method
D:-Jetted well method
Ans: A
62. The type of ore dressing or mineral processing that refers to particle size reduction
A:-Sizing
B:-Concentration
C:-Dewatering
D:-Communition
Ans: D
63. A medium grained metamorphic rock consisting mainly of omphacite and pyrope
A:-Khondalite
B:-Eclogite
C:-Hornfels
D:-Amphibolite
Ans: B
64. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A:-Warkalli Beds : Palaeocene
B:-Niniyur Beds : Early Cretaceous
C:-Bagh Beds : Late Cretaceous
D:-Lameta Beds : Late Jurassic
Ans: C
65. The sediment filled troughs formed by normal faulting in the early stages of spreading of a Mid-Oceanic Ridge
A:-Sinks
B:-Triple junctions
C:-Aulacogens
D:-Arc-Trenches
Ans: C
66. One of the best methods for the accurate determination of the degree of hardness of minerals is by the use of an instrument called
A:-Pycnometer
B:-Sclerometer
C:-Pyrometer
D:-Lysimeter
Ans: B
67. The equivalents of Wayanad Group of rocks of Kerala stratigraphy in the Dharwar craton
A:-Chitradurga group
B:-Sargur group
C:-Bababudan group
D:-Peninsular Gneissic complex
Ans: B
68. Which of the following statements related to the Bowen's Reaction Series is CORRECT?
A:-Reactions between crystals and melt occur only during certain portions of the cooling sequence in the series
B:-The minerals that occur at the upper portions of the series are characteristic of granites
C:-The left branch of the series consist of a variety of mineral types that form a continuous reactions series
D:-The minerals that occur lower in the series crystallize at higher temperatures and are characteristic of basalts
Ans: A
69. In an unconfined coastal aquifer with a hydrostatic balance or equilibrium between fresh water and saline water under typical water conditions, the Ghyben-Herzberg relation shows that
A:-the elevation of the water table above MSL is 40 times the depth of freshwater-saline water interface below MSL
B:-the freshwater-saline water interface lies above MSL at a height of 40 times the elevation of water table above MSL
C:-the depth of the freshwater-saline water interface below MSL is equal to the elevation of water table above MSL
D:-the freshwater-saline water interface lies below MSL at a depth of 40 times the elevation of water table above MSL
Ans: D
70. Magnitude of covalent radii of elements does not depend upon -
A) Effective nuclear charge
B) Principle Quantum number
C) Spin Quantum number
D) Multiplicity of the bond between the atoms
Ans: C
71. What is the ratio of transverse strain to axial strain called?
A:-Poisson's ratio
B:-Bulk modulus
C:-Rigidity modulus
D:-Rheidity ratio
Ans: A
72. Petrofabric analysis of rocks involves the study of mostly __________ minerals.
A:-Isotropic
B:-Uniaxial
C:-Biaxial
D:-Tabular/Bladed
Ans: B
73. Which of the following systems of ranking of streams tells us that stream orders do not reflect any increments except approximate doubling of the discharge, assuming that streams of the same order in the same drainage basin are approximately equal in discharge?
A:-Horton' system
B:-Shreve's system
C:-Leopold's system
D:-Strahler's system
Ans: D
74. The stratigraphic succession that has provided the Markrana Marbles, the exellernt building stones used in the construction of the Taj Mahal at Agra.
A:-Aravalli Group
B:-Ajabgarh Group
C:-Raialo Group
D:-Gwalior Group
Ans: C
75. An ion displaced from a regular site to an interstitial site is called :
(A) Schottky imperfection (B) Frenkel imperfection (C) Dislocation (D) Twinning
Ans: B
76. In a phase diagram, alloy compositions to the left of the eutectic mixture are called :
(A) Hypereutectic alloys (B) Peritectic alloy (C) Eutectic alloy (D) Hypoeutectic alloy
Ans: D
77. Fe-C alloys with more than 2 % carbon are called :
(A) Cast irons (B) Alloy steels (C) High carbon steels (D) Stainless steels
Ans: A
78. A process in which steel is heated to a temperature above the critical point and quenched in oil or water is known as :
(A) Normalising (B) Annealing (C) Hardening (D) Tempering
Ans: C
79. The property of a material by which the material weakly magnetized in a direction opposite, to the external magnetic field :
(A) Paramagnetic (B) Diamagnetic
(C) Ferrimagnetic (D) Ferromagnetic
Ans: B
80. Which is the most suited material for the fabrication of boiler riser tubes?
(A) Alloy steel (B) Carbon steel
(C) Mild steel (D) High carbon steel
Ans: A
81. The critical temperature and pressure of steam are :
(A) 375°C, 225 bar (B) 323°C, 252 bar (C) 348°C, 184 bar (D) 409°C, 165 bar
Ans: A
82. The mechanical efficiency of a 60 kW engine is 80%. What is the mechanical efficiency at 50% of rated load, if the frictional power is assumed as constant with load?
(A) 66.7% (B) 76.7% (C) 50% (D) 80%
Ans: A
83. Simplex method of solving linear programming problems uses :
(A) All the points in the feasible region (B) Only the corner points of the feasible region
(C) Intermediate points within the non-feasible region (D) Interior points in the feasible region
Ans: D
84. A refrigerating machine working on Reversed Carnot Cycle takes 3 kW from a space with temperature 150 K. What is the power required to run the system in kW and the COP, if the heat is rejected at 300 K?
(A) 5,1 (B) 5,2 (C) 3.1 (D) 1,3
Ans: C
85. What is the specific humidity in kg/kg of dry air of the given air which is under a pressure of 100 kPa and with DBT 35°C, DPT 20°C and the corresponding saturation pressure 5 kPa and 2 kPa respectively?
(A) 0.0226 (B) 0.0216 (G) 0.0236 (D) 0.0126
Ans: D
86. In a room, the latent heat load and the sensible heat load are 50 kJ/sec and 30 kJ/sec respectively. Then the sensible heat factor is :
(A) 0.375 (B) 0.6 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.25
Ans: A
87. Which dimension less number has a significant role in forced convection?
(A) Prandtl number (B) Reynolds number (C) Peclet number (D) Mach number
Ans: B
88. What is the increase in energy radiated, when the surface temperature of the solid is doubled?
(A) 50% (B) 200% (C) 1600% (D) 2000%
Ans: C
89. The inlet and outlet temperatures of hot and cold fluid in a heat exchanger is 200, 170 and 40, 100 respectively. What is the capacity ratio of the heat exchanger?
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.5 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.3
Ans: A
90. Which of the following is not the inversion of a double slider crank mechanism?
(A) Scotch-yoke mechanism (B) Whitworth quick return mechanism (C) Elliptical trammel (D) Oldham’s coupling
Ans: B
91. The module of two numbers of 20° full depth involute profiled gears which are in mesh is 5. What is the centre distance between the gears, if the number of teeth are 20 and 40?
(A) 150 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 100
Ans: A
92. The linear velocity of a flat belt is 6 m/s. What is the power transmitted, if the tension on the tight and slack side are 1000 N and 500 N respectively?
(A) 9 kW (B) 5 kW (C) 3 kW (D) 6 Kw
Ans: C
93. The speed of an engine changes from 400 to 420 in a cycle. What is the coefficient of fluctuation of speed?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.048 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.041
Ans: B
94. What is the realiability of a system when its subsystems are put in series and having reliability 0.7, 0.6 and 0.9?
(A) 0.61 (B) 0.73 (C) 0.37 (D) 0.35
Ans: A
95. The number of masses rotating in different planes will be in dynamic balance if :
(A) Net force equal to zero (B) Resultant couple equal to zero
(C) Both force and resultant couple equal to zero (D) None of these
Ans: C
96. Which of the following is not a control chart used in statistical quality control?
(A) X-chart (B) P-chart (C) SIMO chart (D) R-chart
Ans: C
97. Filler material is used in :
(A) Spot welding (B) Seam welding (C) Gas welding (D) Projection welding
Ans: C
98. Spinning is a process comprising :
(A) Bending and drawing (B) Bending and rolling (C) Stretching and rolling (D) Bending and stretching
Ans: D
99. The best extrusion method for high-strength super alloys :
(A) Hydrostatic extrusion (B) Indirect extrusion (C) Direct extrusion (D) Impact extrusion
Ans: A
100. Discontinuous chips in metal cutting operations are produced in machining :
(A) Ductile material (B) Brittle material (C) Hand material (D) Soft material
Ans: B