**CIVIL ENGINEERING**

**UPSC CSE Civil Engineering Syllabus**

(These syllabus may change from time to time. Please check with the relevant Public Service Commission websites for any changes in the syllabus)
Paper - I1. Engineering Mechanics, Strength of Materials and Structural Analysis:1.1 Engineering Mechanics: Units and Dimensions, SI Units, Vectors, Concept of Force, Concept of particle and rigid body. Concurrent, Non Concurrent and parallel forces in a plane, moment of force, free body diagram, conditions of equilibrium, Principle of virtual work, equivalent force system. First and Second Moment of area, Mass moment of Inertia. Static Friction. Kinematics and Kinetics: Kinematics in Cartesian Co-ordinates, motion under uniform and nonuniform acceleration, motion under gravity. Kinetics of particle: Momentum and Energy principles, collision of elastic bodies, rotation of rigid bodies. 1.2 Strength of Materials: Simple Stress and Strain, Elastic constants, axially loaded compression members, Shear force and bending moment, theory of simple bending, Shear Stress distribution across cross sections, Beams of uniform strength. Deflection of beams: Macaulay’s method, Mohr’s Moment area method, Conjugate beam method, unit load method. Torsion of Shafts, Elastic stability of columns, Euler’s Rankine’s and Secant formulae. 1.3 Structural Analysis: Castiglianio’s theorems I and II, unit load method of consistent deformation applied to beams and pin jointed trusses. Slope-deflection, moment distribution, Rolling loads and Influences lines: Influences lines for Shear Force and Bending moment at a section of beam. Criteria for maximum shear force and bending Moment in beams traversed by a system of moving loads. Influences lines for simply supported plane pin jointed trusses. Arches: Three hinged, two hinged and fixed arches, rib shortening and temperature effects. Matrix methods of analysis: Force method and displacement method of analysis of indeterminate beams and rigid frames. Plastic Analysis of beams and frames: Theory of plastic bending, plastic analysis, statical method, Mechanism method. Unsymmetrical bending: Moment of inertia, product of inertia, position of Neutral Axis and Principle axes, calculation of bending stresses. 2. Design of Structures: Steel, Concrete and Masonry Structures:2.1 Structural Steel Design: Structural Steel: Factors of safety and load factors. Riveted, bolted and welded joints and connections. Design of tension and compression member, beams of built up section, riveted and welded plate girders, gantry girders, stancheons with battens and lacings. 2.2 Design of Concrete and Masonry Structures: Concept of mix design. Reinforced Concrete: Working Stress and Limit State method of design–Recommendations of I.S. codes Design of one way and two way slabs, stair-case slabs, simple and continuous beams of rectangular, T and L sections. Compression members under direct load with or without eccentricity, Cantilever and Counter fort type retaining walls. Water tanks: Design requirements for Rectangular and circular tanks resting on ground. Prestressed concrete: Methods and systems of prestressing, anchorages, Analysis and design of sections for flexure based on working stress, loss of prestress. Design of brick masonry as per I.S. Codes 3. Fluid Mechanics, Open Channel Flow and Hydraulic Machines:3.1 Fluid Mechanics: Fluid properties and their role in fluid motion, fluid statics including forces acting on plane and curved surfaces. Kinematics and Dynamics of Fluid flow: Velocity and accelerations, stream lines, equation of continuity, irrotational and rotational flow, velocity potential and stream functions. Continuity, momentum and energy equation, Navier-Stokes equation, Euler’s equation of motion, application to fluid flow problems, pipe flow, sluice gates, weirs. 3.2 Dimensional Analysis and Similitude: Buckingham’s Pi-theorem, dimensionless parameters. 3.3 Laminar Flow: Laminar flow between parallel, stationary and moving plates, flow through tube. 3.4 Boundary layer: Laminar and turbulent boundary layer on a flat plate, laminar sub layer, smooth and rough boundaries, drag and lift. Turbulent flow through pipes: Characteristics of turbulent flow, velocity distribution and variation of pipe friction factor, hydraulic grade line and total energy line. 3.5 Open channel flow: Uniform and non-uniform flows, momentum and energy correction factors, specific energy and specific force, critical depth, rapidly varied flow, hydraulic jump, gradually varied flow, classification of surface profiles, control section, step method of integration of varied flow equation. 3.6 Hydraulic Machines and Hydropower: Hydraulic turbines, types classification, Choice of turbines, performance parameters, controls, characteristics, specific speed. Principles of hydropower development. 4. Geotechnical Engineering:Soil Type and structure – gradation and particle size distribution – consistency limits. Water in soil – capillary and structural – effective stress and pore water pressure – permeability concept – field and laboratory determination of permeability – Seepage pressure – quick sand conditions – Shear strength determination – Mohr Coulomb concept. Compaction of soil – Laboratory and field tests. Compressibility and consolidation concept – consolidation theory – consolidation settlement analysis. Earth pressure theory and analysis for retaining walls, Application for sheet piles and Braced excavation. Bearing capacity of soil – approaches for analysis – Field tests – settlement analysis – stability of slope of earth walk. Subsurface exploration of soils – methods Foundation – Type and selection criteria for foundation of structures – Design criteria for foundation – Analysis of distribution of stress for footings and pile – pile group action-pile load test. Ground improvement techniques. Paper - II1. Construction Technology, Equipment, Planning and Management:1.1 Construction Technology: Engineering Materials: Physical properties of construction materials with respect to their use in construction - Stones, Bricks and Tiles; Lime, Cement, different types of Mortars and Concrete. Specific use of ferro cement, fibre reinforced C.C, High strength concrete. Timber, properties and defects - common preservation treatments. Use and selection of materials for specific use like Low Cost Housing, Mass Housing, High Rise Buildings. 1.2 Construction: Masonry principles using Brick, stone, Blocks – construction detailing and strength characteristics. Types of plastering, pointing, flooring, roofing and construction features. Common repairs in buildings. Principles of functional planning of building for residents and specific use - Building code provisions. Basic principles of detailed and approximate estimating - specification writing and rate analysis – principles of valuation of real property. Machinery for earthwork, concreting and their specific uses – Factors affecting selection of equipments – operating cost of Equipments. 1.3 Construction Planning and Management: Construction activity – schedules- organization for construction industry – Quality assurance principles. Use of Basic principles of network – analysis in form of CPM and PERT – their use in construction monitoring, Cost optimization and resource allocation. Basic principles of Economic analysis and methods. Project profitability – Basic principles of Boot approach to financial planning – simple toll fixation criterions. 2. Surveying and Transportation Engineering2.1 Surveying: Common methods and instruments for distance and angle measurement for CE work – their use in plane table, traverse survey, levelling work, triangulation, contouring and topographical map. Basic principles of photogrammetry and remote sensing. 2.2 Railway Engineering: Permanent way – components, types and their functions – Functions and Design constituents of turn and crossings – Necessity of geometric design of track – Design of station and yards. 2.3 Highway Engineering: Principles of Highway alignments – classification and geometrical design elements and standards for Roads. Pavement structure for flexible and rigid pavements - Design principles and methodology of pavements. Typical construction methods and standards of materials for stabilized soil, WBM, Bituminous works and CC roads. Surface and sub-surface drainage arrangements for roads - culvert structures. Pavement distresses and strengthening by overlays. Traffic surveys and their applications in traffic planning - Typical design features for channelized, intersection, rotary etc – signal designs – standard Traffic signs and markings. 3. Hydrology, Water Resources and Engineering:3.1 Hydrology: Hydrological cycle, precipitation, evaporation, transpiration, infiltration, overland flow, hydrograph, flood frequency analysis, flood routing through a reservoir, channel flow routing-Muskingam method. 3.2 Ground water flow: Specific yield, storage coefficient, coefficient of permeability, confined and unconfined equifers, aquifers, aquitards, radial flow into a well under confined and unconfined conditions. 3.3 Water Resources Engineering: Ground and surface water resource, single and multipurpose projects, storage capacity of reservoirs, reservoir losses, reservoir sedimentation. 3.4 Irrigation Engineering: (i) Water requirements of crops: consumptive use, duty and delta, irrigation methods and their efficiencies. (ii) Canals: Distribution systems for canal irrigation, canal capacity, canal losses, alignment of main and distributory canals, most efficient section, lined canals, their design, regime theory, critical shear stress, bed load. (iii) Water logging: causes and control, salinity. (iv) Canal structures: Design of, head regulators, canal falls, aqueducts, metering flumes and canal outlets. (v) Diversion headwork: Principles and design of weirs of permeable and impermeable foundation, Khosla’s theory, energy dissipation. (vi) Storage works: Types of dams, design, principles of rigid gravity, stability analysis. (vii) Spillways: Spillway types, energy dissipation. (viii) River training: Objectives of river training, methods of river training. 4. Environmental Engineering:4.1 Water Supply: Predicting demand for water, impurities, of water and their significance, physical, chemical and bacteriological analysis, waterborne diseases, standards for potable water. 4.2 Intake of water: Water treatment: principles of coagulation, flocculation and sedimentation; slow-; rapid-, pressure-, filters; chlorination, softening, removal of taste, odour and salinity. 4.3 Sewerage systems: Domestic and industrial wastes, storm sewage–separate and combined systems, flow through sewers, design of sewers. 4.4 Sewage characterization: BOD, COD, solids, dissolved oxygen, nitrogen and TOC. Standards of disposal in normal watercourse and on land. 4.5 Sewage treatment: Working principles, units, chambers, sedimentation tanks, trickling filters, oxidation ponds, activated sludge process, septic tank, disposal of sludge, recycling of wastewater. 4.6 Solid waste: Collection and disposal in rural and urban contexts, management of long-term ill effects. 5. Environmental pollution: Sustainable development. Raw wastes and disposal. Environmental impact assessment for thermal power plants, mines, river valley projects. Air pollution. Pollution control acts |
## Recommended Books
1. A Handbook for Civil Engineeringby Made Easy Editorial Board 2. Civil Engineering: Conventional and Objective Type by R.S Khurmi 3. Civil Engineering: Through Objective Type Questions by S P Gupta 4. Concrete Technology: Theory and Practice by M.L. Gambhir 5. GATE 2018: Civil Engineering Solved Papers by Made Easy Editorial Board 6. Building Material and Construction (WBSCTE) by S.S. Bhavikatti 7. TSPSC Telangana State Public Service Commission Assistant Executive Engineers Civil Engineering |

**CIVIL ENGINEERING MCQs**

1. The spot speeds (expressed in km/hr) observed at a road section are 66, 62, 45, 79, 32, 51, 56, 60, 53, and 49. The median speed (expressed in km/hr) is _________

Ans: 54.49 : 54.51

2. As per Indian standards for bricks, minimum acceptable compressive strength of any class of burnt clay bricks in dry state is

(A) 10.0 MPa (B) 7.5 MPa (C) 5.0 MPa (D) 3.5 MPa

Ans: D

3. A strip footing is resting on the surface of a purely clayey soil deposit. If the width of the footing is doubled, the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil

(A) becomes double (B) becomes half (C) becomes four-times (D) remains the same

Ans: D

4. The results of a consolidation test on an undisturbed soil, sampled at a depth of 10 m below the ground level are as follows:

Saturated unit weight : 16 kN/m3

Pre-consolidation pressure : 90 kPa

The water table was encountered at the ground level. Assuming the unit weight of water as 10 kN/m3, the over-consolidation ratio of the soil is

(A) 0.67 (B) 1.50 (C) 1.77 (D) 2.00

Ans: B

5. Water table of an aquifer drops by 100 cm over an area of 1000 km2 . The porosity and specific retention of the aquifer material are 25% and 5%, respectively. The amount of water (expressed in km3) drained out from the area is ______

Ans: 0.19 : 0.21

6. The atmospheric layer closest to the earth surface is

(A) the mesosphere (B) the stratosphere

(C) the thermosphere (D) the troposphere

Ans: D

7. A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500 m3/day of water. A settling column analysis indicates that an overflow rate of 20 m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a depth of 3.1 m. It is decided to have two circular settling tanks in parallel. The required diameter (expressed in m) of the settling tanks is __________

Ans: 6.8 : 7.0

8. The hardness of a ground water sample was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO3. A softener containing ion exchange resins was installed to reduce the total hardness to 75 mg/L as CaCO3 before supplying to 4 households. Each household gets treated water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the efficiency of the softener is 100%, the bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day) is _________

Ans: 380 : 390

9. The sound pressure (expressed in µPa) of the faintest sound that a normal healthy individual can hear is

(A) 0.2 (B) 2 (C) 20 (D) 55

Ans: C

10. In the context of the IRC 58-2011 guidelines for rigid pavement design, consider the following pair of statements.

I: Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to modulus of elasticity of concrete and inversely related to Poisson's ratio

II: Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to thickness of slab and modulus of subgrade reaction.

Which one of the following combinations is correct?

(A) I: True; II: True (B) I: False; II: False

(C) I: True; II: False (D) I: False; II: True

Ans: B

11. If the total number of commercial vehicles per day ranges from 3000 to 6000, the minimum percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed for axle load is

(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 30

Ans: A

12. Optimal flight planning for a photogrammetric survey should be carried out considering

(A) only side-lap

(B) only end-lap

(C) either side-lap or end-lap

(D) both side-lap as well as end-lap

Ans: D

13. The reduced bearing of a 10 m long line is N30°E. The departure of the line is

(A) 10.00 m (B) 8.66 m (C) 7.52 m (D) 5.00 m

Ans: D

14. A circular curve of radius R connects two straights with a deflection angle of 60°. The tangent length is

(A) 0.577 R (B) 1.155 R (C) 1.732 R (D) 3.464 R

Ans: A

15. The seepage occurring through an earthen dam is represented by a flownet comprising of 10 equipotential drops and 20 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is 3 mm/min and the head loss is 5 m. The rate of seepage (expressed in cm3

/s per m length of the dam) through the earthen dam is _________

Ans: 495 : 505

16. OMC-SP and MDD-SP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from standard Proctor compaction test, respectively. OMC-MP and MDD-MP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from the modified Proctor compaction test, respectively. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP

(B) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP

(C) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP

(D) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP

Ans: B

17. The ordinates of a one-hour unit hydrograph at sixty minute interval are 0, 3, 12, 8, 6, 3 and 0 m3/s. A two-hour storm of 4 cm excess rainfall occurred in the basin from 10 AM. Considering constant base flow of 20 m3 /s, the flow of the river (expressed in m3

/s) at 1 PM is _________

Ans: 59 : 61

18. A 3 m wide rectangular channel carries a flow of 6 m3 /s. The depth of flow at a section P is 0.5 m. A flat-topped hump is to be placed at the downstream of the section P. Assume negligible energy loss between section P and hump, and consider g as 9.81 m/s2 . The maximum height of the hump (expressed in m) which will not change the depth of flow at section P is _________

Ans: 0.19 : 0.21

19. A penstock of 1 m diameter and 5 km length is used to supply water from a reservoir to an impulse turbine. A nozzle of 15 cm diameter is fixed at the end of the penstock. The elevation difference between the turbine and water level in the reservoir is 500 m. Consider the head loss due to friction as 5% of the velocity head available at the jet. Assume unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3

and acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s2 . If the overall efficiency is 80%, power generated (expressed in kW and rounded to nearest integer) is _______________

Ans: 6560 : 6580

20. A tracer takes 100 days to travel from Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation of water surface in Well-2 is 3 m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity equal to 15%, the coefficient of permeability (expressed in m/day) is

(A) 0.30 (B) 0.45 (C) 1.00 (D) 5.00

Ans: D

21. A noise meter located at a distance of 30 m from a point source recorded 74 dB. The reading at a distance of 60 m from the point source would be _________

Ans: 67 : 69

22. The critical flow ratios for a three-phase signal are found to be 0.30, 0.25, and 0.25. The total time lost in the cycle is 10 s. Pedestrian crossings at this junction are not significant. The respective Green times (expressed in seconds and rounded off to the nearest integer) for the three phases are

(A) 34, 28, and 28 (B) 40, 25, and 25 (C) 40, 30, and 30 (D) 50, 25, and 25

Ans: A

23. A motorist traveling at 100 km/h on a highway needs to take the next exit, which has a speed limit of 50 km/h. The section of the roadway before the ramp entry has a downgrade of 3% and coefficient of friction ( f ) is 0.35. In order to enter the ramp at the maximum allowable speed limit, the braking distance (expressed in m) from the exit ramp is _________

Ans: 92 : 93

24. A tall tower was photographed from an elevation of 700 m above the datum. The radial distances of the top and bottom of the tower from the principal points are 112.50 mm and 82.40 mm, respectively. If the bottom of the tower is at an elevation 250 m above the datum, then the height (expressed in m) of the tower is _________

Ans: 120 : 121

Ans: 54.49 : 54.51

2. As per Indian standards for bricks, minimum acceptable compressive strength of any class of burnt clay bricks in dry state is

(A) 10.0 MPa (B) 7.5 MPa (C) 5.0 MPa (D) 3.5 MPa

Ans: D

3. A strip footing is resting on the surface of a purely clayey soil deposit. If the width of the footing is doubled, the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil

(A) becomes double (B) becomes half (C) becomes four-times (D) remains the same

Ans: D

4. The results of a consolidation test on an undisturbed soil, sampled at a depth of 10 m below the ground level are as follows:

Saturated unit weight : 16 kN/m3

Pre-consolidation pressure : 90 kPa

The water table was encountered at the ground level. Assuming the unit weight of water as 10 kN/m3, the over-consolidation ratio of the soil is

(A) 0.67 (B) 1.50 (C) 1.77 (D) 2.00

Ans: B

5. Water table of an aquifer drops by 100 cm over an area of 1000 km2 . The porosity and specific retention of the aquifer material are 25% and 5%, respectively. The amount of water (expressed in km3) drained out from the area is ______

Ans: 0.19 : 0.21

6. The atmospheric layer closest to the earth surface is

(A) the mesosphere (B) the stratosphere

(C) the thermosphere (D) the troposphere

Ans: D

7. A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500 m3/day of water. A settling column analysis indicates that an overflow rate of 20 m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a depth of 3.1 m. It is decided to have two circular settling tanks in parallel. The required diameter (expressed in m) of the settling tanks is __________

Ans: 6.8 : 7.0

8. The hardness of a ground water sample was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO3. A softener containing ion exchange resins was installed to reduce the total hardness to 75 mg/L as CaCO3 before supplying to 4 households. Each household gets treated water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the efficiency of the softener is 100%, the bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day) is _________

Ans: 380 : 390

9. The sound pressure (expressed in µPa) of the faintest sound that a normal healthy individual can hear is

(A) 0.2 (B) 2 (C) 20 (D) 55

Ans: C

10. In the context of the IRC 58-2011 guidelines for rigid pavement design, consider the following pair of statements.

I: Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to modulus of elasticity of concrete and inversely related to Poisson's ratio

II: Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to thickness of slab and modulus of subgrade reaction.

Which one of the following combinations is correct?

(A) I: True; II: True (B) I: False; II: False

(C) I: True; II: False (D) I: False; II: True

Ans: B

11. If the total number of commercial vehicles per day ranges from 3000 to 6000, the minimum percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed for axle load is

(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 30

Ans: A

12. Optimal flight planning for a photogrammetric survey should be carried out considering

(A) only side-lap

(B) only end-lap

(C) either side-lap or end-lap

(D) both side-lap as well as end-lap

Ans: D

13. The reduced bearing of a 10 m long line is N30°E. The departure of the line is

(A) 10.00 m (B) 8.66 m (C) 7.52 m (D) 5.00 m

Ans: D

14. A circular curve of radius R connects two straights with a deflection angle of 60°. The tangent length is

(A) 0.577 R (B) 1.155 R (C) 1.732 R (D) 3.464 R

Ans: A

15. The seepage occurring through an earthen dam is represented by a flownet comprising of 10 equipotential drops and 20 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is 3 mm/min and the head loss is 5 m. The rate of seepage (expressed in cm3

/s per m length of the dam) through the earthen dam is _________

Ans: 495 : 505

16. OMC-SP and MDD-SP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from standard Proctor compaction test, respectively. OMC-MP and MDD-MP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from the modified Proctor compaction test, respectively. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP

(B) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP

(C) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP

(D) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP

Ans: B

17. The ordinates of a one-hour unit hydrograph at sixty minute interval are 0, 3, 12, 8, 6, 3 and 0 m3/s. A two-hour storm of 4 cm excess rainfall occurred in the basin from 10 AM. Considering constant base flow of 20 m3 /s, the flow of the river (expressed in m3

/s) at 1 PM is _________

Ans: 59 : 61

18. A 3 m wide rectangular channel carries a flow of 6 m3 /s. The depth of flow at a section P is 0.5 m. A flat-topped hump is to be placed at the downstream of the section P. Assume negligible energy loss between section P and hump, and consider g as 9.81 m/s2 . The maximum height of the hump (expressed in m) which will not change the depth of flow at section P is _________

Ans: 0.19 : 0.21

19. A penstock of 1 m diameter and 5 km length is used to supply water from a reservoir to an impulse turbine. A nozzle of 15 cm diameter is fixed at the end of the penstock. The elevation difference between the turbine and water level in the reservoir is 500 m. Consider the head loss due to friction as 5% of the velocity head available at the jet. Assume unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3

and acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s2 . If the overall efficiency is 80%, power generated (expressed in kW and rounded to nearest integer) is _______________

Ans: 6560 : 6580

20. A tracer takes 100 days to travel from Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation of water surface in Well-2 is 3 m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity equal to 15%, the coefficient of permeability (expressed in m/day) is

(A) 0.30 (B) 0.45 (C) 1.00 (D) 5.00

Ans: D

21. A noise meter located at a distance of 30 m from a point source recorded 74 dB. The reading at a distance of 60 m from the point source would be _________

Ans: 67 : 69

22. The critical flow ratios for a three-phase signal are found to be 0.30, 0.25, and 0.25. The total time lost in the cycle is 10 s. Pedestrian crossings at this junction are not significant. The respective Green times (expressed in seconds and rounded off to the nearest integer) for the three phases are

(A) 34, 28, and 28 (B) 40, 25, and 25 (C) 40, 30, and 30 (D) 50, 25, and 25

Ans: A

23. A motorist traveling at 100 km/h on a highway needs to take the next exit, which has a speed limit of 50 km/h. The section of the roadway before the ramp entry has a downgrade of 3% and coefficient of friction ( f ) is 0.35. In order to enter the ramp at the maximum allowable speed limit, the braking distance (expressed in m) from the exit ramp is _________

Ans: 92 : 93

24. A tall tower was photographed from an elevation of 700 m above the datum. The radial distances of the top and bottom of the tower from the principal points are 112.50 mm and 82.40 mm, respectively. If the bottom of the tower is at an elevation 250 m above the datum, then the height (expressed in m) of the tower is _________

Ans: 120 : 121

25. The algebraic sum of moments of two unlike parallel forces about any point in their plane will be

1) Zero

2) Constant

3) Always anticlockwise

4) Always clockwise

Ans: 2

26. If the number of members (m) in a frame having joints (j) is more than that required by the equation m=2j-3, then such frames called

1) Ideal frame

2) Imperfect frame

3) Perfect frame

4) Redundant frame

Ans: 4

27. Hoop stress for a wooden wheel with steel flat tyre in terms of outside diameter of the wheel D, inside diameter of the tyre d and Young’s modulus E is

1) E(D-d)/d

2) E(D/d)

3) E(D/(D-d))

4) E(d/D)

Ans: 1

28. Relation between the elastic constants E and C for poisson’s ratio of 0.25 is

1) E=10C

2) E=5C

3) E=2.5C

4) E=0.25C

Ans: 3

29. The radius of Mohr’s circle represents

1) Minimum normal stress

2) Maximum normal stress

3) Minimum shear stress

4) Maximum shear stress

Ans: 4

30. For an inclined plane in a rectangular block subjected to two mutually perpendicular normal stresses 1000 MPa and 400 MPa and shear stresses 400 MPa, the maximum normal stress will be

1) 1200 MPa

2) 700 MPa

3) 600 MPa

4) 200 MPa

Ans: 1

31. At a hinge in a beam

1) Shear force is zero

2) Bending moment is maximum

3) Bending moment is zero

4) Bending moment changes sign

Ans: 3

32. The bending moment for a beam with equal overhangs and carrying equal point loads each of P at the free ends, the shear force for the beam portion between the supports is

1) Zero

2) equal to P

3) Linearly varying from –P to +P

4) Linearly varying from 0 to P

Ans: 1

33. Assumption made in the theory of bending is

1) Radius of curvature is small

2) Radius of curvature is large

3) Transverse sections of the beam do not remain plane after

bending

4) Doesn’t follow Hook’s law in bending

Ans: 2

34. In a beam of rectangular cross section, the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the average shear stress is

1) 2.50

2) 2.00

3) 1.50

4) 1.33

Ans: 3

35. The slenderness ratio of free standing column of length 4 m and 40mm x 40mm section is

1) 115.2

2) 230.4

3) 692.8

4) 346.8

Ans: 3

36. The ratio of maximum shear stress of a solid shaft of diameter D to that of a hollow shaft having external diameter D and internal diameter 0.5D is

1) 0.50

2) 1.00

3) 1.50

4) 0.94

Ans: 4

37. The reaction at a roller support of beam will be

1) Tangential to support

2) Normal to support

3) Unknown in direction

4) Inclined to support

Ans: 2

38. For a beam subjected to point loads, the shear force between point loads

1) is constant

2) varies linearly

3) has parabolic variation

4) always remain zero

Ans: 1

39. The method in which a single equation is formed for all loads on the beam and the equation constructed in such a way that the integral constants apply to all the sections of the beam is

1) Moment area method

2) Conjugate beam method

3) Macaulay’s method

4) 6method of super position

Ans: 3

40. What is poise?

1) Unit of viscosity

2) Dyne-sec/cm2

3) 0.1 times Ns/m2

4) All the above.

Ans: 4

41. Surface tension has the units of

1) Nm

2) N/m

3) N/m2

4) N/m3

Ans: 2

42. The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure and the specific heat of the gas at constant volume

1) is always constant

2) varies with temperature

3) varies with pressure

4) is not constant

Ans: 1

43. A perfect gas obeys

1) Boyle’s law only

2) Charles’ law only

3) both Boyle’s law and Charles’ law

4) None of the above

Ans: 3

44. The thermal efficiency of an engine, which is supplied heat at the rate of 15000 Nm/s and gives an output of 4500 W is

1) 45%

2) 50%

3) 30%

4) 33%

Ans: 3

45. Micro-manometer is used to

1) determine low pressure difference

2) determine higher pressure difference

3) pressure measurement for gases only

4) measure pressure in congested areas

Ans: 1

46. Prandlt’s Pitot tube measures

1) Stagnation head only

2) Pressure head only

3) Velocity head and Stagnation head

4) Pressure head and Stagnation head

Ans: 4

47. Based on principle of conservation of energy, the equation derived for an ideal fluid is

1) Bernoulle’s Equation

2) Newton’s Law of Viscosity

3) Impulse – momentum equation

4) Continuity equation

Ans: 1

48. Mouthpiece has increased net head when compared to small orifice due to

1) turbulence in the tube

2) vena contracta occurred within the tube

3) smaller length of the tube

4) smooth boundary of the tube

Ans: 2

49. If Velocity potential satisfies Laplace equation the flow will be

1) Irrotational flow

2) Free vortex flow

3) Continuous flow

4) Forced vortex flow

Ans: 3

50. The ratio of viscous forces to inertial forces is called

1) Mach number

2) Weber number

3) Reynolds number

4) Froude number

Ans: 3

51. If the position of meta centre remain lower than centre of gravity of the floating body, the body will remain in a state of

1) Stable equilibrium

2) Unstable equilibrium

3) Neutral equilibrium

4) None of the above

Ans: 2

52. The discharge from a centrifugal pump is 100 lpm and the leakage is 11 lpm. Then the volumetric efficiency of the pump is

1) 89%

2) 90%

3) 99%

4) 80%

Ans: 2

53 Draft tube for a reaction turbine is arranged for

1) Safety purpose only

2) Increasing velocity head

3) Converting kinetic head into pressure head

4) Diverting water only

Ans: 3

54 Which hydraulic turbine more efficient at part load operation?

1) Pelton wheel

2) Francis turbine

3) Propeller turbine

4) Kaplan turbine

Ans: 4

55. The cavitation parameter σ is defined in terms of net positive suction head (NPSH) and net head H as

1) NPSH/√H

2) H/NPSH

3) H/√NPSH

4) NPSH/H

Ans: 4

56. The momentum correction factor is used to account for

1) Change in direction of flow

2) Change in pressure

3) Non uniform distribution of velocity

4) Unsteady flow

Ans: 3

57. Centre of Pressure is

1) Always below the centroid of the submerged plane

2) Always at the centroid of the submerged plane

3) Always above the centroid of the submerged plane

4) Anywhere with respect to the centroid of the submerged plane

Ans: 1

58. What is a condition for a hydraulically efficient channel?

1) Minimum flow rate.

2) Maximum wetted perimeter

3) Constant velocity.

4) Minimum wetted perimeter.

Ans: 4

1) Zero

2) Constant

3) Always anticlockwise

4) Always clockwise

Ans: 2

26. If the number of members (m) in a frame having joints (j) is more than that required by the equation m=2j-3, then such frames called

1) Ideal frame

2) Imperfect frame

3) Perfect frame

4) Redundant frame

Ans: 4

27. Hoop stress for a wooden wheel with steel flat tyre in terms of outside diameter of the wheel D, inside diameter of the tyre d and Young’s modulus E is

1) E(D-d)/d

2) E(D/d)

3) E(D/(D-d))

4) E(d/D)

Ans: 1

28. Relation between the elastic constants E and C for poisson’s ratio of 0.25 is

1) E=10C

2) E=5C

3) E=2.5C

4) E=0.25C

Ans: 3

29. The radius of Mohr’s circle represents

1) Minimum normal stress

2) Maximum normal stress

3) Minimum shear stress

4) Maximum shear stress

Ans: 4

30. For an inclined plane in a rectangular block subjected to two mutually perpendicular normal stresses 1000 MPa and 400 MPa and shear stresses 400 MPa, the maximum normal stress will be

1) 1200 MPa

2) 700 MPa

3) 600 MPa

4) 200 MPa

Ans: 1

31. At a hinge in a beam

1) Shear force is zero

2) Bending moment is maximum

3) Bending moment is zero

4) Bending moment changes sign

Ans: 3

32. The bending moment for a beam with equal overhangs and carrying equal point loads each of P at the free ends, the shear force for the beam portion between the supports is

1) Zero

2) equal to P

3) Linearly varying from –P to +P

4) Linearly varying from 0 to P

Ans: 1

33. Assumption made in the theory of bending is

1) Radius of curvature is small

2) Radius of curvature is large

3) Transverse sections of the beam do not remain plane after

bending

4) Doesn’t follow Hook’s law in bending

Ans: 2

34. In a beam of rectangular cross section, the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the average shear stress is

1) 2.50

2) 2.00

3) 1.50

4) 1.33

Ans: 3

35. The slenderness ratio of free standing column of length 4 m and 40mm x 40mm section is

1) 115.2

2) 230.4

3) 692.8

4) 346.8

Ans: 3

36. The ratio of maximum shear stress of a solid shaft of diameter D to that of a hollow shaft having external diameter D and internal diameter 0.5D is

1) 0.50

2) 1.00

3) 1.50

4) 0.94

Ans: 4

37. The reaction at a roller support of beam will be

1) Tangential to support

2) Normal to support

3) Unknown in direction

4) Inclined to support

Ans: 2

38. For a beam subjected to point loads, the shear force between point loads

1) is constant

2) varies linearly

3) has parabolic variation

4) always remain zero

Ans: 1

39. The method in which a single equation is formed for all loads on the beam and the equation constructed in such a way that the integral constants apply to all the sections of the beam is

1) Moment area method

2) Conjugate beam method

3) Macaulay’s method

4) 6method of super position

Ans: 3

40. What is poise?

1) Unit of viscosity

2) Dyne-sec/cm2

3) 0.1 times Ns/m2

4) All the above.

Ans: 4

41. Surface tension has the units of

1) Nm

2) N/m

3) N/m2

4) N/m3

Ans: 2

42. The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure and the specific heat of the gas at constant volume

1) is always constant

2) varies with temperature

3) varies with pressure

4) is not constant

Ans: 1

43. A perfect gas obeys

1) Boyle’s law only

2) Charles’ law only

3) both Boyle’s law and Charles’ law

4) None of the above

Ans: 3

44. The thermal efficiency of an engine, which is supplied heat at the rate of 15000 Nm/s and gives an output of 4500 W is

1) 45%

2) 50%

3) 30%

4) 33%

Ans: 3

45. Micro-manometer is used to

1) determine low pressure difference

2) determine higher pressure difference

3) pressure measurement for gases only

4) measure pressure in congested areas

Ans: 1

46. Prandlt’s Pitot tube measures

1) Stagnation head only

2) Pressure head only

3) Velocity head and Stagnation head

4) Pressure head and Stagnation head

Ans: 4

47. Based on principle of conservation of energy, the equation derived for an ideal fluid is

1) Bernoulle’s Equation

2) Newton’s Law of Viscosity

3) Impulse – momentum equation

4) Continuity equation

Ans: 1

48. Mouthpiece has increased net head when compared to small orifice due to

1) turbulence in the tube

2) vena contracta occurred within the tube

3) smaller length of the tube

4) smooth boundary of the tube

Ans: 2

49. If Velocity potential satisfies Laplace equation the flow will be

1) Irrotational flow

2) Free vortex flow

3) Continuous flow

4) Forced vortex flow

Ans: 3

50. The ratio of viscous forces to inertial forces is called

1) Mach number

2) Weber number

3) Reynolds number

4) Froude number

Ans: 3

51. If the position of meta centre remain lower than centre of gravity of the floating body, the body will remain in a state of

1) Stable equilibrium

2) Unstable equilibrium

3) Neutral equilibrium

4) None of the above

Ans: 2

52. The discharge from a centrifugal pump is 100 lpm and the leakage is 11 lpm. Then the volumetric efficiency of the pump is

1) 89%

2) 90%

3) 99%

4) 80%

Ans: 2

53 Draft tube for a reaction turbine is arranged for

1) Safety purpose only

2) Increasing velocity head

3) Converting kinetic head into pressure head

4) Diverting water only

Ans: 3

54 Which hydraulic turbine more efficient at part load operation?

1) Pelton wheel

2) Francis turbine

3) Propeller turbine

4) Kaplan turbine

Ans: 4

55. The cavitation parameter σ is defined in terms of net positive suction head (NPSH) and net head H as

1) NPSH/√H

2) H/NPSH

3) H/√NPSH

4) NPSH/H

Ans: 4

56. The momentum correction factor is used to account for

1) Change in direction of flow

2) Change in pressure

3) Non uniform distribution of velocity

4) Unsteady flow

Ans: 3

57. Centre of Pressure is

1) Always below the centroid of the submerged plane

2) Always at the centroid of the submerged plane

3) Always above the centroid of the submerged plane

4) Anywhere with respect to the centroid of the submerged plane

Ans: 1

58. What is a condition for a hydraulically efficient channel?

1) Minimum flow rate.

2) Maximum wetted perimeter

3) Constant velocity.

4) Minimum wetted perimeter.

Ans: 4

59. The Indian standard brick size is

1) 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm

2) 18 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm

3) 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm

4) 20 cm x 10 cm x 9 cm

Ans: 1

60. The first class brick immersed in water for 24 hours should not absorb water (by weight) more than

1) 5%

2) 10%

3) 15%

4) 20%

Ans: 4

61. Seasoning of timber is done for

1) To reduce weight only

2) To make it soft only

3) To prevent shrinkage and warping

4) To increase moisture content

Ans: 3

62. IS 12269 deals with

1) 53 grade Ordinary portland cement

2) 43 grade Ordinary portland cement

3) 33 grade Ordinary portland cement

4) Sleeper cements

Ans: 1

63. Workability of concrete may be measured by

1) Slump test

2) Minimum void method

3) Maximum density method

4) Fineness modulus method

Ans: 1

64. Ultrasonic pulse velocity measurements may be used to establish

1) Homogeneity of concrete

2) Presence of cracks and voids

3) Quality of concrete in relation to standard requirements

4) All the above

Ans: 4

65. In the analyses of plane frame, the stiffness factor at a joint is taken equal to the sum of stiffness factors the members connected to the joint by using

1) Principle of virtual work

2) Principle of angular momentum

3) Principle of super position

4) Principle minimum work done

Ans: 3

66. The principle of virtual work is applied to elastic system by considering virtual work done by

1) Internal forces only

2) External forces only

3) Internal as well as external forces

4) None of the above

Ans: 3

67. The deflection at any point of a perfect frame can be obtained by applying a unit load at the joint in

1) The direction in which the deflection is required

2) Vertical direction

3) Horizontal direction

4) Inclined direction

Ans: 1

68. In the procedure of Macaulay’s method, for getting the deflection equation

1) The differential equation of flexure is integrated for once

2) The differential equation of flexure is integrated for twice

3) The differential equation of flexure is integrated for thrice

4) None of the above

Ans: 2

69. The Castigliano’s second theorem can be used compute deflections

1) In statistically determinate structures only

2) At the point under the load only

3) for beams and frames only

4) For any type of structure

Ans: 4

70. The width of analogous column in the method of analogy is

1) 2/(EI)

2) 1/(EI)

3) 1/2(EI)

4) 1/4(EI)

Ans: 2

71. In slope deflection equations, the deformations are considered to be caused by

1) Axial force

2) Shear force

3) Bending moment

4) All the above

Ans: 3

72. As per IS-800, the minimum pitch of bolts in a row of bolts is recommended as the diameter of the bolt times

1) 2.0

2) 2.5

3) 3.0

4) 4.0

Ans: 2

73. In a fillet weld, the weakest section is the

1) smaller side of the fillet

2) throat of the fillet

3) side perpendicular to force

4) side parallel to force

Ans: 2

74. In rolled steel beams, major part of bending moment is resisted by

1) Flanges

2) Web

3) Flanges and web

4) Flanges, web and fillets

Ans: 1

75. Load on connection is not eccentric for

1) Lap joint

2) Single cover butt joint

3) Double cover butt joint

4) All the above

Ans: 3

76. A steel column in a structure carries a load of 125 kN. It is built up of 2 ISMC 350 channels connected by lacing. The lacing carries a load of

1) 125 kN

2) 12.5 kN

3) 3.125 kN

4) Zero

Ans: 3

77. The section in which concrete is not fully stressed to its maximum permissible value while stress in steel reaches its maximum value, is called

1) Under reinforced section

2) Critical section

3) Over reinforced section

4) Balanced section

Ans: 1

78. The centre to centre spacing of vertical stirrups, in a rectangular reinforced concrete beam is

1) increased towards the centre of the span of the beam.

2) decreased towards the centre of the span of the beam.

3) increased at the ends

4) maintained nonuniformly.

Ans: 1

79. Maximum reinforcement in an RCC beam of dimension b x D shall not exceed

1) 0.06 bD

2) 0.04bD

3) 0.02 bD

4) 0.08bD

Ans: 2

80. The diameter of longitudinal bars in a column should not be less than

1) 4 mm

2) 8 mm

3) 12 mm

4) 16 mm

Ans: 3

81. The profile of the prestressing steel in prestressed concrete member follows

1) Axial force diagram

2) Shear force diagram

3) Bending moment diagram

4) None of the above

Ans: 3

82. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among various jobs of a project, is known

1) Event flow scheduling technique

2) short interval scheduling

3) Critical ratio scheduling

4) Slotting technique for scheduling

Ans: 3

83. The performance of a specific task in CPM, is known

1) Dummy

2) Event

3) Contract

4) Activity

Ans: 4

84. If a is the optimistic time, b is the pessimistic time and m is most likely time of an activity, the expected time of the activity, is

1) (a+m+b)/6

2) (a+2m+b)/6

3) (a+4m+b)/6

4) (a+5m+b)/6

Ans: 3

85. The field capacity of a soil is 25%, its permanent wilting point is 15% and specific dry unity weight is 1.5, if the depth of root zone of a crop, is 80 cm, the storage capacity of the soil, is

1) 8 cm

2) 10 cm

3) 12 cm

4) 14 cm

Ans: 3

86. One of the basic assumptions made in unit hydrograph theory is

1) Rainfall is uniform all over the catchment

2) Base flow is considered

3) Rainfall varies with time

4) All the above

Ans: 1

87. A process determining outflow pattern from reservoirs for any given pattern of inflow, storage and tail-water condition is known as

1) Hydrograph

2) Flood discharge

3) Runoff estimate

4) Flood routing

Ans: 4

88. The recording type rain-guage gives

1) Mass curve of rainfall

2) Hydrograph

3) Total rainfall of 24 hours period

4) Monthly rainfall

Ans: 1

89. The solid roller bucket is arranged at the end of a spillway to

1) measure the discharge

2) provide stability to the spillway

3) trap silt from flowing water

4) dissipate energy through hydraulic jump

Ans: 4

90. To avoid gravity dam failure by crushing for the dam material of allowable stress 300 t/sq.m and specific gravity 2.4, the limiting height is equal to

1) 88.23 m

2) 125.25 m

3) 214.29 m

4) >214.29 m

Ans: 1

91. The recommended maximum water supply needs as per CPHEEO guidelines for metropolitan and mega cities where sewerage system is existing or contemplated in litres per capita per day (lpcd)

1) 45

2) 70

3) 136

4) 150

Ans: 4

92. Dental caries, a disease caused by drinking water due to

1) Excess fluorine

2) Absence of fluorine

3) Excess of nitrates

4) Presence of lead

Ans: 2

93. If the BOD of a diluted sample in 1:100 ratio is 11 ppm in the beginning and 8 PPM at the end of 5 days, then BOD of the sample is

1) 300 PPM

2) 950 PPM

3) 137.5 PPM

4) 73 PPM

Ans: 1

94. The peak factor suggested by CPHEEO for computing carrying capacity in the design of sewers for the contributory population of 20,000 is

1) 2.00

2) 2.25

3) 2.50

4) 3.00

Ans: 4

95. The tolerance limit of pH for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface waters

1) Less than 5.5

2) 5.5 to 9.0

3) Above 9.0

4) Must be 7 only

Ans: 2

96. Relationship involving voids ratio (e), degree of saturation (S), water content (w) and specific gravity of soil solids (G) is given by

1) wSe=G

2) we=SG

3) wS=Ge

4) wG=Se

Ans: 4

97. A clay soil sample has unconfined compression strengths in the undisturbed state and remoulded state are 200 kN/sq.m and 60 kN/sq.m respectively. Then its sensitivity is

1) 260

2) 140

3) 0.3

4) 3.33

Ans: 4

98. The core-cutter method for determining in-situ unit weight is suitable for

1) Soils containing gravel particles

2) Stiff clays

3) Soft cohesive soils

4) Sandy soils

Ans: 3

99. The average permeability for flow perpendicular to bedding planes when compared to the average permeability for the flow parallel to the bedding planes

1) Always less

2) Always greater

3) Always equal

4) Lesser or greater

Ans: 1

100. The earth pressure theory that is used for the design of cantilever retaining wall is

1) Meyerhof’s theory

2) Rankine’s theory

3) Terzagi’s theory

4) Skempton’s theory

Ans: 2

1) 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm

2) 18 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm

3) 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm

4) 20 cm x 10 cm x 9 cm

Ans: 1

60. The first class brick immersed in water for 24 hours should not absorb water (by weight) more than

1) 5%

2) 10%

3) 15%

4) 20%

Ans: 4

61. Seasoning of timber is done for

1) To reduce weight only

2) To make it soft only

3) To prevent shrinkage and warping

4) To increase moisture content

Ans: 3

62. IS 12269 deals with

1) 53 grade Ordinary portland cement

2) 43 grade Ordinary portland cement

3) 33 grade Ordinary portland cement

4) Sleeper cements

Ans: 1

63. Workability of concrete may be measured by

1) Slump test

2) Minimum void method

3) Maximum density method

4) Fineness modulus method

Ans: 1

64. Ultrasonic pulse velocity measurements may be used to establish

1) Homogeneity of concrete

2) Presence of cracks and voids

3) Quality of concrete in relation to standard requirements

4) All the above

Ans: 4

65. In the analyses of plane frame, the stiffness factor at a joint is taken equal to the sum of stiffness factors the members connected to the joint by using

1) Principle of virtual work

2) Principle of angular momentum

3) Principle of super position

4) Principle minimum work done

Ans: 3

66. The principle of virtual work is applied to elastic system by considering virtual work done by

1) Internal forces only

2) External forces only

3) Internal as well as external forces

4) None of the above

Ans: 3

67. The deflection at any point of a perfect frame can be obtained by applying a unit load at the joint in

1) The direction in which the deflection is required

2) Vertical direction

3) Horizontal direction

4) Inclined direction

Ans: 1

68. In the procedure of Macaulay’s method, for getting the deflection equation

1) The differential equation of flexure is integrated for once

2) The differential equation of flexure is integrated for twice

3) The differential equation of flexure is integrated for thrice

4) None of the above

Ans: 2

69. The Castigliano’s second theorem can be used compute deflections

1) In statistically determinate structures only

2) At the point under the load only

3) for beams and frames only

4) For any type of structure

Ans: 4

70. The width of analogous column in the method of analogy is

1) 2/(EI)

2) 1/(EI)

3) 1/2(EI)

4) 1/4(EI)

Ans: 2

71. In slope deflection equations, the deformations are considered to be caused by

1) Axial force

2) Shear force

3) Bending moment

4) All the above

Ans: 3

72. As per IS-800, the minimum pitch of bolts in a row of bolts is recommended as the diameter of the bolt times

1) 2.0

2) 2.5

3) 3.0

4) 4.0

Ans: 2

73. In a fillet weld, the weakest section is the

1) smaller side of the fillet

2) throat of the fillet

3) side perpendicular to force

4) side parallel to force

Ans: 2

74. In rolled steel beams, major part of bending moment is resisted by

1) Flanges

2) Web

3) Flanges and web

4) Flanges, web and fillets

Ans: 1

75. Load on connection is not eccentric for

1) Lap joint

2) Single cover butt joint

3) Double cover butt joint

4) All the above

Ans: 3

76. A steel column in a structure carries a load of 125 kN. It is built up of 2 ISMC 350 channels connected by lacing. The lacing carries a load of

1) 125 kN

2) 12.5 kN

3) 3.125 kN

4) Zero

Ans: 3

77. The section in which concrete is not fully stressed to its maximum permissible value while stress in steel reaches its maximum value, is called

1) Under reinforced section

2) Critical section

3) Over reinforced section

4) Balanced section

Ans: 1

78. The centre to centre spacing of vertical stirrups, in a rectangular reinforced concrete beam is

1) increased towards the centre of the span of the beam.

2) decreased towards the centre of the span of the beam.

3) increased at the ends

4) maintained nonuniformly.

Ans: 1

79. Maximum reinforcement in an RCC beam of dimension b x D shall not exceed

1) 0.06 bD

2) 0.04bD

3) 0.02 bD

4) 0.08bD

Ans: 2

80. The diameter of longitudinal bars in a column should not be less than

1) 4 mm

2) 8 mm

3) 12 mm

4) 16 mm

Ans: 3

81. The profile of the prestressing steel in prestressed concrete member follows

1) Axial force diagram

2) Shear force diagram

3) Bending moment diagram

4) None of the above

Ans: 3

82. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among various jobs of a project, is known

1) Event flow scheduling technique

2) short interval scheduling

3) Critical ratio scheduling

4) Slotting technique for scheduling

Ans: 3

83. The performance of a specific task in CPM, is known

1) Dummy

2) Event

3) Contract

4) Activity

Ans: 4

84. If a is the optimistic time, b is the pessimistic time and m is most likely time of an activity, the expected time of the activity, is

1) (a+m+b)/6

2) (a+2m+b)/6

3) (a+4m+b)/6

4) (a+5m+b)/6

Ans: 3

85. The field capacity of a soil is 25%, its permanent wilting point is 15% and specific dry unity weight is 1.5, if the depth of root zone of a crop, is 80 cm, the storage capacity of the soil, is

1) 8 cm

2) 10 cm

3) 12 cm

4) 14 cm

Ans: 3

86. One of the basic assumptions made in unit hydrograph theory is

1) Rainfall is uniform all over the catchment

2) Base flow is considered

3) Rainfall varies with time

4) All the above

Ans: 1

87. A process determining outflow pattern from reservoirs for any given pattern of inflow, storage and tail-water condition is known as

1) Hydrograph

2) Flood discharge

3) Runoff estimate

4) Flood routing

Ans: 4

88. The recording type rain-guage gives

1) Mass curve of rainfall

2) Hydrograph

3) Total rainfall of 24 hours period

4) Monthly rainfall

Ans: 1

89. The solid roller bucket is arranged at the end of a spillway to

1) measure the discharge

2) provide stability to the spillway

3) trap silt from flowing water

4) dissipate energy through hydraulic jump

Ans: 4

90. To avoid gravity dam failure by crushing for the dam material of allowable stress 300 t/sq.m and specific gravity 2.4, the limiting height is equal to

1) 88.23 m

2) 125.25 m

3) 214.29 m

4) >214.29 m

Ans: 1

91. The recommended maximum water supply needs as per CPHEEO guidelines for metropolitan and mega cities where sewerage system is existing or contemplated in litres per capita per day (lpcd)

1) 45

2) 70

3) 136

4) 150

Ans: 4

92. Dental caries, a disease caused by drinking water due to

1) Excess fluorine

2) Absence of fluorine

3) Excess of nitrates

4) Presence of lead

Ans: 2

93. If the BOD of a diluted sample in 1:100 ratio is 11 ppm in the beginning and 8 PPM at the end of 5 days, then BOD of the sample is

1) 300 PPM

2) 950 PPM

3) 137.5 PPM

4) 73 PPM

Ans: 1

94. The peak factor suggested by CPHEEO for computing carrying capacity in the design of sewers for the contributory population of 20,000 is

1) 2.00

2) 2.25

3) 2.50

4) 3.00

Ans: 4

95. The tolerance limit of pH for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface waters

1) Less than 5.5

2) 5.5 to 9.0

3) Above 9.0

4) Must be 7 only

Ans: 2

96. Relationship involving voids ratio (e), degree of saturation (S), water content (w) and specific gravity of soil solids (G) is given by

1) wSe=G

2) we=SG

3) wS=Ge

4) wG=Se

Ans: 4

97. A clay soil sample has unconfined compression strengths in the undisturbed state and remoulded state are 200 kN/sq.m and 60 kN/sq.m respectively. Then its sensitivity is

1) 260

2) 140

3) 0.3

4) 3.33

Ans: 4

98. The core-cutter method for determining in-situ unit weight is suitable for

1) Soils containing gravel particles

2) Stiff clays

3) Soft cohesive soils

4) Sandy soils

Ans: 3

99. The average permeability for flow perpendicular to bedding planes when compared to the average permeability for the flow parallel to the bedding planes

1) Always less

2) Always greater

3) Always equal

4) Lesser or greater

Ans: 1

100. The earth pressure theory that is used for the design of cantilever retaining wall is

1) Meyerhof’s theory

2) Rankine’s theory

3) Terzagi’s theory

4) Skempton’s theory

Ans: 2

## Related Pages

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