SOCIAL MEDICINE AND COMMUNITY HEALTH- PAGE 3
SOCIAL MEDICINE AND COMMUNITY HEALTH MCQs
1. The following vaccine is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine:
(A) Measles
(B) BCG
(C) Salk Vaccine
(D) Hepatitis B Vaccine
Ans: B
2. Which of the following is an internationally notifiable disease?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Yellow Fever
(D) Malaria
Ans: C
3. For every case of paralytic poliomyelitis the estimated number of subclinical cases are
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 400
(D) 1000
Ans: D
4. Bhopal Gas Tragedy is an example of
(A) Point source epidemic
(B) Propagated epidemic
(C) Continuous epidemic
(D) Modern epidemic
Ans: A
5. Point prevalence overestimates the disease with
(A) High incidence
(B) Low incidence
(C) Low mortality
(D) High mortality
Ans: C
6. While studying health and illness, who propounded the notion of ‘Sick Role’ from among the following?
(A) Talcott Parsons
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Weber
(D) Francis Bacon
Ans: A
7. ‘Nirmal Gram Abhiyan’ deals with which of the following?
(A) Soft loan for the villages
(B) Education of the villagers
(C) Sanitation incentives for the villages
(D) State award for sanitation
Ans: C
8. The drug given prophylactically to prevent parent-to-child transmission of HIV infection under NACO is
(A) Zidovudine
(B) Nevirapine
(C) Ritonavir
(D) Saguinavir
Ans: B
9. The type of Pneumoconiosis that cotton dust causes is known as
(A) Bagassosis
(B) Byssinosis
(C) Anthrocosis
(D) Silicosis
Ans: B
10. Where is the WHO established international laboratory for monitoring and studying air pollution, located in India?
(A) Delhi
(B) Pune
(C) Nagpur
(D) Mumbai
Ans: C
11. Against which of the viral hepatitis, vaccine is currently available in India?
I. Hepatitis A
II. Hepatitis B
III. Hepatitis C
IV. Hepatitis D
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct.
(B) I and III are correct.
(C) I and IV are correct.
(D) II and IV are correct.
Ans: A
12. Correctly identify ICMR recommended dietary intakes for a normal adult male doing sedentary work.
I. Cereals – 460 gms
II. Milk – 250 gms
III. Green leafy vegetables – 100 gms
IV. Pulses – 40 gms
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I and IV are correct
(D) II and IV are correct
Ans: C
13. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to which molecule?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Hypochlorine
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Hypochlorous
Ans: D
14. Which one is the most important single determinant of Infant mortality?
(A) Mother’s age
(B) Family size
(C) Order of birth
(D) Birth weight
Ans: D
15. Residual action of HCH lasts for
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 10 months
(D) 12 months
Ans: B
16. Which of the Indian cities from among the following was adjudged the cleanest in India after being hit by an epidemic during 1994?
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Surat
(D) Indore
Ans: C
17. Medical tourism is fast becoming a growing industry in India. Name the States which are major contributors to medical tourism.
I. Kerala
II. Himachal Pradesh
III. Andhra Pradesh
IV. Rajasthan
Codes:
(A) II, III and IV are correct
(B) I, III and IV are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct
(D) I, II and III are correct
Ans: D
18. The earlier centres for Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) through surrogacy in India were in which of the following States?
I. Karnataka
II. Gujarat
III. Delhi
IV. Maharashtra
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and IV are correct
(C) I and III are correct
(D) II, III and IV are correct
Ans: B
19. Correctly identify the inherent properties of a screening test:
I. Yield
II. Sensitivity
III. Specificity
IV. Predictive Accuracy
Codes:
(A) II and IV are correct
(B) I and III are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct
(D) II, III and IV are correct
Ans: D
20. Waste water from kitchen is called
(A) Refuse
(B) Sullage
(C) Garbage
(D) Sewage
Ans: B
Given below (21 to 28) consists of the two paired statements, Statement A (Assertion) and Statement R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
21. Assertion (A): When two live vaccines are to be administered simultaneously, it is recommended that they be given at different sites.
Reason (R): Live vaccines have all major and minor antigenic components.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A): Bio social model of health allows for understanding the social determinants of health.
Reason (R): Social determinants play an important role in addressing the health problems.
Ans: B
23. Assertion (A): In some diseases the disease agent is not completely eliminated leading to carrier state.
Reason (R): Shedding of the disease agent in the discharges or excretions acts as a source of infection for other persons.
Ans: B
24. Assertion (A): Height for age is a stable measure of growth as opposed to weight for age.
Reason (R): Weight for age reflects only the present height status of the child, height indicates the events in the past also.
Ans: A
25. Assertion (A): The prevalence of chronic non-communicable diseases is rising in the developing world.
Reason (R): There is a dual burden of communicable and non-communicable diseases in the developing world.
Ans: B
26. Assertion (A): It is postulated that 80% of the cancers are due to environmental factors.
Reason (R): The sites of the body most commonly affected in occupational cancers are skin, lungs, bladder and blood forming organs.
Ans: B
27. Assertion (A): More than 90% of HIV infections in India are transmitted through sexual mode of transmission.
Reason (R): Sexual mode of transmission is the most efficient mode of transmission.
Ans: C
28. Assertion (A): Workers in unorganised sector have poor access to services from Public Health Institutions.
Reason (R): People comprising the unorganised sector do not have documents to establish their identity and proof of residence.
Ans: B
29. In a mosquito, period between a blood meal until eggs are laid is called
(A) Serial interval
(B) Genotrophic cycle
(C) Extrinsic incubation period
(D) Generation time
Ans: B
30. Source reduction in mosquito control comprises of
(A) Genetic engineering techniques
(B) Personal protection against bites
(C) Space sprays
(D) Minor engineering methods
Ans: D
31. Identify the correct sequence in which the agents of following viral diseases were identified:
(A) Hepatitis E, Hepatitis C, H1 N1, Rotavirus
(B) Rotavirus, Hepatitis E, Hepatitis C, H1 N1
(C) Hepatitis C, Hepatitis B, Rotavirus, H1 N1
(D) Rotavirus, H1 N1, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C
Answer: (Wrong question)
32. Identify the correct order from lower to higher level of infrastructure under Vision 2020.
(A) Service centers, Training centers, Center of excellence, Vision centers
(B) Vision centers, Center of excellence, Service centers, Training centers
(C) Vision centers, Service centers, Training centers, Center of excellence
(D) Center of excellence, Vision centers, Service centers, training centers
Ans: C
33. Write the descending order of achievement of immunization coverage (2010)?
(A) BCG, Measles, OPV3, Hep B3
(B) BCG, OPV3, Measles, Hep B3
(C) OPV3, BCG, Measles, Hep B3
(D) Measles, BCG, Hep B3, OPV3
Ans: B
34. Arrange the following data sources in chronological order of their establishment in India:
(A) Census, Health Statistics of India, NFHS, DLHS
(B) Census, NFHS, DLHS, Health Statistics of India
(C) Health Statistics of India, NFHS, DLHS, Census
(D) Census, DLHS, NFHS, Health Statistics of India
Ans: A
35. Arrange the descending order of the following States according to their sex ratio at birth (2011):
(A) Kerala, Gujarat, Haryana, M.P.
(B) Kerala, M.P., Haryana, Gujarat
(C) Kerala, M.P. Gujarat, Haryana
(D) Haryana, M.P., Kerala, Gujarat
Ans: C
36. Identify the correct sequence of iron content of some Indian foodstuffs in descending order:
(A) Colocasia leaves, Rice flakes, Garden cress seeds, Mint leaves
(B) Garden cress seeds, Mint leaves, Rice flakes, Colocasia leaves
(C) Garden cress seeds, Rice flakes, Mint leaves, Colocasia leaves
(D) Mint leaves, Colocasia leaves, Rice flakes, Garden cress seeds
Ans: B
37. Identify correct sequence of invisible fat content of some foods in ascending order:
(A) Ragi, Fenugreek seeds, Soya bean, Almonds
(B) Fenugreek seeds, Soya bean, Almonds, Ragi
(C) Soya bean, Ragi, Almonds, Fenugreek seeds
(D) Almonds, Soya bean, Fenugreek seeds, Ragi
Ans: A
38. Identify correct sequence of proportion of phenotypes of ABO blood groups in descending order.
(A) O, A, B, AB
(B) A, O, B, AB
(C) O, B, A, AB
(D) AB, A, B, O
Ans: C
39. Identify the correct ascending order of the protein content per 100 gm of the following foodstuffs:
(A) Soya bean, Bengal gram, Egg, Rice
(B) Rice, Egg, Bengal gram, Soya bean
(C) Bengal gram, Egg, Soya bean, Rice
(D) Egg, Soya bean, Rice, Bengal gram
Ans: B
40. Identify the correct descending order of the incubation period of the following diseases/conditions.
(A) Salmonella food poisoning, Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Hepatitis B
(B) Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Salmonella food poisoning, Hepatitis B
(C) Hepatitis B, Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Salmonella food poisoning
(D) Hepatitis B, Chicken pox, Diphtheria, Salmonella food poisoning
Ans: D
Question 41 to 50 are matching items.
This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in the List – II:
41. List – I (Modes of Intervention) List – II (Examples)
(a) Health promotion i. Amputation of gangrenous toe
(b) Specific protection ii. Sputum examination for AFB in suspected pulmonary tuberculosis cases
(c) Early diagnosis and prompt treatment iii. Immunization against measles
(d) Disability limitation iv. Family life education
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: C
42. List – I (Diseases) List – II (Signs)
(a) Chicken pox i. Koplik’s spots
(b) Diphtheria ii. Splenomegaly
(c) Measles iii. Pseudomembrane
(d) Malaria iv. Pleomorphic rash
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Ans: D
43. List – I (Place of International Conference) List – II (Theme)
(a) Copenhagen i. Gender
(b) Durban ii. Climate change
(c) Cairo iii. Population
(d) Beijing iv. Social Development
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) ii iii iv i
Ans: A
44. List – I (Millennium Development Goals) List – II (Theme)
(a) 1 i. Reduce child mortality
(b) 4 ii. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases
(c) 5 iii. Eradicate extreme poverty
(d) 6 iv. Improve maternal health
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: C
45. List – I (International Organization) List – II (Thrust Area)
(a) UNICEF i. Development
(b) UNDP ii. Children
(c) UNEP iii. Population
(d) UNFPA iv. Environment
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: C
46. List – I (Deficiency) List – II (Manifestation)
(a) Thiamine i. Neural tube defect
(b) Folic acid ii. Pellagra
(c) Niacin iii. Macrocytic Anemia
(d) Cyanocoba lamine iv. Beri-Beri
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) iv i iii ii
(D) iv i ii iii
Ans: D
47. Factories Act applies to whole of India except
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans: B
48. List – I (Vaccine) List – II (Route of Administration)
(a) Yellow Fever i. Intradermal
(b) B.C.G. ii. Intramuscular
(c) Vitamin A iii. Subcutaneous
(d) DPT iv. Oral
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii i iv ii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: A
49. List – I (Biomedical waste) List – II (Colour of the container)
(a) Human anatomical waste i. Blue
(b) Catheters and I.V. sets ii. Yellow
(c) Scalpel and Sharps iii. Black
(d) Discarded medicines iv. Red
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: D
50. List – I (Occupational cancers) List – II (Risk factors)
(a) Skin i. Aniline Dye
(b) Lung ii. Tar
(c) Bladder iii. Benzol
(d) Leukaemia iv. Asbestos
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) i iii iv ii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: B
(A) Measles
(B) BCG
(C) Salk Vaccine
(D) Hepatitis B Vaccine
Ans: B
2. Which of the following is an internationally notifiable disease?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Yellow Fever
(D) Malaria
Ans: C
3. For every case of paralytic poliomyelitis the estimated number of subclinical cases are
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 400
(D) 1000
Ans: D
4. Bhopal Gas Tragedy is an example of
(A) Point source epidemic
(B) Propagated epidemic
(C) Continuous epidemic
(D) Modern epidemic
Ans: A
5. Point prevalence overestimates the disease with
(A) High incidence
(B) Low incidence
(C) Low mortality
(D) High mortality
Ans: C
6. While studying health and illness, who propounded the notion of ‘Sick Role’ from among the following?
(A) Talcott Parsons
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Weber
(D) Francis Bacon
Ans: A
7. ‘Nirmal Gram Abhiyan’ deals with which of the following?
(A) Soft loan for the villages
(B) Education of the villagers
(C) Sanitation incentives for the villages
(D) State award for sanitation
Ans: C
8. The drug given prophylactically to prevent parent-to-child transmission of HIV infection under NACO is
(A) Zidovudine
(B) Nevirapine
(C) Ritonavir
(D) Saguinavir
Ans: B
9. The type of Pneumoconiosis that cotton dust causes is known as
(A) Bagassosis
(B) Byssinosis
(C) Anthrocosis
(D) Silicosis
Ans: B
10. Where is the WHO established international laboratory for monitoring and studying air pollution, located in India?
(A) Delhi
(B) Pune
(C) Nagpur
(D) Mumbai
Ans: C
11. Against which of the viral hepatitis, vaccine is currently available in India?
I. Hepatitis A
II. Hepatitis B
III. Hepatitis C
IV. Hepatitis D
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct.
(B) I and III are correct.
(C) I and IV are correct.
(D) II and IV are correct.
Ans: A
12. Correctly identify ICMR recommended dietary intakes for a normal adult male doing sedentary work.
I. Cereals – 460 gms
II. Milk – 250 gms
III. Green leafy vegetables – 100 gms
IV. Pulses – 40 gms
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I and IV are correct
(D) II and IV are correct
Ans: C
13. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to which molecule?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Hypochlorine
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Hypochlorous
Ans: D
14. Which one is the most important single determinant of Infant mortality?
(A) Mother’s age
(B) Family size
(C) Order of birth
(D) Birth weight
Ans: D
15. Residual action of HCH lasts for
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 10 months
(D) 12 months
Ans: B
16. Which of the Indian cities from among the following was adjudged the cleanest in India after being hit by an epidemic during 1994?
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Surat
(D) Indore
Ans: C
17. Medical tourism is fast becoming a growing industry in India. Name the States which are major contributors to medical tourism.
I. Kerala
II. Himachal Pradesh
III. Andhra Pradesh
IV. Rajasthan
Codes:
(A) II, III and IV are correct
(B) I, III and IV are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct
(D) I, II and III are correct
Ans: D
18. The earlier centres for Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) through surrogacy in India were in which of the following States?
I. Karnataka
II. Gujarat
III. Delhi
IV. Maharashtra
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and IV are correct
(C) I and III are correct
(D) II, III and IV are correct
Ans: B
19. Correctly identify the inherent properties of a screening test:
I. Yield
II. Sensitivity
III. Specificity
IV. Predictive Accuracy
Codes:
(A) II and IV are correct
(B) I and III are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct
(D) II, III and IV are correct
Ans: D
20. Waste water from kitchen is called
(A) Refuse
(B) Sullage
(C) Garbage
(D) Sewage
Ans: B
Given below (21 to 28) consists of the two paired statements, Statement A (Assertion) and Statement R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
21. Assertion (A): When two live vaccines are to be administered simultaneously, it is recommended that they be given at different sites.
Reason (R): Live vaccines have all major and minor antigenic components.
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A): Bio social model of health allows for understanding the social determinants of health.
Reason (R): Social determinants play an important role in addressing the health problems.
Ans: B
23. Assertion (A): In some diseases the disease agent is not completely eliminated leading to carrier state.
Reason (R): Shedding of the disease agent in the discharges or excretions acts as a source of infection for other persons.
Ans: B
24. Assertion (A): Height for age is a stable measure of growth as opposed to weight for age.
Reason (R): Weight for age reflects only the present height status of the child, height indicates the events in the past also.
Ans: A
25. Assertion (A): The prevalence of chronic non-communicable diseases is rising in the developing world.
Reason (R): There is a dual burden of communicable and non-communicable diseases in the developing world.
Ans: B
26. Assertion (A): It is postulated that 80% of the cancers are due to environmental factors.
Reason (R): The sites of the body most commonly affected in occupational cancers are skin, lungs, bladder and blood forming organs.
Ans: B
27. Assertion (A): More than 90% of HIV infections in India are transmitted through sexual mode of transmission.
Reason (R): Sexual mode of transmission is the most efficient mode of transmission.
Ans: C
28. Assertion (A): Workers in unorganised sector have poor access to services from Public Health Institutions.
Reason (R): People comprising the unorganised sector do not have documents to establish their identity and proof of residence.
Ans: B
29. In a mosquito, period between a blood meal until eggs are laid is called
(A) Serial interval
(B) Genotrophic cycle
(C) Extrinsic incubation period
(D) Generation time
Ans: B
30. Source reduction in mosquito control comprises of
(A) Genetic engineering techniques
(B) Personal protection against bites
(C) Space sprays
(D) Minor engineering methods
Ans: D
31. Identify the correct sequence in which the agents of following viral diseases were identified:
(A) Hepatitis E, Hepatitis C, H1 N1, Rotavirus
(B) Rotavirus, Hepatitis E, Hepatitis C, H1 N1
(C) Hepatitis C, Hepatitis B, Rotavirus, H1 N1
(D) Rotavirus, H1 N1, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C
Answer: (Wrong question)
32. Identify the correct order from lower to higher level of infrastructure under Vision 2020.
(A) Service centers, Training centers, Center of excellence, Vision centers
(B) Vision centers, Center of excellence, Service centers, Training centers
(C) Vision centers, Service centers, Training centers, Center of excellence
(D) Center of excellence, Vision centers, Service centers, training centers
Ans: C
33. Write the descending order of achievement of immunization coverage (2010)?
(A) BCG, Measles, OPV3, Hep B3
(B) BCG, OPV3, Measles, Hep B3
(C) OPV3, BCG, Measles, Hep B3
(D) Measles, BCG, Hep B3, OPV3
Ans: B
34. Arrange the following data sources in chronological order of their establishment in India:
(A) Census, Health Statistics of India, NFHS, DLHS
(B) Census, NFHS, DLHS, Health Statistics of India
(C) Health Statistics of India, NFHS, DLHS, Census
(D) Census, DLHS, NFHS, Health Statistics of India
Ans: A
35. Arrange the descending order of the following States according to their sex ratio at birth (2011):
(A) Kerala, Gujarat, Haryana, M.P.
(B) Kerala, M.P., Haryana, Gujarat
(C) Kerala, M.P. Gujarat, Haryana
(D) Haryana, M.P., Kerala, Gujarat
Ans: C
36. Identify the correct sequence of iron content of some Indian foodstuffs in descending order:
(A) Colocasia leaves, Rice flakes, Garden cress seeds, Mint leaves
(B) Garden cress seeds, Mint leaves, Rice flakes, Colocasia leaves
(C) Garden cress seeds, Rice flakes, Mint leaves, Colocasia leaves
(D) Mint leaves, Colocasia leaves, Rice flakes, Garden cress seeds
Ans: B
37. Identify correct sequence of invisible fat content of some foods in ascending order:
(A) Ragi, Fenugreek seeds, Soya bean, Almonds
(B) Fenugreek seeds, Soya bean, Almonds, Ragi
(C) Soya bean, Ragi, Almonds, Fenugreek seeds
(D) Almonds, Soya bean, Fenugreek seeds, Ragi
Ans: A
38. Identify correct sequence of proportion of phenotypes of ABO blood groups in descending order.
(A) O, A, B, AB
(B) A, O, B, AB
(C) O, B, A, AB
(D) AB, A, B, O
Ans: C
39. Identify the correct ascending order of the protein content per 100 gm of the following foodstuffs:
(A) Soya bean, Bengal gram, Egg, Rice
(B) Rice, Egg, Bengal gram, Soya bean
(C) Bengal gram, Egg, Soya bean, Rice
(D) Egg, Soya bean, Rice, Bengal gram
Ans: B
40. Identify the correct descending order of the incubation period of the following diseases/conditions.
(A) Salmonella food poisoning, Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Hepatitis B
(B) Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Salmonella food poisoning, Hepatitis B
(C) Hepatitis B, Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Salmonella food poisoning
(D) Hepatitis B, Chicken pox, Diphtheria, Salmonella food poisoning
Ans: D
Question 41 to 50 are matching items.
This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in the List – II:
41. List – I (Modes of Intervention) List – II (Examples)
(a) Health promotion i. Amputation of gangrenous toe
(b) Specific protection ii. Sputum examination for AFB in suspected pulmonary tuberculosis cases
(c) Early diagnosis and prompt treatment iii. Immunization against measles
(d) Disability limitation iv. Family life education
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: C
42. List – I (Diseases) List – II (Signs)
(a) Chicken pox i. Koplik’s spots
(b) Diphtheria ii. Splenomegaly
(c) Measles iii. Pseudomembrane
(d) Malaria iv. Pleomorphic rash
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Ans: D
43. List – I (Place of International Conference) List – II (Theme)
(a) Copenhagen i. Gender
(b) Durban ii. Climate change
(c) Cairo iii. Population
(d) Beijing iv. Social Development
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) ii iii iv i
Ans: A
44. List – I (Millennium Development Goals) List – II (Theme)
(a) 1 i. Reduce child mortality
(b) 4 ii. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases
(c) 5 iii. Eradicate extreme poverty
(d) 6 iv. Improve maternal health
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: C
45. List – I (International Organization) List – II (Thrust Area)
(a) UNICEF i. Development
(b) UNDP ii. Children
(c) UNEP iii. Population
(d) UNFPA iv. Environment
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: C
46. List – I (Deficiency) List – II (Manifestation)
(a) Thiamine i. Neural tube defect
(b) Folic acid ii. Pellagra
(c) Niacin iii. Macrocytic Anemia
(d) Cyanocoba lamine iv. Beri-Beri
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) iv i iii ii
(D) iv i ii iii
Ans: D
47. Factories Act applies to whole of India except
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans: B
48. List – I (Vaccine) List – II (Route of Administration)
(a) Yellow Fever i. Intradermal
(b) B.C.G. ii. Intramuscular
(c) Vitamin A iii. Subcutaneous
(d) DPT iv. Oral
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii i iv ii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: A
49. List – I (Biomedical waste) List – II (Colour of the container)
(a) Human anatomical waste i. Blue
(b) Catheters and I.V. sets ii. Yellow
(c) Scalpel and Sharps iii. Black
(d) Discarded medicines iv. Red
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) ii iv i iii
Ans: D
50. List – I (Occupational cancers) List – II (Risk factors)
(a) Skin i. Aniline Dye
(b) Lung ii. Tar
(c) Bladder iii. Benzol
(d) Leukaemia iv. Asbestos
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) i iii iv ii
(D) ii iv iii i
Ans: B
51. Fast breathing in a two years old child is recognised at
(A) ≥ 60 breaths
(B) ≥ 50 breaths
(C) ≥ 40 breaths
(D) ≥ 30 breaths
Ans: C
52. Yellow fever is absent in India because
(A) Climatic conditions are not favourable
(B) Virus is not present
(C) Vector mosquito is absent
(D) Population is immune to the disease
Ans: B
53. The minimum number of antenatal visits recommended for a pregnant woman in India is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans: B
54. Which indicator is included in Human development index?
(A) Infant mortality rate
(B) Maternal mortality rate
(C) Life expectancy at birth
(D) Proportion of immunized children
Ans: C
55. There are no subclinical cases in which of the following infectious diseases?
(A) Measles
(B) Poliomyelitis
(C) Cholera
(D) Diphtheria
Ans: A
56. Number of live births per thousand women in the reproductive age group in a given year is known as
(A) General Fertility Rate (GFR)
(B) Total Fertility Rate (TFR)
(C) Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR)
(D) Net Reproduction Rate (NRR)
Ans: A
57. If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence of a disease, it implies
(A) The disease has low mortality.
(B) The disease is very fatal and/easily curable
(C) The disease has a long latent period
(D) The disease has a short latent period
Ans: B
58. Living standard of people is best assessed by
(A) Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
(B) Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR)
(C) Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)
(D) Perinatal Mortality Rate (PNMR)
Answer: (Wrong question)
59. External validity of a study indicates
(A) Reproducibility
(B) Credibility
(C) Generalizability
(D) Compatability
Ans: C
60. Odds ratio for estimation of strength of association is calculated in
(A) Cross sectional study
(B) Cohort study
(C) Intervential study
(D) Case-control study
Ans: D
61. Ideal temperature for storage of DPT vaccine at PHC level is
(A) 0 °C
(B) 2 to 8 °C
(C) Room temperature
(D) –20 °C
Ans: B
62. ‘Health and Development Committee’ is better known as
(A) Srivastava Committee
(B) Barve Committee
(C) Mudaliar Committee
(D) Bhore Committee
Ans: D
63. Most of the ElTor vibrios isolated in India belong to the
(A) Inaba serotype
(B) Ogawa serotype
(C) Hitojima serotype
(D) NAG serotype
Ans: B
64. Population dynamics is constituted by fertility, mortality and
(A) Urbanisation
(B) Migration
(C) Industrialisation
(D) Globalisation
Ans: B
65. Sample registration system was initiated to provide
(A) Reliable estimates of birth and death rates at National and State levels
(B) Reliable estimates of population size
(C) Reliable estimates of morbidity pattern
(D) Reliable cause of death at National and State level
Ans: A
66. The commonest side effect of IUCD is
(A) Pain
(B) Pelvic infections
(C) Uterine perforation
(D) Increased vaginal bleeding
Ans: D
67. The cut off point for blood lead level above which clinical symptoms appear is
(A) 20 μg/100 ml
(B) 50 μg/100 ml
(C) 70 μg/100 ml
(D) 100 μg/100 ml
Ans: C
68. The incubation period of tetanus is usually
(A) 2 to 5 days
(B) 6 to 10 days
(C) 12 to 15 days
(D) 15 to 20 days
Ans: B
69. The only cancer in which some cases show spontaneous regression without treatment is
(A) Cancer breast
(B) Lung cancer
(C) Cancer cervix
(D) Oral cancer
Ans: C
70. The normative population size for a sub centre in the plain region is
(A) 1,000 persons
(B) 5,000 persons
(C) 3,000 persons
(D) 2,000 persons
Ans: B
71. The Dosage of Fenthion used as Larvicide in mosquito control is
(A) 1 to 2 g/hectare
(B) 2 to 20 g/hectare
(C) 224 to 672 g/hectare
(D) 22 to 112 g/hectare
Ans: D
72. Daily requirement of vitamin C for an adult is
(A) 20 mg
(B) 40 mg
(C) 60 mg
(D) 80 mg
Ans: B
73. Gomez classification of PEM is based on
(A) weight for age
(B) weight for height
(C) height for age
(D) mid arm circumference
Ans: A
74. The life cycle of Malarial parasites in man may be described as
(A) Propagative
(B) Cyclo-propagative
(C) Cyclo-developmental
(D) A sexual cycle
Ans: D
75. Trypsin inhibitor is present in
(A) Hen egg
(B) Duck egg
(C) Milk
(D) Fish
Ans: B
76. What is the population norm for mini-Anganwadi centre in a tribal/ desert/riverine/hilly and other difficult areas?
(A) 150 – 300
(B) 300 – 400
(C) 100 – 200
(D) 150 – 250
Ans: A
77. Which of the following diseases is found in India?
(A) West Nile fever
(B) Murray valley encephalitis
(C) Yellow fever
(D) Colorado tick fever
Ans: A
78. Net Protein Utilization (NPU) is estimated from
(A) Biological value alone
(B) Biological value and protein efficiency ratio
(C) Biological value and digestibility coefficient
(D) Protein efficiency ratio alone
Ans: C
79. Sick New Born Care Units (SNCUS) are established at which of the following facilities?
(A) First Referral unit
(B) District Hospital
(C) Community Health Centre
(D) Medical College
Ans: B
80. A corrected effective temperature of how many degree Celsius is considered comfortable in India?
(A) 20 °C – 30 °C
(B) 20 °C – 25 °C
(C) 27 °C – 30 °C
(D) 25 °C – 27 °C
Ans: D
81. The cut off point for diagnosis of anaemia in children aged 6-14 years as recommended by WHO Expert Group is
(A) 13.8 g/dl haemoglobin
(B) 11.5 g/dl haemoglobin
(C) 12 g/dl haemoglobin
(D) 10 g/dl haemoglobin
Ans: C
82. Under the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme monthly pension is given to
(A) People aged more than 60 years and who are below poverty line
(B) People aged more than 65 years and who are below poverty line
(C) People aged more than 62 years and who are below poverty line
(D) Destitute elderly
Ans: B
83. Which of the following methods is used to remove the permanent hardness of water?
(A) Boiling
(B) Adding lime
(C) Permutit process
(D) Adding sodium carbonate
Ans: D
84. Supplementary nutrition given to children, aged 6-72 months who are severely malnourished under ICDS is
(A) 800 calories and 20-25 gm protein everyday
(B) 500 calories and 15-20 gm protein everyday
(C) 1000 calories and 20-25 gm protein everyday
(D) 600 calories and 15-20 gm protein everyday
Ans: A
85. ‘Ujjawala’ is a comprehensive scheme launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to combat
(A) Child labour
(B) Child abuse
(C) Child trafficking
(D) Juvenile Delinquency
Ans: C
86. Under the ‘Nutrition Programme for Adolescent Girls’ the nutrition provided to each beneficiary is
(A) 600 calories through food per day
(B) 6 kg of free food grain per month
(C) Rs. 6 for buying food per day
(D) 6 gm proteins through food per day
Ans: B
87. Pasteurization of milk effectively kills all the following except:
(A) fever organisms
(B) Tubercle bacilli
(C) Salmonella
(D) Bacterial spores
Ans: D
88. Abdominal fat accumulation is indicated by waist hip ratio of
(A) more than 1.0 in men and more than 0.85 in women
(B) more than 0.85 in men and more than 0.5 in women
(C) more than 1.0 in men and more than 1.0 in women
(D) more than 1.5 in men and more than 0.85 in women
Ans: A
(A) ≥ 60 breaths
(B) ≥ 50 breaths
(C) ≥ 40 breaths
(D) ≥ 30 breaths
Ans: C
52. Yellow fever is absent in India because
(A) Climatic conditions are not favourable
(B) Virus is not present
(C) Vector mosquito is absent
(D) Population is immune to the disease
Ans: B
53. The minimum number of antenatal visits recommended for a pregnant woman in India is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans: B
54. Which indicator is included in Human development index?
(A) Infant mortality rate
(B) Maternal mortality rate
(C) Life expectancy at birth
(D) Proportion of immunized children
Ans: C
55. There are no subclinical cases in which of the following infectious diseases?
(A) Measles
(B) Poliomyelitis
(C) Cholera
(D) Diphtheria
Ans: A
56. Number of live births per thousand women in the reproductive age group in a given year is known as
(A) General Fertility Rate (GFR)
(B) Total Fertility Rate (TFR)
(C) Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR)
(D) Net Reproduction Rate (NRR)
Ans: A
57. If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence of a disease, it implies
(A) The disease has low mortality.
(B) The disease is very fatal and/easily curable
(C) The disease has a long latent period
(D) The disease has a short latent period
Ans: B
58. Living standard of people is best assessed by
(A) Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
(B) Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR)
(C) Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)
(D) Perinatal Mortality Rate (PNMR)
Answer: (Wrong question)
59. External validity of a study indicates
(A) Reproducibility
(B) Credibility
(C) Generalizability
(D) Compatability
Ans: C
60. Odds ratio for estimation of strength of association is calculated in
(A) Cross sectional study
(B) Cohort study
(C) Intervential study
(D) Case-control study
Ans: D
61. Ideal temperature for storage of DPT vaccine at PHC level is
(A) 0 °C
(B) 2 to 8 °C
(C) Room temperature
(D) –20 °C
Ans: B
62. ‘Health and Development Committee’ is better known as
(A) Srivastava Committee
(B) Barve Committee
(C) Mudaliar Committee
(D) Bhore Committee
Ans: D
63. Most of the ElTor vibrios isolated in India belong to the
(A) Inaba serotype
(B) Ogawa serotype
(C) Hitojima serotype
(D) NAG serotype
Ans: B
64. Population dynamics is constituted by fertility, mortality and
(A) Urbanisation
(B) Migration
(C) Industrialisation
(D) Globalisation
Ans: B
65. Sample registration system was initiated to provide
(A) Reliable estimates of birth and death rates at National and State levels
(B) Reliable estimates of population size
(C) Reliable estimates of morbidity pattern
(D) Reliable cause of death at National and State level
Ans: A
66. The commonest side effect of IUCD is
(A) Pain
(B) Pelvic infections
(C) Uterine perforation
(D) Increased vaginal bleeding
Ans: D
67. The cut off point for blood lead level above which clinical symptoms appear is
(A) 20 μg/100 ml
(B) 50 μg/100 ml
(C) 70 μg/100 ml
(D) 100 μg/100 ml
Ans: C
68. The incubation period of tetanus is usually
(A) 2 to 5 days
(B) 6 to 10 days
(C) 12 to 15 days
(D) 15 to 20 days
Ans: B
69. The only cancer in which some cases show spontaneous regression without treatment is
(A) Cancer breast
(B) Lung cancer
(C) Cancer cervix
(D) Oral cancer
Ans: C
70. The normative population size for a sub centre in the plain region is
(A) 1,000 persons
(B) 5,000 persons
(C) 3,000 persons
(D) 2,000 persons
Ans: B
71. The Dosage of Fenthion used as Larvicide in mosquito control is
(A) 1 to 2 g/hectare
(B) 2 to 20 g/hectare
(C) 224 to 672 g/hectare
(D) 22 to 112 g/hectare
Ans: D
72. Daily requirement of vitamin C for an adult is
(A) 20 mg
(B) 40 mg
(C) 60 mg
(D) 80 mg
Ans: B
73. Gomez classification of PEM is based on
(A) weight for age
(B) weight for height
(C) height for age
(D) mid arm circumference
Ans: A
74. The life cycle of Malarial parasites in man may be described as
(A) Propagative
(B) Cyclo-propagative
(C) Cyclo-developmental
(D) A sexual cycle
Ans: D
75. Trypsin inhibitor is present in
(A) Hen egg
(B) Duck egg
(C) Milk
(D) Fish
Ans: B
76. What is the population norm for mini-Anganwadi centre in a tribal/ desert/riverine/hilly and other difficult areas?
(A) 150 – 300
(B) 300 – 400
(C) 100 – 200
(D) 150 – 250
Ans: A
77. Which of the following diseases is found in India?
(A) West Nile fever
(B) Murray valley encephalitis
(C) Yellow fever
(D) Colorado tick fever
Ans: A
78. Net Protein Utilization (NPU) is estimated from
(A) Biological value alone
(B) Biological value and protein efficiency ratio
(C) Biological value and digestibility coefficient
(D) Protein efficiency ratio alone
Ans: C
79. Sick New Born Care Units (SNCUS) are established at which of the following facilities?
(A) First Referral unit
(B) District Hospital
(C) Community Health Centre
(D) Medical College
Ans: B
80. A corrected effective temperature of how many degree Celsius is considered comfortable in India?
(A) 20 °C – 30 °C
(B) 20 °C – 25 °C
(C) 27 °C – 30 °C
(D) 25 °C – 27 °C
Ans: D
81. The cut off point for diagnosis of anaemia in children aged 6-14 years as recommended by WHO Expert Group is
(A) 13.8 g/dl haemoglobin
(B) 11.5 g/dl haemoglobin
(C) 12 g/dl haemoglobin
(D) 10 g/dl haemoglobin
Ans: C
82. Under the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme monthly pension is given to
(A) People aged more than 60 years and who are below poverty line
(B) People aged more than 65 years and who are below poverty line
(C) People aged more than 62 years and who are below poverty line
(D) Destitute elderly
Ans: B
83. Which of the following methods is used to remove the permanent hardness of water?
(A) Boiling
(B) Adding lime
(C) Permutit process
(D) Adding sodium carbonate
Ans: D
84. Supplementary nutrition given to children, aged 6-72 months who are severely malnourished under ICDS is
(A) 800 calories and 20-25 gm protein everyday
(B) 500 calories and 15-20 gm protein everyday
(C) 1000 calories and 20-25 gm protein everyday
(D) 600 calories and 15-20 gm protein everyday
Ans: A
85. ‘Ujjawala’ is a comprehensive scheme launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to combat
(A) Child labour
(B) Child abuse
(C) Child trafficking
(D) Juvenile Delinquency
Ans: C
86. Under the ‘Nutrition Programme for Adolescent Girls’ the nutrition provided to each beneficiary is
(A) 600 calories through food per day
(B) 6 kg of free food grain per month
(C) Rs. 6 for buying food per day
(D) 6 gm proteins through food per day
Ans: B
87. Pasteurization of milk effectively kills all the following except:
(A) fever organisms
(B) Tubercle bacilli
(C) Salmonella
(D) Bacterial spores
Ans: D
88. Abdominal fat accumulation is indicated by waist hip ratio of
(A) more than 1.0 in men and more than 0.85 in women
(B) more than 0.85 in men and more than 0.5 in women
(C) more than 1.0 in men and more than 1.0 in women
(D) more than 1.5 in men and more than 0.85 in women
Ans: A
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