MEDICINE - PAGE 2
1. Severe deficiency of thiamin causes
(a). Beriberi
(b). Scurvy
(c). Rickets
(d). Keratomalacia
Answer: Beriberi
2. Normal blood pressure for an adult is
(a). 100/80 mm of Hg
(b). 140/90 mm of Hg
(c). 120/80 mm of Hg
(d). 130/90 mm of Hg
Answer: 120/80 mm of Hg
3. Inflammation of mucous membrane of mouth is called
(a). Glossitis
(b). Gingivitis
(c). Stomatitis
(d). Gastritis
Answer: Stomatitis
4. If 10-99 AFB are seen per 100 oil immersion fields, then the smear result is
(a). 1+
(b). 2+
(c). 3+
(d). scanty
Answer: 1+
5. Under RNTCP, the term "DMC" means
(a). Drug managing centre
(b). Designated microscopy centre
(c). Direct medication centre
(d). DOTS medicine centre
Answer: Designated microscopy centre
6. Which among the following categories were withdrawn from the RNTCP
(a). CAT-I
(b). CAT-II
(c). CAT-III
(d). CAT-IV
Answer: CAT-III
7. All are true regarding DOT provider except
(a). Preferably a close relative or family member
(b). Should be acceptable to the patient
(c). Should be easily accessible
(d). Should be accountable to the programme
Answer: Preferably a close relative or family member
8. Joint pain and high blood levels of uric acid are the features of toxicity related to the following anti TB drug
(a). Pyrazinamide
(b). Ethambutol
(c). Streptomycin
(d). Isoniazid
Answer: Pyrazinamide
9. Continuation Phase in anti TB chemotherapy is meant for
(a). Rapid killing of bacilli
(b). Preventing emergence of resistant strains
(c). Preventing rapid community spread
(d). Preventing relapse and failure
Answer: Preventing relapse and failure
10. Mycobacteria classified in to different populations according to their growth pattern was done by
(a). Wallace Fox
(b). D A Mitchison
(c). Robert Koch
(d). Roentgen
Answer: D A Mitchison
11. Estimated daily deaths due to Tuberculosis is
(a). 500
(b). 1000
(c). 1500
(d). 2000
Answer: 1000
12. Intensive phase recommended for Category II on a routine basis is
(a). 2 months
(b). 3 months
(c). 4 months
(d). 6months
Answer: 3 months
13. Before starting anti TB medications for a suspected smear negative TB patient, the number of sputum smear examinations recommended by the RNTCP is
(a). 2 smears as in positive cases
(b). 3 smears as it was done earlier
(c). 2 smears, followed by antibiotics and then 2 more smears
(d). Only Chest X-ray PA is required, sputum examinations not necessary
Answer: 2 smears, followed by antibiotics and then 2 more smears
14. To make a diagnosis of multidrug resistant tuberculosis, the mycobacteria should be resistant at least to
(a). INH and Ethambutol
(b). INH and Rifampicin
(c). INH and Pyrazinamide
(d). Streptomycin and Rifampicin
Answer: INH and Rifampicin
15. Single sample sputum culture is recommended for
(a). Follow up monitoring of MDR/XDR TB patients under DOTS Plus regime
(b). Making a diagnosis of MDR TB
(c). Making a diagnosis of Total drug resistance
(d). All of the above
Answer: Follow up monitoring of MDR/XDR TB patients under DOTS Plus regime
16. The fastest method for diagnosing MDR TB among the following is
(a). Gene Xpert
(b). Quantiferon Gold assay
(c). T spot assay
(d). Liquid culture method
Answer: Gene Xpert
17. The minimum treatment duration for MDR TB as per the PMDT (programmatic management of Drug resistant tuberculosis)
(a). 12 months
(b). 18 months
(c). 24 months
(d). 30 months
Answer: 24 months
18. Robert Koch discovered mycobacteria in the year
(a). 1862
(b). 1872
(c). 1882
(d). 1892
Answer: 1882
19. Which of the following anti TB medication is available as granules
(a). Isoniazid
(b). Para amino salicylic acid
(c). Thiacetazone
(d). Pyrazinamide
Answer: Para amino salicylic acid
20. The standard duration of short course chemotherapy is
(a). 3 months
(b). 6 months
(c). 9 months
(d). less than 12 months
Answer: 6 months
(a). Beriberi
(b). Scurvy
(c). Rickets
(d). Keratomalacia
Answer: Beriberi
2. Normal blood pressure for an adult is
(a). 100/80 mm of Hg
(b). 140/90 mm of Hg
(c). 120/80 mm of Hg
(d). 130/90 mm of Hg
Answer: 120/80 mm of Hg
3. Inflammation of mucous membrane of mouth is called
(a). Glossitis
(b). Gingivitis
(c). Stomatitis
(d). Gastritis
Answer: Stomatitis
4. If 10-99 AFB are seen per 100 oil immersion fields, then the smear result is
(a). 1+
(b). 2+
(c). 3+
(d). scanty
Answer: 1+
5. Under RNTCP, the term "DMC" means
(a). Drug managing centre
(b). Designated microscopy centre
(c). Direct medication centre
(d). DOTS medicine centre
Answer: Designated microscopy centre
6. Which among the following categories were withdrawn from the RNTCP
(a). CAT-I
(b). CAT-II
(c). CAT-III
(d). CAT-IV
Answer: CAT-III
7. All are true regarding DOT provider except
(a). Preferably a close relative or family member
(b). Should be acceptable to the patient
(c). Should be easily accessible
(d). Should be accountable to the programme
Answer: Preferably a close relative or family member
8. Joint pain and high blood levels of uric acid are the features of toxicity related to the following anti TB drug
(a). Pyrazinamide
(b). Ethambutol
(c). Streptomycin
(d). Isoniazid
Answer: Pyrazinamide
9. Continuation Phase in anti TB chemotherapy is meant for
(a). Rapid killing of bacilli
(b). Preventing emergence of resistant strains
(c). Preventing rapid community spread
(d). Preventing relapse and failure
Answer: Preventing relapse and failure
10. Mycobacteria classified in to different populations according to their growth pattern was done by
(a). Wallace Fox
(b). D A Mitchison
(c). Robert Koch
(d). Roentgen
Answer: D A Mitchison
11. Estimated daily deaths due to Tuberculosis is
(a). 500
(b). 1000
(c). 1500
(d). 2000
Answer: 1000
12. Intensive phase recommended for Category II on a routine basis is
(a). 2 months
(b). 3 months
(c). 4 months
(d). 6months
Answer: 3 months
13. Before starting anti TB medications for a suspected smear negative TB patient, the number of sputum smear examinations recommended by the RNTCP is
(a). 2 smears as in positive cases
(b). 3 smears as it was done earlier
(c). 2 smears, followed by antibiotics and then 2 more smears
(d). Only Chest X-ray PA is required, sputum examinations not necessary
Answer: 2 smears, followed by antibiotics and then 2 more smears
14. To make a diagnosis of multidrug resistant tuberculosis, the mycobacteria should be resistant at least to
(a). INH and Ethambutol
(b). INH and Rifampicin
(c). INH and Pyrazinamide
(d). Streptomycin and Rifampicin
Answer: INH and Rifampicin
15. Single sample sputum culture is recommended for
(a). Follow up monitoring of MDR/XDR TB patients under DOTS Plus regime
(b). Making a diagnosis of MDR TB
(c). Making a diagnosis of Total drug resistance
(d). All of the above
Answer: Follow up monitoring of MDR/XDR TB patients under DOTS Plus regime
16. The fastest method for diagnosing MDR TB among the following is
(a). Gene Xpert
(b). Quantiferon Gold assay
(c). T spot assay
(d). Liquid culture method
Answer: Gene Xpert
17. The minimum treatment duration for MDR TB as per the PMDT (programmatic management of Drug resistant tuberculosis)
(a). 12 months
(b). 18 months
(c). 24 months
(d). 30 months
Answer: 24 months
18. Robert Koch discovered mycobacteria in the year
(a). 1862
(b). 1872
(c). 1882
(d). 1892
Answer: 1882
19. Which of the following anti TB medication is available as granules
(a). Isoniazid
(b). Para amino salicylic acid
(c). Thiacetazone
(d). Pyrazinamide
Answer: Para amino salicylic acid
20. The standard duration of short course chemotherapy is
(a). 3 months
(b). 6 months
(c). 9 months
(d). less than 12 months
Answer: 6 months
21. All the following instructions are given to a smear positive TB patient on DOTS except
(a). Take nutritious food
(b). Observe good cough habits
(c). Remain in an isolated closed room till intensive phase is over
(d). Do not panic if you see that you are passing high coloured urine after taking medication
Answer: Remain in an isolated closed room till intensive phase is over
22. Which among the following is an Acid Fast staining technique?
(a). Ziehl-Neelsen Technique
(b). Kinyoun method
(c). Auramine- Rhodamine Flurochrome staining
(d). All of the above
Answer: All of the above
23. The acid component of TB bacilli is
(a). Hydrochloric acid
(b). Lactic acid
(c). Sulphuric acid
(d). Mycolic acid
Answer: Mycolic acid
24. The number of sputum samples collected for the diagnosis of Pulmonary tuberculosis as per the current RNTCP guideline is
(a). 3 samples ( spot-morning-spot)
(b). 2 samples (morning-spot)
(c). 2 samples (morning -morning)
(d). 2 samples (spot-morning)
Answer: 2 samples (spot-morning)
25. The theme for the World TB day for the year 2015 is
(a). DOTS cured me -it will cure you too!
(b). Stop TB in my life time
(c). I am stopping TB
(d). Reach, treat, cure everyone
Answer: Reach, treat, cure everyone
(a). Take nutritious food
(b). Observe good cough habits
(c). Remain in an isolated closed room till intensive phase is over
(d). Do not panic if you see that you are passing high coloured urine after taking medication
Answer: Remain in an isolated closed room till intensive phase is over
22. Which among the following is an Acid Fast staining technique?
(a). Ziehl-Neelsen Technique
(b). Kinyoun method
(c). Auramine- Rhodamine Flurochrome staining
(d). All of the above
Answer: All of the above
23. The acid component of TB bacilli is
(a). Hydrochloric acid
(b). Lactic acid
(c). Sulphuric acid
(d). Mycolic acid
Answer: Mycolic acid
24. The number of sputum samples collected for the diagnosis of Pulmonary tuberculosis as per the current RNTCP guideline is
(a). 3 samples ( spot-morning-spot)
(b). 2 samples (morning-spot)
(c). 2 samples (morning -morning)
(d). 2 samples (spot-morning)
Answer: 2 samples (spot-morning)
25. The theme for the World TB day for the year 2015 is
(a). DOTS cured me -it will cure you too!
(b). Stop TB in my life time
(c). I am stopping TB
(d). Reach, treat, cure everyone
Answer: Reach, treat, cure everyone
26. A chronic carrier state occurs in
A:-Typhoid
B:-Hepatitis B
C:-Gonorrhoea
D:-All the listed options
Correct Answer:- Option-D
27. Droplet infection is an example of a
A:-Direct transmission
B:-Airborne transmission
C:-Indirect transmission
D:-Biological transmission
Correct Answer:- Option-A
28. Which of the following is an example of a cycledevelopmental type of transmission
A:-Malaria
B:-Filaria
C:-Plague
D:-Malaria and Filaria
Correct Answer:- Option-B
29. The time taken for 50% of cases to occur following exposure is called
A:-Average incubation period
B:-Median incubation period
C:-Generation time
D:-Communicable period
Correct Answer:- Option-B
30. Which of the following is a live vaccine
A:-BCG
B:-Rabies
C:-Hepatitis B
D:-Tetanus
Correct Answer:- Option-A
31. The most heat sensitive vaccine is
A:-Measles
B:-Polio
C:-DPT
D:-Hepatitis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
32. The dose of human antirabies serum is
A:-10 IU/kg
B:-20 IU/kg
C:-30 IU/kg
D:-40 IU/kg
Correct Answer:- Option-B
33. The recommended temperature for storage of vaccines in ILR is
A:-+2 to +8 degree celsius
B:-+4 to +8 degree celsius
C:--15 to -25 degree celsius
D:--10 to -15 degree celsius
Correct Answer:- Option-A
34. The value of handwashing with antiseptic to reduce death from puerperal fever was demonstrated by
A:-Lister
B:-Pasteur
C:-Semmelweis
D:-Koch
Correct Answer:- Option-C
35. The stage of vaccine vial monitor at which vaccine should be discarded is
A:-Stage 1 and above
B:-Stage 2 and above
C:-Stage 3 and above
D:-Stage 4 and above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
36. Disinfection of water by chlorination is an example of
A:-Concurrent disinfection
B:-Terminal disinfection
C:-Precurrent disinfection
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
37. Dettol belongs to which chemical group of disinfectant
A:-Halogen
B:-Phenol
C:-Quaternary ammonia compound
D:-Alcohol
Correct Answer:- Option-B
38. In order to disinfect sputum, patient may be asked to spit in a sputum cup half filled with 5 %
A:-Bleaching powder
B:-Crude Phenol
C:-Cresol
D:-Formalin
Correct Answer:- Option-C
39. The chemical used for fumigation is
A:-Formaldehyde
B:-Potassium Permanganate
C:-Chlorinated Lime
D:-Bleaching Powder
Correct Answer:- Option-A
40. The incubation period of chicken pox
A:-2-5 days
B:-5-10 days
C:-7-21 days
D:-21-42 days
Correct Answer:- Option-C
41. Subacute sclerosing pan- encephalitis (SSPE) is a complication of
A:-BCG vaccine
B:-Polio vaccine
C:-Pertussis vaccine
D:-Measles vaccine
Correct Answer:- Option-D
42. The formation of a false membrane in the throat is characteristic of
A:-Diphtheria
B:-Pertussis
C:-Meningococcal vaccine
D:-Measles
Correct Answer:- Option-A
43. A 3 month old child presenting with fever , respiratory rate of 60/minute and chest indrawing is classified as having
A:-No pneumonia
B:-Pneumonia
C:-Severe Pneumonia
D:-Very severe pneumonia
Correct Answer:- Option-C
44. The number of sputum samples to be tested to diagnose tuberculosis
A:-One
B:-Two
C:-Three
D:-Four
Correct Answer:- Option-B
45. Any patient treated as Category I Tuberculosis, who has a positive smear at ....months is considered a failure and started on Category II treatment
A:-2 months
B:-3 months
C:-4 months
D:-5 months
Correct Answer:- Option-D
46. ......was formerly known as infectious hepatitits
A:-Hepatitis A
B:-Hepatitis B
C:-Hepatitis C
D:-Hepatitis E
Correct Answer:- Option-A
47. ...........% of children in the age group of 0-59 months are underweight in India
A:-20%
B:-40%
C:-60%
D:-80%
Correct Answer:- Option-B
48. Which of the following about zinc supplementation for acute diarrhoea is wrong
A:-It reduces duration of episode
B:-It reduces the severity of episode
C:-It reduces the incidence of diarrhoea in the following 2-3 months
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
49. Prophylactic platelet transfusion is recommended in Dengue when the platelet count is below
A:-10000/ cu mm
B:-20000/cu mm
C:-40000/cu mm
D:-50000/cu mm
Correct Answer:- Option-A
50. The main vector for rural and peri- urban malaria in India is
A:-Anopheles stephensi
B:-Anopheles culicifacies
C:-Anopheles dirus
D:-Anopheles sundaicus
Correct Answer:- Option-B
51. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of malaria
A:-Quinine
B:-Chloroquine
C:-Primaquine
D:-Ethambutol
Correct Answer:- Option-D
52. Which of the following drugs is used in mass administration for interruption of transmission of filariasis in India
A:-Diethyl carbamazine
B:-chloroquine
C:-Albendazole
D:-Ivermectin
Correct Answer:- Option-A
53. .............is a tick borne disease
A:-scrub typhus
B:-Kyasanur forest disease
C:-West Nile fever
D:-Sandfly fever
Correct Answer:- Option-B
54. Te mode of transmission of Q fever is
A:-Vector borne
B:-Water borne
C:-Air borne
D:-Direct
Correct Answer:- Option-C
55. In stage 2 hypertension the systolic blood pressure is above
A:-180
B:-160
C:-140
D:-120
Correct Answer:- Option-B
56. Which of the following is not a modifiable risk factor for hypertension
A:-obesity
B:-increased salt intake
C:-physical inactivity
D:-increasing age
Correct Answer:- Option-D
57. The most common cancer among males in India is
A:-oral cancer
B:-Lung cancer
C:-prostate cancer
D:-Colo rectal cancer
Correct Answer:- Option-B
58. Insulin resistance syndrome is not characterised by
A:-hypoglycaemia
B:-hypertension
C:-hyperinsulinaemia
D:-dyslipidaemia
Correct Answer:- Option-A
59. The dose of Vitamin A administered to children above one year according to the Vitamin A prophylaxis programme is
A:-50000 IU
B:-100000 IU
C:-150000 IU
D:-200000 IU
Correct Answer:- Option-D
60. The national antimalaria programme was renamed as National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme in the year
A:-1999
B:-2002
C:-2005
D:-2010
Correct Answer:- Option-B
61. The aim of the national leprosy eradication programme of eliminating leprosy is achieved when the case load is
A:-<1/1000
B:-<1/10000
C:-<1/100000
D:-<1/1000000
Correct Answer:- Option-B
62. The diseases targeted under the vision 2020 in India ; include the following, except
A:-Refractive errors
B:-Glaucoma
C:-diabetic retinopathy
D:-Oncocerciasis
Correct Answer:- Option-D
63. If a child has not received DPT 1,2,3 according to the schedule in Universal immunisation programme, upto what age can the vaccine be given
A:-5 years
B:-6 years
C:-7 years
D:-do not give the vaccine
Correct Answer:- Option-C
64. The general norm for selection of ASHA is; one ASHA for a population of
A:-2000
B:-1000
C:-500
D:-200
Correct Answer:- Option-B
65. The indicator for prevalence of contraceptive use is
A:-Net reproduction rate
B:-Pearl index
C:-Couple protection rate
D:-General Fertility rate
Correct Answer:- Option-C
66. The advantages of condom are the following except
A:-Safe and inexpensive
B:-No side effects
C:-Does not interfere with sex sensation
D:-provides protection against sexually transmitted diseases
Correct Answer:- Option-C
67. Babies born before the end of ... weeks is termed preterm
A:-34 weeks
B:-37 weeks
C:-40 weeks
D:-42 weeks
Correct Answer:- Option-B
68. The denominator in the calculation of still birth rate is
A:-Live births
B:-Live births + still births > 1000g
C:-Mid year female population in the age group of 15-49 years
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
69. The sociopersonal development milestone for a child to be achieved by 9-10 months
A:-smiling at mother
B:-recognising mother
C:-increasing range of sounds
D:-stranger anxiety
Correct Answer:- Option-D
70. The richest source of Vitamin C is
A:-Amla
B:-Lime
C:-Orange
D:-Tomato
Correct Answer:- Option-A
71. The recommendation of intake of visible fat/day for a sedentary adult man is
A:-10 g
B:-15 g
C:-20 g
D:-25 g
Correct Answer:- Option-D
72. Which of the following is not a temporary social group
A:-crowd
B:-band
C:-mob
D:-herd
Correct Answer:- Option-B
73. The orthotoluidine arsenite test is used to
A:-determine free chlorine
B:-determine combined chlorine
C:-determine free and combined chlorine together
D:-determine free and combined chlorine separately
Correct Answer:- Option-D
A:-Typhoid
B:-Hepatitis B
C:-Gonorrhoea
D:-All the listed options
Correct Answer:- Option-D
27. Droplet infection is an example of a
A:-Direct transmission
B:-Airborne transmission
C:-Indirect transmission
D:-Biological transmission
Correct Answer:- Option-A
28. Which of the following is an example of a cycledevelopmental type of transmission
A:-Malaria
B:-Filaria
C:-Plague
D:-Malaria and Filaria
Correct Answer:- Option-B
29. The time taken for 50% of cases to occur following exposure is called
A:-Average incubation period
B:-Median incubation period
C:-Generation time
D:-Communicable period
Correct Answer:- Option-B
30. Which of the following is a live vaccine
A:-BCG
B:-Rabies
C:-Hepatitis B
D:-Tetanus
Correct Answer:- Option-A
31. The most heat sensitive vaccine is
A:-Measles
B:-Polio
C:-DPT
D:-Hepatitis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
32. The dose of human antirabies serum is
A:-10 IU/kg
B:-20 IU/kg
C:-30 IU/kg
D:-40 IU/kg
Correct Answer:- Option-B
33. The recommended temperature for storage of vaccines in ILR is
A:-+2 to +8 degree celsius
B:-+4 to +8 degree celsius
C:--15 to -25 degree celsius
D:--10 to -15 degree celsius
Correct Answer:- Option-A
34. The value of handwashing with antiseptic to reduce death from puerperal fever was demonstrated by
A:-Lister
B:-Pasteur
C:-Semmelweis
D:-Koch
Correct Answer:- Option-C
35. The stage of vaccine vial monitor at which vaccine should be discarded is
A:-Stage 1 and above
B:-Stage 2 and above
C:-Stage 3 and above
D:-Stage 4 and above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
36. Disinfection of water by chlorination is an example of
A:-Concurrent disinfection
B:-Terminal disinfection
C:-Precurrent disinfection
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
37. Dettol belongs to which chemical group of disinfectant
A:-Halogen
B:-Phenol
C:-Quaternary ammonia compound
D:-Alcohol
Correct Answer:- Option-B
38. In order to disinfect sputum, patient may be asked to spit in a sputum cup half filled with 5 %
A:-Bleaching powder
B:-Crude Phenol
C:-Cresol
D:-Formalin
Correct Answer:- Option-C
39. The chemical used for fumigation is
A:-Formaldehyde
B:-Potassium Permanganate
C:-Chlorinated Lime
D:-Bleaching Powder
Correct Answer:- Option-A
40. The incubation period of chicken pox
A:-2-5 days
B:-5-10 days
C:-7-21 days
D:-21-42 days
Correct Answer:- Option-C
41. Subacute sclerosing pan- encephalitis (SSPE) is a complication of
A:-BCG vaccine
B:-Polio vaccine
C:-Pertussis vaccine
D:-Measles vaccine
Correct Answer:- Option-D
42. The formation of a false membrane in the throat is characteristic of
A:-Diphtheria
B:-Pertussis
C:-Meningococcal vaccine
D:-Measles
Correct Answer:- Option-A
43. A 3 month old child presenting with fever , respiratory rate of 60/minute and chest indrawing is classified as having
A:-No pneumonia
B:-Pneumonia
C:-Severe Pneumonia
D:-Very severe pneumonia
Correct Answer:- Option-C
44. The number of sputum samples to be tested to diagnose tuberculosis
A:-One
B:-Two
C:-Three
D:-Four
Correct Answer:- Option-B
45. Any patient treated as Category I Tuberculosis, who has a positive smear at ....months is considered a failure and started on Category II treatment
A:-2 months
B:-3 months
C:-4 months
D:-5 months
Correct Answer:- Option-D
46. ......was formerly known as infectious hepatitits
A:-Hepatitis A
B:-Hepatitis B
C:-Hepatitis C
D:-Hepatitis E
Correct Answer:- Option-A
47. ...........% of children in the age group of 0-59 months are underweight in India
A:-20%
B:-40%
C:-60%
D:-80%
Correct Answer:- Option-B
48. Which of the following about zinc supplementation for acute diarrhoea is wrong
A:-It reduces duration of episode
B:-It reduces the severity of episode
C:-It reduces the incidence of diarrhoea in the following 2-3 months
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
49. Prophylactic platelet transfusion is recommended in Dengue when the platelet count is below
A:-10000/ cu mm
B:-20000/cu mm
C:-40000/cu mm
D:-50000/cu mm
Correct Answer:- Option-A
50. The main vector for rural and peri- urban malaria in India is
A:-Anopheles stephensi
B:-Anopheles culicifacies
C:-Anopheles dirus
D:-Anopheles sundaicus
Correct Answer:- Option-B
51. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of malaria
A:-Quinine
B:-Chloroquine
C:-Primaquine
D:-Ethambutol
Correct Answer:- Option-D
52. Which of the following drugs is used in mass administration for interruption of transmission of filariasis in India
A:-Diethyl carbamazine
B:-chloroquine
C:-Albendazole
D:-Ivermectin
Correct Answer:- Option-A
53. .............is a tick borne disease
A:-scrub typhus
B:-Kyasanur forest disease
C:-West Nile fever
D:-Sandfly fever
Correct Answer:- Option-B
54. Te mode of transmission of Q fever is
A:-Vector borne
B:-Water borne
C:-Air borne
D:-Direct
Correct Answer:- Option-C
55. In stage 2 hypertension the systolic blood pressure is above
A:-180
B:-160
C:-140
D:-120
Correct Answer:- Option-B
56. Which of the following is not a modifiable risk factor for hypertension
A:-obesity
B:-increased salt intake
C:-physical inactivity
D:-increasing age
Correct Answer:- Option-D
57. The most common cancer among males in India is
A:-oral cancer
B:-Lung cancer
C:-prostate cancer
D:-Colo rectal cancer
Correct Answer:- Option-B
58. Insulin resistance syndrome is not characterised by
A:-hypoglycaemia
B:-hypertension
C:-hyperinsulinaemia
D:-dyslipidaemia
Correct Answer:- Option-A
59. The dose of Vitamin A administered to children above one year according to the Vitamin A prophylaxis programme is
A:-50000 IU
B:-100000 IU
C:-150000 IU
D:-200000 IU
Correct Answer:- Option-D
60. The national antimalaria programme was renamed as National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme in the year
A:-1999
B:-2002
C:-2005
D:-2010
Correct Answer:- Option-B
61. The aim of the national leprosy eradication programme of eliminating leprosy is achieved when the case load is
A:-<1/1000
B:-<1/10000
C:-<1/100000
D:-<1/1000000
Correct Answer:- Option-B
62. The diseases targeted under the vision 2020 in India ; include the following, except
A:-Refractive errors
B:-Glaucoma
C:-diabetic retinopathy
D:-Oncocerciasis
Correct Answer:- Option-D
63. If a child has not received DPT 1,2,3 according to the schedule in Universal immunisation programme, upto what age can the vaccine be given
A:-5 years
B:-6 years
C:-7 years
D:-do not give the vaccine
Correct Answer:- Option-C
64. The general norm for selection of ASHA is; one ASHA for a population of
A:-2000
B:-1000
C:-500
D:-200
Correct Answer:- Option-B
65. The indicator for prevalence of contraceptive use is
A:-Net reproduction rate
B:-Pearl index
C:-Couple protection rate
D:-General Fertility rate
Correct Answer:- Option-C
66. The advantages of condom are the following except
A:-Safe and inexpensive
B:-No side effects
C:-Does not interfere with sex sensation
D:-provides protection against sexually transmitted diseases
Correct Answer:- Option-C
67. Babies born before the end of ... weeks is termed preterm
A:-34 weeks
B:-37 weeks
C:-40 weeks
D:-42 weeks
Correct Answer:- Option-B
68. The denominator in the calculation of still birth rate is
A:-Live births
B:-Live births + still births > 1000g
C:-Mid year female population in the age group of 15-49 years
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
69. The sociopersonal development milestone for a child to be achieved by 9-10 months
A:-smiling at mother
B:-recognising mother
C:-increasing range of sounds
D:-stranger anxiety
Correct Answer:- Option-D
70. The richest source of Vitamin C is
A:-Amla
B:-Lime
C:-Orange
D:-Tomato
Correct Answer:- Option-A
71. The recommendation of intake of visible fat/day for a sedentary adult man is
A:-10 g
B:-15 g
C:-20 g
D:-25 g
Correct Answer:- Option-D
72. Which of the following is not a temporary social group
A:-crowd
B:-band
C:-mob
D:-herd
Correct Answer:- Option-B
73. The orthotoluidine arsenite test is used to
A:-determine free chlorine
B:-determine combined chlorine
C:-determine free and combined chlorine together
D:-determine free and combined chlorine separately
Correct Answer:- Option-D
74 :-Which of the following is not an ear ossicle ?
A:-Lunate
B:-Malleus
C:-Incus
D:-Stapes
Ans: A
75:-Which of the following is a muscle of forearm ?
A:-Biceps
B:-Triceps
C:-Brachioradialis
D:-Brachialis
Ans: C
76:-Which of the following gland has both exocrine and endocrine parts ?
A:-Thyroid
B:-Pancreas
C:-Pituitary
D:-Adrenal
Ans: B
77:-Which of the following is not a branch of arch of aorta ?
A:-Brachiocephalic trunk
B:-Left common carotid artery
C:-Left subclavian artery
D:-Brachial artery
Ans: D
78:-Which of the following nerve supplies muscles of anterior compartment of thigh ?
A:-Femoral nerve
B:-Sciatic nerve
C:-Tibial nerve
D:-Common peroneal nerve
Ans: A
79:-The normal length of fallopian tube is
A:-5 cms
B:-20 cms
C:-25 cms
D:-10 cms
Ans: D
80:-Which of the following covers abdominal organs ?
A:-Pleura
B:-Peritoneum
C:-Pericardium
D:-Sibson's fascia
Ans: B
81:-Which of the following carries oxygenated blood ?
A:-Pulmonary vein
B:-Coronary sinus
C:-Femoral vein
D:-Inferior vena cava
Ans: A
82:-Which of the following is not a part of small intestine ?
A:-Duodenum
B:-Jejunum
C:-Pyloric antrum
D:-Ileum
Ans: C
83:-Which of the following is the posterior most part of cerebral hemisphere ?
A:-Frontal lobe
B:-Temporal lobe
C:-Cerebellum
D:-Occipital lobe
Ans: D
84:-Pacemaker of human heart
A:-SA node
B:-AV node
C:-Bundle of His
D:-Purkinje fibers
Ans: A
85:-Enzyme present in gastric juice
A:-Trypsinogen
B:-Pepsinogen
C:-Elastase
D:-Nuclease
Ans: B
86:-Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration
A:-Expiratory reserve volume
B:-Residual volume
C:-Vital capacity
D:-Functional residual capacity
Ans: D
87:-Hormone that facilitates water reabsorption from the distal part of renal tubule
A:-Oxytocin
B:-ADH
C:-ANP
D:-cortisol
Ans: B
88:-Factor favouring formation of oxyhemoglobin
A:-High H+ concentration
B:-High pCO2
C:-Low pCO2
D:-Low pO2
Ans: C
89:-Centre which control body temperature is located in
A:-Pons
B:-Medulla
C:-Thalamus
D:-Hypothalamus
Ans: D
90:-Point in retina where visual acuity is greatest
A:-Macula densa
B:-Visual cortex
C:-Fovea centralis
D:-Blind spot
Ans: C
91:-Hormone which induces ovulation
A:-LH
B:-FSH
C:-ACTH
D:-MSH
Ans: A
92:-Part of brain that contains centre which control respiration and cardiovascular reflexes
A:-Cerebrum
B:-Cerebellum
C:-Medulla
D:-Spinal cord
Ans: C
93:-Testosterone is produced by
A:-Sertoli cells
B:-Leydig cells
C:-Lacis cells
D:-Parietal cells
Ans: B
94:-The system of storage and transport of vaccine at low temperature is known as
A:-Cold chain
B:-Chain of infection
C:-Hot chain
D:-Cold rooms
Ans: A
95:-Paracetamol medication is
A:-Anti-tussive
B:-Anti-asthmatic
C:-Anti-pyretic
D:-Anti-emetic
Ans: C
96:-Acquisition of skills in known as
A:-Cognitive learning by knowledge
B:-Psycho-motor learning by skills
C:-Affective learning by attitudes
D:-Learning by conditioned reflex
Ans: B
97:-Acculturation is
A:-Study of various culture
B:-Mingling with other culture and accepting good characteristics
C:-Going abroad
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
98:-Objects which are capable of transmitting the disease
A:-Sepsis
B:-Asepsis
C:-Fomite
D:-Carrier
Ans: C
99:-Breathing that is normal in rate and depth
A:-Eupnea
B:-Bradypnea
C:-Tachypnea
D:-Apnea
Ans: A
100:-All are food fortification except
A:-Iodisation of salt
B:-Addition of color to saccharin
C:-Addition of Vitamin A to food stuff
D:-Addition of extra nutrients to food stuff
Ans: B
A:-Lunate
B:-Malleus
C:-Incus
D:-Stapes
Ans: A
75:-Which of the following is a muscle of forearm ?
A:-Biceps
B:-Triceps
C:-Brachioradialis
D:-Brachialis
Ans: C
76:-Which of the following gland has both exocrine and endocrine parts ?
A:-Thyroid
B:-Pancreas
C:-Pituitary
D:-Adrenal
Ans: B
77:-Which of the following is not a branch of arch of aorta ?
A:-Brachiocephalic trunk
B:-Left common carotid artery
C:-Left subclavian artery
D:-Brachial artery
Ans: D
78:-Which of the following nerve supplies muscles of anterior compartment of thigh ?
A:-Femoral nerve
B:-Sciatic nerve
C:-Tibial nerve
D:-Common peroneal nerve
Ans: A
79:-The normal length of fallopian tube is
A:-5 cms
B:-20 cms
C:-25 cms
D:-10 cms
Ans: D
80:-Which of the following covers abdominal organs ?
A:-Pleura
B:-Peritoneum
C:-Pericardium
D:-Sibson's fascia
Ans: B
81:-Which of the following carries oxygenated blood ?
A:-Pulmonary vein
B:-Coronary sinus
C:-Femoral vein
D:-Inferior vena cava
Ans: A
82:-Which of the following is not a part of small intestine ?
A:-Duodenum
B:-Jejunum
C:-Pyloric antrum
D:-Ileum
Ans: C
83:-Which of the following is the posterior most part of cerebral hemisphere ?
A:-Frontal lobe
B:-Temporal lobe
C:-Cerebellum
D:-Occipital lobe
Ans: D
84:-Pacemaker of human heart
A:-SA node
B:-AV node
C:-Bundle of His
D:-Purkinje fibers
Ans: A
85:-Enzyme present in gastric juice
A:-Trypsinogen
B:-Pepsinogen
C:-Elastase
D:-Nuclease
Ans: B
86:-Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration
A:-Expiratory reserve volume
B:-Residual volume
C:-Vital capacity
D:-Functional residual capacity
Ans: D
87:-Hormone that facilitates water reabsorption from the distal part of renal tubule
A:-Oxytocin
B:-ADH
C:-ANP
D:-cortisol
Ans: B
88:-Factor favouring formation of oxyhemoglobin
A:-High H+ concentration
B:-High pCO2
C:-Low pCO2
D:-Low pO2
Ans: C
89:-Centre which control body temperature is located in
A:-Pons
B:-Medulla
C:-Thalamus
D:-Hypothalamus
Ans: D
90:-Point in retina where visual acuity is greatest
A:-Macula densa
B:-Visual cortex
C:-Fovea centralis
D:-Blind spot
Ans: C
91:-Hormone which induces ovulation
A:-LH
B:-FSH
C:-ACTH
D:-MSH
Ans: A
92:-Part of brain that contains centre which control respiration and cardiovascular reflexes
A:-Cerebrum
B:-Cerebellum
C:-Medulla
D:-Spinal cord
Ans: C
93:-Testosterone is produced by
A:-Sertoli cells
B:-Leydig cells
C:-Lacis cells
D:-Parietal cells
Ans: B
94:-The system of storage and transport of vaccine at low temperature is known as
A:-Cold chain
B:-Chain of infection
C:-Hot chain
D:-Cold rooms
Ans: A
95:-Paracetamol medication is
A:-Anti-tussive
B:-Anti-asthmatic
C:-Anti-pyretic
D:-Anti-emetic
Ans: C
96:-Acquisition of skills in known as
A:-Cognitive learning by knowledge
B:-Psycho-motor learning by skills
C:-Affective learning by attitudes
D:-Learning by conditioned reflex
Ans: B
97:-Acculturation is
A:-Study of various culture
B:-Mingling with other culture and accepting good characteristics
C:-Going abroad
D:-None of the above
Ans: B
98:-Objects which are capable of transmitting the disease
A:-Sepsis
B:-Asepsis
C:-Fomite
D:-Carrier
Ans: C
99:-Breathing that is normal in rate and depth
A:-Eupnea
B:-Bradypnea
C:-Tachypnea
D:-Apnea
Ans: A
100:-All are food fortification except
A:-Iodisation of salt
B:-Addition of color to saccharin
C:-Addition of Vitamin A to food stuff
D:-Addition of extra nutrients to food stuff
Ans: B
