RADIOTHERAPHY- PAGE 4
RADIOTHERAPHY MCQs- PAGE 4
1. Typical industrial radiography pocket dosimeters have a full scale reading of :
(A) 50 milliroentgens (B) 100 milliroentgens
(C) 200 milliroentgens (D) 400 milliroentgens
Ans: C
2. Consider the following statements about electromagnetic radiations; All of them
(i) have energy
(ii) exert pressure on an object
(iii) have the same momentum. Of these statements :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) (i) and (iii) are correct
Ans: B
3. From which embryonic structure does vertebral column develop ?
(A) Notocord (B) Nerve cord (C) Coelom (D) Atrium
Ans: A
4. The term “metaplasia” refers to :
(A) Differentiated cell is able to become transformed into a differentiated cell of another type
(B) Cell becomes dedifferentiated
(C) Cell grows abnormally fast
(D) A precancerous condition
Ans: A
5. Clouds are contained in a layer from the earth’s surface, which is called :
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Mesosphere (D) Ionosphere
Ans: A
6. Sodium lamps are used in foggy conditions because :
(A) Yellow light is scattered less by the fog particles
(B) Yellow light is scattered more by the fog particles
(C) Yellow light is unaffected during passage through the fog
(D) Wavelength of yellow light is the mean of the visible part of the spectrum
Ans: A
7. The term ‘genetics’ was coinded by :
(A) Mendel (B) Bateson (C) Punett (D) Morgan
Ans: B
8. A gene, which affects the character of another gene, not located on similar locus of the homologous chromosome is called :
(A) Duplicate gene (B) Epistatic gene
(C) Complimentary gene (D) Supplementary gene
Ans: B
9. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms Tumour after surgery is :
(A) Within 10 days (B) Within 2 weeks
(C) Within 3 weeks (D) Anytime after surgery
Ans: A
10. Half-life of Technetium 99 is :
(A) 2 hours (B) 6 hours (C) 12 hours (D) 24 hours
Ans: B
11. Radiation damage is divided into (a) lethal damage, (b) sublethal damage and (c) potentially lethal damage (PLD). Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) PLD will cause cell death under ordinary circumstances.
(B) PLD cannot be repaired under ordinary circumstances.
(C) The variation of postirradiation conditions cannot enhance PLD repair.
(D) PLD repair is less likely to occur when mitosis is delayed.
Ans: A
12. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Radiation damage can cause a cell to either die or continue being viable but mutated.
(B) The two events above are very different when it comes to the dose dependence of their probability to occur and also when it comes to their impact on the organism to which the cell belongs.
(C) Cell killing by radiation is said to be a “deterministic effect”.
(D) Cell mutating by radiation is said to be a “nonstochastic effect”.
Ans: D
13. The average effective dose from medical radiation is about :
(A) The same as the dose from natural background radiation.
(B) The same as the dose from natural background radiation excluding radon.
(C) Half of the total effective dose.
(D) One third of the total effective dose.
Ans: B
14. In the percent-labeled mitoses technique, the time interval before any mitotic cells appear gives the duration of :
(A) The S phase
(B) The G1 phase
(C) The G2 phase
(D) The M phase
Ans: C
15. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) By “cataract” is denoted any detectable change in the normally transparent lens of the eye.
(B) Cataracts can be caused by irradiation of the lens.
(C) Cell division in the lens continues throughout life.
(D) The lens has the same mechanisms for cell removal as other normal tissues.
Ans: D
(A) 50 milliroentgens (B) 100 milliroentgens
(C) 200 milliroentgens (D) 400 milliroentgens
Ans: C
2. Consider the following statements about electromagnetic radiations; All of them
(i) have energy
(ii) exert pressure on an object
(iii) have the same momentum. Of these statements :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) (i) and (iii) are correct
Ans: B
3. From which embryonic structure does vertebral column develop ?
(A) Notocord (B) Nerve cord (C) Coelom (D) Atrium
Ans: A
4. The term “metaplasia” refers to :
(A) Differentiated cell is able to become transformed into a differentiated cell of another type
(B) Cell becomes dedifferentiated
(C) Cell grows abnormally fast
(D) A precancerous condition
Ans: A
5. Clouds are contained in a layer from the earth’s surface, which is called :
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Mesosphere (D) Ionosphere
Ans: A
6. Sodium lamps are used in foggy conditions because :
(A) Yellow light is scattered less by the fog particles
(B) Yellow light is scattered more by the fog particles
(C) Yellow light is unaffected during passage through the fog
(D) Wavelength of yellow light is the mean of the visible part of the spectrum
Ans: A
7. The term ‘genetics’ was coinded by :
(A) Mendel (B) Bateson (C) Punett (D) Morgan
Ans: B
8. A gene, which affects the character of another gene, not located on similar locus of the homologous chromosome is called :
(A) Duplicate gene (B) Epistatic gene
(C) Complimentary gene (D) Supplementary gene
Ans: B
9. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms Tumour after surgery is :
(A) Within 10 days (B) Within 2 weeks
(C) Within 3 weeks (D) Anytime after surgery
Ans: A
10. Half-life of Technetium 99 is :
(A) 2 hours (B) 6 hours (C) 12 hours (D) 24 hours
Ans: B
11. Radiation damage is divided into (a) lethal damage, (b) sublethal damage and (c) potentially lethal damage (PLD). Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) PLD will cause cell death under ordinary circumstances.
(B) PLD cannot be repaired under ordinary circumstances.
(C) The variation of postirradiation conditions cannot enhance PLD repair.
(D) PLD repair is less likely to occur when mitosis is delayed.
Ans: A
12. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Radiation damage can cause a cell to either die or continue being viable but mutated.
(B) The two events above are very different when it comes to the dose dependence of their probability to occur and also when it comes to their impact on the organism to which the cell belongs.
(C) Cell killing by radiation is said to be a “deterministic effect”.
(D) Cell mutating by radiation is said to be a “nonstochastic effect”.
Ans: D
13. The average effective dose from medical radiation is about :
(A) The same as the dose from natural background radiation.
(B) The same as the dose from natural background radiation excluding radon.
(C) Half of the total effective dose.
(D) One third of the total effective dose.
Ans: B
14. In the percent-labeled mitoses technique, the time interval before any mitotic cells appear gives the duration of :
(A) The S phase
(B) The G1 phase
(C) The G2 phase
(D) The M phase
Ans: C
15. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) By “cataract” is denoted any detectable change in the normally transparent lens of the eye.
(B) Cataracts can be caused by irradiation of the lens.
(C) Cell division in the lens continues throughout life.
(D) The lens has the same mechanisms for cell removal as other normal tissues.
Ans: D
16. Which of the following malignant tumours is radioresistant ?
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma (B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Osteosarcoma (D) Neuroblastoma
Ans: C
17. The bulge at the upper end of the stomach is called the :
(A) Fundus (B) Greater curvature
(C) Pylorus (D) Rugae
Ans: A
18. High-velocity electrons (e-) that completely avoid the orbital electrons as they pass through a tungsten atom, yet come close enough to the nucleus of the atom to come under the influence of its positively charged electric field (P+), will produce what type of X-rays ?
(A) Characteristic X-rays (B) Compton X-rays
(C) Bremsstrahlung X-rays (D) Thompson X-rays
Ans: C
19. What is the relationship of LET and biologic damage ?
(A) They increase in direct proportion.
(B) They are inversely proportional.
(C) There is no relationship.
(D) There is a nonlinear nonthreshold relationship.
Ans: A
20. A young male is brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift. Basal cistern was compressed with multiple small haemorrhages. What is the likely diagnosis ?
(A) Cerebral contusion (B) Cerebral laceration
(C) Multiple infarcts (D) Diffuse axonal injuries
Ans: D
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma (B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Osteosarcoma (D) Neuroblastoma
Ans: C
17. The bulge at the upper end of the stomach is called the :
(A) Fundus (B) Greater curvature
(C) Pylorus (D) Rugae
Ans: A
18. High-velocity electrons (e-) that completely avoid the orbital electrons as they pass through a tungsten atom, yet come close enough to the nucleus of the atom to come under the influence of its positively charged electric field (P+), will produce what type of X-rays ?
(A) Characteristic X-rays (B) Compton X-rays
(C) Bremsstrahlung X-rays (D) Thompson X-rays
Ans: C
19. What is the relationship of LET and biologic damage ?
(A) They increase in direct proportion.
(B) They are inversely proportional.
(C) There is no relationship.
(D) There is a nonlinear nonthreshold relationship.
Ans: A
20. A young male is brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift. Basal cistern was compressed with multiple small haemorrhages. What is the likely diagnosis ?
(A) Cerebral contusion (B) Cerebral laceration
(C) Multiple infarcts (D) Diffuse axonal injuries
Ans: D
21. DNA model was proposed by Watson and Crick in the year :
(A) 1970 (B) 1953 (C) 1983 (D) 1965
Ans: B
22. Which statement of cell cycle is not true ?
(A) It consists of mitosis and interphase
(B) The cell’s DNA replicates during G1
(C) A cell can remain in G1 for weeks or even longer
(D) Most proteins are formed throughout all subphase of interphase
Ans: B
23. The element with atomic number Z=115 will be placed in :
(A) 7th period, I A group
(B) 8 th period, IV A group
(C) 7th period, V A group
(D) 6th period, V B group
Ans: C
24. Half-life period of a radioactive element X is same as the mean life time of another element Y. Initially, they have same number of atoms. Then :
(A) X will decay faster than Y
(B) Y will decay faster than X
(C) Y and X decay at the same rate after one half-life period
(D) Y and X have same decay rate initially
Ans: B
25. The difference between soft and hard X-rays is of :
(A) Velocity (B) Intensity (C) Frequency (D) Polarization
Ans: C
26. Which rays are not the portion of electro-magnetic spectrum ?
(A) Alpha-rays (B) X-rays (C) Microwaves (D) Radiowaves
Ans: A
27. Whose experiments mark the beginning of the field of communication using electromagnetic waves ?
(A) J.C. Bose (B) Maxwell (C) Marconi (D) Hertz
Ans: C
28. The correct sequence of the increasing wavelength of the given radiation sources is :
(A) Radioactive sources, X-ray tube, crystal oscillator, sodium vapour lamp
(B) Radioactive sources, X-ray tube, sodium vapour lamp, crystal oscillator
(C) X-ray tube, radioactive sources, crystal oscillator, sodium vapour lamp
(D) X-ray tube, crystal oscillator, radioactive sources, sodium vapour lamp
Ans: B
29. What is the range of frequency for ultrasonic wave ?
(A) 1 kHz (B) 5 kHz (C) 50 kHz (D) 100 kHz
Ans: C
(A) 1970 (B) 1953 (C) 1983 (D) 1965
Ans: B
22. Which statement of cell cycle is not true ?
(A) It consists of mitosis and interphase
(B) The cell’s DNA replicates during G1
(C) A cell can remain in G1 for weeks or even longer
(D) Most proteins are formed throughout all subphase of interphase
Ans: B
23. The element with atomic number Z=115 will be placed in :
(A) 7th period, I A group
(B) 8 th period, IV A group
(C) 7th period, V A group
(D) 6th period, V B group
Ans: C
24. Half-life period of a radioactive element X is same as the mean life time of another element Y. Initially, they have same number of atoms. Then :
(A) X will decay faster than Y
(B) Y will decay faster than X
(C) Y and X decay at the same rate after one half-life period
(D) Y and X have same decay rate initially
Ans: B
25. The difference between soft and hard X-rays is of :
(A) Velocity (B) Intensity (C) Frequency (D) Polarization
Ans: C
26. Which rays are not the portion of electro-magnetic spectrum ?
(A) Alpha-rays (B) X-rays (C) Microwaves (D) Radiowaves
Ans: A
27. Whose experiments mark the beginning of the field of communication using electromagnetic waves ?
(A) J.C. Bose (B) Maxwell (C) Marconi (D) Hertz
Ans: C
28. The correct sequence of the increasing wavelength of the given radiation sources is :
(A) Radioactive sources, X-ray tube, crystal oscillator, sodium vapour lamp
(B) Radioactive sources, X-ray tube, sodium vapour lamp, crystal oscillator
(C) X-ray tube, radioactive sources, crystal oscillator, sodium vapour lamp
(D) X-ray tube, crystal oscillator, radioactive sources, sodium vapour lamp
Ans: B
29. What is the range of frequency for ultrasonic wave ?
(A) 1 kHz (B) 5 kHz (C) 50 kHz (D) 100 kHz
Ans: C
30. Which is the commonest cancer among females ?
(A) Uterus (B) Tongue (C) Lung (D) Breast
Ans: D
31. Cathode rays are made to pass between the poles of a magnet perpendicular to axis, the effect of the magnet is :
(A) to increase the velocity of rays
(B) to deflect them towards the north pole
(C) to deflect them towards the south pole
(D) to deflect them upwards above the plain of paper
Ans: D
32. Photocell is a device to :
(A) store photons
(B) measure light intensity
(C) convert photon energy into mechanical energy
(D) store electrical energy for replacing storage batteries
Ans: B
33. If the X-ray tube is working at 20 kV then the minimum wavelength of X-rays will be :
(A) 0.62 A (B) 0.93 A (C) 0.47 A (D) 0.31 A
Ans: A
34. Isotopes are atoms having :
(A) same number of protons, but different number of neutrons
(B) same number of neutrons, but different number of protons
(C) same number of neutrons and protons
(D) none of the above
Ans: A
35. If an electron jumps from 1st orbit to 3rd orbit, then it will :
(A) Absorb energy
(B) Release energy
(C) Have no difference in energy
(D) It cannot jump from 1st orbit to 3rd orbit
Ans: A
36. Gamma rays are deflected :
(A) In an electric field but not by a magnetic field
(B) A magnetic field but not by an electric field
(C) Both electric and magnetic field
(D) Neither electric nor magnetic field
Ans: D
37. Radioactivity is :
(A) Irreversible process (B) Self disintegration process
(C) Spontaneous (D) All of the above
Ans: D
(A) Uterus (B) Tongue (C) Lung (D) Breast
Ans: D
31. Cathode rays are made to pass between the poles of a magnet perpendicular to axis, the effect of the magnet is :
(A) to increase the velocity of rays
(B) to deflect them towards the north pole
(C) to deflect them towards the south pole
(D) to deflect them upwards above the plain of paper
Ans: D
32. Photocell is a device to :
(A) store photons
(B) measure light intensity
(C) convert photon energy into mechanical energy
(D) store electrical energy for replacing storage batteries
Ans: B
33. If the X-ray tube is working at 20 kV then the minimum wavelength of X-rays will be :
(A) 0.62 A (B) 0.93 A (C) 0.47 A (D) 0.31 A
Ans: A
34. Isotopes are atoms having :
(A) same number of protons, but different number of neutrons
(B) same number of neutrons, but different number of protons
(C) same number of neutrons and protons
(D) none of the above
Ans: A
35. If an electron jumps from 1st orbit to 3rd orbit, then it will :
(A) Absorb energy
(B) Release energy
(C) Have no difference in energy
(D) It cannot jump from 1st orbit to 3rd orbit
Ans: A
36. Gamma rays are deflected :
(A) In an electric field but not by a magnetic field
(B) A magnetic field but not by an electric field
(C) Both electric and magnetic field
(D) Neither electric nor magnetic field
Ans: D
37. Radioactivity is :
(A) Irreversible process (B) Self disintegration process
(C) Spontaneous (D) All of the above
Ans: D
38. Half life of radioactive element depends upon :
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
Ans: D
39. Curie is a unit of :
(A) Energy of gamma rays (B) Half life
(C) Radioactivity (D) Intensity of gamma rays
Ans: C
40. Boron rods in a nuclear reactor is used to :
(A) Absorb excess neutrons (B) Absorb alpha particles
(C) Slow down the reaction (D) Speed up the reaction
Ans: A
41. IMRT stands for :
(A) Intra Medullary Radiotherapy
(B) Intensity Modulated Radiotherapy
(C) Interstitial Modulated Radiotherapy
(D) Intensity Maximized Radiotherapy
Ans: B
42. Which is the commonest primary Brain tumour ?
(A) Medulloblastoma (B) Glioma
(C) Neuroblastoma (D) Pituitary adenoma
Ans: B
43. The length of one turn of DNA is :
(A) 3.4 A (B) 34 A (C) 20 A (D) 3.04 A
Ans: B
44. Stereotactic Radio-surgery is a form of :
(A) Radiotherapy (B) Radioiodine therapy
(C) Robotic Surgery (D) Cryo Surgery
Ans: A
45. Which one of the following therapeutic modes is commonly employed in intra-operative radiotherapy ?
(A) Electron (B) Photons (C) X-rays (D) Gamma rays
Ans: D
46. WHO Ladder is for the rational titration of :
(A) Radiotherapy (B) Chemotherapy
(C) Anti depressants (D) Oral analgesics
Ans: D
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
Ans: D
39. Curie is a unit of :
(A) Energy of gamma rays (B) Half life
(C) Radioactivity (D) Intensity of gamma rays
Ans: C
40. Boron rods in a nuclear reactor is used to :
(A) Absorb excess neutrons (B) Absorb alpha particles
(C) Slow down the reaction (D) Speed up the reaction
Ans: A
41. IMRT stands for :
(A) Intra Medullary Radiotherapy
(B) Intensity Modulated Radiotherapy
(C) Interstitial Modulated Radiotherapy
(D) Intensity Maximized Radiotherapy
Ans: B
42. Which is the commonest primary Brain tumour ?
(A) Medulloblastoma (B) Glioma
(C) Neuroblastoma (D) Pituitary adenoma
Ans: B
43. The length of one turn of DNA is :
(A) 3.4 A (B) 34 A (C) 20 A (D) 3.04 A
Ans: B
44. Stereotactic Radio-surgery is a form of :
(A) Radiotherapy (B) Radioiodine therapy
(C) Robotic Surgery (D) Cryo Surgery
Ans: A
45. Which one of the following therapeutic modes is commonly employed in intra-operative radiotherapy ?
(A) Electron (B) Photons (C) X-rays (D) Gamma rays
Ans: D
46. WHO Ladder is for the rational titration of :
(A) Radiotherapy (B) Chemotherapy
(C) Anti depressants (D) Oral analgesics
Ans: D
47. The following are indications for post operative radiotherapy in a case of carcinoma endometrium except :
(A) Myometrial invasion of more than half thickness
(B) Positive lymph nodes
(C) Endocervical involvement
(D) Tumor positive for estrogen receptors
Ans: D
48. The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumor motion due to breathing is known as :
(A) Arc technique (B) Modulation (C) Gating (D) Shunting
Ans: C
49. Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant ?
(A) Iodine - 125 (B) Palladium - 103 (C) Gold - 198 (D) Caesium - 137
Ans: D
50. The most definitive method of diagnosing pulmonary embolism is :
(A) EKG
(B) Radioisotope perfusion pulmonary scintigraphy
(C) Pulmonary arteriography
(D) Venography
Ans: C
51. Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph ?
(A) Bidirectional Glem shunt (B) Modified Blalock - Taussing shunt
(C) IVC occlusion (D) Coarctation of Aorta
Ans: D
52. For routine chest radiography you would expect to get the best contrast characteristics by using :
(A) 35 kV (B) 65 kV (C) 95 kV (D) 125 kV
Ans: D
53. Which one of the following tumors shows calcification of CT Scan more commonly ?
(A) Ependymoma (B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Meningioma (D) CNS lymphoma
Ans: C
54. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus ?
(A) Echogenic foci in heart (B) Hyperechogenic bowel
(C) Choroid plexus cysts (D) Nuchal edema
Ans: D
(A) Myometrial invasion of more than half thickness
(B) Positive lymph nodes
(C) Endocervical involvement
(D) Tumor positive for estrogen receptors
Ans: D
48. The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumor motion due to breathing is known as :
(A) Arc technique (B) Modulation (C) Gating (D) Shunting
Ans: C
49. Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant ?
(A) Iodine - 125 (B) Palladium - 103 (C) Gold - 198 (D) Caesium - 137
Ans: D
50. The most definitive method of diagnosing pulmonary embolism is :
(A) EKG
(B) Radioisotope perfusion pulmonary scintigraphy
(C) Pulmonary arteriography
(D) Venography
Ans: C
51. Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph ?
(A) Bidirectional Glem shunt (B) Modified Blalock - Taussing shunt
(C) IVC occlusion (D) Coarctation of Aorta
Ans: D
52. For routine chest radiography you would expect to get the best contrast characteristics by using :
(A) 35 kV (B) 65 kV (C) 95 kV (D) 125 kV
Ans: D
53. Which one of the following tumors shows calcification of CT Scan more commonly ?
(A) Ependymoma (B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Meningioma (D) CNS lymphoma
Ans: C
54. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus ?
(A) Echogenic foci in heart (B) Hyperechogenic bowel
(C) Choroid plexus cysts (D) Nuchal edema
Ans: D
55. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is :
(A) Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
(B) Single energy X-ray absorptiometry
(C) Ultrasound
(D) Quantitative computed tomography
Ans: A
56. In order to check for possible leakage of radioactive material from a cobalt camera the __________ is used.
(A) TLD (B) Wipe test (C) G-M counter (D) DRD
Ans: B
57. The optimal film speed for intra-oral radiography is :
(A) C speed (B) D speed (C) E speed (D) F speed
Ans: D
58. What does a “cell survival curve” describe ?
(A) The relationship between the radiation dose and the number of cells that have gone through one mitosis after irradiation.
(B) The relationship between the radiation dose and the proportion of cells that remain clonogenic.
(C) The relationship between the radiation dose and the number of cells that have not suffered the loss of a specific function.
(D) The relationship between the radiation dose and the proportion of cells that can produce DNA.
Ans: B
59. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Cells are more sensitive to X-rays in the presence of oxygen than in its absence (i.e. under hypoxia).
(B) By “oxygen enhancement ratio” (OER) is meant the ratio of hypoxic to aerated doses needed to achieve the same biological effect.
(C) For sparsely ionizing radiation, the OER is about 3 at high doses and about 2 at low doses (i.e. at doses of the order of the daily dose per fraction in radiotherapy).
(D) The OER does not vary with the phase of the cell cycle.
Ans: D
60. The effective dose for a multiple-slice chest CT-scan is :
(A) 1 mSv. (B) 2 mSv. (C) 4 mSv. (D) 8 mSv.
Ans: D
61. Which radiologic test is used to diagnose gallstones ?
(A) Barium enema (B) Intravenous pyelogram
(C) Cholangiography (D) Stereoscopy
Ans: C
(A) Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
(B) Single energy X-ray absorptiometry
(C) Ultrasound
(D) Quantitative computed tomography
Ans: A
56. In order to check for possible leakage of radioactive material from a cobalt camera the __________ is used.
(A) TLD (B) Wipe test (C) G-M counter (D) DRD
Ans: B
57. The optimal film speed for intra-oral radiography is :
(A) C speed (B) D speed (C) E speed (D) F speed
Ans: D
58. What does a “cell survival curve” describe ?
(A) The relationship between the radiation dose and the number of cells that have gone through one mitosis after irradiation.
(B) The relationship between the radiation dose and the proportion of cells that remain clonogenic.
(C) The relationship between the radiation dose and the number of cells that have not suffered the loss of a specific function.
(D) The relationship between the radiation dose and the proportion of cells that can produce DNA.
Ans: B
59. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Cells are more sensitive to X-rays in the presence of oxygen than in its absence (i.e. under hypoxia).
(B) By “oxygen enhancement ratio” (OER) is meant the ratio of hypoxic to aerated doses needed to achieve the same biological effect.
(C) For sparsely ionizing radiation, the OER is about 3 at high doses and about 2 at low doses (i.e. at doses of the order of the daily dose per fraction in radiotherapy).
(D) The OER does not vary with the phase of the cell cycle.
Ans: D
60. The effective dose for a multiple-slice chest CT-scan is :
(A) 1 mSv. (B) 2 mSv. (C) 4 mSv. (D) 8 mSv.
Ans: D
61. Which radiologic test is used to diagnose gallstones ?
(A) Barium enema (B) Intravenous pyelogram
(C) Cholangiography (D) Stereoscopy
Ans: C
62. Spalding’s sign occurs after :
(A) Birth of live foetus (B) Death of foetus in uterus
(C) Rigormortis of infant (D) Cadaveric spasm
Ans: B
63. Which one of the following congenital malformations of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound ?
(A) Anencephaly (B) Inencephaly
(C) Microcephaly (D) Holoprosencephaly
Ans: A
64. Brown tumours are seen in :
(A) Hyperparathyrodism (B) Pigmented villonodular synovitis
(C) Osteomalacia (D) Neurofibromatosis
Ans: A
(A) Birth of live foetus (B) Death of foetus in uterus
(C) Rigormortis of infant (D) Cadaveric spasm
Ans: B
63. Which one of the following congenital malformations of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound ?
(A) Anencephaly (B) Inencephaly
(C) Microcephaly (D) Holoprosencephaly
Ans: A
64. Brown tumours are seen in :
(A) Hyperparathyrodism (B) Pigmented villonodular synovitis
(C) Osteomalacia (D) Neurofibromatosis
Ans: A
65:-The following gene expression profiles in Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma shows poor prognosis except
A:-Bcl-2 expression B:-Bcl-1 expression C:-HLA-DR expression D:-P53 gene mutation
Ans: B
66:-True regarding flow cytometry in cancer diagnosis include
A:-Prompt result availability B:-Need for fresh specimen
C:-Can analyze two or more markers simultaneously D:-All of the above
Ans: D
67:-T4N2M1 (ipsilateral) carcinoma lung comes under which composite stage ?
A:-Stage IIB B:-Stage IIIA C:-Stage IIIB D:-Stage IV
Ans: C
68:-As per NCCN guidelines 2018, FIGO stage IA of epithelial ovarian cancer patients in whom fertility needs to be preserved is treated by
A:-Bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty
B:-Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty
C:-Total Abdominal Hystrectomy with bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty and comprehensive staging
D:-Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty with comprehensive staging
Ans: D
69:-PET scan is considered "essential" in following initial tumor workup as per NCCN guidelines except
A:-Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia B:-Hodgkins disease
C:-Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Follicular Lymphoma D:-Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Gastric MALT lymphoma
Ans: A
70:-FIGO staging workup for carcinoma cervix include
A:-CT scan abdomen B:-MRI Scan abdomen C:-USG abdomen D:-None of the above
Ans: C
71:-Indication/s of Radiotherapy in sigmoid or caecal primary carcinoma include all except
A:-Close or positive resection margin B:-All T2-T3 diseases
C:-T4 disease with pelvic adherence D:-Both A) and C)
Ans: B
72:-Regarding results of German Trial in treatment of cancer Rectum, pre operative chemo radiotherapy showed following results compared to post operative chemo radiotherapy
A:-Improved 5 year survival rate B:-Decreased chronic toxicity rate
C:-Poor sphincter preservation rate D:-Increased acute toxicity rate
Ans: B
73:-WPRT (Whole Prostate Radiotherapy) is indicated in all except
A:-Lymph node involvement as per radiological investigation B:-Risk of lymph node involvement >/=15%
C:-Gleasons score of 7 and more than 50% biopsy positive D:-None of above
Ans: A
74:-Total Low Dose Rate brachytherapy dose commonly used in carcinoma cervix treatment after external beam radiotherapy of 45Gy is __________Gy
A:-30 Gy B:-35 Gy C:-40 Gy D:-45 Gy
Ans: C
75:-A 15 year old boy with swelling tibial shaft complaints of local pain and fever. Histopathology shows small round cells. Most likely diagnoses is
A:-Osteochondroma B:-Giant cell carcin oma C:-Osteosarcoma D:-Ewings sarcoma
Ans: D
76:-A patient is receiving Cytarabine, Daunorubicin and Etoposide as part of induction therapy for Leukemia.ECG shows peaked T wave with ST depression. Child's heart rate is 70/minute (<20% from base line heart rate). Serum potassium of 7.4 m Eq/L. Clinical should initiate measures to manage
A:-Tumor Lyses Syndrome B:-Hyperkalemia
C:-Hyper leukocytosis D:-Syndrome of Insufficient ADH secretion
Ans: A
77:-In Breast Reconstruction Surgery after mastectomy, which of the following is not true regarding TRAM flap.
A:-Flap may be based on a pedicled Superior Epigastric artery B:-It is a type of myo cutaneous flap
C:-The flap can be transferred as a free flap D:-It uses supra umbilical fat
Ans: D
78:-As per NSABP B-18 trial, _____ % of patients who had a planned mastectomy were able to undergo breast conservation therapy following neo adjuvant chemotherapy.
A:-5% B:-9% C:-13% D:-17%
Ans: B
79:-The prescribed dose in Carcinoma Nasopharynx radiation planning is ______ to PTV of Clinical Target Volume (CTV) gross and ______ to PTV of CTV high risk subclinical disease.
A:-70 Gy, 59.4 Gy B:-64 Gy, 59.4 Gy C:-59.4 Gy, 54 Gy D:-54 Gy, 59.4 Gy
Ans: A
80:-Radio Surgery for focally recurrent Glioblastoma Multiforme has resulted in median survival of
A:-3 to 5 months B:-5 to 8 months C:-8 to 10 months D:-12 to 18 months
Ans: C
81:-People friendly health care delivery system is the concept of
A:-Mission LIFE B:-Mission Aardram C:-Education mission D:-Haritha Keralam
Ans: B
82:-Historically the first chemotherapeutic drugs used in the clinical setting were
A:-Anthracyclines B:-Antimetabolites C:-Alkylating agents D:-None
Ans: C
83:-Adverse effects of oral morphine includes all EXCEPT
A:-Respiratory depression B:-Nausea and vomiting C:-Sedation D:-Constipation
Ans: A
84:-The vitamin used to reduce the severity of hand foot syndrome of 5-fluro uracil
A:-B12 B:-B2 C:-C D:-B6
Ans: D
85:-NOT true about tamoxifen flare
A:-Occurs in approximately 30% of cases with metastatic disease B:-It develops in the first few weeks of therapy
C:-Full dose of tamoxifen should be continued D:-Occasionally associated with hypercalcemia
Ans: A
86:-A measure of central tendency
A:-Range B:-Standard deviation C:-Mode D:-None Ans: C
87:-The dominant means of energy production in cancer cells
A:-Gluconeogenesis B:-Glycolysis C:-Lactic acidosis D:-None
Ans: B
88:-A radiotherapy emergency
A:-Superior venacava obstruction B:-Severe bone pain C:-Spinal cord compression D:-Brain metastasis
Ans: C
89:-The time interval between end of treatment and PET imaging after concurrent chemoradiation should be at least
A:-6-8 weeks B:-10-12 weeks C:-2-3 weeks D:-24-36 weeks
Ans: B
90:-For all the following analytical studies, the individual is the unit of analysis EXCEPT
A:-Ecological B:-Cross sectional C:-Cohort D:-Case control
Ans: A
91:-Prophylactic surgery can prevent cancer in
A:-Ulcerative colitis B:-Multiple endocrine neoplasia C:-Both A) and B) D:-None
Ans: C
92:-NOT true about mesna
A:-Its a synthetic sulfhydryl compound B:-May cause false positive results for ketones
C:-The usual does is 80% of the daily mg ifosfamide dose D:-May not prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in all patients
Ans: C
93:-All are elements of communicating bad news-the SPIKE approach EXCEPT
A:-Intimacy B:-Perception and preparation C:-Knowledge of the condition D:-Empathy and exploration
Ans: A
94:-All are adverse effects of cisplatin EXCEPT
A:-Neuropathy B:-Ototoxicity C:-Nephrotoxicity D:-Hypercalcemia
Ans: D
95:-The APL group will get the benefit of karunya benevolent fund if their annual income is below
A:-5 lakhs B:-3 lakhs C:-1 lakhs D:-4 lakhs
Ans: B
96:-When a patient completes his/her age 18 years after commencement of treatment, further assistance under cancer suraksha scheme will be extended for a maximum period of
A:-5 years B:-3 years C:-2 years D:-None Ans: D
97:-About Nivolumab TRUE
A:-Anticytotoxic T lymphocyte associated protein 4 (CTLA4) inhibitor B:-Programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) inhibitor
C:-mTOR kinase inhibitor D:-None
Ans: B
98:-Alemtuzumab targets
A:-CD 33 antigen B:-CD 20 antigen C:-CD 52 antigen D:-Epidermal growth factor
Ans: C
99:-NOT true of phase III trails
A:-The primary endpoints should be demonstrably related to patient benefit
B:-Eligibility criteria should be broad to enhance generalizability of results
C:-Conditions of treatment should be suited to community patient care
D:-A quality of life measure should be included to measure benefit to patients
Ans: D
100:-Patient reported outcomes are important endpoint in oncology research because
A:-Cancer treatments often have a large impact on overall survival B:-Cancer treatment decisions are often straight forward C:-Cancer treatments that are curative need to be advanced D:-Cancer treatments often have significant toxicity
Ans: D
A:-Bcl-2 expression B:-Bcl-1 expression C:-HLA-DR expression D:-P53 gene mutation
Ans: B
66:-True regarding flow cytometry in cancer diagnosis include
A:-Prompt result availability B:-Need for fresh specimen
C:-Can analyze two or more markers simultaneously D:-All of the above
Ans: D
67:-T4N2M1 (ipsilateral) carcinoma lung comes under which composite stage ?
A:-Stage IIB B:-Stage IIIA C:-Stage IIIB D:-Stage IV
Ans: C
68:-As per NCCN guidelines 2018, FIGO stage IA of epithelial ovarian cancer patients in whom fertility needs to be preserved is treated by
A:-Bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty
B:-Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty
C:-Total Abdominal Hystrectomy with bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty and comprehensive staging
D:-Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty with comprehensive staging
Ans: D
69:-PET scan is considered "essential" in following initial tumor workup as per NCCN guidelines except
A:-Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia B:-Hodgkins disease
C:-Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Follicular Lymphoma D:-Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Gastric MALT lymphoma
Ans: A
70:-FIGO staging workup for carcinoma cervix include
A:-CT scan abdomen B:-MRI Scan abdomen C:-USG abdomen D:-None of the above
Ans: C
71:-Indication/s of Radiotherapy in sigmoid or caecal primary carcinoma include all except
A:-Close or positive resection margin B:-All T2-T3 diseases
C:-T4 disease with pelvic adherence D:-Both A) and C)
Ans: B
72:-Regarding results of German Trial in treatment of cancer Rectum, pre operative chemo radiotherapy showed following results compared to post operative chemo radiotherapy
A:-Improved 5 year survival rate B:-Decreased chronic toxicity rate
C:-Poor sphincter preservation rate D:-Increased acute toxicity rate
Ans: B
73:-WPRT (Whole Prostate Radiotherapy) is indicated in all except
A:-Lymph node involvement as per radiological investigation B:-Risk of lymph node involvement >/=15%
C:-Gleasons score of 7 and more than 50% biopsy positive D:-None of above
Ans: A
74:-Total Low Dose Rate brachytherapy dose commonly used in carcinoma cervix treatment after external beam radiotherapy of 45Gy is __________Gy
A:-30 Gy B:-35 Gy C:-40 Gy D:-45 Gy
Ans: C
75:-A 15 year old boy with swelling tibial shaft complaints of local pain and fever. Histopathology shows small round cells. Most likely diagnoses is
A:-Osteochondroma B:-Giant cell carcin oma C:-Osteosarcoma D:-Ewings sarcoma
Ans: D
76:-A patient is receiving Cytarabine, Daunorubicin and Etoposide as part of induction therapy for Leukemia.ECG shows peaked T wave with ST depression. Child's heart rate is 70/minute (<20% from base line heart rate). Serum potassium of 7.4 m Eq/L. Clinical should initiate measures to manage
A:-Tumor Lyses Syndrome B:-Hyperkalemia
C:-Hyper leukocytosis D:-Syndrome of Insufficient ADH secretion
Ans: A
77:-In Breast Reconstruction Surgery after mastectomy, which of the following is not true regarding TRAM flap.
A:-Flap may be based on a pedicled Superior Epigastric artery B:-It is a type of myo cutaneous flap
C:-The flap can be transferred as a free flap D:-It uses supra umbilical fat
Ans: D
78:-As per NSABP B-18 trial, _____ % of patients who had a planned mastectomy were able to undergo breast conservation therapy following neo adjuvant chemotherapy.
A:-5% B:-9% C:-13% D:-17%
Ans: B
79:-The prescribed dose in Carcinoma Nasopharynx radiation planning is ______ to PTV of Clinical Target Volume (CTV) gross and ______ to PTV of CTV high risk subclinical disease.
A:-70 Gy, 59.4 Gy B:-64 Gy, 59.4 Gy C:-59.4 Gy, 54 Gy D:-54 Gy, 59.4 Gy
Ans: A
80:-Radio Surgery for focally recurrent Glioblastoma Multiforme has resulted in median survival of
A:-3 to 5 months B:-5 to 8 months C:-8 to 10 months D:-12 to 18 months
Ans: C
81:-People friendly health care delivery system is the concept of
A:-Mission LIFE B:-Mission Aardram C:-Education mission D:-Haritha Keralam
Ans: B
82:-Historically the first chemotherapeutic drugs used in the clinical setting were
A:-Anthracyclines B:-Antimetabolites C:-Alkylating agents D:-None
Ans: C
83:-Adverse effects of oral morphine includes all EXCEPT
A:-Respiratory depression B:-Nausea and vomiting C:-Sedation D:-Constipation
Ans: A
84:-The vitamin used to reduce the severity of hand foot syndrome of 5-fluro uracil
A:-B12 B:-B2 C:-C D:-B6
Ans: D
85:-NOT true about tamoxifen flare
A:-Occurs in approximately 30% of cases with metastatic disease B:-It develops in the first few weeks of therapy
C:-Full dose of tamoxifen should be continued D:-Occasionally associated with hypercalcemia
Ans: A
86:-A measure of central tendency
A:-Range B:-Standard deviation C:-Mode D:-None Ans: C
87:-The dominant means of energy production in cancer cells
A:-Gluconeogenesis B:-Glycolysis C:-Lactic acidosis D:-None
Ans: B
88:-A radiotherapy emergency
A:-Superior venacava obstruction B:-Severe bone pain C:-Spinal cord compression D:-Brain metastasis
Ans: C
89:-The time interval between end of treatment and PET imaging after concurrent chemoradiation should be at least
A:-6-8 weeks B:-10-12 weeks C:-2-3 weeks D:-24-36 weeks
Ans: B
90:-For all the following analytical studies, the individual is the unit of analysis EXCEPT
A:-Ecological B:-Cross sectional C:-Cohort D:-Case control
Ans: A
91:-Prophylactic surgery can prevent cancer in
A:-Ulcerative colitis B:-Multiple endocrine neoplasia C:-Both A) and B) D:-None
Ans: C
92:-NOT true about mesna
A:-Its a synthetic sulfhydryl compound B:-May cause false positive results for ketones
C:-The usual does is 80% of the daily mg ifosfamide dose D:-May not prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in all patients
Ans: C
93:-All are elements of communicating bad news-the SPIKE approach EXCEPT
A:-Intimacy B:-Perception and preparation C:-Knowledge of the condition D:-Empathy and exploration
Ans: A
94:-All are adverse effects of cisplatin EXCEPT
A:-Neuropathy B:-Ototoxicity C:-Nephrotoxicity D:-Hypercalcemia
Ans: D
95:-The APL group will get the benefit of karunya benevolent fund if their annual income is below
A:-5 lakhs B:-3 lakhs C:-1 lakhs D:-4 lakhs
Ans: B
96:-When a patient completes his/her age 18 years after commencement of treatment, further assistance under cancer suraksha scheme will be extended for a maximum period of
A:-5 years B:-3 years C:-2 years D:-None Ans: D
97:-About Nivolumab TRUE
A:-Anticytotoxic T lymphocyte associated protein 4 (CTLA4) inhibitor B:-Programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) inhibitor
C:-mTOR kinase inhibitor D:-None
Ans: B
98:-Alemtuzumab targets
A:-CD 33 antigen B:-CD 20 antigen C:-CD 52 antigen D:-Epidermal growth factor
Ans: C
99:-NOT true of phase III trails
A:-The primary endpoints should be demonstrably related to patient benefit
B:-Eligibility criteria should be broad to enhance generalizability of results
C:-Conditions of treatment should be suited to community patient care
D:-A quality of life measure should be included to measure benefit to patients
Ans: D
100:-Patient reported outcomes are important endpoint in oncology research because
A:-Cancer treatments often have a large impact on overall survival B:-Cancer treatment decisions are often straight forward C:-Cancer treatments that are curative need to be advanced D:-Cancer treatments often have significant toxicity
Ans: D
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