PLASTIC AND RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERY
PLASTIC AND RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERY ANSWER KEYS
1:-Suggested 'ideal' breast measurements in the context of inferior pedicle breast reduction surgery do not include
A:-Sternal notch to nipple distance of 21 cm
B:-Inter-nipple distance 21 cm
C:-The nipple to inframammary fold distance of 3.4 cm
D:-Areolar diameter 4 cm
Ans: C
2:-In the management of chemical burns, the following first aid should be done except
A:-Removal of the inciting agent
B:-Contaminated clothes should be removed
C:-Neutralization of the inciting agent should be done
D:-Affected skin should be copiously irrigated with water
Ans: C
3:-Clinodactyly and camptodactyly are examples of
A:-Failure of formation of parts
B:-Failure of differentiation or separation of parts
C:-Duplication
D:-Overgrowth
Ans: B
4:-Most common type of thumb duplication is
A:-Bifid distal phalanx
B:-Duplicated distal phalanx
C:-Bifid proximal phalanx
D:-Duplicated proximal phalanx
Ans: D
5:-Following statements are true for macrodactyly, except
A:-Single or multiple digits can be involved
B:-The little finger is most frequently affected
C:-The defect is more common in males
D:-Majority of cases are unilateral
Ans: B
6:-True for Dupuytren's disease except
A:-It is the development of scar tissue in the palm and digits
B:-The scar tissue contains normally occurring type 1 collagen
C:-The cords of scar result in the contraction of the metacarpophalangeal joints
D:-It may result inpseudo boutonniere deformity
Ans: B
7:-Absolute contraindication to replantation is
A:-Patient's advanced age
B:-Avulsion injuries
C:-Multiple injuries within the amputation part
D:-Prolonged warm ischaemia time
Ans: C
8:-The most frequent indication for tendon transfer is
A:-Poliomyelitis
B:-Paralysis of healthy muscle, usually from nerve injury
C:-Treating spastic disorders
D:-Injury to the muscles
Ans: B
9:-Strong contraindications to elective thumb reconstruction include the following except
A:-Significant vascular disease
B:-Short life expectancy
C:-Unreconstructable sensory loss
D:-High patient expectations
Ans: D
10:-True for carpal tunnel syndrome, except
A:-It is a neurological disorder median nerve
B:-It is typically first manifested by numbers of the middle finger and adjacent side of the ring finger
C:-It occurs more frequently among women
D:-As the duration increases numbers extends into the thumb and index finger
Ans: A
11:-Kaplan's cardinal line is formed by
A:-Palmer creases of hand
B:-A line draw from the apex of the first web space to the edge of pisciform bone
C:-A draw from hook of hallmark to pisciform bone
D:-Life lines on ulnar aspect of hand
Ans: B
12:-Felon is
A:-Parona's space infection
B:-Also known as pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis
C:-Subcutaneous abscess of the distal pulp of finger
D:-Deep palmer arch infection
Ans: C
13:-Which zone of hand is also known as 'no man's land' ?
A:-Zone II flexor tendon system
B:-Zone II extensor tendon system
C:-Zone IV extensor tendon system
D:-Zone IV flexor tendon system
Ans: A
14:-In the process of breast implant selection, the following are important except
A:-Soft tissue quality
B:-Bra and cup size
C:-Implant volume
D:-Implant shape
Ans: B
15:-Kienbock disease is
A:-Avascular necrosis of lunate
B:-Avascular necrosis of hook of hamate
C:-Avascular necrosis of neck of femur
D:-Avascular necrosis of capitates
Ans: A
16:-Which of the test is done for median nerve injury ?
A:-Forments test
B:-Jeanne's sign
C:-Wartenberg's sign
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
17:-Dominant pedicle to Tensor Fascial lata is
A:-Ascending branch of deep femoral circumflex artery
B:-Branch from obdurate artery
C:-Descending branch of inferior epigastria artery
D:-Ascending branch of lateral femoral circumflex artery
Ans: D
18:-The anterolateral thigh perforator flap in first reported by
A:-Mathes and Nahai
B:-Beck and Song
C:-Mcgreger
D:-H. Gilles
Ans: B
19:-Thoracdorsal artery perforater flap was first described by
A:-Angrigiani
B:-Bakamjian
C:-PC Neligan
D:-Song
Ans: A
20:-Singapore flap technique used reconstruction of which structure ?
A:-Penis
B:-Vagina
C:-Scrotun
D:-Pressure ulcer defect
Ans: B
A:-Sternal notch to nipple distance of 21 cm
B:-Inter-nipple distance 21 cm
C:-The nipple to inframammary fold distance of 3.4 cm
D:-Areolar diameter 4 cm
Ans: C
2:-In the management of chemical burns, the following first aid should be done except
A:-Removal of the inciting agent
B:-Contaminated clothes should be removed
C:-Neutralization of the inciting agent should be done
D:-Affected skin should be copiously irrigated with water
Ans: C
3:-Clinodactyly and camptodactyly are examples of
A:-Failure of formation of parts
B:-Failure of differentiation or separation of parts
C:-Duplication
D:-Overgrowth
Ans: B
4:-Most common type of thumb duplication is
A:-Bifid distal phalanx
B:-Duplicated distal phalanx
C:-Bifid proximal phalanx
D:-Duplicated proximal phalanx
Ans: D
5:-Following statements are true for macrodactyly, except
A:-Single or multiple digits can be involved
B:-The little finger is most frequently affected
C:-The defect is more common in males
D:-Majority of cases are unilateral
Ans: B
6:-True for Dupuytren's disease except
A:-It is the development of scar tissue in the palm and digits
B:-The scar tissue contains normally occurring type 1 collagen
C:-The cords of scar result in the contraction of the metacarpophalangeal joints
D:-It may result inpseudo boutonniere deformity
Ans: B
7:-Absolute contraindication to replantation is
A:-Patient's advanced age
B:-Avulsion injuries
C:-Multiple injuries within the amputation part
D:-Prolonged warm ischaemia time
Ans: C
8:-The most frequent indication for tendon transfer is
A:-Poliomyelitis
B:-Paralysis of healthy muscle, usually from nerve injury
C:-Treating spastic disorders
D:-Injury to the muscles
Ans: B
9:-Strong contraindications to elective thumb reconstruction include the following except
A:-Significant vascular disease
B:-Short life expectancy
C:-Unreconstructable sensory loss
D:-High patient expectations
Ans: D
10:-True for carpal tunnel syndrome, except
A:-It is a neurological disorder median nerve
B:-It is typically first manifested by numbers of the middle finger and adjacent side of the ring finger
C:-It occurs more frequently among women
D:-As the duration increases numbers extends into the thumb and index finger
Ans: A
11:-Kaplan's cardinal line is formed by
A:-Palmer creases of hand
B:-A line draw from the apex of the first web space to the edge of pisciform bone
C:-A draw from hook of hallmark to pisciform bone
D:-Life lines on ulnar aspect of hand
Ans: B
12:-Felon is
A:-Parona's space infection
B:-Also known as pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis
C:-Subcutaneous abscess of the distal pulp of finger
D:-Deep palmer arch infection
Ans: C
13:-Which zone of hand is also known as 'no man's land' ?
A:-Zone II flexor tendon system
B:-Zone II extensor tendon system
C:-Zone IV extensor tendon system
D:-Zone IV flexor tendon system
Ans: A
14:-In the process of breast implant selection, the following are important except
A:-Soft tissue quality
B:-Bra and cup size
C:-Implant volume
D:-Implant shape
Ans: B
15:-Kienbock disease is
A:-Avascular necrosis of lunate
B:-Avascular necrosis of hook of hamate
C:-Avascular necrosis of neck of femur
D:-Avascular necrosis of capitates
Ans: A
16:-Which of the test is done for median nerve injury ?
A:-Forments test
B:-Jeanne's sign
C:-Wartenberg's sign
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
17:-Dominant pedicle to Tensor Fascial lata is
A:-Ascending branch of deep femoral circumflex artery
B:-Branch from obdurate artery
C:-Descending branch of inferior epigastria artery
D:-Ascending branch of lateral femoral circumflex artery
Ans: D
18:-The anterolateral thigh perforator flap in first reported by
A:-Mathes and Nahai
B:-Beck and Song
C:-Mcgreger
D:-H. Gilles
Ans: B
19:-Thoracdorsal artery perforater flap was first described by
A:-Angrigiani
B:-Bakamjian
C:-PC Neligan
D:-Song
Ans: A
20:-Singapore flap technique used reconstruction of which structure ?
A:-Penis
B:-Vagina
C:-Scrotun
D:-Pressure ulcer defect
Ans: B
21:-Lesions in the oral cavity having high potential for malignant transformation are all of the following except
A:-Erthroplakia
B:-Speckled erythroplakia
C:-Chronia hyperplastic candidiasis
D:-Oral lichen planus
Ans: C
22:-Most common site of hypospadias is
A:-Coronal
B:-Penile
C:-Scrotal
D:-Perineal
Ans: A
23:-The most accepted mechanism of wound contraction is attributed to
A:-Fibroblast
B:-Myofibroblast
C:-Collagen
D:-Cell division
Ans: B
24:-The function of Z-plasty is
A:-To lengthen a scar
B:-To break up a straight line
C:-To change the direction of scar
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
25:-The first instrument built specifically for harvesting of skin graft was developed by
A:-Humby
B:-Reverdin
C:-Padget
D:-Blair
Ans: A
26:-Primary contraction is more in
A:-Thin split thickness graft
B:-Intermediate split thickness graft
C:-Thick split thickness graft
D:-Full thickness graft
Ans: D
27:-In proliferative phase, which type of collagen is laid down ?
A:-Type I
B:-Type II
C:-Type III
D:-Type IV
Ans: C
28:-Commonest nerve for nerve graft is
A:-Common peroneal nerve
B:-Sural nerve
C:-Deep peroneal nerve
D:-Musculocutaneous nerve
Ans: B
29:-Oral cavity proper containes all except
A:-Floor of mouth
B:-Hard palate
C:-Posterior 1/3 tongue
D:-Anterior 2/3 of tongue
Ans: C
30:-Precursor skin lesions may be present in all the following cutaneous malignancies except
A:-Squamous cell carcinoma
B:-Basal cell carcinoma
C:-Melanoma
D:-Angiosarcoma
Ans: D
31:-Necrolytic migrating erythemous dermatitis is feature of
A:-Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B:-Verner-Morrison syndrome
C:-Glucagonoma syndrome
D:-Insulinoma
Ans: C
32:-The neo-epidermis of a scar of healed wound avulses easily and is more fragile than normal skin because of
A:-Deficiency of collagen in scar
B:-Increased fibroblasts at site
C:-Increased capillary network
D:-It is devoid of rete pegs
Ans: D
33:-PET scan detect malignant lesion by picking up
A:-Areas of increased vascularity
B:-Areas of hypermetabolic activity
C:-Areas of tissue necrosis
D:-Areas of microcalcification
Ans: B
34:-Out of the following, which one is usually not an axial pattern flap ?
A:-Inter polation flap
B:-Forehead flap
C:-Deltopectoral flap
D:-Groin flap
Ans: A
35:-Following are the flaps that rotate about a pivot point, except
A:-V-Y advancement flap
B:-Interpolation flap
C:-Rotation flap
D:-Transposition flap
Ans: A
36:-Following requirements are essential for a Limberg's flap except
A:-The adjacent skin should be loose
B:-The defect may be in any shape
C:-The opposing angles are of equal size
D:-It should have angles of 60 and 120 degree
Ans: B
37:-In Z-Plasty 100 perent theoretical gain in length is achieved with angles of
A:-45-45
B:-60-60
C:-75-75
D:-90-90
Ans: C
38:-In the Mathes and Nahai classification Pectoralis Major and Latissimus Dorsi Muscles belong to
A:-Type II
B:-Type III
C:-Type IV
D:-Type V
Ans: D
39:-The classification of nerve injuries was originally proposed by
A:-Sunderland
B:-Seddon
C:-Mackinnon
D:-Myckatyn
Ans: B
40:-The most aggressive type of Basal Cell carcinoma is
A:-Nodular
B:-Superficial
C:-Morpheaform
D:-Pigmented
Ans: C
41:-Which of the following statements is not true for Marjolin's ulcer ?
A:-It is a squamous cell carcinoma
B:-It develops in an area of chronic inflamation and scarring
C:-It carries a risk of metastasis of nearly 50%
D:-It does not spread to regional lymphnodes
Ans: C
42:-Not true for Groin Flap
A:-It is a hairy flap
B:-It is an axial flap
C:-It is based on superficial circumflex iliac artery system
D:-Usually the donor defect is closed primarily
Ans: A
43:-The surgical technique of total excision of lymphoedematous tissue and skin grafting is known as
A:-Thompson procedure
B:-Sistrunk's operation
C:-Homan's procedure
D:-Charle's procedure
Ans: D
44:-Tarsal tunnel syndrome presents as symptoms of compression of
A:-Common peroneal nerve
B:-Superficial peroneal nerve
C:-Posterior tibial nerve
D:-Deep peroneal nerve
Ans: C
45:-According to Gustilo classification, the compound fracture of tibia with soft tissue loss and exposed bone is
labeled as
A:-Type II
B:-Type III B
C:-Type III
D:-Type III A
Ans: B
46:-In carcinoma breast patient absolute contraindications to breast conservation are the following except
A:-Multiple ipsilateral lesions
B:-Diffuse suspicious microcalcifications
C:-Steroid dependant collagen vascular disease
D:-Radiation induced
Ans: D
47:-True statements for butolinum toxin A are the following except
A:-Clinically the beneficial effects of the toxin are apperest for more than one year
B:-Injection of botulinum toxin A are the most frequently performed cosmetic procedure in the United States
C:-Dr. Alan Scott, and ophthalmologist, pioneered the use of botulinum toxin A in humans
D:-It has been successful used to treat spasn of sphimeter of Oddi
Ans: A
48:-Level VI cervical nodes drain the following except
A:-Thyroid
B:-Glothic/Subglothic Larynx
C:-Pyriform sinus apex
D:-Naso phanynx
Ans: D
49:-Following are the signs and symptoms of fracture except
A:-Absence of stepping in the infraorbital margin
B:-Asymmetry of the malar region
C:-Anaesthesia in the infraorbital region
D:-Presence of trimus
Ans: A
50:-Unilateral cleft lip result from failure of fusion of
A:-Lateral nasal process and maxillary prominence
B:-Median nasal process and maxillary prominence
C:-Median nasal process and mandibular process
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
51:-Which of the following is not true for a patient seeking lower lid blepharoplasty ?
A:-A Schirmer I test showing less than 10 mm at 5 minutes would be a relative contra indication
B:-A 'snap' test should always be performed
C:-Excess skin below the level of the orbital margin is usually corrected by lower lid blepharoplasty
D:-Blindness is a rare but recognised complication
Ans: C
52:-Le fort II facial fracture, by definition involves
A:-The orbital floor always
B:-The orbital floor sometimes
C:-The cribriform plate always
D:-All of the above
Ans: A
53:-Common findings in submucus cleft are the following except
A:-A bifid uvula
B:-Velophayngeal in sufficiency
C:-A notched posterior hard palate
D:-Muscular diastasis of the velum
Ans: B
54:-In complete bilateral cleft of the lip and palate, the protruding premaxilla is attached to
A:-Right palatal shelve
B:-Left palatal shelve
C:-Vomerine bone
D:-Ethmoid bone
Ans: C
55:-In Pierre Robin sequence, the cleft palate should be repaired
A:-At 9 months
B:-At 12 months
C:-At 15 months
D:-Repair is delayed as compared to other cleft palate closures
Ans: D
56:-In the repair of cleft lip, upper lip Z-plasty is included in
A:-Rose Thompson repair
B:-Millard's repair
C:-Randall Tennison repair
D:-Skoog repair
Ans: C
57:-Following statements are true for Carpenter syndrome, except
A:-Head is asymmetric
B:-It is not a genetic disorder
C:-Presence of partial syndactyly of digits
D:-Preaxial polysyndactyly of the feet
Ans: B
58:-Not true for teacher Collins syndrome
A:-Unilateral hypoplasia of the body and arch of zygoma
B:-Significantly increased facial convexity
C:-Mandibular hypoplasia
D:-External and middle ear anomalies
Ans: A
59:-Following signs and symptoms are commonly present in zygomatic fractures, except
A:-Trismus
B:-Involvement of infraorbital nerver
C:-Enophthalmos
D:-Increased malar prominence
Ans: D
60:-Vertically favourable fracture of the mandible should usually be treated with
A:-Rigid fixation using plate and screws
B:-Interosseous wiring
C:-Interdental wiring
D:-Mandibulo-maxillary fixation
Ans: D
61:-Usually the plane of cleavage of scalp avulsion is
A:-Subcutaneous layer
B:-Galer aponeurotica
C:-Loose areolar tissue
D:-Subperiosteal layer
Ans: C
62:-The largest vessel supplying the scalp are
A:-Supratrochlear arteries
B:-Supraorbital arteries
C:-Superficial temporal arteries
D:-Occipital arteries
Ans: C
63:-True for scalp skin, except
A:-It is the thickest skin on the body
B:-Thickness ranges between 3 and 8 mm
C:-Beneath the skin lies the subcutaneous tissue layer, which contains follits
D:-It is not connected to the galea aponeurotica
Ans: D
64:-Following statements are true for the galea aponeurotia in the scalp except
A:-It is part of a broad fibromuscular layer that envelops the forehead and scalp
B:-It serves as the central tendinous confluence of the occipital muscle posteriorly and frontalis muscle anteriorly
C:-It does not have any attachment to the overlying skin
D:-It is continuous with the tempro parietal fascia
Ans: C
65:-Most common site of fracture of mandible is
A:-The neck of the condyle
B:-Angle of the mandible
C:-In the region of the canine teeth
D:-Symphysis menti
Ans: A
66:-Craniofacial dysjuction is seen in fracture maxilla type
A:-Le Fort I
B:-Le Fort II
C:-Le Forte III
D:-Vertical Fracture
Ans: C
67:-Not true for blow out fractures of the orbit
A:-Presence of Enoplthalmous
B:-Diplopia
C:-Restriction of upward rotation of robit
D:-Presence of fracture in the inforaobital rim
Ans: D
68:-Which answer is true regarding structural fatgrafting ?
A:-It should never be used in the nose
B:-It can be used to augment midface hypoplasia
C:-It cannot be used for breast augmentation without the Brava® device
D:-HIV is an absolute contraindication
Ans: B
69:-Commonest cause of Burns in Children <5 years old
A:-Electric
B:-Flame
C:-Scalds
D:-Chemical
Ans: C
70:-High voltage electric burn is when the voltage is
A:-≥ 220 V
B:-≥ 1000 V
C:-≥ 11000 V
D:-≥ 33000 V
Ans: B
71:-Amount of fluid used for resuscitation in Burn patient using parkland formula is
A:-1 ml/kg/% TBSA
B:-2 ml/kg/% TBSA
C:-3 ml/kg/% TBSA
D:-4 ml/kg/% TBSA
Ans: D
72:-Traditional classification of hemorrhagic shock a blood loss 30-40% is labled as
A:-Class I shock
B:-Class II shock
C:-Class III shock
D:-Class IV shock
Ans: C
73:-Complications of massive blood transfusion include all except
A:-Coagulopathy
B:-Hypocalcemia
C:-Hyperkalemia
D:-Hyperthermia
Ans: D
74:-In major acute burn patients, changes in glucose metabolism include
A:-Increased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
B:-Increased serum glucose and decreased serum insulin
C:-Decreased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
D:-Decreased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
Ans: A
75:-The rule 9s for the extent of surface area involvement in burns was described by
A:-Thiersch
B:-Parkland
C:-Wallance
D:-Evans
Ans: C
76:-Analgesic of choice for acute burn is
A:-Oral NSAID
B:-IV NSAID
C:-IV OPIATES
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
77:-Burn injury to skin, subcutaneous fat into underlying muscle or bone is classified as
A:-II degree burn
B:-IV degree burn
C:-III degree burn
D:-V degree burn
Ans: B
78:-All are resuscitation formula used for calculating fluid requirement in burn patients except
A:-Parkland formula
B:-Berknow formula
C:-Galveston formula
D:-Brooke formula
Ans: B
79:-Deep partial thickness burns will heal in
A:-7-10 days
B:-10-14 days
C:-14-21 days
D:-More than 21 days with contractures
Ans: D
80:-Full thickness burns are charactised by the following except
A:-Presence of blisters
B:-Brown, black surface
C:-Leathery look
D:-Insensate
Ans: A
A:-Erthroplakia
B:-Speckled erythroplakia
C:-Chronia hyperplastic candidiasis
D:-Oral lichen planus
Ans: C
22:-Most common site of hypospadias is
A:-Coronal
B:-Penile
C:-Scrotal
D:-Perineal
Ans: A
23:-The most accepted mechanism of wound contraction is attributed to
A:-Fibroblast
B:-Myofibroblast
C:-Collagen
D:-Cell division
Ans: B
24:-The function of Z-plasty is
A:-To lengthen a scar
B:-To break up a straight line
C:-To change the direction of scar
D:-All of the above
Ans: D
25:-The first instrument built specifically for harvesting of skin graft was developed by
A:-Humby
B:-Reverdin
C:-Padget
D:-Blair
Ans: A
26:-Primary contraction is more in
A:-Thin split thickness graft
B:-Intermediate split thickness graft
C:-Thick split thickness graft
D:-Full thickness graft
Ans: D
27:-In proliferative phase, which type of collagen is laid down ?
A:-Type I
B:-Type II
C:-Type III
D:-Type IV
Ans: C
28:-Commonest nerve for nerve graft is
A:-Common peroneal nerve
B:-Sural nerve
C:-Deep peroneal nerve
D:-Musculocutaneous nerve
Ans: B
29:-Oral cavity proper containes all except
A:-Floor of mouth
B:-Hard palate
C:-Posterior 1/3 tongue
D:-Anterior 2/3 of tongue
Ans: C
30:-Precursor skin lesions may be present in all the following cutaneous malignancies except
A:-Squamous cell carcinoma
B:-Basal cell carcinoma
C:-Melanoma
D:-Angiosarcoma
Ans: D
31:-Necrolytic migrating erythemous dermatitis is feature of
A:-Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B:-Verner-Morrison syndrome
C:-Glucagonoma syndrome
D:-Insulinoma
Ans: C
32:-The neo-epidermis of a scar of healed wound avulses easily and is more fragile than normal skin because of
A:-Deficiency of collagen in scar
B:-Increased fibroblasts at site
C:-Increased capillary network
D:-It is devoid of rete pegs
Ans: D
33:-PET scan detect malignant lesion by picking up
A:-Areas of increased vascularity
B:-Areas of hypermetabolic activity
C:-Areas of tissue necrosis
D:-Areas of microcalcification
Ans: B
34:-Out of the following, which one is usually not an axial pattern flap ?
A:-Inter polation flap
B:-Forehead flap
C:-Deltopectoral flap
D:-Groin flap
Ans: A
35:-Following are the flaps that rotate about a pivot point, except
A:-V-Y advancement flap
B:-Interpolation flap
C:-Rotation flap
D:-Transposition flap
Ans: A
36:-Following requirements are essential for a Limberg's flap except
A:-The adjacent skin should be loose
B:-The defect may be in any shape
C:-The opposing angles are of equal size
D:-It should have angles of 60 and 120 degree
Ans: B
37:-In Z-Plasty 100 perent theoretical gain in length is achieved with angles of
A:-45-45
B:-60-60
C:-75-75
D:-90-90
Ans: C
38:-In the Mathes and Nahai classification Pectoralis Major and Latissimus Dorsi Muscles belong to
A:-Type II
B:-Type III
C:-Type IV
D:-Type V
Ans: D
39:-The classification of nerve injuries was originally proposed by
A:-Sunderland
B:-Seddon
C:-Mackinnon
D:-Myckatyn
Ans: B
40:-The most aggressive type of Basal Cell carcinoma is
A:-Nodular
B:-Superficial
C:-Morpheaform
D:-Pigmented
Ans: C
41:-Which of the following statements is not true for Marjolin's ulcer ?
A:-It is a squamous cell carcinoma
B:-It develops in an area of chronic inflamation and scarring
C:-It carries a risk of metastasis of nearly 50%
D:-It does not spread to regional lymphnodes
Ans: C
42:-Not true for Groin Flap
A:-It is a hairy flap
B:-It is an axial flap
C:-It is based on superficial circumflex iliac artery system
D:-Usually the donor defect is closed primarily
Ans: A
43:-The surgical technique of total excision of lymphoedematous tissue and skin grafting is known as
A:-Thompson procedure
B:-Sistrunk's operation
C:-Homan's procedure
D:-Charle's procedure
Ans: D
44:-Tarsal tunnel syndrome presents as symptoms of compression of
A:-Common peroneal nerve
B:-Superficial peroneal nerve
C:-Posterior tibial nerve
D:-Deep peroneal nerve
Ans: C
45:-According to Gustilo classification, the compound fracture of tibia with soft tissue loss and exposed bone is
labeled as
A:-Type II
B:-Type III B
C:-Type III
D:-Type III A
Ans: B
46:-In carcinoma breast patient absolute contraindications to breast conservation are the following except
A:-Multiple ipsilateral lesions
B:-Diffuse suspicious microcalcifications
C:-Steroid dependant collagen vascular disease
D:-Radiation induced
Ans: D
47:-True statements for butolinum toxin A are the following except
A:-Clinically the beneficial effects of the toxin are apperest for more than one year
B:-Injection of botulinum toxin A are the most frequently performed cosmetic procedure in the United States
C:-Dr. Alan Scott, and ophthalmologist, pioneered the use of botulinum toxin A in humans
D:-It has been successful used to treat spasn of sphimeter of Oddi
Ans: A
48:-Level VI cervical nodes drain the following except
A:-Thyroid
B:-Glothic/Subglothic Larynx
C:-Pyriform sinus apex
D:-Naso phanynx
Ans: D
49:-Following are the signs and symptoms of fracture except
A:-Absence of stepping in the infraorbital margin
B:-Asymmetry of the malar region
C:-Anaesthesia in the infraorbital region
D:-Presence of trimus
Ans: A
50:-Unilateral cleft lip result from failure of fusion of
A:-Lateral nasal process and maxillary prominence
B:-Median nasal process and maxillary prominence
C:-Median nasal process and mandibular process
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
51:-Which of the following is not true for a patient seeking lower lid blepharoplasty ?
A:-A Schirmer I test showing less than 10 mm at 5 minutes would be a relative contra indication
B:-A 'snap' test should always be performed
C:-Excess skin below the level of the orbital margin is usually corrected by lower lid blepharoplasty
D:-Blindness is a rare but recognised complication
Ans: C
52:-Le fort II facial fracture, by definition involves
A:-The orbital floor always
B:-The orbital floor sometimes
C:-The cribriform plate always
D:-All of the above
Ans: A
53:-Common findings in submucus cleft are the following except
A:-A bifid uvula
B:-Velophayngeal in sufficiency
C:-A notched posterior hard palate
D:-Muscular diastasis of the velum
Ans: B
54:-In complete bilateral cleft of the lip and palate, the protruding premaxilla is attached to
A:-Right palatal shelve
B:-Left palatal shelve
C:-Vomerine bone
D:-Ethmoid bone
Ans: C
55:-In Pierre Robin sequence, the cleft palate should be repaired
A:-At 9 months
B:-At 12 months
C:-At 15 months
D:-Repair is delayed as compared to other cleft palate closures
Ans: D
56:-In the repair of cleft lip, upper lip Z-plasty is included in
A:-Rose Thompson repair
B:-Millard's repair
C:-Randall Tennison repair
D:-Skoog repair
Ans: C
57:-Following statements are true for Carpenter syndrome, except
A:-Head is asymmetric
B:-It is not a genetic disorder
C:-Presence of partial syndactyly of digits
D:-Preaxial polysyndactyly of the feet
Ans: B
58:-Not true for teacher Collins syndrome
A:-Unilateral hypoplasia of the body and arch of zygoma
B:-Significantly increased facial convexity
C:-Mandibular hypoplasia
D:-External and middle ear anomalies
Ans: A
59:-Following signs and symptoms are commonly present in zygomatic fractures, except
A:-Trismus
B:-Involvement of infraorbital nerver
C:-Enophthalmos
D:-Increased malar prominence
Ans: D
60:-Vertically favourable fracture of the mandible should usually be treated with
A:-Rigid fixation using plate and screws
B:-Interosseous wiring
C:-Interdental wiring
D:-Mandibulo-maxillary fixation
Ans: D
61:-Usually the plane of cleavage of scalp avulsion is
A:-Subcutaneous layer
B:-Galer aponeurotica
C:-Loose areolar tissue
D:-Subperiosteal layer
Ans: C
62:-The largest vessel supplying the scalp are
A:-Supratrochlear arteries
B:-Supraorbital arteries
C:-Superficial temporal arteries
D:-Occipital arteries
Ans: C
63:-True for scalp skin, except
A:-It is the thickest skin on the body
B:-Thickness ranges between 3 and 8 mm
C:-Beneath the skin lies the subcutaneous tissue layer, which contains follits
D:-It is not connected to the galea aponeurotica
Ans: D
64:-Following statements are true for the galea aponeurotia in the scalp except
A:-It is part of a broad fibromuscular layer that envelops the forehead and scalp
B:-It serves as the central tendinous confluence of the occipital muscle posteriorly and frontalis muscle anteriorly
C:-It does not have any attachment to the overlying skin
D:-It is continuous with the tempro parietal fascia
Ans: C
65:-Most common site of fracture of mandible is
A:-The neck of the condyle
B:-Angle of the mandible
C:-In the region of the canine teeth
D:-Symphysis menti
Ans: A
66:-Craniofacial dysjuction is seen in fracture maxilla type
A:-Le Fort I
B:-Le Fort II
C:-Le Forte III
D:-Vertical Fracture
Ans: C
67:-Not true for blow out fractures of the orbit
A:-Presence of Enoplthalmous
B:-Diplopia
C:-Restriction of upward rotation of robit
D:-Presence of fracture in the inforaobital rim
Ans: D
68:-Which answer is true regarding structural fatgrafting ?
A:-It should never be used in the nose
B:-It can be used to augment midface hypoplasia
C:-It cannot be used for breast augmentation without the Brava® device
D:-HIV is an absolute contraindication
Ans: B
69:-Commonest cause of Burns in Children <5 years old
A:-Electric
B:-Flame
C:-Scalds
D:-Chemical
Ans: C
70:-High voltage electric burn is when the voltage is
A:-≥ 220 V
B:-≥ 1000 V
C:-≥ 11000 V
D:-≥ 33000 V
Ans: B
71:-Amount of fluid used for resuscitation in Burn patient using parkland formula is
A:-1 ml/kg/% TBSA
B:-2 ml/kg/% TBSA
C:-3 ml/kg/% TBSA
D:-4 ml/kg/% TBSA
Ans: D
72:-Traditional classification of hemorrhagic shock a blood loss 30-40% is labled as
A:-Class I shock
B:-Class II shock
C:-Class III shock
D:-Class IV shock
Ans: C
73:-Complications of massive blood transfusion include all except
A:-Coagulopathy
B:-Hypocalcemia
C:-Hyperkalemia
D:-Hyperthermia
Ans: D
74:-In major acute burn patients, changes in glucose metabolism include
A:-Increased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
B:-Increased serum glucose and decreased serum insulin
C:-Decreased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
D:-Decreased serum glucose and increased serum insulin
Ans: A
75:-The rule 9s for the extent of surface area involvement in burns was described by
A:-Thiersch
B:-Parkland
C:-Wallance
D:-Evans
Ans: C
76:-Analgesic of choice for acute burn is
A:-Oral NSAID
B:-IV NSAID
C:-IV OPIATES
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
77:-Burn injury to skin, subcutaneous fat into underlying muscle or bone is classified as
A:-II degree burn
B:-IV degree burn
C:-III degree burn
D:-V degree burn
Ans: B
78:-All are resuscitation formula used for calculating fluid requirement in burn patients except
A:-Parkland formula
B:-Berknow formula
C:-Galveston formula
D:-Brooke formula
Ans: B
79:-Deep partial thickness burns will heal in
A:-7-10 days
B:-10-14 days
C:-14-21 days
D:-More than 21 days with contractures
Ans: D
80:-Full thickness burns are charactised by the following except
A:-Presence of blisters
B:-Brown, black surface
C:-Leathery look
D:-Insensate
Ans: A