BASIC ENGINEERING -PAGE 3
BASIC ENGINEERING MCQs- PAGE 3
1. Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur with managerial control is called:
(A) Joint venture (B) Majority interest (C) Horizontal merger (D) Diversified activity merger
Ans: B
2. Pitch point on a cam is
(A) any point on pitch curve (B) the point on cam pitch curve having the maximum pressure angle
(C) any point on pitch circle (D) the point on cam pitch curve having the minimum pressure angle
Ans: B
3. Any point on a link connecting double slider crank chain will trace a
(A) straight line (B) circle (C) ellipse (D) parabola
Ans: C
4. Idler pulley is used
(A) for changing the direction of motion of the belt (B) for applying tension (C) for increasing -velocity ratio (D) all options are correct
Ans: B
5. The locus of a point on a thread unwound from a cylinder will be
(A) a straight line (B) a circle (C) involute (D) cycloidal
Ans: C
6. Inertia force acts
(A) opposite to the direction of acceleration (B) perpendicular to the acceleration (C) along the direction of acceleration (D) none of the option correct
Ans: A
7. According to Kennedy’s theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous centers lie on
(A) a triangle (B) a point (C) two lines (D) a straight line
Ans: D
8. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is known as
(A) elasticity (B) endurance (C) strength (D) toughness
Ans: D
9. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable for
(A) ductile materials (B) brittle materials (C) elastic materials (D) all of the above
Ans: B
10. For applications involving high loads in one direction only, the following type of thread would be best suited
(A) ISO metric thread (B) Acme thread (C) Square thread (D) Buttress thread
Ans: D
11. The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have ...................... coefficient of friction
(A) Low (B) High (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: B
12. The brake bleeding process removes from system
(A) Air (B) Vacuum (C) Excess fluid (D) Excess pressure
Ans: A
13. The plane carbon steel having AISI-SAE code 1040 has
(A) 10% carbon (B) 0.10% carbon (C) 40% carbon (D) 0.40% carbon
Ans: D
14. The unique property of cast iron is its high
(A) malleability (B) ductility (C) surface finish (D) damping characteristics
Ans: D
15. Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new products that over time make current products obsolete? (A) New business model (B) Anatomization (C) None of the given options (D) Creative destruction
Ans: D
16. Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbon
(A) 0.02% (B) 0.8% (C) 0.3% (D) 0.63%
Ans: B
17. Which of the following factors is the most important in forcing modern companies to focus on new product development and increased productivity?
(A) Entrepreneurship (B) Hyper competition (C) Governmental laws (D) Organizational culture
Ans: B
18. Pearlite is a combination of
(A) ferrite and cementite (B) cementite and gamma iron (C) ferrite and austenite (D) ferrite and iron graphite
Ans: A
19. Which one among the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode?
(A) Gas metal arc welding (B) Submerged arc welding (C) Gas tungsten arc welding (D) Flux coated arc welding
Ans: C
20. In DC arc welding, if workpiece is connected to negative terminal and electrode to the positive terminal, the arrangement is known as (A) Fusion (B) Reverse polarity (C) Forward welding (D) Direct polarity
Ans: B
21. A process oriented layout
(A) allocates shelf space based on customer behavior
(B) addresses the layout requirements of large bulky projects such as ships and buildings
(C) deals with low volume, high variety production
(D) seeks the best machine utilization in continuous production
Ans: C
22. The difference(s) between the basic EOQ model and the production order quantity model is(are) that
(A) the production order quantity model does not require the assumption of instantaneous delivery
(B) the production order quantity model does not require the assumption of known, constant demand
(C) the EOQ model does not require the assumption of negligible lead time
(D) All choices are valid
Ans: A
23. Critical Ratio, CR >1 means:
(A) Job is just on time (B) Cannot make such inferences as it is related to project management
(C) Job is ahead of schedule (D) Job is behind schedule
Ans: C
24. The two most important questions answered by typical inventory model are:
(A) how much of an item to order and cost of the order (B) when to place an order and the cost of the order
(C) how much of an item to order and with whom the order must be placed (D) when to place an order and how much of an item to order
Ans: D
25. Productivity:
(A) Can be expressed in dimensionless form (B) Is same as efficiency
(C) Can only be expressed as units produced per hour (D) Can use many factors as numerator
Ans: A
26. Aggregate production planning caters to
(A) short range production plans (B) revenue management plans (C) detailed production schedules (D) medium range production plans
Ans: D
27. Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to their familiarity with the needs of market?
(A) Existing products and services (B) Distribution channels (C) Central government (D) Consumers
Ans: B
28. Productivity decreases when:
(A) Inputs decrease while outputs remain the same (B) Inputs increase while output remains the same
(C) Outputs increase when inputs remain the same (D) Inputs and outputs, both increase by same amount
Ans: B
29. The assignment method involves adding and subtracting appropriate numbers in the table to find the lowest ................ for entire batch of assignments.
(A) opportunity cost (B) number of steps (C) range per row (D) number of allocations
Ans: A
30. The distance a screw thread advances axially in one turn is the:
(A) Lead (B) Pitch (C) Turn (D) Crest
Ans: A
31. Kanban is the Japanese word for:
(A) Card (B) Pull (C) Car (D) Continuous improvement
Ans: A
32. A lot sizing policy that orders on a predetermined time interval with the order quantity equal to the total of interval’s requirement is: (A) part period balancing (B) lot for lot policy (C) economic order quantity (D) periodic order quantity
Ans: D
33. The scheduling rule that will clear rush of jobs from the work space quickly is:
(A) Longest Processing Time (LPT) first (B) Shortest Processing Time (SPT) first
(C) Last Come First Serve (LCFS) first (D) First Come First Serve (FCFS) first
Ans: B
34. ABC analysis divides on-hand inventory into three classes, based on:
(A) annual demand (B) unit price (C) lead time (D) annual dollar value
Ans: D
35. The job that should be scheduled last when using Johnson’s rule is the job with the:
(A) shortest activity time if it lies with the second machine (B) largest activity time if it lies with the second machine
(C) largest total processing time on both machines (D) smallest total processing time on both machines
Ans: A
36. The two ways of drawing orthographic projection are
(A) First angle, second angle (B) First angle, third angle (C) Second angle, third angle (D) Second angle, fourth angle
Ans: B
37. The critical path in a project activities network refers to:
(A) path with the fewest activities (B) longest time path through the network (C) path with most activities (D) path with maximum slack
Ans: B
38. Extra units kept in inventory to help reduce stockouts are called:
(A) reorder point (B) safety stock (C) just in time inventory (D) EOQ
Ans: B
39. A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up a new distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?
(A) Ecopreneur (B) Technopreneur
(C) Intrapreneur (D) Social Entrepreneur
Ans: C
40. A Micro Enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery does not exceed (According to MSMED Act, 2006):
(A) Rs. 15 Lakh (B) Rs. 20 Lakh (C) Rs. 25 Lakh (D) Rs. 30 Lakh
Ans: C
41. A performance and credit rating scheme has been launched by the MSME Ministry to assess creditworthiness and capabilities of industries in the sector. What is it called?
(A) Performance and Credit Rating Scheme
(B) Zero Defect Zero Effect Certification
(C) Performance and Economy Rating Scheme
(D) Rest of the choices incorrect
Ans: A
42. Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a new venture
(A) To identify possible sources of funds (B) To see if there are possible barriers to success
(C) To estimate the expected sales (D) To explore potential customers
Ans: B
43. Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?
(A) Idea Stage (B) Product Planning Stage (C) Product Development Stage (D) Test Marketing Stage
Ans: C
44. How many types of CAD are there?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5
Ans: D
45. Which of the following mixture is preferred for filling around the earth electrode effective earthing?
(A) Bone meal mixture (B) Coal salt mixture (C) Saw dust sand mixture (D) Lime-stand mixture
Ans: B
46. Earthing of electric appliances is done
(A) For the safety of human life (B) To reduce line voltage fluctuation (C) For protection of electric equipment (D) All of these
Ans: D
47. For household wiring and small units, the .............. should be used for safety measure.
(A) MCB (B) ACB (C) OCB (D) MCCB
Ans: A
48. Which of the following colour is used for radiation hazard?
(A) Red (B) Orange (C) Green (D) Purple
Ans: D
49. Decibel (dB) is a unit used to measure
(A) Light (B) Sound (C) Frequency (D) None of these
Ans: B
50. Modem CAD systems are based on:
(A) ICG (B) GCI (C) GIF (D) IFG
Ans: A
(A) Joint venture (B) Majority interest (C) Horizontal merger (D) Diversified activity merger
Ans: B
2. Pitch point on a cam is
(A) any point on pitch curve (B) the point on cam pitch curve having the maximum pressure angle
(C) any point on pitch circle (D) the point on cam pitch curve having the minimum pressure angle
Ans: B
3. Any point on a link connecting double slider crank chain will trace a
(A) straight line (B) circle (C) ellipse (D) parabola
Ans: C
4. Idler pulley is used
(A) for changing the direction of motion of the belt (B) for applying tension (C) for increasing -velocity ratio (D) all options are correct
Ans: B
5. The locus of a point on a thread unwound from a cylinder will be
(A) a straight line (B) a circle (C) involute (D) cycloidal
Ans: C
6. Inertia force acts
(A) opposite to the direction of acceleration (B) perpendicular to the acceleration (C) along the direction of acceleration (D) none of the option correct
Ans: A
7. According to Kennedy’s theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous centers lie on
(A) a triangle (B) a point (C) two lines (D) a straight line
Ans: D
8. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is known as
(A) elasticity (B) endurance (C) strength (D) toughness
Ans: D
9. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable for
(A) ductile materials (B) brittle materials (C) elastic materials (D) all of the above
Ans: B
10. For applications involving high loads in one direction only, the following type of thread would be best suited
(A) ISO metric thread (B) Acme thread (C) Square thread (D) Buttress thread
Ans: D
11. The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have ...................... coefficient of friction
(A) Low (B) High (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: B
12. The brake bleeding process removes from system
(A) Air (B) Vacuum (C) Excess fluid (D) Excess pressure
Ans: A
13. The plane carbon steel having AISI-SAE code 1040 has
(A) 10% carbon (B) 0.10% carbon (C) 40% carbon (D) 0.40% carbon
Ans: D
14. The unique property of cast iron is its high
(A) malleability (B) ductility (C) surface finish (D) damping characteristics
Ans: D
15. Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new products that over time make current products obsolete? (A) New business model (B) Anatomization (C) None of the given options (D) Creative destruction
Ans: D
16. Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbon
(A) 0.02% (B) 0.8% (C) 0.3% (D) 0.63%
Ans: B
17. Which of the following factors is the most important in forcing modern companies to focus on new product development and increased productivity?
(A) Entrepreneurship (B) Hyper competition (C) Governmental laws (D) Organizational culture
Ans: B
18. Pearlite is a combination of
(A) ferrite and cementite (B) cementite and gamma iron (C) ferrite and austenite (D) ferrite and iron graphite
Ans: A
19. Which one among the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode?
(A) Gas metal arc welding (B) Submerged arc welding (C) Gas tungsten arc welding (D) Flux coated arc welding
Ans: C
20. In DC arc welding, if workpiece is connected to negative terminal and electrode to the positive terminal, the arrangement is known as (A) Fusion (B) Reverse polarity (C) Forward welding (D) Direct polarity
Ans: B
21. A process oriented layout
(A) allocates shelf space based on customer behavior
(B) addresses the layout requirements of large bulky projects such as ships and buildings
(C) deals with low volume, high variety production
(D) seeks the best machine utilization in continuous production
Ans: C
22. The difference(s) between the basic EOQ model and the production order quantity model is(are) that
(A) the production order quantity model does not require the assumption of instantaneous delivery
(B) the production order quantity model does not require the assumption of known, constant demand
(C) the EOQ model does not require the assumption of negligible lead time
(D) All choices are valid
Ans: A
23. Critical Ratio, CR >1 means:
(A) Job is just on time (B) Cannot make such inferences as it is related to project management
(C) Job is ahead of schedule (D) Job is behind schedule
Ans: C
24. The two most important questions answered by typical inventory model are:
(A) how much of an item to order and cost of the order (B) when to place an order and the cost of the order
(C) how much of an item to order and with whom the order must be placed (D) when to place an order and how much of an item to order
Ans: D
25. Productivity:
(A) Can be expressed in dimensionless form (B) Is same as efficiency
(C) Can only be expressed as units produced per hour (D) Can use many factors as numerator
Ans: A
26. Aggregate production planning caters to
(A) short range production plans (B) revenue management plans (C) detailed production schedules (D) medium range production plans
Ans: D
27. Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to their familiarity with the needs of market?
(A) Existing products and services (B) Distribution channels (C) Central government (D) Consumers
Ans: B
28. Productivity decreases when:
(A) Inputs decrease while outputs remain the same (B) Inputs increase while output remains the same
(C) Outputs increase when inputs remain the same (D) Inputs and outputs, both increase by same amount
Ans: B
29. The assignment method involves adding and subtracting appropriate numbers in the table to find the lowest ................ for entire batch of assignments.
(A) opportunity cost (B) number of steps (C) range per row (D) number of allocations
Ans: A
30. The distance a screw thread advances axially in one turn is the:
(A) Lead (B) Pitch (C) Turn (D) Crest
Ans: A
31. Kanban is the Japanese word for:
(A) Card (B) Pull (C) Car (D) Continuous improvement
Ans: A
32. A lot sizing policy that orders on a predetermined time interval with the order quantity equal to the total of interval’s requirement is: (A) part period balancing (B) lot for lot policy (C) economic order quantity (D) periodic order quantity
Ans: D
33. The scheduling rule that will clear rush of jobs from the work space quickly is:
(A) Longest Processing Time (LPT) first (B) Shortest Processing Time (SPT) first
(C) Last Come First Serve (LCFS) first (D) First Come First Serve (FCFS) first
Ans: B
34. ABC analysis divides on-hand inventory into three classes, based on:
(A) annual demand (B) unit price (C) lead time (D) annual dollar value
Ans: D
35. The job that should be scheduled last when using Johnson’s rule is the job with the:
(A) shortest activity time if it lies with the second machine (B) largest activity time if it lies with the second machine
(C) largest total processing time on both machines (D) smallest total processing time on both machines
Ans: A
36. The two ways of drawing orthographic projection are
(A) First angle, second angle (B) First angle, third angle (C) Second angle, third angle (D) Second angle, fourth angle
Ans: B
37. The critical path in a project activities network refers to:
(A) path with the fewest activities (B) longest time path through the network (C) path with most activities (D) path with maximum slack
Ans: B
38. Extra units kept in inventory to help reduce stockouts are called:
(A) reorder point (B) safety stock (C) just in time inventory (D) EOQ
Ans: B
39. A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up a new distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?
(A) Ecopreneur (B) Technopreneur
(C) Intrapreneur (D) Social Entrepreneur
Ans: C
40. A Micro Enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery does not exceed (According to MSMED Act, 2006):
(A) Rs. 15 Lakh (B) Rs. 20 Lakh (C) Rs. 25 Lakh (D) Rs. 30 Lakh
Ans: C
41. A performance and credit rating scheme has been launched by the MSME Ministry to assess creditworthiness and capabilities of industries in the sector. What is it called?
(A) Performance and Credit Rating Scheme
(B) Zero Defect Zero Effect Certification
(C) Performance and Economy Rating Scheme
(D) Rest of the choices incorrect
Ans: A
42. Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a new venture
(A) To identify possible sources of funds (B) To see if there are possible barriers to success
(C) To estimate the expected sales (D) To explore potential customers
Ans: B
43. Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?
(A) Idea Stage (B) Product Planning Stage (C) Product Development Stage (D) Test Marketing Stage
Ans: C
44. How many types of CAD are there?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5
Ans: D
45. Which of the following mixture is preferred for filling around the earth electrode effective earthing?
(A) Bone meal mixture (B) Coal salt mixture (C) Saw dust sand mixture (D) Lime-stand mixture
Ans: B
46. Earthing of electric appliances is done
(A) For the safety of human life (B) To reduce line voltage fluctuation (C) For protection of electric equipment (D) All of these
Ans: D
47. For household wiring and small units, the .............. should be used for safety measure.
(A) MCB (B) ACB (C) OCB (D) MCCB
Ans: A
48. Which of the following colour is used for radiation hazard?
(A) Red (B) Orange (C) Green (D) Purple
Ans: D
49. Decibel (dB) is a unit used to measure
(A) Light (B) Sound (C) Frequency (D) None of these
Ans: B
50. Modem CAD systems are based on:
(A) ICG (B) GCI (C) GIF (D) IFG
Ans: A
51. The class of fire occurs in electrical equipment is ..............
(A) Class-A fires (B) Class-B fires (C) Class-C fires (D) None of these
Ans: C
52. The medium employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker is ..............
(A) SF6 (B) Oil (C) Air (D) Water
Ans: C
53. SF6 gas is ..............
(A) Sulphur fluoride (B) Sulphur difluoride (C) Sulphur hexafluorine (D) Sulphur hexafluoride
Ans: D
54. A fuse wire should have
(A) Low specific resistance and high melting point (B) Low specific resistance and low melting point
(C) High specific resistance and high melting point (D) High specific resistance and low melting point
Ans: D
55. The GTO can be turned off
(A) By a positive gate pulse (B) By a negative gate pulse (C) By a negative anode-cathode voltage (D) By removing the gate pulse
Ans: B
56. The latching current of SCR is 20 mA. Its holding current will be ..............
(A) 23 mA (B) 40 mA (C) 10 mA (D) 60 Ma
Ans: C
57. In AutoCAD, which mode allows user to draw 90o straight lines :
(A) Osnap (B) Ortho (C) Linear (D) Polar tracking
Ans: B
58. An SCR is turned off when
(A) Anode current is reduced to zero (B) Gate voltage is reduced to zero (C) Gate is reverse biased (D) None of these
Ans: A
59. An SCR has .............. PN junctions.
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) None of these
Ans: B
60. .............. is used to measure the flow of air around aeroplane.
(A) Anemometer (B) Venturimeter (C) Orifice (D) None of these
Ans: A
61. The smallest change in measured variable to which instrument will respond is ..............
(A) Accuracy (B) Resolution (C) Precision (D) Sensitivity
Ans: B
62. The Grashof number in natural convection plays same role as
(A) Prandtl number (Pr) in forced convection (B) Reynolds number (Re) in forced convection
(C) Nusselt number (Nu) in forced convection (D) None of the options
Ans: B
63. The errors mainly caused by human mistakes are
(A) Gross error (B) Instrumental error (C) Observational error (D) Systematic error
Ans: A
64. Radiation shield should have
(A) Low reflectivity (B) High reflectivity (C) High emissivity (D) None of the options
Ans: B
65. A wattmeter reads 30.34 W. The absolute error in the measurement is - 2.22 W. What is the true value of power?
(A) 32.56 W (B) 28.12 W (C) 25.45 W (D) None of these
Ans: A
66. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the resistance to heat flow is
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: B
67. Thermistors are made of ..............
(A) Pure metals (B) Pure insulators (C) Tintered mixture of metallic oxides (D) Pure semiconductor
Ans: C
68. Output of a bimetallic element will be ..............
(A) Strain (B) Pressure (C) Displacement (D) Voltage
Ans: C
69. The number of points of contraflexure in a simple supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load, is
(A) One (B) Two (C) Zero (D) None of these
Ans: C
70. Which of the following conversion take place in bourdon tubes?
(A) Pressure to displacement (B) Pressure to voltage (C) Pressure to strain (D) Pressure to force
Ans: A
71. Which of the following thermocouple will give the highest output for the same value of hot and cold junction temperature?
(A) Type J (B) Type K (C) Type E (D) Type S
Ans: C
72. Semiconductor strain gages typically have much higher gage factors than those of metallic strain gages, primarily due to
(A) Higher temperature sensitivity (B) Higher piezoresitive coefficient
(C) Higher Poisson’s ratio (D) Higher magnetostrictive coefficient
Ans: B
73. Young’s Modulus of elasticity is
(A) Tensile stress / Tensile strain (B) Shear stress / Shear strain
(C) Tensile stress / Shear strain (D) Shear stress / Tensile strain
Ans: A
74. Mc-leoid gauge is used to measure the
(A) Flow rate (B) Level (C) Point velocity (D) Vacuum
Ans: D
75. Group of eight bits in a binary data is called
(A) Nibble (B) Bitwidth (C) Byte (D) Word
Ans: C
76. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal number is ..............
(A) 19 (B) 12 (C) 27 (D) 21
Ans: D
77. The universal gate is ..............
(A) NAND gate (B) OR gate (C) AND gate (D) None of these
Ans: A
78. The only function of NOT gate is to
(A) Stop signal (B) Invert input signal (C) Act as a universal gate (D) None of these
Ans: B
79. A device which converts BCD to seven segments is called
(A) Encoder (B) Decoder (C) Multiplexer (D) None of these
Ans: B
80. Which device has one input and many outputs?
(A) Demultiplexer (B) Multiplexer (C) Counter (D) Flip-flop
Ans: A
81. HMI means .............. machine interface.
(A) Human (B) Hand (C) Heart (D) High
Ans: A
82. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of
(A) Virtual relay contacts and coils (B) Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
(C) Function blocks with connecting lines (D) Text-based code
Ans: A
83. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, the amount of radiant energy per unit area is proportional to
(A) Absolute temperature (B) Square of absolute temperature
(C) Fourth power of absolute temperature (D) Cube of absolute temperature
Ans: C
84. A delta connection contains three equal impedance each of 60 Ω. The impedance of the equivalent star connection for each star load will be
(A) 15 Ω (B) 20 Ω (C) 30 Ω (D) 40 Ω
Ans: B
85. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which
(A) The technician enters the program (B) Timers and counters are indexed by
(C) One “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete (D) The entire program takes to execute
Ans: D
86. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses
(A) Normally-closed contacts in series (B) Normally-open contacts in series
(C) A single normally-closed contact (D) Normally-open contacts in parallel
Ans: D
87. Control in SCADA is ..............
(A) Automatic control (B) Direct Control (C) Supervisory control (D) Online control
Ans: C
88. Components of a traditional SCADA system is ..............
(A) RTU (B) Control station (C) Communication system (D) All of these
Ans: D
89. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit?
(A) Voltage (B) Current (C) Power (D) Resistance
Ans: B
90. When no external force acts on the body, after giving it an initial displacement, then the body is said to be under
(A) Free vibrations (B) Forced vibrations (C) Random vibrations (D) None of the options
Ans: A
91. The form factor is the ratio of ..............
(A) Peak value to RMS value (B) Average value to RMS value (C) RMS value to average value (D) None of these
Ans: C
92. Orthographic projection is also known as
(A) Single view projection (B) Two view projection (C) Multi view projection (D) All of the above
Ans: C
93. Ethernet uses ..............
(A) Bus topology (B) Ring topology (C) Mesh topology (D) None of these
Ans: A
94. How many workspaces are available in AutoCAD?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 5
Ans: C
95. In AutoCAD, which command is used to divide object into segments having predefined length?
(A) Divide (B) Chamfer (C) Trim (D) Measure
Ans: D
96. The S.I unit of power is...................
(A) Henry (B) Coulomb (C) Watt (D) Watt-hour
Ans: C
97. Conductance is reciprocal of....................
(A) Resistance (B) Inductance (C) Reluctance (D) Capacitance
Ans: A
98. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as ...............…
(A) Length (B) Area of cross-section (C) Temperature (D) Resistivity
Ans: B
99. With rise in temperature the resistances of pure metals
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) First increases and then decreases (D) Remains constant
Ans: A
100. Two resistances R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 ohms when in series and 1 ohm when in parallel. The resistances are ...............…
(A) 3 ohms and 6 ohms (B) 3 ohms and 9 ohms
(C) 1.5 ohms and 3 ohms (D) 1.5 ohms and 0.5 ohms
Ans: C
(A) Class-A fires (B) Class-B fires (C) Class-C fires (D) None of these
Ans: C
52. The medium employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker is ..............
(A) SF6 (B) Oil (C) Air (D) Water
Ans: C
53. SF6 gas is ..............
(A) Sulphur fluoride (B) Sulphur difluoride (C) Sulphur hexafluorine (D) Sulphur hexafluoride
Ans: D
54. A fuse wire should have
(A) Low specific resistance and high melting point (B) Low specific resistance and low melting point
(C) High specific resistance and high melting point (D) High specific resistance and low melting point
Ans: D
55. The GTO can be turned off
(A) By a positive gate pulse (B) By a negative gate pulse (C) By a negative anode-cathode voltage (D) By removing the gate pulse
Ans: B
56. The latching current of SCR is 20 mA. Its holding current will be ..............
(A) 23 mA (B) 40 mA (C) 10 mA (D) 60 Ma
Ans: C
57. In AutoCAD, which mode allows user to draw 90o straight lines :
(A) Osnap (B) Ortho (C) Linear (D) Polar tracking
Ans: B
58. An SCR is turned off when
(A) Anode current is reduced to zero (B) Gate voltage is reduced to zero (C) Gate is reverse biased (D) None of these
Ans: A
59. An SCR has .............. PN junctions.
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) None of these
Ans: B
60. .............. is used to measure the flow of air around aeroplane.
(A) Anemometer (B) Venturimeter (C) Orifice (D) None of these
Ans: A
61. The smallest change in measured variable to which instrument will respond is ..............
(A) Accuracy (B) Resolution (C) Precision (D) Sensitivity
Ans: B
62. The Grashof number in natural convection plays same role as
(A) Prandtl number (Pr) in forced convection (B) Reynolds number (Re) in forced convection
(C) Nusselt number (Nu) in forced convection (D) None of the options
Ans: B
63. The errors mainly caused by human mistakes are
(A) Gross error (B) Instrumental error (C) Observational error (D) Systematic error
Ans: A
64. Radiation shield should have
(A) Low reflectivity (B) High reflectivity (C) High emissivity (D) None of the options
Ans: B
65. A wattmeter reads 30.34 W. The absolute error in the measurement is - 2.22 W. What is the true value of power?
(A) 32.56 W (B) 28.12 W (C) 25.45 W (D) None of these
Ans: A
66. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the resistance to heat flow is
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) None of the options
Ans: B
67. Thermistors are made of ..............
(A) Pure metals (B) Pure insulators (C) Tintered mixture of metallic oxides (D) Pure semiconductor
Ans: C
68. Output of a bimetallic element will be ..............
(A) Strain (B) Pressure (C) Displacement (D) Voltage
Ans: C
69. The number of points of contraflexure in a simple supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load, is
(A) One (B) Two (C) Zero (D) None of these
Ans: C
70. Which of the following conversion take place in bourdon tubes?
(A) Pressure to displacement (B) Pressure to voltage (C) Pressure to strain (D) Pressure to force
Ans: A
71. Which of the following thermocouple will give the highest output for the same value of hot and cold junction temperature?
(A) Type J (B) Type K (C) Type E (D) Type S
Ans: C
72. Semiconductor strain gages typically have much higher gage factors than those of metallic strain gages, primarily due to
(A) Higher temperature sensitivity (B) Higher piezoresitive coefficient
(C) Higher Poisson’s ratio (D) Higher magnetostrictive coefficient
Ans: B
73. Young’s Modulus of elasticity is
(A) Tensile stress / Tensile strain (B) Shear stress / Shear strain
(C) Tensile stress / Shear strain (D) Shear stress / Tensile strain
Ans: A
74. Mc-leoid gauge is used to measure the
(A) Flow rate (B) Level (C) Point velocity (D) Vacuum
Ans: D
75. Group of eight bits in a binary data is called
(A) Nibble (B) Bitwidth (C) Byte (D) Word
Ans: C
76. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal number is ..............
(A) 19 (B) 12 (C) 27 (D) 21
Ans: D
77. The universal gate is ..............
(A) NAND gate (B) OR gate (C) AND gate (D) None of these
Ans: A
78. The only function of NOT gate is to
(A) Stop signal (B) Invert input signal (C) Act as a universal gate (D) None of these
Ans: B
79. A device which converts BCD to seven segments is called
(A) Encoder (B) Decoder (C) Multiplexer (D) None of these
Ans: B
80. Which device has one input and many outputs?
(A) Demultiplexer (B) Multiplexer (C) Counter (D) Flip-flop
Ans: A
81. HMI means .............. machine interface.
(A) Human (B) Hand (C) Heart (D) High
Ans: A
82. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of
(A) Virtual relay contacts and coils (B) Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
(C) Function blocks with connecting lines (D) Text-based code
Ans: A
83. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, the amount of radiant energy per unit area is proportional to
(A) Absolute temperature (B) Square of absolute temperature
(C) Fourth power of absolute temperature (D) Cube of absolute temperature
Ans: C
84. A delta connection contains three equal impedance each of 60 Ω. The impedance of the equivalent star connection for each star load will be
(A) 15 Ω (B) 20 Ω (C) 30 Ω (D) 40 Ω
Ans: B
85. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which
(A) The technician enters the program (B) Timers and counters are indexed by
(C) One “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete (D) The entire program takes to execute
Ans: D
86. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses
(A) Normally-closed contacts in series (B) Normally-open contacts in series
(C) A single normally-closed contact (D) Normally-open contacts in parallel
Ans: D
87. Control in SCADA is ..............
(A) Automatic control (B) Direct Control (C) Supervisory control (D) Online control
Ans: C
88. Components of a traditional SCADA system is ..............
(A) RTU (B) Control station (C) Communication system (D) All of these
Ans: D
89. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit?
(A) Voltage (B) Current (C) Power (D) Resistance
Ans: B
90. When no external force acts on the body, after giving it an initial displacement, then the body is said to be under
(A) Free vibrations (B) Forced vibrations (C) Random vibrations (D) None of the options
Ans: A
91. The form factor is the ratio of ..............
(A) Peak value to RMS value (B) Average value to RMS value (C) RMS value to average value (D) None of these
Ans: C
92. Orthographic projection is also known as
(A) Single view projection (B) Two view projection (C) Multi view projection (D) All of the above
Ans: C
93. Ethernet uses ..............
(A) Bus topology (B) Ring topology (C) Mesh topology (D) None of these
Ans: A
94. How many workspaces are available in AutoCAD?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 5
Ans: C
95. In AutoCAD, which command is used to divide object into segments having predefined length?
(A) Divide (B) Chamfer (C) Trim (D) Measure
Ans: D
96. The S.I unit of power is...................
(A) Henry (B) Coulomb (C) Watt (D) Watt-hour
Ans: C
97. Conductance is reciprocal of....................
(A) Resistance (B) Inductance (C) Reluctance (D) Capacitance
Ans: A
98. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as ...............…
(A) Length (B) Area of cross-section (C) Temperature (D) Resistivity
Ans: B
99. With rise in temperature the resistances of pure metals
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) First increases and then decreases (D) Remains constant
Ans: A
100. Two resistances R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 ohms when in series and 1 ohm when in parallel. The resistances are ...............…
(A) 3 ohms and 6 ohms (B) 3 ohms and 9 ohms
(C) 1.5 ohms and 3 ohms (D) 1.5 ohms and 0.5 ohms
Ans: C