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AYURVEDA- AGADATANTRA AND VIDHI VAIDAK


AYURVEDA- AGADATANTRA AND VIDHI VAIDAK MCQs

1. In Unmadagajankush rasa, which of the following Visha is present: (A) Bhanga (B) Dhatura (C) Gunja (D) Ahiphena

2. What is the specific antidote of Vatsnabha poisoning : (A) Narikela jala (B) Aadraka swarasa (C) Tankana Bhasam (D) Shunthi

3. As per Rasa tarangini, which of the following should be used for the shodhan of ‘Visha-dosha’ of Parad (Mercury) : (A) Trikatu churna (B) Gokshura churna (C) Dhatura churna (D) Trifla churna

4. Shodhan of Tamra (Copper) is performed with: (A) Changari patra swarasa (B) Narikela jala (C) Godugdha (D) All of the above

5. Sanjivani vati consists of following Visha: (A) Kuchala (B) Bhallatak (C) Gunja (D) None of the above

6. Navjivan rasa consists of following Visha: (A) Kuchala (B) Bhallatak (C) Gunja (D) Vatsnabha

7. Abrasion collar seen in (A) Head injury (B) Bullet injury (C) Stab injury (D) Road traffic accidents

8. Paraffin test is performed to detect the residue of (A) Projectile (B) Primer (C) Wads (D) Gun powder

9. Grievous injury comes under which section of IPC (A) 302 (B) 320 (C) 304-A (D) 304-B

10. It is a type of sexual offence, making obscene phone calls: (A) Toucherism (B) Gerontophillia (C) Scatologia (D) None

11.
Before origin of Amrut, which Agad was formulated by Lord Brahma. (A) Mrut sanjivan Agad (B) Kshaaragad (C) Gandh hastinamagad (D) None was formulated.

12. When abrasion starts healing (A) 12-24hrs (B) 2-4 days (C) 4-7 days (D) 10 days

13. The approximate age of scar can be estimated from its ageing process between(A) 12-24 hrs (B) 1 week- 1month (C) 1month- 2month (D) 2weeks- 2months

14. Imprisonment for voluntarily causing simple hurt by dangerous weapons (A) 1year (B) 2year (C) 3year (D) 7year

15. Imprisonment for Sec. 331 IPC : (A) 1 year (B) 5 year (C) 7 year (D) 10 year

16. A child presented by a woman to have been delivered by her, though she had not delivered the child is a : (A) Legitimate child (B) Illegitimate child (C) Supposititious child (D) Posthumous child

17. Stone baby is (A) Identical twins (B) Atavism (C) Posthumous (D) Lithopedion

18. Order in Lochia (A) Serosa, rubra, alba (B) Rubra, serosa, alba (C) Alba, rubra, serosa (D) Rubra, alba, serosa

19. 
The bleeding is maximum in (A) Lacerated wound (B) Incised wound (C) Contusion (D) Abrasion

20. Spalding’s sign is (A) Gas in Aorta (B) Reddening of skin of foetus (C) Loss of alignment of skull bone (D) Air bubbles in liquor

21. Osiander’s sign in pregnancy present at: (A) 5th week (B) 6th week (C) 7th week (D) 8th week

22. At the time of pregnancy uterine contraction detected by: (A) Hegar’sign (B) Ballottement (C) Good well’s sign (D) Braxton-Hick’ sign

23. Under which Section, high court has the power to postponed the execution of death sentence until 6thmonth after delivery of a woman : (A) 366 IPC (B) 416 Cr.P.C. (C) 498-A IPC (D) None

24. In a normal pregnancy, maternal HCG level is maximum at gestational age of : (A) 8-10 wks (B) 12-14 wks (C) 16-18 wks (D) After 20 wks

25. Sign of live birth is; (A) Braxton-Hick’ sign (B) Lochia (C) Posthumous birth (D) None

26. The child born after the death of his father is called : (A) Legitimate child (B) Illegitimate child (C) Suppositious child (D) Posthumous child

27. An abortifacient drug that causes increased menstrual flow is called as: (A) Ecbolic (B) Emmenagogue (C) Irritant (D) Luminariatent

28. Under section 313, if miscarriage is caused without the consent of woman, the imprisonment would be up to : (A) 7 yrs (B) For life (C) 5 yrs (D) 10 yrs

29. Sodomy is punishable under : (A) Sec 354IPC (B) Sec 377 IPC (C) Sec 375IPC (D) Sec 378IPC

30. Ergot is used for (A) Increasing menstrual flow (B) To produce uterine contraction (C) To produce congestion (D) None

31. Lesbianism is also called as (A) Tribadism (B) Sodomy (C) Eonism (D) Onanism

32. Lendrum’s stain is done for : (A) Pulmonary embolism (B) Air embolism (C) Fat embolism (D) Amniotic fluid embolism

33. For medical termination of pregnancy of adult lady, consent is required from : (A) Husband (B) Concern lady (C) Both A & B (D) Guardian

34. MTP Act was introduced in: (A) 1961 (B) 1974 (C) 1971 (D) 1975

35. Disclosure of identity of rape victim is protected under which of the following section of IPC: (A) 298-A (B) 228-A (C) 226-A (D) 225-A

36. Which of the following test is done for detecting vaginal cells from the accused in a case of rape: (A) Lugol’s iodine test (B) Precipitin test (C) Acro-reactive test (D) Berberio’s test

37. Penile buccal coitus is (A) Masochism (B) Fellatio (C) Sadism (D) Fetichism

38. The disease predominantly affects adolescent male is : (A) Van Gogh syndrome (B) Kline livin syndrome (C) Sleeping beauty syndrome (D) B&C

39. A trial of person of unsound mind can be postponed under Cr.P.C. Section : (A) 84 (B) 88 (C) 328 (D) 331

40. Sexual asphyxia is : (A) Homicidal death (B) Suicidal death (C) Accidental death (D) Natural death

41. The feminine impotence is : (A) Rigidity (B) Frigidity (C) Sterility (D) Nymphomania

42. In Atavism the child will have the features of (A) Parents (B) Uncle & aunty (C) Grand parents (D) Does not resemble any one

43. Quoad hoc means : (A) Male who is impotent with a particular female (B) Premature ejaculation (C) Permanent impotency (D) Excessive sexual desire

44. Erectile dysfunction caused by (A) Abrus (B) Strychnine (C) Cannabis (D) Dhatura

45. A female may become sterile with occupational exposure to: (A) Mercury (B) Lead (C) Aluminium (D) Asbestos

46. Abortions are common during: (A) 1 st trimester (B) 2nd trimester (C) 3 rd trimester (D) 4 th trimester

47. Rule of Hasse is used to determine: (A) Age of foetus (B) Race of a person (C) Height of an adult (D) Identification

48. The effect of Sea water drowning: (A) Hemodilution (B) Haemoconcentration (C) Hypokalamia (D) None of the above

49. Minimum age to give consent for organ donation is: (A) 12 yrs (B) 16 yrs (C) 18 yrs (D) 21 yrs

50. Imprisonment to a doctor for commercial dealing in human organs according to Organ Transplantion Act.: (A) 2 yrs (B) 5 yrs (C) 7 yrs (D) 2-7 yrs

51. Transplantation of Human Organ Act, was passed in: (A) 1994 (B) 1996 (C) 2000 (D) 2002

52. When the cause of death could not be found even after gross and microscopic examination, toxicological analysis, histo-pathological examination and microbiological investigations, then autopsy is called as : (A) Obscure Autopsy (B) Negative Autopsy (C) Virtual Autopsy (D) Pathological Autopsy

53. Instrument used to cut intestine in Autopsy: (A) Mayo scissors (B) Enterotome (C) Costotome (D) Curved scissor

54. Pyrogallol test is used to detect: (A) Antemortum test (B) Antemortum injury (C) Air embolism (D) Seminal stain

55. A patient was admitted for cataract surgery. The doctor operated in the wrong eye. This is an example of : (A) Novus Act us interveniens (B) Medical malo ccurence (C) Res Ipsa Loquitur (D) Therapeutic misadventure

56. Declaration of Oslo is related to which among the following: (A) Torture (B) Capital punishment (C) Medical termination of pregnancy (D) Human experimentation

57. Criminal negligence is punishable under: (A) 306 IPC (B) 376 IPC (C) 304A IPC (D) 304B IPC

58. Up to what time cornea can be stored : (A) 3 hrs (B) 24 hrs (C) 12 hrs (D) 2 weeks

59. What is the time limit, in which consumer can file case as per Consumers Protection Act: (A) Within 2 months (B) Within 6 monthsd (C) Within 1 year (D) Within 2 year

60. The Pre-conception and Pre-natal diagnostic techniques (PCPNDT) Act amended on : (A) 1986 (B) 1994 (C) 2002 (D) 2004

61. Every offence under Pre-conception and Pre-natal diagnostic techniques (PCPNDT) Act is: (A) Bailable (B) Cognizable (C) Both of above (D) None of above

62. Sexual harassment of women at workplace ( Prevention,Prohibition And Redressal) Act, : (A) 1994 (B) 2013 (C) 2002 (D) 2006

63. The mental Health Act(A) 1996 (B) 1987 (C) 2000 (D) 2002

64. For diagnosis & certification, an alleged mentally ill patient may be kept under observation up to : (A) 1 week (B) 10 days (C) 15 days (D) Two weeks

65. How many sections are in IPC: (A) 100 (B) 311 (C) 411 (D) 511

66. In which chapter of IPC, offense against property comes : (A) Chapter vi (B) Chapter xv (C) Chapter xvii (D) Chapter xix

67. In Indian Evidence Act, under which chapter burden of proof explained : (A) Chapter 3 (B) Chapter 6 (C) Chapter 7 (D) Chapter 10

68. Import of Drugs & cosmetics, explained in which chapter of D&C Act: (A) Chapter 1 (B) Chapter 2 (C) Chapter 3 (D) Chapter 4

69. When WHO has published the guidelines for the safety monitoring of herbal drugs: (A) 2003 (B) 2005 (C) 2004 (D) 2001

70. Offence related to Adulteration of Drugs, comes under which Section of Drugs & Cosmetics Act : (A) Section 9-A (B) Section 9-B (C) Section 9-C (D) Section 9-D

71. Symptoms of food poisoning seen within 6 hour is commonly due to : (A) Bacillus cereus (B) Staphylococcus aureus (C) Shigella (D) Salmonella

72. Pharmacy Act was enacted in: (A) 1944 (B) 1948 (C) 1950 (D) 1945

73. Causative organism of food poisoning due to home canned food. (A) Bacillus cereus (B) Salmonella (C) Clostridium botulinum (D) Staphylococcus

74. State pharmacy council is explained in which chapter of pharmacy Act: (A) Chapter l (B) Chapter ll (C) Chapter lll (D) Chapter iv

75. Which Act does not extends to Jammu & Kashmir: (A) Drugs and Cosmetics Act (B) Medical & Toilet Act (C) The Drugs & magic Remedies Act (D) None

76. Narcotic Drugs & Psychotropic Substances Act: (A) 1994 (B) 1970 (C) 1972 (D) 1985

77. Botulinum toxin is used for the treatment of (A) Blepharospasm (B) Risus sardonicus (C) Strabismus (D) All above

78. Code of Criminal procedure came into force on : (A) 1972 (B) 1974 (C) 1961 (D) 1975

79. Declaration of Helsinki is about (A) Animal experimentation (B) Human experimentation (C) Organ transplantation (D) Therapeutic abortion

80. Minimum period for which a doctor should preserve the patient records(A) 5 years (B) 2 years (C) 3 years (D) 10 years

81. Lathyrism is seen with eating of (A) Red gram (B) Khesari daal (C) Mushrooms (D) Sausages.

82. A Doctor proceeds with treatment even without consent of the patient in an emergency condition is protected under(A) Sec 87 IPC (B) Sec 89 IPC (C) Sec 90 IPC (D) Sec 92 IPC

83. When a doctor issues a false medical certificate, then he is liable for punishment under(A) Sec 197 IPC (B) Sec 87 IPC (C) Sec 304A IPC (D) Sec 312 IPC

84. Corpus delicti means (A) Delay in informing death (B) Essence of crime (C) Conduction of Autopsy (D) Identification of dead person

85. Most common pattern of Fingerprint is (A) Arch (B) Loop (C) Whorl (D) Composite

86. The finger print Pattern may be impaired permanently(A) Diabetes (B) leprosy (C) AIDS (D) Tuberculosis

87. Time limit for exhumation in India is (A) 1 year (B) 10 years (C) 20 years (D) No limit

88. The Rigor mortis can be appreciated first in the following(A) Lower jaw (B) Lower limb (C) Upper limb (D) Thorax

89. After death, which one increases in concentration in Vitreous humour (A) Potassium (B) Sodium (C) Chloride (D) Iron

90. The Bhava which destroy Janpada (A) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Indriya (B) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Man (C) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Kaal (D) Vayu, Udaka, Desha, Dhvani

91. Rigor mortis is rapid onset and stays for longer duration in the following Poisoning (A) Alcohol (B) Cocaine (C) Tobacco (D) Strychnine

92. Cutis anserina is commonly seen in the death due to (A) Smothering (B) Drowning (C) Hanging (D) Strangulation

93. In Gettler’s test, concentration of the following is estimated in heart chambers (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Chloride (D) Fluoride

94. Paltauff’s haemorrhages are usually appreciated in death due to(A) Hanging (B) Strangulation (C) Suffocation (D) Drowning

95. The most important criteria to distinguish between Antemortem and Post- mortem burn is (A) Line of redness (B) Chloride concentration (C) Albumin concentration (D) None of the above


96. According to Ras-tarangini, purification of Gunja is performed with : (A) Godugdha (B) Kanji (C) A & B both (D) Gomutra

97. Shodhan of Bhanga (Cannabis) is performed in which of the following plant decoction. (A) Babbul twak kashaya (B) Arjun twak kashaya (C) Neem twak kashaya (D) Aargawadha twak Kashaya

98. Which formulation does not consist Kuchala : (A) Vishtinduka vati (B) Unmadagajankush rasa (C) Laxmivillas rasa (D) Agnitundi vati

99. Which formulation does not consist Vatsnabha : (A) Kafaketu rasa (B) Hinguleshwar rasa (C) Mrituanjaya rasa (D) Laxmivillas rasa

100. In which chapter of Charak samhita, SHAT TREEK is described. (A) Vish chikitsa (B) Madatyaya chikitsa (C) Unmaad nidan (D) None of the above

101. Kashyap and Takshak discussion is described in(A) Brahmavavrta purana (B) Mahabharat (C) Skanda purana (D) Garuda puran

102. The chapter no. of Dundubhisvaniya kalp in Sushruta kalp is (A) Chapter 5 (B) Chapter 6 (C) Chapter4 (D) Chapter 3

103. How many chapters are described for Visha and Vishachikitsa in Ashtang sangrah(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 4 (D) 7

104. Total no. of drugs in Mahagandhahastinamak agad is – (A) 57 (B) 85 (C) 60 (D) 68

105. Sneha mishrit Agad pan is given in which Vega’s treatment – (A) Tritiya (B) Chaturth (C) Pratham (D) Pancham

106. Mandal, Kandu is described in which Vega of Visha, according to Acharya Charak (A) Pratham (B) Tritiya (C) Pancham (D) Chaturth

107. The first most Dhatu which gets effected by Visha is (A) Mansa (B) Meda (C) Rasa (D) Rakta

108. Netrarakta is the symptoms of (A) Pundrik poisoning (B) Vatsanabha poisoning (C) Halahal poisoning (D) Mustaka poisoning

109. “Hikka” Symptom is of which type of Mushak poison(A) Lalan & Putrak (B) Lalan & Chikkar (C) Chikkar & Putrak (D) All above

110. Agniprabha is a type of (A) Galgalika (B) Shatapadi (C) Piplika (D) Manduka

111. In which type of Scorpion, three segments are found in tail(A) Tikshana Visha (B) Manda Visha (C) Madhyama Visha (D) None of the above

112. “Chandrodaya Agad” is describe by(A) Yogaratnakar (B) Charak (C) Vagabhatta (D) Sushruta

113. Unmada is Upadrava of (A) Gara visha (B) Dushi visha (C) Sarpa visha (D) All above

114. In Snake poison ‘Koshtha Pravesh” occurs in which Vega (A) Pratham (B) Tritiya (C) Pancham (D) Chaturth

115. Visha chikitsa is described by Charak, in which Chatushka; (A) Roga chatushak (B) Nirdesh chatushak (C) Yojna chatushak (D) None of the above

116. Bhavana dravya of “Bilvadi agad” is (A) Gau mutra (B) Aja mutra (C) Both (D) None of the above

117. ‘Nagadantyadi Ghrita’ is used in(A) Sarpa visha (B) Keet visha (C) Gara visha (D) All of the above

118. ‘Visha Sankat’ is first described by (A) Vagabhatta (B) Dalhana (C) Bhavaprakash (D) Sushruta

119. ‘Vanshatvagadi Agad’ is used for(A) Sarpa visha (B) Keet visha (C) Luta visha (D) All above

120. According to Acharya Vagbhattta Luta visha subsides in(A) 7 days (B) 14 days (C) 21 days (D) 28 days

121. ‘Kshara Agad’ is preserved in (A) Mrada patra (B) Loha patra (C) Tamra patra (D) Kashtha patra

122. Jalsantras is mentioned by Sushrut, in which chapter of Kalp sthana; (A) 03 (B) 05 (C) 07 (D) 08

123. ‘Grivastambha’ symptom is found in the bite of (A) Chuchundar (B) Chikkira (C) Putraka (D) Lalan

124. Total no. of Madhyam Visha Vrishchika are (A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 3

125. Luta visha gets Prakupita on (A) 1st day (B) 3rd day (C) 4th day (D) 6th day

126. According to Vagbhatta the Visha-adhisthana of Luta visha are (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 9

127. ‘Sarsapa’ is a type of (A) Phala visha (B) Kanda visha (C) Mula visha (D) Pushpa visha

128. According to Sushruta, ‘Shukra’ is Visha adhisthana of (A) Mushaka (B) Manduka (C) Makshika (D) Vrishchika

129. Which type of Jangama visha- adhisthana is not considered by Sushruta (A) Lala (B) Sveda (C) Mutra (D) Artava

130. Use of Varaah mansa with Ushnodaka is which type of Viruddha aahar. (A) Karma (B) Sanyoga (C) Parihara (D) Sanskara.

131. According to Sushruta, ‘Mandali Sarpa’ is most toxic in (A) Taruna avastha (B) Madhyam avastha (C) Vridha avastha (D) None of the above

132. ‘Svedagama’ is the symptom of Darvikar Sarpa in (A) 2nd vega (B) 3rd vega (C) 5th vega (D) 7th vega

133. According to Sushruta how many Vega are in birds (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 3

134. Daha karma is contraindicated in (A) Mandali sarpa visha (B) Rajimana sarpa visha (C) Darvikar sarpa visha (D) None of the above

135. Pitta dosha dominant Mushaka is (A) Aruna (B) Mahakrishna (C) Mahashveta (D) Kapota

136. ‘Vijrambhika’ is symptom of (A) Manda keeta visha (B) Madhyama keeta visha (C) Tikshana keeta visha (D) None of the above 137. Total no. of Manduka described by Sushruta are (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 10

138. Vyalupta is which type of dansha (A) Sadhya (B) Asadhya (C) Kashta sadhya (D) Sukha sadhya

139. Monovalent Anti-venom contains specific: (A) Antigen (B) Antibody (C) Protein (D) All above

140. Marquis test is done in poisoning of : (A) Morphine (B) Dathura (C) Aconitum (D) None

141. Antidote of Opium is : (A) Naloxone (B) Atropine (C) Neostigmine (D) Physostigmine

142. Physostigmine is a : (A) Physiological antidote (B) Mechanical antidote (C) Chelating antidote (D) None of these

143. Cyanide antidote kit do not contain(A) Amyl nitrite (B) Sodium nitrite (C) Sodium thiosulphate (D) potassium nitrite

144.
National Pharmacovigilance programe is under the control of which organization; (A) Ayush (B) CDSCO (C) API (D) All of the above.

145. Food poisoning can be occurred by : (A) Bacteria (B) Toxins (C) Animal origin (D) All above

146. In Dushivisha treatment which one of the therapeutic measure is not mentioned : (A) Swedan (B) Snehan (C) Vaman (D) Virechan

147. According to Sushruta, Anupan of Dushivishari agad is: (A) Madhu (B) Dugdha (C) Gaughrita (D) Dadhi

148. Which one is not a content of Dushivishari Agad as per Sushrut : (A) Pippali (B) Jatamansi (C) Lodhra (D) Dalchini

149. Dravya used for Vamana in Garavisha treatment is: (A) Tamra Raja (B) Madanphala (C) Swarna Raja (D) Mulathi Kwath

150. Which of the therapeutic measures is not mentioned in Chaturvinshati chikitsa upakram: (A) Basti (B) Aachushana (C) Vamana (D) Nasya

151. How much time Poison is retained at ‘Damsh Sthan’ : (A) 100 Matra Kala (B) 200 Matra Kala (C) 150 Matra Kala (D) 400 Matra Kala

152. At how much distance, ‘Arishta Bandan’ should be done as per Sushrut : (A) 8 Angul (B) 4 Angul (C) 2 Angul (D) 6 Angul

153. For ‘Arista Bandhan’ Which material is used : (A) Plot (Piece of cloth) (B) Charmaant (C) Valkala (D) All above

154. As per Vagbhatta, mouth should be filled for Poison suction by: (A) Mrida (B) Bhasma (C) Agad (D) All above

155. Which part of body should be protected in poisoning first: According to Charak. (A) Basti (B) Nabhi (C) Hrudaya (D) Netra

156. Universal Antidote contains the following, except: (A) Activated charcoal (B) Magnesium oxide (C) Tannic acid (D) Milk

157. Wilson’s disease is caused by disorder of : (A) Copper metabolism (B) Mercury metabolism (C) Iron metabolism (D) Lead metabolism

158. Dose of BAL is(A) 1-3mg/kg body wt. (B) 3-5mg/kg body wt. (C) 5-7mg/kg body wt. (D) 7-9mg/kg body wt.

159. Desferrioxamine is a specific antidote of : (A) Pb (B) Cu (C) Hg (D) Fe

160. Specific antidote for Copper poisoning is: (A) BAL (B) Penicillamine (C) Desferrioxamine (D) EDTA

161. EDTA is effective in poisoning of: (A) Pb (B) Cd (C) Ni (D) All above

162. Which of the following is mentioned due to Virruddha Sevan in Ashtang sangrah; (A) Rakt pitta (B) Vishvat mrutyu (C) Ashta maharog (D) All above

163. Gastric leavage is contraindicated in : (A) Corrosive poisoning (B) Petroleum distillates (C) Cardiac poisoning (D) Both A and B

164. Dialysis is used in all the poisoning, except : (A) Alcohol (B) Kerosine oil (C) Barbiturate (D) Cocaine

165. Drug used in scorpion bite is : (A) Prazosine (B) Neostigmine (C) BAL (D) EDTA

166.
11th Upkrama mentioned by Charaka in Chaturvinshati upkrama Chikitsa is: (A) Vamana (B) Virechana (C) Nasya (D) Rakta mokshana.

168. 20 WBCT (whole blood clotting test) diagnostic test is done for : (A) Snake bite (B) Scorpion bite (C) Bees sting (D) Cantharides poisoning

169. As per D&C Rules 1945, the maximum size of packing of Mahadrakshasava is; (A) 30 ml (B) 60 ml (C) 120 ml (D) 175 ml

170. Single breath counting test is done in suspected : (A) Elapidae bite (B) Colubriadae bite (C) Viperidae bite (D) Hydrophidae bite

171. Ligature pressure that should be used to resist spread of poison in Elapidae poisoning is : (A) 50-70mmHg (B) 20-40mm Hg (C) >80mmHg (D) 10-20mmHg

172. In India Polyvalent ASV is raised in which animal: (A) Horse (B) Cat (C) Cow (D) Dog

173. Polyvalent ASV is effective against : (A) Cobra (B) Krait (C) Russell’s viper (D) All above

174. Which one is not Organo-phosphorus insecticide. (A) Chlorpyriphos (B) Parathion (C) Dimethoate (D) Diethyltoluamide

175. All are the features of Organophosphorus poisoning, except : (A) Mydriasis (B) Bradicardia (C) Lacrimation (D) Sweating

176. Ophitoxaemia refers to : (A) Organophosphorus poisoning (B) Heavy metal poisoning (C) Scorpion poisoning (D) Snake venom poisoning

177. Pink disease occurs due to Poisoning of : (A) Arsenic (B) Lead (C) Mercury (D) Thallium

178. Hatter’s shakes are seen in : (A) Lead Poisoning (B) Mercury Poisoning (C) Arsenic Poisoning (D) Copper Poisoning

179.
Plumbism is due to chronic poisoning of: (A) Arsenic (B) Mercury (C) Copper (D) Lead 

180. According to Sushrut, the following drugs are mentioned for water purification, except: (A) Amaltasa (B) Guduchi (C) Paribhadra (D) Patala

181. According to Sushrut, which herbal drug helps in Shodhana of polluted air : (A) Haldi (B) Tamala patra (C) 1 and 2 (D) Khadir

182. The mother of environmental toxicology is: (A) Rachel carson (B) Lucy brown (C) Annibassent (D) Nalini singh

183. Minamata disease is due to the following heavy metal poisoning : (A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Arsenic (D) All above

184. What is the specific Antidote of Cyanide : (A) Physostigmine (B) Flumazenil (C) Sodium Nitrate (D) Naloxone

185. The list of Ayurvedic poisonous substances are mentioned in which schedule of D&C Rules 1945, (A) Schedule B (B) Schedule C(1) (C) Schedule E(1) (D) Schedule F

186. Carbon monoxide poisoning treatment is(A) Nitrates (B) Nitrogen & Oxygen by facemask (C) Nitrogen (D) Hyperbaric Oxygen

187. Which of the following is a Antidote of Methanol poisoning: (A) Naloxone (B) Ethanol (C) Atropine (D) Acetylcysteine

188. Father of Toxicology is : (A) Paracelsus (B) Galen (C) Galton (D) Orfila

189. Marsh test is used in the analysis of which poison(A) H2SO4 (B) Mercury (C) Arsenic (D) HCL

190. Barium chloride test is done in which of the following poisoning : (A) H2SO4 poisoning (B) Mercury poisoning (C) Arsenic poisoning (D) HCL poisoning

191. What is the best analytical method for detecting inorganic elements such as Arsenic, Lead, Mercury etc. : (A) Mass spectrometry(MS) (B) Radio immuno assay (RIA) (C) High pressure liquid chromatograpy (HPLC) (D) Atomic absorption Spectrophotometry (AAS)

192. Thin layer chromatography (TLC) is used for: (A) Qualitative assay (B) Quantitative assay (C) A & B both (D) None of the above

193. Enzyme Mediated Immuno Assay (EMIA) is used for : (A) Qualitative assays (B) Quantitative assays (C) A & B both (D) None of the above

194. Which of the following analytical method is used for Quantitative assays : (A) Mass spectrometry(MS) (B) Radio immuno assay (RIA) (C) Ultraviolet Spectrophotometry (UVS) (D) All above

195. According to Ras-tarangini, purification of Bhallatak is performed with : (A) Gomutra (B) Godugdha (C) Narikel jala (D) A & B both

Answer Key:


1 B
2 C

3 D
4 A
5 B

6 A
7 B
8 D
9 B
10 C

11 A
12 C
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C

17 D
18 B

19 B
20 C
21 D 
22 D

23 B 
24 A

25 B
26 D
27 B
28 D
29 B
30 B
31 A
32 D
33 B

34 C
35 B
36 A

37 B
38 D
39 C
40 C
41 B

42 C
43 A

44 C
45 B
46 A
47 A

48 B
49 C
50 D

51 A
52 B
53 B
54 C
55 C
56 C

57 C
58 D
59 D
60 C

61 B 
62 B 

63 B
64 B
65 D
66 C
67 C
68 C
69 C
70 A

71 B
72 B
73 C

74 C
75 C
76 D
77 D
78 B
79 B
80 C
81 B
82 D
83 A
84 B
85 B
86 B
87 D
88 A
89 A

90 C
91 D
92 B
93 C
94 D
95 A

96 C
97 A
98 C
99 D
100 B

​101 B
102 B 
103 B 
104 C

105 B
106 B

107 D
108 A
109 B
110 B
111 C

112 C 
113 B
114 D
115 D
116 B
117 D
118 A
119 D
120 C
121 B
122 C
123 A

124 D
125 C
126 B

127 B
128 A
129 B
130 C
131 C

132 B
133 D
134 A
135 B

136 C
137 C
138 C
139 B

140 A
141 A 
​142 A
143 D

144 B 
145 D
146 B
147 A
148 D
149 A

150 A
151 A
152 B
153 D
154 D
155 C
156 D

157 A
158 B
159 D
160 B

161 D
162 D
163 D
164 B
165 A
166 B

167 B
168 A

169 C
170 A
171 A
172 A
173 D

174 D
175 A
176 D
177 C
178 B

179 D
180 B
181 C
182 A
​183 B

184 C
185 C
186 D
187 B
188 D
189 C
190 A

191 D
192 A

193 B
194 D
195 C

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