GENERAL STUDIES- INDIA PAGE 49
1. Which writ among the following is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform, which can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose?
(A) Certiorari (B) Mandamus (C) Quo-Warranto (D) Habeas Corpus
Ans: B
2. Considering the powers of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the Indian Parliament which of the following statement is NOT correct?
(A) A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants
(C) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in the introduction and passage of ordinary Bills
(D) Only Lok Sabha has power in the introduction and passage of financial Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Ans: D
3. Who among the following called Indian Federalism a "co-operative federalism"?
(A) K.C. Wheare (B) Morris Jones (C) Granville Austin (D) Ivor Jennings
Ans: C
4. Which one among the following statement is NOT correct about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(A) Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India's salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament.
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India advises the President with regard to prescription of the form in which the accounts of the Centre and the States shall be kept.
Ans: A
5. 'Per incurium' judgement means:
(A) judgement stands as a valid precedent (B) partially allowed decision
(C) having no bindingness in subsequent decisions (D) rebuttable judgement.
Ans: C
6. “By and large land reforms in India enacted so far and those contemplated in the near future ... are in the right direction; and yet due to lack of implementation the actual results are far from satisfactory”. This is the view of :
(A) B.S. Sidhu (B) M.L. Dantwala (C) Venkatasubbiah (D) V.S. Vyas
Ans: B
7. State the correct answer. A unique objective of the Eighth Plan is :
(A) Achieving self-sufficiency in food-production.
(B) Universalization of elementary education and thereby eradicating illiteracy in the age group of 15 to 35 years.
(C) Achieving a growth rate of 2.4% p.a.
(D) Export promotion and solving foreign exchange problem.
Ans: B
8. Right to life does not include right to die. It was held in which of the following case? (A) R. Rathiram V. UOJ (B) D.K. Basu V. State of W.B. (C) Giankaur V. State of Punjab (D) Kerala PSC V. Dr. Kanjamma Alex
Ans: C
9. In which of the following Industrial policies were the major changes introduced ?
(i) Liberalisation of licensed capacity.
(ii) Relaxation of industrial licensing.
(iii) Industrialisation of backward areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Industrial policy resolution, 1956.
(B) Industrial policy statement, 1977.
(C) Industrial policy of 1980.
(D) Industrial policy of 1991.
Ans: D
10. Which of the following could be said to have prevented the ‘trickle down’ effects in Indian economy ? (i) Increased dependence of agriculture on purchased inputs and privately managed irrigation. (ii) More employment of labour by larger landholding farmers. (iii) Lowered participation of women in agricultural workforce due to new technology. (iv) The failure of the Green Revolution.
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: A
11. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, recognizes the right against self incrimination? (A) Art 20 (1) (B) Art 20 (2) (C) Art 20 (3) (D) Art 20
Ans: C
12. In the event of the death or resignation of President, Vice-President discharges the duties of the office of President : (A) For a maximum period of six months (B) For a maximum period of one year (C) For a maximum period of eight months (D) For the rest of the term
Ans: A
13. The second national commission on labour was set-up on 15th October, 1999 under the chairmanship of Ravindra Verma and the report was submitted on 29th June, 2002. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the report ? (A) Prior permission is necessary before lay off or retrenchment. (B) ‘Go slow’ and ‘work to rule’ steps taken by trade unions should be considered misconduct. (C) Organization should set-up a grievance redressal committee for organisations employing 50 or more. (D) To check multiplicity of trade unions.
Ans: C
14. Consider the following statements. The knife-edge problem in the Harrod-Domar growth model implies a constant (i) Rate of population growth (ii) Output (iii) Rate of saving (iv) Capital-output ratio Of the statements : (A) (iv) alone is correct (B) (i) and (ii) are correct (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: D
15. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to science and technology ?
(i) Today’s science is tomorrow’s technology.
(ii) The border between science and technology is well defined today.
(iii) S & T developments of social/economic relevance are potential innovations.
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: C
16. Which of the following indicates the best system of public health in India ?
(i) National Health Mission (ii) Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(iii) Primary Health Centers, Community Health Centers and Government Hospitals
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
17. The following refers to a recent development in technology. “It makes it possible to easily alter DNA sequences and modify Gene function. It can therefore correct genetic defects and improve crops, but with associated ethical problems.” Which of the following is the recent development referred to above ?
(A) DNA Bar-coding (B) CRISPR (C) P53 (D) Terminator
Ans: B
18. A famous book titled ‘10% Human’ argues that human cells are just 10% of body. The rest 90% cells are now considered key to our health. These 90% cells are mainly :
(A) Cells with Junk DNA (B) Cells of Gut microbes (C) Cells with CRISPR modified DNA (D) Stem Cells
Ans: B
19. Nehru’s vision of S & T resulted in development of IITs and CSIR laboratories. Even though innovations from academic system in India may be very modest, CSIR laboratories with 38 National Laboratories and 4600 Scientists and 8000 S & T personal have impressive output. Which of the following are products from CSIR ?
(i) Saheli (female oral contraceptive) (ii) Sree Chithra Heart Valve
(iii) Indelible ink applied on forefingers to mark voters in elections (iv) Coconut de-husking device
(A) (i) and (iii) only (B) (i) only
(C) (iii) only (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
20. Consider the following statements in the context of Artificial Intelligence.
(i) Perceptron specifies all actions that need to be undertaken and specifies the order only when required.
(ii) Inductive machine learning derives the conclusion and then improves it based on the previous decisions.
(iii) Training scenario and feedback does not affect the performance of learner system.
(iv) Pattern matching allows computers to understand associations and relationships between objects and events.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (i) and (ii) (C) Only (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (iv)
Ans: D
21. With reference to the Information and Communication Technology (ICT), consider the following statements.
(i) The data related to various kinds of information with more precision and accuracy has been provided by ICT.
(ii) Through ICT, it is possible to identify the critical areas for competitive advantages in corporate sectors.
(iii) ICT products affect the process of environmental footprint of other products and activities across the economy.
(iv) The manufacturing system facilitated by ICT is energy intensive, standardized as well as departmentalized.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
(A) All the above (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Ans: B
22. Consider the following statements in the context of session hijacking.
(i) It is compromising a user’s session to exploit their data and perform malicious activities or misusing their credentials.
(ii) The most common method of session hijacking is IP spoofing where the attacker acts as one of the authenticated users.
(iii) Session hijacking can be prevented by using packet sniffers and cross site scripting.
(iv) To protect the network with session hijacking, the defender has to implement security measures at Application as well as Network level.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
(A) All the above (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (D) (i) and (ii) only
Ans: C
23. Which one of the following schemes, deals with the generation of Digital Life Certificates ?
(A) TIDE 2.0 Scheme (B) MyGov (C) Open Government Data Platform India (D) Jeevan Pramaan
Ans: D
24. Which one of the following has been launched by the Central Government for providing softwares for the detection of malicious programs and free tools to remove these programs ?
(A) National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit (B) Cyber Swachhta Kendra
(C) National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (D) Platform for Joint Cybercrime Investigation Team
Ans: B
25. “Consistent availability of sufficient energy in various forms at affordable prices” is the definition of : (A) Energy management (B) Energy policy (C) Energy security (D) Energy conservation
Ans: C
26. With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’ which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) It is an initiative hosted by UNEP/IMF and World Economic Forum. (ii) It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity. (iii) It presents an approach that can help decision makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystem and biodiversity. Select the correct answer : (A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (iii) only (C) (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: C
27. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification. (ii) The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only. (iii) The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only (C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: C
28. Assertion (A) : Biosphere constitutes an excellent life-support system which is sustainable and can fulfil all human needs. Reason (R) : The size and productivity of the biosphere is limited by availability of water, nutrients and environmental conditions. Identify the correct code : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
29. Which is the first industry using plasma technology for the disposal of hazardous waste for the conservation of the environment and natural resources ?
(A) Madras Rubber Factory (MRF)
(B) Madras Fertilizers Limited (MFL)
(C) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
(D) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
Ans: D
30. Radioactive waste management in our country is governed under : (A) Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Trans-boundary Movement) (B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (D) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
Ans: C
31. Consider the following statements : (i) Minimum support price is announced by the State governments. (ii) Minimum support price is announced well before sowing. (iii) Minimum support price is announced at the time of harvest. (iv) Minimum support price is announced by the Central government. Of the statements : (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (C) (i) and (ii) are correct (D) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: D
32. Which constitutional amendment is done to pass the GST bill ?
(A) 101st (B) 120th (C) 122nd (D) 115th
Ans: A
33. Which of the following statement is\are correct about the NITI Aayog ?
(i) The aim of NITI Aayog is to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism in the country.
(ii) The Prime Minister of India is the ex officio Chairperson of the NITI Aayog.
(iii) There are 8 full time members in the NITI Aayog.
(A) Only (ii) and (iii) (B) Only
(ii) (C) Only (i) (D) Only (i) and (ii)
Ans: D
34. Consider the following schemes and its beneficiaries. Schemes Beneficiaries
(i) Swapna Saphalyam NRKs (ii) Santhwana Women (iii) Insight Projects PWDs (iv) Aswasakiranam Endosulfan victims
Which is/are not correctly matched ?
(A) (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
Ans: C
35. Which Article of Indian Constitution envisages “equal pay for equal work for men and women” ?
(A) Clause (a) of Article 39
(B) Clause (d) of Article 39
(C) Clause (1) of Article 38
(D) Clause (2) of Article 38
Ans: B
36. In which year Government of India enacted “Juvenile Justice” [Care and Protection of children] Act ?
(A) 2000 (B) 1998
(C) 2001 (D) 1999
Ans: A
37. The Article 368 of Indian Constitution contains the procedure to be followed to __________.
(A) Amend the Constitution
(B) Appoint the President
(C) Establish an Election Commission
(D) Formation of new states
Ans: A
38. Which right was remarked by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘‘Heart and Soul of the Constitution’’? (A) Right to freedom of speech and expression (B) Right to religion (C) Right to education (D) Right to constitutional remedies
Ans: D
39. Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry is a directive principle mentioned in : (A) Art : 50 (B) Art : 46 (C) Art : 48 (D) Art : 49
Ans: C
40. The Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was inserted in the constitution by : (A) The Constitution 52nd Amendment Act 1985 (B) The Constitution 42nd Amendment Act 1976 (C) The Constitution 44th Amendment Act 1978 (D) None of the above. It was originally framed in the constitution
Ans: A
41. ‘Right to livelihood’ is an integral facet of : (A) Right to assemble (B) Right to equality (C) Right to life and personal liberty (D) None of the above
Ans: C
42. Article which empowers the Government of India to borrow : (A) Art : 294 (B) Art : 295 (C) Art : 292 (D) Art : 291
Ans: C
43. Protection of Human Rights Act came into force in India on : (A) 18.9.1992 (B) 17.9.1992 (C) 16.9.1992 (D) 28.9.1993
Ans: D
44. How many Articles are there is the UN Charter? (A) 130 (B) 119 (C) 111 (D) 112
Ans: C
45. The International Bill of Human Rights consists of : (A) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (B) The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (C) The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (D) All of the above
Ans: D
46. The maximum amount of bonus to be paid in an accounting year as per Sec. 10 of the Bonus Act is : (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 20% (D) 8.33%
Ans: C
47. As per the Bonus Act, what is the minimum number of days an employee must have worked in an establishment to be eligible for bonus? (A) 180 working days (B) 366 working days (C) 240 working days (D) 30 working days
Ans: D
48. A person is eligible to receive gratuity under : (A) has completed minimum of 5 years of service (B) he has completed minimum of 3 years of service (C) he has completed minimum of 4 years of service (D) he has completed minimum of 1 year of service
Ans: A
49. How many times has the preamble to the Constitution of India amended? (A) Thrice (B) Once (C) Twice (D) Never
Ans: B
50. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘doctrine of pleasure’? (A) Art : 310 (B) Art : 311 (C) Art : 312 (D) Art : 309
Ans: A
(A) Certiorari (B) Mandamus (C) Quo-Warranto (D) Habeas Corpus
Ans: B
2. Considering the powers of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the Indian Parliament which of the following statement is NOT correct?
(A) A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants
(C) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in the introduction and passage of ordinary Bills
(D) Only Lok Sabha has power in the introduction and passage of financial Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Ans: D
3. Who among the following called Indian Federalism a "co-operative federalism"?
(A) K.C. Wheare (B) Morris Jones (C) Granville Austin (D) Ivor Jennings
Ans: C
4. Which one among the following statement is NOT correct about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(A) Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India's salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament.
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India advises the President with regard to prescription of the form in which the accounts of the Centre and the States shall be kept.
Ans: A
5. 'Per incurium' judgement means:
(A) judgement stands as a valid precedent (B) partially allowed decision
(C) having no bindingness in subsequent decisions (D) rebuttable judgement.
Ans: C
6. “By and large land reforms in India enacted so far and those contemplated in the near future ... are in the right direction; and yet due to lack of implementation the actual results are far from satisfactory”. This is the view of :
(A) B.S. Sidhu (B) M.L. Dantwala (C) Venkatasubbiah (D) V.S. Vyas
Ans: B
7. State the correct answer. A unique objective of the Eighth Plan is :
(A) Achieving self-sufficiency in food-production.
(B) Universalization of elementary education and thereby eradicating illiteracy in the age group of 15 to 35 years.
(C) Achieving a growth rate of 2.4% p.a.
(D) Export promotion and solving foreign exchange problem.
Ans: B
8. Right to life does not include right to die. It was held in which of the following case? (A) R. Rathiram V. UOJ (B) D.K. Basu V. State of W.B. (C) Giankaur V. State of Punjab (D) Kerala PSC V. Dr. Kanjamma Alex
Ans: C
9. In which of the following Industrial policies were the major changes introduced ?
(i) Liberalisation of licensed capacity.
(ii) Relaxation of industrial licensing.
(iii) Industrialisation of backward areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Industrial policy resolution, 1956.
(B) Industrial policy statement, 1977.
(C) Industrial policy of 1980.
(D) Industrial policy of 1991.
Ans: D
10. Which of the following could be said to have prevented the ‘trickle down’ effects in Indian economy ? (i) Increased dependence of agriculture on purchased inputs and privately managed irrigation. (ii) More employment of labour by larger landholding farmers. (iii) Lowered participation of women in agricultural workforce due to new technology. (iv) The failure of the Green Revolution.
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: A
11. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, recognizes the right against self incrimination? (A) Art 20 (1) (B) Art 20 (2) (C) Art 20 (3) (D) Art 20
Ans: C
12. In the event of the death or resignation of President, Vice-President discharges the duties of the office of President : (A) For a maximum period of six months (B) For a maximum period of one year (C) For a maximum period of eight months (D) For the rest of the term
Ans: A
13. The second national commission on labour was set-up on 15th October, 1999 under the chairmanship of Ravindra Verma and the report was submitted on 29th June, 2002. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the report ? (A) Prior permission is necessary before lay off or retrenchment. (B) ‘Go slow’ and ‘work to rule’ steps taken by trade unions should be considered misconduct. (C) Organization should set-up a grievance redressal committee for organisations employing 50 or more. (D) To check multiplicity of trade unions.
Ans: C
14. Consider the following statements. The knife-edge problem in the Harrod-Domar growth model implies a constant (i) Rate of population growth (ii) Output (iii) Rate of saving (iv) Capital-output ratio Of the statements : (A) (iv) alone is correct (B) (i) and (ii) are correct (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: D
15. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to science and technology ?
(i) Today’s science is tomorrow’s technology.
(ii) The border between science and technology is well defined today.
(iii) S & T developments of social/economic relevance are potential innovations.
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: C
16. Which of the following indicates the best system of public health in India ?
(i) National Health Mission (ii) Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(iii) Primary Health Centers, Community Health Centers and Government Hospitals
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
17. The following refers to a recent development in technology. “It makes it possible to easily alter DNA sequences and modify Gene function. It can therefore correct genetic defects and improve crops, but with associated ethical problems.” Which of the following is the recent development referred to above ?
(A) DNA Bar-coding (B) CRISPR (C) P53 (D) Terminator
Ans: B
18. A famous book titled ‘10% Human’ argues that human cells are just 10% of body. The rest 90% cells are now considered key to our health. These 90% cells are mainly :
(A) Cells with Junk DNA (B) Cells of Gut microbes (C) Cells with CRISPR modified DNA (D) Stem Cells
Ans: B
19. Nehru’s vision of S & T resulted in development of IITs and CSIR laboratories. Even though innovations from academic system in India may be very modest, CSIR laboratories with 38 National Laboratories and 4600 Scientists and 8000 S & T personal have impressive output. Which of the following are products from CSIR ?
(i) Saheli (female oral contraceptive) (ii) Sree Chithra Heart Valve
(iii) Indelible ink applied on forefingers to mark voters in elections (iv) Coconut de-husking device
(A) (i) and (iii) only (B) (i) only
(C) (iii) only (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
20. Consider the following statements in the context of Artificial Intelligence.
(i) Perceptron specifies all actions that need to be undertaken and specifies the order only when required.
(ii) Inductive machine learning derives the conclusion and then improves it based on the previous decisions.
(iii) Training scenario and feedback does not affect the performance of learner system.
(iv) Pattern matching allows computers to understand associations and relationships between objects and events.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (i) and (ii) (C) Only (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (iv)
Ans: D
21. With reference to the Information and Communication Technology (ICT), consider the following statements.
(i) The data related to various kinds of information with more precision and accuracy has been provided by ICT.
(ii) Through ICT, it is possible to identify the critical areas for competitive advantages in corporate sectors.
(iii) ICT products affect the process of environmental footprint of other products and activities across the economy.
(iv) The manufacturing system facilitated by ICT is energy intensive, standardized as well as departmentalized.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
(A) All the above (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Ans: B
22. Consider the following statements in the context of session hijacking.
(i) It is compromising a user’s session to exploit their data and perform malicious activities or misusing their credentials.
(ii) The most common method of session hijacking is IP spoofing where the attacker acts as one of the authenticated users.
(iii) Session hijacking can be prevented by using packet sniffers and cross site scripting.
(iv) To protect the network with session hijacking, the defender has to implement security measures at Application as well as Network level.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
(A) All the above (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (D) (i) and (ii) only
Ans: C
23. Which one of the following schemes, deals with the generation of Digital Life Certificates ?
(A) TIDE 2.0 Scheme (B) MyGov (C) Open Government Data Platform India (D) Jeevan Pramaan
Ans: D
24. Which one of the following has been launched by the Central Government for providing softwares for the detection of malicious programs and free tools to remove these programs ?
(A) National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit (B) Cyber Swachhta Kendra
(C) National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (D) Platform for Joint Cybercrime Investigation Team
Ans: B
25. “Consistent availability of sufficient energy in various forms at affordable prices” is the definition of : (A) Energy management (B) Energy policy (C) Energy security (D) Energy conservation
Ans: C
26. With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’ which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) It is an initiative hosted by UNEP/IMF and World Economic Forum. (ii) It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity. (iii) It presents an approach that can help decision makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystem and biodiversity. Select the correct answer : (A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (iii) only (C) (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: C
27. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification. (ii) The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only. (iii) The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only (C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: C
28. Assertion (A) : Biosphere constitutes an excellent life-support system which is sustainable and can fulfil all human needs. Reason (R) : The size and productivity of the biosphere is limited by availability of water, nutrients and environmental conditions. Identify the correct code : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
29. Which is the first industry using plasma technology for the disposal of hazardous waste for the conservation of the environment and natural resources ?
(A) Madras Rubber Factory (MRF)
(B) Madras Fertilizers Limited (MFL)
(C) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
(D) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
Ans: D
30. Radioactive waste management in our country is governed under : (A) Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Trans-boundary Movement) (B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (D) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
Ans: C
31. Consider the following statements : (i) Minimum support price is announced by the State governments. (ii) Minimum support price is announced well before sowing. (iii) Minimum support price is announced at the time of harvest. (iv) Minimum support price is announced by the Central government. Of the statements : (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (C) (i) and (ii) are correct (D) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: D
32. Which constitutional amendment is done to pass the GST bill ?
(A) 101st (B) 120th (C) 122nd (D) 115th
Ans: A
33. Which of the following statement is\are correct about the NITI Aayog ?
(i) The aim of NITI Aayog is to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism in the country.
(ii) The Prime Minister of India is the ex officio Chairperson of the NITI Aayog.
(iii) There are 8 full time members in the NITI Aayog.
(A) Only (ii) and (iii) (B) Only
(ii) (C) Only (i) (D) Only (i) and (ii)
Ans: D
34. Consider the following schemes and its beneficiaries. Schemes Beneficiaries
(i) Swapna Saphalyam NRKs (ii) Santhwana Women (iii) Insight Projects PWDs (iv) Aswasakiranam Endosulfan victims
Which is/are not correctly matched ?
(A) (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
Ans: C
35. Which Article of Indian Constitution envisages “equal pay for equal work for men and women” ?
(A) Clause (a) of Article 39
(B) Clause (d) of Article 39
(C) Clause (1) of Article 38
(D) Clause (2) of Article 38
Ans: B
36. In which year Government of India enacted “Juvenile Justice” [Care and Protection of children] Act ?
(A) 2000 (B) 1998
(C) 2001 (D) 1999
Ans: A
37. The Article 368 of Indian Constitution contains the procedure to be followed to __________.
(A) Amend the Constitution
(B) Appoint the President
(C) Establish an Election Commission
(D) Formation of new states
Ans: A
38. Which right was remarked by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘‘Heart and Soul of the Constitution’’? (A) Right to freedom of speech and expression (B) Right to religion (C) Right to education (D) Right to constitutional remedies
Ans: D
39. Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry is a directive principle mentioned in : (A) Art : 50 (B) Art : 46 (C) Art : 48 (D) Art : 49
Ans: C
40. The Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was inserted in the constitution by : (A) The Constitution 52nd Amendment Act 1985 (B) The Constitution 42nd Amendment Act 1976 (C) The Constitution 44th Amendment Act 1978 (D) None of the above. It was originally framed in the constitution
Ans: A
41. ‘Right to livelihood’ is an integral facet of : (A) Right to assemble (B) Right to equality (C) Right to life and personal liberty (D) None of the above
Ans: C
42. Article which empowers the Government of India to borrow : (A) Art : 294 (B) Art : 295 (C) Art : 292 (D) Art : 291
Ans: C
43. Protection of Human Rights Act came into force in India on : (A) 18.9.1992 (B) 17.9.1992 (C) 16.9.1992 (D) 28.9.1993
Ans: D
44. How many Articles are there is the UN Charter? (A) 130 (B) 119 (C) 111 (D) 112
Ans: C
45. The International Bill of Human Rights consists of : (A) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (B) The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (C) The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (D) All of the above
Ans: D
46. The maximum amount of bonus to be paid in an accounting year as per Sec. 10 of the Bonus Act is : (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 20% (D) 8.33%
Ans: C
47. As per the Bonus Act, what is the minimum number of days an employee must have worked in an establishment to be eligible for bonus? (A) 180 working days (B) 366 working days (C) 240 working days (D) 30 working days
Ans: D
48. A person is eligible to receive gratuity under : (A) has completed minimum of 5 years of service (B) he has completed minimum of 3 years of service (C) he has completed minimum of 4 years of service (D) he has completed minimum of 1 year of service
Ans: A
49. How many times has the preamble to the Constitution of India amended? (A) Thrice (B) Once (C) Twice (D) Never
Ans: B
50. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘doctrine of pleasure’? (A) Art : 310 (B) Art : 311 (C) Art : 312 (D) Art : 309
Ans: A
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