AYURVEDA- AGADATANTRA AND VIDHI VAIDAK
AYURVEDA- AGADATANTRA AND VIDHI VAIDAK MCQs
1. In Unmadagajankush rasa, which of the following Visha is present: (A) Bhanga (B) Dhatura (C) Gunja (D) Ahiphena
2. What is the specific antidote of Vatsnabha poisoning : (A) Narikela jala (B) Aadraka swarasa (C) Tankana Bhasam (D) Shunthi
3. As per Rasa tarangini, which of the following should be used for the shodhan of ‘Visha-dosha’ of Parad (Mercury) : (A) Trikatu churna (B) Gokshura churna (C) Dhatura churna (D) Trifla churna
4. Shodhan of Tamra (Copper) is performed with: (A) Changari patra swarasa (B) Narikela jala (C) Godugdha (D) All of the above
5. Sanjivani vati consists of following Visha: (A) Kuchala (B) Bhallatak (C) Gunja (D) None of the above
6. Navjivan rasa consists of following Visha: (A) Kuchala (B) Bhallatak (C) Gunja (D) Vatsnabha
7. Abrasion collar seen in (A) Head injury (B) Bullet injury (C) Stab injury (D) Road traffic accidents
8. Paraffin test is performed to detect the residue of (A) Projectile (B) Primer (C) Wads (D) Gun powder
9. Grievous injury comes under which section of IPC (A) 302 (B) 320 (C) 304-A (D) 304-B
10. It is a type of sexual offence, making obscene phone calls: (A) Toucherism (B) Gerontophillia (C) Scatologia (D) None
11. Before origin of Amrut, which Agad was formulated by Lord Brahma. (A) Mrut sanjivan Agad (B) Kshaaragad (C) Gandh hastinamagad (D) None was formulated.
12. When abrasion starts healing (A) 12-24hrs (B) 2-4 days (C) 4-7 days (D) 10 days
13. The approximate age of scar can be estimated from its ageing process between(A) 12-24 hrs (B) 1 week- 1month (C) 1month- 2month (D) 2weeks- 2months
14. Imprisonment for voluntarily causing simple hurt by dangerous weapons (A) 1year (B) 2year (C) 3year (D) 7year
15. Imprisonment for Sec. 331 IPC : (A) 1 year (B) 5 year (C) 7 year (D) 10 year
16. A child presented by a woman to have been delivered by her, though she had not delivered the child is a : (A) Legitimate child (B) Illegitimate child (C) Supposititious child (D) Posthumous child
17. Stone baby is (A) Identical twins (B) Atavism (C) Posthumous (D) Lithopedion
18. Order in Lochia (A) Serosa, rubra, alba (B) Rubra, serosa, alba (C) Alba, rubra, serosa (D) Rubra, alba, serosa
19. The bleeding is maximum in (A) Lacerated wound (B) Incised wound (C) Contusion (D) Abrasion
20. Spalding’s sign is (A) Gas in Aorta (B) Reddening of skin of foetus (C) Loss of alignment of skull bone (D) Air bubbles in liquor
21. Osiander’s sign in pregnancy present at: (A) 5th week (B) 6th week (C) 7th week (D) 8th week
22. At the time of pregnancy uterine contraction detected by: (A) Hegar’sign (B) Ballottement (C) Good well’s sign (D) Braxton-Hick’ sign
23. Under which Section, high court has the power to postponed the execution of death sentence until 6thmonth after delivery of a woman : (A) 366 IPC (B) 416 Cr.P.C. (C) 498-A IPC (D) None
24. In a normal pregnancy, maternal HCG level is maximum at gestational age of : (A) 8-10 wks (B) 12-14 wks (C) 16-18 wks (D) After 20 wks
25. Sign of live birth is; (A) Braxton-Hick’ sign (B) Lochia (C) Posthumous birth (D) None
26. The child born after the death of his father is called : (A) Legitimate child (B) Illegitimate child (C) Suppositious child (D) Posthumous child
27. An abortifacient drug that causes increased menstrual flow is called as: (A) Ecbolic (B) Emmenagogue (C) Irritant (D) Luminariatent
28. Under section 313, if miscarriage is caused without the consent of woman, the imprisonment would be up to : (A) 7 yrs (B) For life (C) 5 yrs (D) 10 yrs
29. Sodomy is punishable under : (A) Sec 354IPC (B) Sec 377 IPC (C) Sec 375IPC (D) Sec 378IPC
30. Ergot is used for (A) Increasing menstrual flow (B) To produce uterine contraction (C) To produce congestion (D) None
31. Lesbianism is also called as (A) Tribadism (B) Sodomy (C) Eonism (D) Onanism
32. Lendrum’s stain is done for : (A) Pulmonary embolism (B) Air embolism (C) Fat embolism (D) Amniotic fluid embolism
33. For medical termination of pregnancy of adult lady, consent is required from : (A) Husband (B) Concern lady (C) Both A & B (D) Guardian
34. MTP Act was introduced in: (A) 1961 (B) 1974 (C) 1971 (D) 1975
35. Disclosure of identity of rape victim is protected under which of the following section of IPC: (A) 298-A (B) 228-A (C) 226-A (D) 225-A
36. Which of the following test is done for detecting vaginal cells from the accused in a case of rape: (A) Lugol’s iodine test (B) Precipitin test (C) Acro-reactive test (D) Berberio’s test
37. Penile buccal coitus is (A) Masochism (B) Fellatio (C) Sadism (D) Fetichism
38. The disease predominantly affects adolescent male is : (A) Van Gogh syndrome (B) Kline livin syndrome (C) Sleeping beauty syndrome (D) B&C
39. A trial of person of unsound mind can be postponed under Cr.P.C. Section : (A) 84 (B) 88 (C) 328 (D) 331
40. Sexual asphyxia is : (A) Homicidal death (B) Suicidal death (C) Accidental death (D) Natural death
41. The feminine impotence is : (A) Rigidity (B) Frigidity (C) Sterility (D) Nymphomania
42. In Atavism the child will have the features of (A) Parents (B) Uncle & aunty (C) Grand parents (D) Does not resemble any one
43. Quoad hoc means : (A) Male who is impotent with a particular female (B) Premature ejaculation (C) Permanent impotency (D) Excessive sexual desire
44. Erectile dysfunction caused by (A) Abrus (B) Strychnine (C) Cannabis (D) Dhatura
45. A female may become sterile with occupational exposure to: (A) Mercury (B) Lead (C) Aluminium (D) Asbestos
46. Abortions are common during: (A) 1 st trimester (B) 2nd trimester (C) 3 rd trimester (D) 4 th trimester
47. Rule of Hasse is used to determine: (A) Age of foetus (B) Race of a person (C) Height of an adult (D) Identification
48. The effect of Sea water drowning: (A) Hemodilution (B) Haemoconcentration (C) Hypokalamia (D) None of the above
49. Minimum age to give consent for organ donation is: (A) 12 yrs (B) 16 yrs (C) 18 yrs (D) 21 yrs
50. Imprisonment to a doctor for commercial dealing in human organs according to Organ Transplantion Act.: (A) 2 yrs (B) 5 yrs (C) 7 yrs (D) 2-7 yrs
51. Transplantation of Human Organ Act, was passed in: (A) 1994 (B) 1996 (C) 2000 (D) 2002
52. When the cause of death could not be found even after gross and microscopic examination, toxicological analysis, histo-pathological examination and microbiological investigations, then autopsy is called as : (A) Obscure Autopsy (B) Negative Autopsy (C) Virtual Autopsy (D) Pathological Autopsy
53. Instrument used to cut intestine in Autopsy: (A) Mayo scissors (B) Enterotome (C) Costotome (D) Curved scissor
54. Pyrogallol test is used to detect: (A) Antemortum test (B) Antemortum injury (C) Air embolism (D) Seminal stain
55. A patient was admitted for cataract surgery. The doctor operated in the wrong eye. This is an example of : (A) Novus Act us interveniens (B) Medical malo ccurence (C) Res Ipsa Loquitur (D) Therapeutic misadventure
56. Declaration of Oslo is related to which among the following: (A) Torture (B) Capital punishment (C) Medical termination of pregnancy (D) Human experimentation
57. Criminal negligence is punishable under: (A) 306 IPC (B) 376 IPC (C) 304A IPC (D) 304B IPC
58. Up to what time cornea can be stored : (A) 3 hrs (B) 24 hrs (C) 12 hrs (D) 2 weeks
59. What is the time limit, in which consumer can file case as per Consumers Protection Act: (A) Within 2 months (B) Within 6 monthsd (C) Within 1 year (D) Within 2 year
60. The Pre-conception and Pre-natal diagnostic techniques (PCPNDT) Act amended on : (A) 1986 (B) 1994 (C) 2002 (D) 2004
61. Every offence under Pre-conception and Pre-natal diagnostic techniques (PCPNDT) Act is: (A) Bailable (B) Cognizable (C) Both of above (D) None of above
62. Sexual harassment of women at workplace ( Prevention,Prohibition And Redressal) Act, : (A) 1994 (B) 2013 (C) 2002 (D) 2006
63. The mental Health Act(A) 1996 (B) 1987 (C) 2000 (D) 2002
64. For diagnosis & certification, an alleged mentally ill patient may be kept under observation up to : (A) 1 week (B) 10 days (C) 15 days (D) Two weeks
65. How many sections are in IPC: (A) 100 (B) 311 (C) 411 (D) 511
66. In which chapter of IPC, offense against property comes : (A) Chapter vi (B) Chapter xv (C) Chapter xvii (D) Chapter xix
67. In Indian Evidence Act, under which chapter burden of proof explained : (A) Chapter 3 (B) Chapter 6 (C) Chapter 7 (D) Chapter 10
68. Import of Drugs & cosmetics, explained in which chapter of D&C Act: (A) Chapter 1 (B) Chapter 2 (C) Chapter 3 (D) Chapter 4
69. When WHO has published the guidelines for the safety monitoring of herbal drugs: (A) 2003 (B) 2005 (C) 2004 (D) 2001
70. Offence related to Adulteration of Drugs, comes under which Section of Drugs & Cosmetics Act : (A) Section 9-A (B) Section 9-B (C) Section 9-C (D) Section 9-D
71. Symptoms of food poisoning seen within 6 hour is commonly due to : (A) Bacillus cereus (B) Staphylococcus aureus (C) Shigella (D) Salmonella
72. Pharmacy Act was enacted in: (A) 1944 (B) 1948 (C) 1950 (D) 1945
73. Causative organism of food poisoning due to home canned food. (A) Bacillus cereus (B) Salmonella (C) Clostridium botulinum (D) Staphylococcus
74. State pharmacy council is explained in which chapter of pharmacy Act: (A) Chapter l (B) Chapter ll (C) Chapter lll (D) Chapter iv
75. Which Act does not extends to Jammu & Kashmir: (A) Drugs and Cosmetics Act (B) Medical & Toilet Act (C) The Drugs & magic Remedies Act (D) None
76. Narcotic Drugs & Psychotropic Substances Act: (A) 1994 (B) 1970 (C) 1972 (D) 1985
77. Botulinum toxin is used for the treatment of (A) Blepharospasm (B) Risus sardonicus (C) Strabismus (D) All above
78. Code of Criminal procedure came into force on : (A) 1972 (B) 1974 (C) 1961 (D) 1975
79. Declaration of Helsinki is about (A) Animal experimentation (B) Human experimentation (C) Organ transplantation (D) Therapeutic abortion
80. Minimum period for which a doctor should preserve the patient records(A) 5 years (B) 2 years (C) 3 years (D) 10 years
81. Lathyrism is seen with eating of (A) Red gram (B) Khesari daal (C) Mushrooms (D) Sausages.
82. A Doctor proceeds with treatment even without consent of the patient in an emergency condition is protected under(A) Sec 87 IPC (B) Sec 89 IPC (C) Sec 90 IPC (D) Sec 92 IPC
83. When a doctor issues a false medical certificate, then he is liable for punishment under(A) Sec 197 IPC (B) Sec 87 IPC (C) Sec 304A IPC (D) Sec 312 IPC
84. Corpus delicti means (A) Delay in informing death (B) Essence of crime (C) Conduction of Autopsy (D) Identification of dead person
85. Most common pattern of Fingerprint is (A) Arch (B) Loop (C) Whorl (D) Composite
86. The finger print Pattern may be impaired permanently(A) Diabetes (B) leprosy (C) AIDS (D) Tuberculosis
87. Time limit for exhumation in India is (A) 1 year (B) 10 years (C) 20 years (D) No limit
88. The Rigor mortis can be appreciated first in the following(A) Lower jaw (B) Lower limb (C) Upper limb (D) Thorax
89. After death, which one increases in concentration in Vitreous humour (A) Potassium (B) Sodium (C) Chloride (D) Iron
90. The Bhava which destroy Janpada (A) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Indriya (B) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Man (C) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Kaal (D) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Dhvani
91. Rigor mortis is rapid onset and stays for longer duration in the following Poisoning (A) Alcohol (B) Cocaine (C) Tobacco (D) Strychnine
92. Cutis anserina is commonly seen in the death due to (A) Smothering (B) Drowning (C) Hanging (D) Strangulation
93. In Gettler’s test, concentration of the following is estimated in heart chambers (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Chloride (D) Fluoride
94. Paltauff’s haemorrhages are usually appreciated in death due to(A) Hanging (B) Strangulation (C) Suffocation (D) Drowning
95. The most important criteria to distinguish between Antemortem and Post- mortem burn is (A) Line of redness (B) Chloride concentration (C) Albumin concentration (D) None of the above
96. According to Ras-tarangini, purification of Gunja is performed with : (A) Godugdha (B) Kanji (C) A & B both (D) Gomutra
97. Shodhan of Bhanga (Cannabis) is performed in which of the following plant decoction. (A) Babbul twak kashaya (B) Arjun twak kashaya (C) Neem twak kashaya (D) Aargawadha twak Kashaya
98. Which formulation does not consist Kuchala : (A) Vishtinduka vati (B) Unmadagajankush rasa (C) Laxmivillas rasa (D) Agnitundi vati
99. Which formulation does not consist Vatsnabha : (A) Kafaketu rasa (B) Hinguleshwar rasa (C) Mrituanjaya rasa (D) Laxmivillas rasa
100. In which chapter of Charak samhita, SHAT TREEK is described. (A) Vish chikitsa (B) Madatyaya chikitsa (C) Unmaad nidan (D) None of the above
101. Kashyap and Takshak discussion is described in(A) Brahmavavrta purana (B) Mahabharat (C) Skanda purana (D) Garuda puran
102. The chapter no. of Dundubhisvaniya kalp in Sushruta kalp is (A) Chapter 5 (B) Chapter 6 (C) Chapter4 (D) Chapter 3
103. How many chapters are described for Visha and Vishachikitsa in Ashtang sangrah(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 4 (D) 7
104. Total no. of drugs in Mahagandhahastinamak agad is – (A) 57 (B) 85 (C) 60 (D) 68
105. Sneha mishrit Agad pan is given in which Vega’s treatment – (A) Tritiya (B) Chaturth (C) Pratham (D) Pancham
106. Mandal, Kandu is described in which Vega of Visha, according to Acharya Charak (A) Pratham (B) Tritiya (C) Pancham (D) Chaturth
107. The first most Dhatu which gets effected by Visha is (A) Mansa (B) Meda (C) Rasa (D) Rakta
108. Netrarakta is the symptoms of (A) Pundrik poisoning (B) Vatsanabha poisoning (C) Halahal poisoning (D) Mustaka poisoning
109. “Hikka” Symptom is of which type of Mushak poison(A) Lalan & Putrak (B) Lalan & Chikkar (C) Chikkar & Putrak (D) All above
110. Agniprabha is a type of (A) Galgalika (B) Shatapadi (C) Piplika (D) Manduka
111. In which type of Scorpion, three segments are found in tail(A) Tikshana Visha (B) Manda Visha (C) Madhyama Visha (D) None of the above
112. “Chandrodaya Agad” is describe by(A) Yogaratnakar (B) Charak (C) Vagabhatta (D) Sushruta
113. Unmada is Upadrava of (A) Gara visha (B) Dushi visha (C) Sarpa visha (D) All above
114. In Snake poison ‘Koshtha Pravesh” occurs in which Vega (A) Pratham (B) Tritiya (C) Pancham (D) Chaturth
115. Visha chikitsa is described by Charak, in which Chatushka; (A) Roga chatushak (B) Nirdesh chatushak (C) Yojna chatushak (D) None of the above
116. Bhavana dravya of “Bilvadi agad” is (A) Gau mutra (B) Aja mutra (C) Both (D) None of the above
117. ‘Nagadantyadi Ghrita’ is used in(A) Sarpa visha (B) Keet visha (C) Gara visha (D) All of the above
118. ‘Visha Sankat’ is first described by (A) Vagabhatta (B) Dalhana (C) Bhavaprakash (D) Sushruta
119. ‘Vanshatvagadi Agad’ is used for(A) Sarpa visha (B) Keet visha (C) Luta visha (D) All above
120. According to Acharya Vagbhattta Luta visha subsides in(A) 7 days (B) 14 days (C) 21 days (D) 28 days
121. ‘Kshara Agad’ is preserved in (A) Mrada patra (B) Loha patra (C) Tamra patra (D) Kashtha patra
122. Jalsantras is mentioned by Sushrut, in which chapter of Kalp sthana; (A) 03 (B) 05 (C) 07 (D) 08
123. ‘Grivastambha’ symptom is found in the bite of (A) Chuchundar (B) Chikkira (C) Putraka (D) Lalan
124. Total no. of Madhyam Visha Vrishchika are (A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 3
125. Luta visha gets Prakupita on (A) 1st day (B) 3rd day (C) 4th day (D) 6th day
126. According to Vagbhatta the Visha-adhisthana of Luta visha are (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 9
127. ‘Sarsapa’ is a type of (A) Phala visha (B) Kanda visha (C) Mula visha (D) Pushpa visha
128. According to Sushruta, ‘Shukra’ is Visha adhisthana of (A) Mushaka (B) Manduka (C) Makshika (D) Vrishchika
129. Which type of Jangama visha- adhisthana is not considered by Sushruta (A) Lala (B) Sveda (C) Mutra (D) Artava
130. Use of Varaah mansa with Ushnodaka is which type of Viruddha aahar. (A) Karma (B) Sanyoga (C) Parihara (D) Sanskara.
131. According to Sushruta, ‘Mandali Sarpa’ is most toxic in (A) Taruna avastha (B) Madhyam avastha (C) Vridha avastha (D) None of the above
132. ‘Svedagama’ is the symptom of Darvikar Sarpa in (A) 2nd vega (B) 3rd vega (C) 5th vega (D) 7th vega
133. According to Sushruta how many Vega are in birds (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 3
134. Daha karma is contraindicated in (A) Mandali sarpa visha (B) Rajimana sarpa visha (C) Darvikar sarpa visha (D) None of the above
135. Pitta dosha dominant Mushaka is (A) Aruna (B) Mahakrishna (C) Mahashveta (D) Kapota
136. ‘Vijrambhika’ is symptom of (A) Manda keeta visha (B) Madhyama keeta visha (C) Tikshana keeta visha (D) None of the above 137. Total no. of Manduka described by Sushruta are (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 10
138. Vyalupta is which type of dansha (A) Sadhya (B) Asadhya (C) Kashta sadhya (D) Sukha sadhya
139. Monovalent Anti-venom contains specific: (A) Antigen (B) Antibody (C) Protein (D) All above
140. Marquis test is done in poisoning of : (A) Morphine (B) Dathura (C) Aconitum (D) None
141. Antidote of Opium is : (A) Naloxone (B) Atropine (C) Neostigmine (D) Physostigmine
142. Physostigmine is a : (A) Physiological antidote (B) Mechanical antidote (C) Chelating antidote (D) None of these
143. Cyanide antidote kit do not contain(A) Amyl nitrite (B) Sodium nitrite (C) Sodium thiosulphate (D) potassium nitrite
144. National Pharmacovigilance programe is under the control of which organization; (A) Ayush (B) CDSCO (C) API (D) All of the above.
145. Food poisoning can be occurred by : (A) Bacteria (B) Toxins (C) Animal origin (D) All above
146. In Dushivisha treatment which one of the therapeutic measure is not mentioned : (A) Swedan (B) Snehan (C) Vaman (D) Virechan
147. According to Sushruta, Anupan of Dushivishari agad is: (A) Madhu (B) Dugdha (C) Gaughrita (D) Dadhi
148. Which one is not a content of Dushivishari Agad as per Sushrut : (A) Pippali (B) Jatamansi (C) Lodhra (D) Dalchini
149. Dravya used for Vamana in Garavisha treatment is: (A) Tamra Raja (B) Madanphala (C) Swarna Raja (D) Mulathi Kwath
150. Which of the therapeutic measures is not mentioned in Chaturvinshati chikitsa upakram: (A) Basti (B) Aachushana (C) Vamana (D) Nasya
151. How much time Poison is retained at ‘Damsh Sthan’ : (A) 100 Matra Kala (B) 200 Matra Kala (C) 150 Matra Kala (D) 400 Matra Kala
152. At how much distance, ‘Arishta Bandan’ should be done as per Sushrut : (A) 8 Angul (B) 4 Angul (C) 2 Angul (D) 6 Angul
153. For ‘Arista Bandhan’ Which material is used : (A) Plot (Piece of cloth) (B) Charmaant (C) Valkala (D) All above
154. As per Vagbhatta, mouth should be filled for Poison suction by: (A) Mrida (B) Bhasma (C) Agad (D) All above
155. Which part of body should be protected in poisoning first: According to Charak. (A) Basti (B) Nabhi (C) Hrudaya (D) Netra
156. Universal Antidote contains the following, except: (A) Activated charcoal (B) Magnesium oxide (C) Tannic acid (D) Milk
157. Wilson’s disease is caused by disorder of : (A) Copper metabolism (B) Mercury metabolism (C) Iron metabolism (D) Lead metabolism
158. Dose of BAL is(A) 1-3mg/kg body wt. (B) 3-5mg/kg body wt. (C) 5-7mg/kg body wt. (D) 7-9mg/kg body wt.
159. Desferrioxamine is a specific antidote of : (A) Pb (B) Cu (C) Hg (D) Fe
160. Specific antidote for Copper poisoning is: (A) BAL (B) Penicillamine (C) Desferrioxamine (D) EDTA
161. EDTA is effective in poisoning of: (A) Pb (B) Cd (C) Ni (D) All above
162. Which of the following is mentioned due to Virruddha Sevan in Ashtang sangrah; (A) Rakt pitta (B) Vishvat mrutyu (C) Ashta maharog (D) All above
163. Gastric leavage is contraindicated in : (A) Corrosive poisoning (B) Petroleum distillates (C) Cardiac poisoning (D) Both A and B
164. Dialysis is used in all the poisoning, except : (A) Alcohol (B) Kerosine oil (C) Barbiturate (D) Cocaine
165. Drug used in scorpion bite is : (A) Prazosine (B) Neostigmine (C) BAL (D) EDTA
166. 11th Upkrama mentioned by Charaka in Chaturvinshati upkrama Chikitsa is: (A) Vamana (B) Virechana (C) Nasya (D) Rakta mokshana.
168. 20 WBCT (whole blood clotting test) diagnostic test is done for : (A) Snake bite (B) Scorpion bite (C) Bees sting (D) Cantharides poisoning
169. As per D&C Rules 1945, the maximum size of packing of Mahadrakshasava is; (A) 30 ml (B) 60 ml (C) 120 ml (D) 175 ml
170. Single breath counting test is done in suspected : (A) Elapidae bite (B) Colubriadae bite (C) Viperidae bite (D) Hydrophidae bite
171. Ligature pressure that should be used to resist spread of poison in Elapidae poisoning is : (A) 50-70mmHg (B) 20-40mm Hg (C) >80mmHg (D) 10-20mmHg
172. In India Polyvalent ASV is raised in which animal: (A) Horse (B) Cat (C) Cow (D) Dog
173. Polyvalent ASV is effective against : (A) Cobra (B) Krait (C) Russell’s viper (D) All above
174. Which one is not Organo-phosphorus insecticide. (A) Chlorpyriphos (B) Parathion (C) Dimethoate (D) Diethyltoluamide
175. All are the features of Organophosphorus poisoning, except : (A) Mydriasis (B) Bradicardia (C) Lacrimation (D) Sweating
176. Ophitoxaemia refers to : (A) Organophosphorus poisoning (B) Heavy metal poisoning (C) Scorpion poisoning (D) Snake venom poisoning
177. Pink disease occurs due to Poisoning of : (A) Arsenic (B) Lead (C) Mercury (D) Thallium
178. Hatter’s shakes are seen in : (A) Lead Poisoning (B) Mercury Poisoning (C) Arsenic Poisoning (D) Copper Poisoning
179. Plumbism is due to chronic poisoning of: (A) Arsenic (B) Mercury (C) Copper (D) Lead
180. According to Sushrut, the following drugs are mentioned for water purification, except: (A) Amaltasa (B) Guduchi (C) Paribhadra (D) Patala
181. According to Sushrut, which herbal drug helps in Shodhana of polluted air : (A) Haldi (B) Tamala patra (C) 1 and 2 (D) Khadir
182. The mother of environmental toxicology is: (A) Rachel carson (B) Lucy brown (C) Annibassent (D) Nalini singh
183. Minamata disease is due to the following heavy metal poisoning : (A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Arsenic (D) All above
184. What is the specific Antidote of Cyanide : (A) Physostigmine (B) Flumazenil (C) Sodium Nitrate (D) Naloxone
185. The list of Ayurvedic poisonous substances are mentioned in which schedule of D&C Rules 1945, (A) Schedule B (B) Schedule C(1) (C) Schedule E(1) (D) Schedule F
186. Carbon monoxide poisoning treatment is(A) Nitrates (B) Nitrogen & Oxygen by facemask (C) Nitrogen (D) Hyperbaric Oxygen
187. Which of the following is a Antidote of Methanol poisoning: (A) Naloxone (B) Ethanol (C) Atropine (D) Acetylcysteine
188. Father of Toxicology is : (A) Paracelsus (B) Galen (C) Galton (D) Orfila
189. Marsh test is used in the analysis of which poison(A) H2SO4 (B) Mercury (C) Arsenic (D) HCL
190. Barium chloride test is done in which of the following poisoning : (A) H2SO4 poisoning (B) Mercury poisoning (C) Arsenic poisoning (D) HCL poisoning
191. What is the best analytical method for detecting inorganic elements such as Arsenic, Lead, Mercury etc. : (A) Mass spectrometry(MS) (B) Radio immuno assay (RIA) (C) High pressure liquid chromatograpy (HPLC) (D) Atomic absorption Spectrophotometry (AAS)
192. Thin layer chromatography (TLC) is used for: (A) Qualitative assay (B) Quantitative assay (C) A & B both (D) None of the above
193. Enzyme Mediated Immuno Assay (EMIA) is used for : (A) Qualitative assays (B) Quantitative assays (C) A & B both (D) None of the above
194. Which of the following analytical method is used for Quantitative assays : (A) Mass spectrometry(MS) (B) Radio immuno assay (RIA) (C) Ultraviolet Spectrophotometry (UVS) (D) All above
195. According to Ras-tarangini, purification of Bhallatak is performed with : (A) Gomutra (B) Godugdha (C) Narikel jala (D) A & B both
Answer Key:
1 B
2 C
3 D
4 A
5 B
6 A
7 B
8 D
9 B
10 C
11 A
12 C
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C
17 D
18 B
19 B
20 C
21 D
22 D
23 B
24 A
25 B
26 D
27 B
28 D
29 B
30 B
31 A
32 D
33 B
34 C
35 B
36 A
37 B
38 D
39 C
40 C
41 B
42 C
43 A
44 C
45 B
46 A
47 A
48 B
49 C
50 D
51 A
52 B
53 B
54 C
55 C
56 C
57 C
58 D
59 D
60 C
61 B
62 B
63 B
64 B
65 D
66 C
67 C
68 C
69 C
70 A
71 B
72 B
73 C
74 C
75 C
76 D
77 D
78 B
79 B
80 C
81 B
82 D
83 A
84 B
85 B
86 B
87 D
88 A
89 A
90 C
91 D
92 B
93 C
94 D
95 A
96 C
97 A
98 C
99 D
100 B
101 B
102 B
103 B
104 C
105 B
106 B
107 D
108 A
109 B
110 B
111 C
112 C
113 B
114 D
115 D
116 B
117 D
118 A
119 D
120 C
121 B
122 C
123 A
124 D
125 C
126 B
127 B
128 A
129 B
130 C
131 C
132 B
133 D
134 A
135 B
136 C
137 C
138 C
139 B
140 A
141 A
142 A
143 D
144 B
145 D
146 B
147 A
148 D
149 A
150 A
151 A
152 B
153 D
154 D
155 C
156 D
157 A
158 B
159 D
160 B
161 D
162 D
163 D
164 B
165 A
166 B
167 B
168 A
169 C
170 A
171 A
172 A
173 D
174 D
175 A
176 D
177 C
178 B
179 D
180 B
181 C
182 A
183 B
184 C
185 C
186 D
187 B
188 D
189 C
190 A
191 D
192 A
193 B
194 D
195 C
2. What is the specific antidote of Vatsnabha poisoning : (A) Narikela jala (B) Aadraka swarasa (C) Tankana Bhasam (D) Shunthi
3. As per Rasa tarangini, which of the following should be used for the shodhan of ‘Visha-dosha’ of Parad (Mercury) : (A) Trikatu churna (B) Gokshura churna (C) Dhatura churna (D) Trifla churna
4. Shodhan of Tamra (Copper) is performed with: (A) Changari patra swarasa (B) Narikela jala (C) Godugdha (D) All of the above
5. Sanjivani vati consists of following Visha: (A) Kuchala (B) Bhallatak (C) Gunja (D) None of the above
6. Navjivan rasa consists of following Visha: (A) Kuchala (B) Bhallatak (C) Gunja (D) Vatsnabha
7. Abrasion collar seen in (A) Head injury (B) Bullet injury (C) Stab injury (D) Road traffic accidents
8. Paraffin test is performed to detect the residue of (A) Projectile (B) Primer (C) Wads (D) Gun powder
9. Grievous injury comes under which section of IPC (A) 302 (B) 320 (C) 304-A (D) 304-B
10. It is a type of sexual offence, making obscene phone calls: (A) Toucherism (B) Gerontophillia (C) Scatologia (D) None
11. Before origin of Amrut, which Agad was formulated by Lord Brahma. (A) Mrut sanjivan Agad (B) Kshaaragad (C) Gandh hastinamagad (D) None was formulated.
12. When abrasion starts healing (A) 12-24hrs (B) 2-4 days (C) 4-7 days (D) 10 days
13. The approximate age of scar can be estimated from its ageing process between(A) 12-24 hrs (B) 1 week- 1month (C) 1month- 2month (D) 2weeks- 2months
14. Imprisonment for voluntarily causing simple hurt by dangerous weapons (A) 1year (B) 2year (C) 3year (D) 7year
15. Imprisonment for Sec. 331 IPC : (A) 1 year (B) 5 year (C) 7 year (D) 10 year
16. A child presented by a woman to have been delivered by her, though she had not delivered the child is a : (A) Legitimate child (B) Illegitimate child (C) Supposititious child (D) Posthumous child
17. Stone baby is (A) Identical twins (B) Atavism (C) Posthumous (D) Lithopedion
18. Order in Lochia (A) Serosa, rubra, alba (B) Rubra, serosa, alba (C) Alba, rubra, serosa (D) Rubra, alba, serosa
19. The bleeding is maximum in (A) Lacerated wound (B) Incised wound (C) Contusion (D) Abrasion
20. Spalding’s sign is (A) Gas in Aorta (B) Reddening of skin of foetus (C) Loss of alignment of skull bone (D) Air bubbles in liquor
21. Osiander’s sign in pregnancy present at: (A) 5th week (B) 6th week (C) 7th week (D) 8th week
22. At the time of pregnancy uterine contraction detected by: (A) Hegar’sign (B) Ballottement (C) Good well’s sign (D) Braxton-Hick’ sign
23. Under which Section, high court has the power to postponed the execution of death sentence until 6thmonth after delivery of a woman : (A) 366 IPC (B) 416 Cr.P.C. (C) 498-A IPC (D) None
24. In a normal pregnancy, maternal HCG level is maximum at gestational age of : (A) 8-10 wks (B) 12-14 wks (C) 16-18 wks (D) After 20 wks
25. Sign of live birth is; (A) Braxton-Hick’ sign (B) Lochia (C) Posthumous birth (D) None
26. The child born after the death of his father is called : (A) Legitimate child (B) Illegitimate child (C) Suppositious child (D) Posthumous child
27. An abortifacient drug that causes increased menstrual flow is called as: (A) Ecbolic (B) Emmenagogue (C) Irritant (D) Luminariatent
28. Under section 313, if miscarriage is caused without the consent of woman, the imprisonment would be up to : (A) 7 yrs (B) For life (C) 5 yrs (D) 10 yrs
29. Sodomy is punishable under : (A) Sec 354IPC (B) Sec 377 IPC (C) Sec 375IPC (D) Sec 378IPC
30. Ergot is used for (A) Increasing menstrual flow (B) To produce uterine contraction (C) To produce congestion (D) None
31. Lesbianism is also called as (A) Tribadism (B) Sodomy (C) Eonism (D) Onanism
32. Lendrum’s stain is done for : (A) Pulmonary embolism (B) Air embolism (C) Fat embolism (D) Amniotic fluid embolism
33. For medical termination of pregnancy of adult lady, consent is required from : (A) Husband (B) Concern lady (C) Both A & B (D) Guardian
34. MTP Act was introduced in: (A) 1961 (B) 1974 (C) 1971 (D) 1975
35. Disclosure of identity of rape victim is protected under which of the following section of IPC: (A) 298-A (B) 228-A (C) 226-A (D) 225-A
36. Which of the following test is done for detecting vaginal cells from the accused in a case of rape: (A) Lugol’s iodine test (B) Precipitin test (C) Acro-reactive test (D) Berberio’s test
37. Penile buccal coitus is (A) Masochism (B) Fellatio (C) Sadism (D) Fetichism
38. The disease predominantly affects adolescent male is : (A) Van Gogh syndrome (B) Kline livin syndrome (C) Sleeping beauty syndrome (D) B&C
39. A trial of person of unsound mind can be postponed under Cr.P.C. Section : (A) 84 (B) 88 (C) 328 (D) 331
40. Sexual asphyxia is : (A) Homicidal death (B) Suicidal death (C) Accidental death (D) Natural death
41. The feminine impotence is : (A) Rigidity (B) Frigidity (C) Sterility (D) Nymphomania
42. In Atavism the child will have the features of (A) Parents (B) Uncle & aunty (C) Grand parents (D) Does not resemble any one
43. Quoad hoc means : (A) Male who is impotent with a particular female (B) Premature ejaculation (C) Permanent impotency (D) Excessive sexual desire
44. Erectile dysfunction caused by (A) Abrus (B) Strychnine (C) Cannabis (D) Dhatura
45. A female may become sterile with occupational exposure to: (A) Mercury (B) Lead (C) Aluminium (D) Asbestos
46. Abortions are common during: (A) 1 st trimester (B) 2nd trimester (C) 3 rd trimester (D) 4 th trimester
47. Rule of Hasse is used to determine: (A) Age of foetus (B) Race of a person (C) Height of an adult (D) Identification
48. The effect of Sea water drowning: (A) Hemodilution (B) Haemoconcentration (C) Hypokalamia (D) None of the above
49. Minimum age to give consent for organ donation is: (A) 12 yrs (B) 16 yrs (C) 18 yrs (D) 21 yrs
50. Imprisonment to a doctor for commercial dealing in human organs according to Organ Transplantion Act.: (A) 2 yrs (B) 5 yrs (C) 7 yrs (D) 2-7 yrs
51. Transplantation of Human Organ Act, was passed in: (A) 1994 (B) 1996 (C) 2000 (D) 2002
52. When the cause of death could not be found even after gross and microscopic examination, toxicological analysis, histo-pathological examination and microbiological investigations, then autopsy is called as : (A) Obscure Autopsy (B) Negative Autopsy (C) Virtual Autopsy (D) Pathological Autopsy
53. Instrument used to cut intestine in Autopsy: (A) Mayo scissors (B) Enterotome (C) Costotome (D) Curved scissor
54. Pyrogallol test is used to detect: (A) Antemortum test (B) Antemortum injury (C) Air embolism (D) Seminal stain
55. A patient was admitted for cataract surgery. The doctor operated in the wrong eye. This is an example of : (A) Novus Act us interveniens (B) Medical malo ccurence (C) Res Ipsa Loquitur (D) Therapeutic misadventure
56. Declaration of Oslo is related to which among the following: (A) Torture (B) Capital punishment (C) Medical termination of pregnancy (D) Human experimentation
57. Criminal negligence is punishable under: (A) 306 IPC (B) 376 IPC (C) 304A IPC (D) 304B IPC
58. Up to what time cornea can be stored : (A) 3 hrs (B) 24 hrs (C) 12 hrs (D) 2 weeks
59. What is the time limit, in which consumer can file case as per Consumers Protection Act: (A) Within 2 months (B) Within 6 monthsd (C) Within 1 year (D) Within 2 year
60. The Pre-conception and Pre-natal diagnostic techniques (PCPNDT) Act amended on : (A) 1986 (B) 1994 (C) 2002 (D) 2004
61. Every offence under Pre-conception and Pre-natal diagnostic techniques (PCPNDT) Act is: (A) Bailable (B) Cognizable (C) Both of above (D) None of above
62. Sexual harassment of women at workplace ( Prevention,Prohibition And Redressal) Act, : (A) 1994 (B) 2013 (C) 2002 (D) 2006
63. The mental Health Act(A) 1996 (B) 1987 (C) 2000 (D) 2002
64. For diagnosis & certification, an alleged mentally ill patient may be kept under observation up to : (A) 1 week (B) 10 days (C) 15 days (D) Two weeks
65. How many sections are in IPC: (A) 100 (B) 311 (C) 411 (D) 511
66. In which chapter of IPC, offense against property comes : (A) Chapter vi (B) Chapter xv (C) Chapter xvii (D) Chapter xix
67. In Indian Evidence Act, under which chapter burden of proof explained : (A) Chapter 3 (B) Chapter 6 (C) Chapter 7 (D) Chapter 10
68. Import of Drugs & cosmetics, explained in which chapter of D&C Act: (A) Chapter 1 (B) Chapter 2 (C) Chapter 3 (D) Chapter 4
69. When WHO has published the guidelines for the safety monitoring of herbal drugs: (A) 2003 (B) 2005 (C) 2004 (D) 2001
70. Offence related to Adulteration of Drugs, comes under which Section of Drugs & Cosmetics Act : (A) Section 9-A (B) Section 9-B (C) Section 9-C (D) Section 9-D
71. Symptoms of food poisoning seen within 6 hour is commonly due to : (A) Bacillus cereus (B) Staphylococcus aureus (C) Shigella (D) Salmonella
72. Pharmacy Act was enacted in: (A) 1944 (B) 1948 (C) 1950 (D) 1945
73. Causative organism of food poisoning due to home canned food. (A) Bacillus cereus (B) Salmonella (C) Clostridium botulinum (D) Staphylococcus
74. State pharmacy council is explained in which chapter of pharmacy Act: (A) Chapter l (B) Chapter ll (C) Chapter lll (D) Chapter iv
75. Which Act does not extends to Jammu & Kashmir: (A) Drugs and Cosmetics Act (B) Medical & Toilet Act (C) The Drugs & magic Remedies Act (D) None
76. Narcotic Drugs & Psychotropic Substances Act: (A) 1994 (B) 1970 (C) 1972 (D) 1985
77. Botulinum toxin is used for the treatment of (A) Blepharospasm (B) Risus sardonicus (C) Strabismus (D) All above
78. Code of Criminal procedure came into force on : (A) 1972 (B) 1974 (C) 1961 (D) 1975
79. Declaration of Helsinki is about (A) Animal experimentation (B) Human experimentation (C) Organ transplantation (D) Therapeutic abortion
80. Minimum period for which a doctor should preserve the patient records(A) 5 years (B) 2 years (C) 3 years (D) 10 years
81. Lathyrism is seen with eating of (A) Red gram (B) Khesari daal (C) Mushrooms (D) Sausages.
82. A Doctor proceeds with treatment even without consent of the patient in an emergency condition is protected under(A) Sec 87 IPC (B) Sec 89 IPC (C) Sec 90 IPC (D) Sec 92 IPC
83. When a doctor issues a false medical certificate, then he is liable for punishment under(A) Sec 197 IPC (B) Sec 87 IPC (C) Sec 304A IPC (D) Sec 312 IPC
84. Corpus delicti means (A) Delay in informing death (B) Essence of crime (C) Conduction of Autopsy (D) Identification of dead person
85. Most common pattern of Fingerprint is (A) Arch (B) Loop (C) Whorl (D) Composite
86. The finger print Pattern may be impaired permanently(A) Diabetes (B) leprosy (C) AIDS (D) Tuberculosis
87. Time limit for exhumation in India is (A) 1 year (B) 10 years (C) 20 years (D) No limit
88. The Rigor mortis can be appreciated first in the following(A) Lower jaw (B) Lower limb (C) Upper limb (D) Thorax
89. After death, which one increases in concentration in Vitreous humour (A) Potassium (B) Sodium (C) Chloride (D) Iron
90. The Bhava which destroy Janpada (A) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Indriya (B) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Man (C) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Kaal (D) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Dhvani
91. Rigor mortis is rapid onset and stays for longer duration in the following Poisoning (A) Alcohol (B) Cocaine (C) Tobacco (D) Strychnine
92. Cutis anserina is commonly seen in the death due to (A) Smothering (B) Drowning (C) Hanging (D) Strangulation
93. In Gettler’s test, concentration of the following is estimated in heart chambers (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Chloride (D) Fluoride
94. Paltauff’s haemorrhages are usually appreciated in death due to(A) Hanging (B) Strangulation (C) Suffocation (D) Drowning
95. The most important criteria to distinguish between Antemortem and Post- mortem burn is (A) Line of redness (B) Chloride concentration (C) Albumin concentration (D) None of the above
96. According to Ras-tarangini, purification of Gunja is performed with : (A) Godugdha (B) Kanji (C) A & B both (D) Gomutra
97. Shodhan of Bhanga (Cannabis) is performed in which of the following plant decoction. (A) Babbul twak kashaya (B) Arjun twak kashaya (C) Neem twak kashaya (D) Aargawadha twak Kashaya
98. Which formulation does not consist Kuchala : (A) Vishtinduka vati (B) Unmadagajankush rasa (C) Laxmivillas rasa (D) Agnitundi vati
99. Which formulation does not consist Vatsnabha : (A) Kafaketu rasa (B) Hinguleshwar rasa (C) Mrituanjaya rasa (D) Laxmivillas rasa
100. In which chapter of Charak samhita, SHAT TREEK is described. (A) Vish chikitsa (B) Madatyaya chikitsa (C) Unmaad nidan (D) None of the above
101. Kashyap and Takshak discussion is described in(A) Brahmavavrta purana (B) Mahabharat (C) Skanda purana (D) Garuda puran
102. The chapter no. of Dundubhisvaniya kalp in Sushruta kalp is (A) Chapter 5 (B) Chapter 6 (C) Chapter4 (D) Chapter 3
103. How many chapters are described for Visha and Vishachikitsa in Ashtang sangrah(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 4 (D) 7
104. Total no. of drugs in Mahagandhahastinamak agad is – (A) 57 (B) 85 (C) 60 (D) 68
105. Sneha mishrit Agad pan is given in which Vega’s treatment – (A) Tritiya (B) Chaturth (C) Pratham (D) Pancham
106. Mandal, Kandu is described in which Vega of Visha, according to Acharya Charak (A) Pratham (B) Tritiya (C) Pancham (D) Chaturth
107. The first most Dhatu which gets effected by Visha is (A) Mansa (B) Meda (C) Rasa (D) Rakta
108. Netrarakta is the symptoms of (A) Pundrik poisoning (B) Vatsanabha poisoning (C) Halahal poisoning (D) Mustaka poisoning
109. “Hikka” Symptom is of which type of Mushak poison(A) Lalan & Putrak (B) Lalan & Chikkar (C) Chikkar & Putrak (D) All above
110. Agniprabha is a type of (A) Galgalika (B) Shatapadi (C) Piplika (D) Manduka
111. In which type of Scorpion, three segments are found in tail(A) Tikshana Visha (B) Manda Visha (C) Madhyama Visha (D) None of the above
112. “Chandrodaya Agad” is describe by(A) Yogaratnakar (B) Charak (C) Vagabhatta (D) Sushruta
113. Unmada is Upadrava of (A) Gara visha (B) Dushi visha (C) Sarpa visha (D) All above
114. In Snake poison ‘Koshtha Pravesh” occurs in which Vega (A) Pratham (B) Tritiya (C) Pancham (D) Chaturth
115. Visha chikitsa is described by Charak, in which Chatushka; (A) Roga chatushak (B) Nirdesh chatushak (C) Yojna chatushak (D) None of the above
116. Bhavana dravya of “Bilvadi agad” is (A) Gau mutra (B) Aja mutra (C) Both (D) None of the above
117. ‘Nagadantyadi Ghrita’ is used in(A) Sarpa visha (B) Keet visha (C) Gara visha (D) All of the above
118. ‘Visha Sankat’ is first described by (A) Vagabhatta (B) Dalhana (C) Bhavaprakash (D) Sushruta
119. ‘Vanshatvagadi Agad’ is used for(A) Sarpa visha (B) Keet visha (C) Luta visha (D) All above
120. According to Acharya Vagbhattta Luta visha subsides in(A) 7 days (B) 14 days (C) 21 days (D) 28 days
121. ‘Kshara Agad’ is preserved in (A) Mrada patra (B) Loha patra (C) Tamra patra (D) Kashtha patra
122. Jalsantras is mentioned by Sushrut, in which chapter of Kalp sthana; (A) 03 (B) 05 (C) 07 (D) 08
123. ‘Grivastambha’ symptom is found in the bite of (A) Chuchundar (B) Chikkira (C) Putraka (D) Lalan
124. Total no. of Madhyam Visha Vrishchika are (A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 3
125. Luta visha gets Prakupita on (A) 1st day (B) 3rd day (C) 4th day (D) 6th day
126. According to Vagbhatta the Visha-adhisthana of Luta visha are (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 9
127. ‘Sarsapa’ is a type of (A) Phala visha (B) Kanda visha (C) Mula visha (D) Pushpa visha
128. According to Sushruta, ‘Shukra’ is Visha adhisthana of (A) Mushaka (B) Manduka (C) Makshika (D) Vrishchika
129. Which type of Jangama visha- adhisthana is not considered by Sushruta (A) Lala (B) Sveda (C) Mutra (D) Artava
130. Use of Varaah mansa with Ushnodaka is which type of Viruddha aahar. (A) Karma (B) Sanyoga (C) Parihara (D) Sanskara.
131. According to Sushruta, ‘Mandali Sarpa’ is most toxic in (A) Taruna avastha (B) Madhyam avastha (C) Vridha avastha (D) None of the above
132. ‘Svedagama’ is the symptom of Darvikar Sarpa in (A) 2nd vega (B) 3rd vega (C) 5th vega (D) 7th vega
133. According to Sushruta how many Vega are in birds (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 3
134. Daha karma is contraindicated in (A) Mandali sarpa visha (B) Rajimana sarpa visha (C) Darvikar sarpa visha (D) None of the above
135. Pitta dosha dominant Mushaka is (A) Aruna (B) Mahakrishna (C) Mahashveta (D) Kapota
136. ‘Vijrambhika’ is symptom of (A) Manda keeta visha (B) Madhyama keeta visha (C) Tikshana keeta visha (D) None of the above 137. Total no. of Manduka described by Sushruta are (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 10
138. Vyalupta is which type of dansha (A) Sadhya (B) Asadhya (C) Kashta sadhya (D) Sukha sadhya
139. Monovalent Anti-venom contains specific: (A) Antigen (B) Antibody (C) Protein (D) All above
140. Marquis test is done in poisoning of : (A) Morphine (B) Dathura (C) Aconitum (D) None
141. Antidote of Opium is : (A) Naloxone (B) Atropine (C) Neostigmine (D) Physostigmine
142. Physostigmine is a : (A) Physiological antidote (B) Mechanical antidote (C) Chelating antidote (D) None of these
143. Cyanide antidote kit do not contain(A) Amyl nitrite (B) Sodium nitrite (C) Sodium thiosulphate (D) potassium nitrite
144. National Pharmacovigilance programe is under the control of which organization; (A) Ayush (B) CDSCO (C) API (D) All of the above.
145. Food poisoning can be occurred by : (A) Bacteria (B) Toxins (C) Animal origin (D) All above
146. In Dushivisha treatment which one of the therapeutic measure is not mentioned : (A) Swedan (B) Snehan (C) Vaman (D) Virechan
147. According to Sushruta, Anupan of Dushivishari agad is: (A) Madhu (B) Dugdha (C) Gaughrita (D) Dadhi
148. Which one is not a content of Dushivishari Agad as per Sushrut : (A) Pippali (B) Jatamansi (C) Lodhra (D) Dalchini
149. Dravya used for Vamana in Garavisha treatment is: (A) Tamra Raja (B) Madanphala (C) Swarna Raja (D) Mulathi Kwath
150. Which of the therapeutic measures is not mentioned in Chaturvinshati chikitsa upakram: (A) Basti (B) Aachushana (C) Vamana (D) Nasya
151. How much time Poison is retained at ‘Damsh Sthan’ : (A) 100 Matra Kala (B) 200 Matra Kala (C) 150 Matra Kala (D) 400 Matra Kala
152. At how much distance, ‘Arishta Bandan’ should be done as per Sushrut : (A) 8 Angul (B) 4 Angul (C) 2 Angul (D) 6 Angul
153. For ‘Arista Bandhan’ Which material is used : (A) Plot (Piece of cloth) (B) Charmaant (C) Valkala (D) All above
154. As per Vagbhatta, mouth should be filled for Poison suction by: (A) Mrida (B) Bhasma (C) Agad (D) All above
155. Which part of body should be protected in poisoning first: According to Charak. (A) Basti (B) Nabhi (C) Hrudaya (D) Netra
156. Universal Antidote contains the following, except: (A) Activated charcoal (B) Magnesium oxide (C) Tannic acid (D) Milk
157. Wilson’s disease is caused by disorder of : (A) Copper metabolism (B) Mercury metabolism (C) Iron metabolism (D) Lead metabolism
158. Dose of BAL is(A) 1-3mg/kg body wt. (B) 3-5mg/kg body wt. (C) 5-7mg/kg body wt. (D) 7-9mg/kg body wt.
159. Desferrioxamine is a specific antidote of : (A) Pb (B) Cu (C) Hg (D) Fe
160. Specific antidote for Copper poisoning is: (A) BAL (B) Penicillamine (C) Desferrioxamine (D) EDTA
161. EDTA is effective in poisoning of: (A) Pb (B) Cd (C) Ni (D) All above
162. Which of the following is mentioned due to Virruddha Sevan in Ashtang sangrah; (A) Rakt pitta (B) Vishvat mrutyu (C) Ashta maharog (D) All above
163. Gastric leavage is contraindicated in : (A) Corrosive poisoning (B) Petroleum distillates (C) Cardiac poisoning (D) Both A and B
164. Dialysis is used in all the poisoning, except : (A) Alcohol (B) Kerosine oil (C) Barbiturate (D) Cocaine
165. Drug used in scorpion bite is : (A) Prazosine (B) Neostigmine (C) BAL (D) EDTA
166. 11th Upkrama mentioned by Charaka in Chaturvinshati upkrama Chikitsa is: (A) Vamana (B) Virechana (C) Nasya (D) Rakta mokshana.
168. 20 WBCT (whole blood clotting test) diagnostic test is done for : (A) Snake bite (B) Scorpion bite (C) Bees sting (D) Cantharides poisoning
169. As per D&C Rules 1945, the maximum size of packing of Mahadrakshasava is; (A) 30 ml (B) 60 ml (C) 120 ml (D) 175 ml
170. Single breath counting test is done in suspected : (A) Elapidae bite (B) Colubriadae bite (C) Viperidae bite (D) Hydrophidae bite
171. Ligature pressure that should be used to resist spread of poison in Elapidae poisoning is : (A) 50-70mmHg (B) 20-40mm Hg (C) >80mmHg (D) 10-20mmHg
172. In India Polyvalent ASV is raised in which animal: (A) Horse (B) Cat (C) Cow (D) Dog
173. Polyvalent ASV is effective against : (A) Cobra (B) Krait (C) Russell’s viper (D) All above
174. Which one is not Organo-phosphorus insecticide. (A) Chlorpyriphos (B) Parathion (C) Dimethoate (D) Diethyltoluamide
175. All are the features of Organophosphorus poisoning, except : (A) Mydriasis (B) Bradicardia (C) Lacrimation (D) Sweating
176. Ophitoxaemia refers to : (A) Organophosphorus poisoning (B) Heavy metal poisoning (C) Scorpion poisoning (D) Snake venom poisoning
177. Pink disease occurs due to Poisoning of : (A) Arsenic (B) Lead (C) Mercury (D) Thallium
178. Hatter’s shakes are seen in : (A) Lead Poisoning (B) Mercury Poisoning (C) Arsenic Poisoning (D) Copper Poisoning
179. Plumbism is due to chronic poisoning of: (A) Arsenic (B) Mercury (C) Copper (D) Lead
180. According to Sushrut, the following drugs are mentioned for water purification, except: (A) Amaltasa (B) Guduchi (C) Paribhadra (D) Patala
181. According to Sushrut, which herbal drug helps in Shodhana of polluted air : (A) Haldi (B) Tamala patra (C) 1 and 2 (D) Khadir
182. The mother of environmental toxicology is: (A) Rachel carson (B) Lucy brown (C) Annibassent (D) Nalini singh
183. Minamata disease is due to the following heavy metal poisoning : (A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Arsenic (D) All above
184. What is the specific Antidote of Cyanide : (A) Physostigmine (B) Flumazenil (C) Sodium Nitrate (D) Naloxone
185. The list of Ayurvedic poisonous substances are mentioned in which schedule of D&C Rules 1945, (A) Schedule B (B) Schedule C(1) (C) Schedule E(1) (D) Schedule F
186. Carbon monoxide poisoning treatment is(A) Nitrates (B) Nitrogen & Oxygen by facemask (C) Nitrogen (D) Hyperbaric Oxygen
187. Which of the following is a Antidote of Methanol poisoning: (A) Naloxone (B) Ethanol (C) Atropine (D) Acetylcysteine
188. Father of Toxicology is : (A) Paracelsus (B) Galen (C) Galton (D) Orfila
189. Marsh test is used in the analysis of which poison(A) H2SO4 (B) Mercury (C) Arsenic (D) HCL
190. Barium chloride test is done in which of the following poisoning : (A) H2SO4 poisoning (B) Mercury poisoning (C) Arsenic poisoning (D) HCL poisoning
191. What is the best analytical method for detecting inorganic elements such as Arsenic, Lead, Mercury etc. : (A) Mass spectrometry(MS) (B) Radio immuno assay (RIA) (C) High pressure liquid chromatograpy (HPLC) (D) Atomic absorption Spectrophotometry (AAS)
192. Thin layer chromatography (TLC) is used for: (A) Qualitative assay (B) Quantitative assay (C) A & B both (D) None of the above
193. Enzyme Mediated Immuno Assay (EMIA) is used for : (A) Qualitative assays (B) Quantitative assays (C) A & B both (D) None of the above
194. Which of the following analytical method is used for Quantitative assays : (A) Mass spectrometry(MS) (B) Radio immuno assay (RIA) (C) Ultraviolet Spectrophotometry (UVS) (D) All above
195. According to Ras-tarangini, purification of Bhallatak is performed with : (A) Gomutra (B) Godugdha (C) Narikel jala (D) A & B both
Answer Key:
1 B
2 C
3 D
4 A
5 B
6 A
7 B
8 D
9 B
10 C
11 A
12 C
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C
17 D
18 B
19 B
20 C
21 D
22 D
23 B
24 A
25 B
26 D
27 B
28 D
29 B
30 B
31 A
32 D
33 B
34 C
35 B
36 A
37 B
38 D
39 C
40 C
41 B
42 C
43 A
44 C
45 B
46 A
47 A
48 B
49 C
50 D
51 A
52 B
53 B
54 C
55 C
56 C
57 C
58 D
59 D
60 C
61 B
62 B
63 B
64 B
65 D
66 C
67 C
68 C
69 C
70 A
71 B
72 B
73 C
74 C
75 C
76 D
77 D
78 B
79 B
80 C
81 B
82 D
83 A
84 B
85 B
86 B
87 D
88 A
89 A
90 C
91 D
92 B
93 C
94 D
95 A
96 C
97 A
98 C
99 D
100 B
101 B
102 B
103 B
104 C
105 B
106 B
107 D
108 A
109 B
110 B
111 C
112 C
113 B
114 D
115 D
116 B
117 D
118 A
119 D
120 C
121 B
122 C
123 A
124 D
125 C
126 B
127 B
128 A
129 B
130 C
131 C
132 B
133 D
134 A
135 B
136 C
137 C
138 C
139 B
140 A
141 A
142 A
143 D
144 B
145 D
146 B
147 A
148 D
149 A
150 A
151 A
152 B
153 D
154 D
155 C
156 D
157 A
158 B
159 D
160 B
161 D
162 D
163 D
164 B
165 A
166 B
167 B
168 A
169 C
170 A
171 A
172 A
173 D
174 D
175 A
176 D
177 C
178 B
179 D
180 B
181 C
182 A
183 B
184 C
185 C
186 D
187 B
188 D
189 C
190 A
191 D
192 A
193 B
194 D
195 C