**STATISTICS-PAGE 6**

**STATISTICS MCQ- PAGE 6**

1:-In what range does correlation coefficient lie?

A:-0 to +1

B:--1 to 0

C:-> 1

D:--1 to +1

Ans: D

2:-The degree of freedom for standard error of estimate are n-k-1. What does the 'k' stands for

A:-number of independent variables

B:-number of observations in the sample

C:-mean of the sample values of dependent variable

D:-none of these

Ans: A

3. The probability that a product will operate properly within an expected time frame is the dimension of quality known as

(A) durability (B) reliability (C) performance (D) serviceability

Ans: B

4. Which of the following quality tools display major causes of poor quality on a graph?

(A) Process flow chart (B) Fishbone diagram (C) Histogram (D) Scatter diagram

Ans: B

5. Which of the following is NOT a primary purpose of statistical process control?

(A) to establish control limits (B) to detect special cause variations

(C) to identify specification limits (D) to determine when a process is not in control

Ans: C

6. The probability of rejecting a lot that has an acceptable quality level is referred to as the

(A) producer’s risk (B) consumer’s risk. (C) lot tolerance percent defective (D) acceptable quality level.

Ans: A

7. A(n) _______ curve is a graph showing the probability of accepting a lot for different quality levels with a specific sampling plan.

(A) operating characteristic (OC) (B) average outgoing quality (C) lot tolerance percent defective (D) single-sample attribute

Ans:A

8. The number of arrivals per unit of time at a service facility can frequently be described by a

(A) normal distribution. (B) Poisson distribution. (C) binomial distribution. (D) beta distribution.

Ans: B

9. Accepting null hypotheses is when it is false or when alternative hypothesis is true is called:

(A) Type I error (B) Type II error (C) Type III error (D) None of the above

Ans: B

10. The distribution in which mean, median and mode coincide is

(A) Exponential distribution (B) Normal distribution (C) Poisson distribution (D) Binomial distribution

Ans: B

11. In a queuing problem, if the arrivals are completely random, then the probability distribution, of number of arrivals in a given time is

(A) Poisson distribution (B) Normal distribution (C) Binomial distribution (D) Exponential distribution

Ans: A

12. A set of values related on one or more observations unit is called

(A) Variable (B) Data (C) Population (D) Sample

Ans: B

13. Most frequently observations in series is termed as

(A) Mean (B) Mode (C) Median (D) None of the above

Ans: B

14. When the difference between two reading, observations or values of classes/ sample is more than defined limits in universe it stated as ______ variability

(A) Biological (B) Experimental (C) Real (D) All of the above

Ans: C

15. Following are the measures of variability of individual observations

(A) Range (B) Standard Error of mean (C) Error (D) proportion

Ans: A

16. Standard deviation expressed as percentage of mean is

(A) Coefficient of variation (B) Range (C) Standard error of proportion (D) None of the above

Ans: A

17. Deviation from the mean in a normal distribution or course is called as

(A) Standard normal deviate (B) Coefficient of variation (C) Standard error of mean (D) None of the above

Ans: A

18. This test is also applied as test of goodness of fit

(A) z-test (B) t-test (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

Ans: D

19. For larger values of ‘n’, Binomial Distribution

(A) loses its discreteness (B) tends to Poisson Distribution (C) stays as it is (D) gives oscillatory values

Ans: B

20. _______ is used to compare the variation or dispersion in two or more sets of data even though they are measured in different units.

(A) Standard Deviation (B) Coefficient of Variation (C) Range (D) Mean Deviation

Ans: B

21. If arithmetic mean is considered as average of deviations then resultant measure is considered as

(A) Close end deviation (B) Mean absolute deviation (C) Mean deviation (D) Variance deviation

Ans: C

22. With whom are the terms ‘hole counts, top-line results, punching and dirty data’ associated ?

(A) Galton (1822-1911). (B) Pearson (1857-1936). (C) Hollerith (1860-1929) (D) Booth (1840-1916)

Ans: C

23. Relationship of two or more variables is examined excluding some other variables in case of

(A) Total correlation (B) Partial correlation (C) Multiple correlation (D) None of the above

Ans: B

24. Which of the following statements about hypothesis testing is true ?

(A) If the p-value is greater than the significance level, we fail to reject H0.

(B) A Type II error is rejecting the null when it is actually true.

(C) If the alternative hypothesis is that the population mean is greater than a specified value, then the test is a two-tailed test.

(D) None of the above statements are true.

Ans: A

25. How does the shape of the t-distribution change as the sample size increases ?

(A) It becomes broader (B) It becomes skewed (C) It becomes flatter (D) It becomes more normal looking

Ans: D

26. Conducting multiple t-tests increases the likelihood of which of the following ?

(A) Type II error (B) Accurate interpretation of the data (C) Finding correct conclusions (D) Type I error

Ans: D

27. How can the chance of committing a Type I error be reduced when performing multiple comparisons ?

(A) Transform the data using a quadratic equation

(B) Apply the Bonferroni correction to adopt a more stringent significance criterion or use more appropriate tests for multiple comparisons

(C) Check for homogeneity and normal distribution

(D) Remove outliers

Ans: B

28. In which of the following cases would an independent-samples t-test not be appropriate ?

(A) Comparing the performance of individuals who either consumed caffeine or did not

(B) Comparing younger and older adults level of teamwork

(C) Comparing men and women’s IQ on one occasion

(D) Comparing the attitudes of Eastern and Western individuals

Ans: A

29. A confidence interval (CI) is an interval constructed around the value of a statistic such as the mean within which, to a specified degree of ‘confidence’, we can say that the value of the corresponding parameter lies. Which statement is true ?

(A) The 95% CI is constructed so that it should include the parameter value in 95% of samples

(B) A ‘confidence’ is a ‘probability’ in the classical sense of the term

(C) The 95% CI is constructed so that it should include the parameter value in 97.5% of the samples

(D) The 95% CI is constructed so that it should include the parameter value in 5% of the samples

Ans: A

30. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population ?

(A) Convenience sampling (B) Quota sampling (C) Purposive sampling (D) Random sampling

Ans: D

31. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by gender, and then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on which we would divide the population is called the _____.

(A) Independent variable (B) Dependent variable (C) Stratification variable (D) Sampling variable

Ans: C

32. Which of the following non random sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research participants ?

(A) Snowball (B) Convenience (C) Purposive (D) Quota

Ans: A

33. Branch of statistics in which data is collected according to ordinal scale or nominal scale is classified as

(A) distribution statistics (B) sampling statistics (C) parametric statistics (D) non-parametric statistics

Ans: D

34. When variances across independent groups are unequal, which of the following is not an appropriate course of action.

(A) Use Games–Howell post hoc tests. (B) Use Kruskal–Wallis test. (C) Use Welch’s F-ratio. (D) Use Friedman’s ANOVA.

Ans: D

35. Health psychologist was interested in the effects of vitamin supplements on the immune system. Three groups of adults were exposed (in a highly ethical way) to the cold virus; one group took no supplements for a week before exposure, another had vitamin C supplements, and a third had multivitamins (excluding C). The severity of the cold was measured as a percentage (0% = not contracted, 100% = very severe symptoms). The psychologist also measured the number of cigarettes that each person smoked per day, as smoking suppresses the immune system. The psychologist was interested in the differences in the severity of the illnesses across different vitamin groups accounting for cigarette usage. What technique should be used to analyse these data ?

(A) Two-way repeated-measures ANOVA (B) Two-way independent ANOVA

(C) One-way analysis of covariance (D) Two-way mixed ANOVA

Ans: C

36. Levene’s test:

(A) Is a substitute for the related–samples t test (B) Is a test for homogeneity of variance

(C) Is a substitute for the independent–samples t test (D) Is a test for association

Ans: B

37. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample ?

(A) Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate

(B) Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within each ethnic group at random.

(C) Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number table to pick cases from the table.

(D) Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.

Ans: C

38. How can you deal with low expected values In Chi-square test ?

(A) You can increase your sample size or combine categories (B) None of these

(C) You can exclude outliers (D) You can transform your data

Ans: A

39. What does a significant result in a chi-square test imply ?

(A) All of these are possible

(B) That homogeneity of variance has not been established

(C) That there is a significant difference between the three categorical variables included in the analysis

(D) It implies that the sample is not representative of the population

Ans: D

40. What is an effect size ?

(A) The p value (B) The chi-square value

(C) The magnitude of the relationship between variables (D) The likelihood of type 1 and type 2 errors

Ans: C

41. The _____ is a statistical test of the equality of the variance of two populations.

(A) z test (B) t- test (C) F test (D) ANOVA

Ans: C

42. A researcher measured the same group of people’s physiological reactions while watching horror films and compared them to when watching erotic films. The resulting data were skewed. What test should be used to analyse the data ?

(A) Independent t-test (B) Wilcoxon signed-rank test (C) Dependent (related) t-test (D) Mann–Whitney test

Ans: B

43. What is the appropriate interpretation of this test ?

(A) Reject H0 : All three fish populations have different mean weights

(B) Reject H0 : Exactly two of the three fish populations have the same means

(C) Reject H0 : At least one of the fish populations differs from the others in terms of their mean weight

(D) Fail to reject H0 : The mean weights of the fish in these three populations are the same

Ans: C

44. A listing of the possible outcomes of an experiment and their corresponding probability is called…..

(A) Random Variable (B) Contingency table (C) Probability distribution (D) Frequency distribution

Ans: C

45. The error sum of squares can be obtained from the equation in 2 way ANOVA

(A) SSE = SST + SSR + SSC (B) SSE = SST – SSC + SSR

(C) SSE = SST – SSR + SSC (D) SSE = SST – SSR – SSC

Ans: D

46. In one-way ANOVA, which of the following is used within the F-ratio as a of the variance of individual observations ?

(A) SSTR (B) MSTR (C) SSE (D) MSE

Ans: C

47. Which of the numbers below might IBM SPSS report as 10.574 E-05 ?

(A) 0.00010574 (B) 10.569 (C) 1057400.0 (D) 0000.10574

Ans: A

48. A correlation between age and health of a person found to be –1.09. On the basis of this you would tell the doctors that:

(A) The age is good predictor of health (B) The age is poor predictor of health

(C) None of these (D) No relation between age and health

Ans: C

49. Suppose we have generated the data with help of polynomial regression of degree 3 (degree 3 will perfectly fit this data). Now consider below points and choose the option based on these points. 1. Simple Linear regression will have high bias and low variance 2. Simple Linear regression will have low bias and high variance 3. polynomial of degree 3 will have low bias and high variance 4. Polynomial of degree 3 will have low bias and Low variance

(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

Ans: C

50. Multicollinearity exists when

(A) Independent variables are correlated less than -0.70 or more than 0.70

(B) An independent variable is strongly correlated with a dependent variable

(C) There is only one independent variable

(D) The relation between dependent and independent variable is non -linear

Ans: A

A:-0 to +1

B:--1 to 0

C:-> 1

D:--1 to +1

Ans: D

2:-The degree of freedom for standard error of estimate are n-k-1. What does the 'k' stands for

A:-number of independent variables

B:-number of observations in the sample

C:-mean of the sample values of dependent variable

D:-none of these

Ans: A

3. The probability that a product will operate properly within an expected time frame is the dimension of quality known as

(A) durability (B) reliability (C) performance (D) serviceability

Ans: B

4. Which of the following quality tools display major causes of poor quality on a graph?

(A) Process flow chart (B) Fishbone diagram (C) Histogram (D) Scatter diagram

Ans: B

5. Which of the following is NOT a primary purpose of statistical process control?

(A) to establish control limits (B) to detect special cause variations

(C) to identify specification limits (D) to determine when a process is not in control

Ans: C

6. The probability of rejecting a lot that has an acceptable quality level is referred to as the

(A) producer’s risk (B) consumer’s risk. (C) lot tolerance percent defective (D) acceptable quality level.

Ans: A

7. A(n) _______ curve is a graph showing the probability of accepting a lot for different quality levels with a specific sampling plan.

(A) operating characteristic (OC) (B) average outgoing quality (C) lot tolerance percent defective (D) single-sample attribute

Ans:A

8. The number of arrivals per unit of time at a service facility can frequently be described by a

(A) normal distribution. (B) Poisson distribution. (C) binomial distribution. (D) beta distribution.

Ans: B

9. Accepting null hypotheses is when it is false or when alternative hypothesis is true is called:

(A) Type I error (B) Type II error (C) Type III error (D) None of the above

Ans: B

10. The distribution in which mean, median and mode coincide is

(A) Exponential distribution (B) Normal distribution (C) Poisson distribution (D) Binomial distribution

Ans: B

11. In a queuing problem, if the arrivals are completely random, then the probability distribution, of number of arrivals in a given time is

(A) Poisson distribution (B) Normal distribution (C) Binomial distribution (D) Exponential distribution

Ans: A

12. A set of values related on one or more observations unit is called

(A) Variable (B) Data (C) Population (D) Sample

Ans: B

13. Most frequently observations in series is termed as

(A) Mean (B) Mode (C) Median (D) None of the above

Ans: B

14. When the difference between two reading, observations or values of classes/ sample is more than defined limits in universe it stated as ______ variability

(A) Biological (B) Experimental (C) Real (D) All of the above

Ans: C

15. Following are the measures of variability of individual observations

(A) Range (B) Standard Error of mean (C) Error (D) proportion

Ans: A

16. Standard deviation expressed as percentage of mean is

(A) Coefficient of variation (B) Range (C) Standard error of proportion (D) None of the above

Ans: A

17. Deviation from the mean in a normal distribution or course is called as

(A) Standard normal deviate (B) Coefficient of variation (C) Standard error of mean (D) None of the above

Ans: A

18. This test is also applied as test of goodness of fit

(A) z-test (B) t-test (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

Ans: D

19. For larger values of ‘n’, Binomial Distribution

(A) loses its discreteness (B) tends to Poisson Distribution (C) stays as it is (D) gives oscillatory values

Ans: B

20. _______ is used to compare the variation or dispersion in two or more sets of data even though they are measured in different units.

(A) Standard Deviation (B) Coefficient of Variation (C) Range (D) Mean Deviation

Ans: B

21. If arithmetic mean is considered as average of deviations then resultant measure is considered as

(A) Close end deviation (B) Mean absolute deviation (C) Mean deviation (D) Variance deviation

Ans: C

22. With whom are the terms ‘hole counts, top-line results, punching and dirty data’ associated ?

(A) Galton (1822-1911). (B) Pearson (1857-1936). (C) Hollerith (1860-1929) (D) Booth (1840-1916)

Ans: C

23. Relationship of two or more variables is examined excluding some other variables in case of

(A) Total correlation (B) Partial correlation (C) Multiple correlation (D) None of the above

Ans: B

24. Which of the following statements about hypothesis testing is true ?

(A) If the p-value is greater than the significance level, we fail to reject H0.

(B) A Type II error is rejecting the null when it is actually true.

(C) If the alternative hypothesis is that the population mean is greater than a specified value, then the test is a two-tailed test.

(D) None of the above statements are true.

Ans: A

25. How does the shape of the t-distribution change as the sample size increases ?

(A) It becomes broader (B) It becomes skewed (C) It becomes flatter (D) It becomes more normal looking

Ans: D

26. Conducting multiple t-tests increases the likelihood of which of the following ?

(A) Type II error (B) Accurate interpretation of the data (C) Finding correct conclusions (D) Type I error

Ans: D

27. How can the chance of committing a Type I error be reduced when performing multiple comparisons ?

(A) Transform the data using a quadratic equation

(B) Apply the Bonferroni correction to adopt a more stringent significance criterion or use more appropriate tests for multiple comparisons

(C) Check for homogeneity and normal distribution

(D) Remove outliers

Ans: B

28. In which of the following cases would an independent-samples t-test not be appropriate ?

(A) Comparing the performance of individuals who either consumed caffeine or did not

(B) Comparing younger and older adults level of teamwork

(C) Comparing men and women’s IQ on one occasion

(D) Comparing the attitudes of Eastern and Western individuals

Ans: A

29. A confidence interval (CI) is an interval constructed around the value of a statistic such as the mean within which, to a specified degree of ‘confidence’, we can say that the value of the corresponding parameter lies. Which statement is true ?

(A) The 95% CI is constructed so that it should include the parameter value in 95% of samples

(B) A ‘confidence’ is a ‘probability’ in the classical sense of the term

(C) The 95% CI is constructed so that it should include the parameter value in 97.5% of the samples

(D) The 95% CI is constructed so that it should include the parameter value in 5% of the samples

Ans: A

30. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population ?

(A) Convenience sampling (B) Quota sampling (C) Purposive sampling (D) Random sampling

Ans: D

31. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by gender, and then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on which we would divide the population is called the _____.

(A) Independent variable (B) Dependent variable (C) Stratification variable (D) Sampling variable

Ans: C

32. Which of the following non random sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research participants ?

(A) Snowball (B) Convenience (C) Purposive (D) Quota

Ans: A

33. Branch of statistics in which data is collected according to ordinal scale or nominal scale is classified as

(A) distribution statistics (B) sampling statistics (C) parametric statistics (D) non-parametric statistics

Ans: D

34. When variances across independent groups are unequal, which of the following is not an appropriate course of action.

(A) Use Games–Howell post hoc tests. (B) Use Kruskal–Wallis test. (C) Use Welch’s F-ratio. (D) Use Friedman’s ANOVA.

Ans: D

35. Health psychologist was interested in the effects of vitamin supplements on the immune system. Three groups of adults were exposed (in a highly ethical way) to the cold virus; one group took no supplements for a week before exposure, another had vitamin C supplements, and a third had multivitamins (excluding C). The severity of the cold was measured as a percentage (0% = not contracted, 100% = very severe symptoms). The psychologist also measured the number of cigarettes that each person smoked per day, as smoking suppresses the immune system. The psychologist was interested in the differences in the severity of the illnesses across different vitamin groups accounting for cigarette usage. What technique should be used to analyse these data ?

(A) Two-way repeated-measures ANOVA (B) Two-way independent ANOVA

(C) One-way analysis of covariance (D) Two-way mixed ANOVA

Ans: C

36. Levene’s test:

(A) Is a substitute for the related–samples t test (B) Is a test for homogeneity of variance

(C) Is a substitute for the independent–samples t test (D) Is a test for association

Ans: B

37. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample ?

(A) Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate

(B) Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within each ethnic group at random.

(C) Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number table to pick cases from the table.

(D) Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.

Ans: C

38. How can you deal with low expected values In Chi-square test ?

(A) You can increase your sample size or combine categories (B) None of these

(C) You can exclude outliers (D) You can transform your data

Ans: A

39. What does a significant result in a chi-square test imply ?

(A) All of these are possible

(B) That homogeneity of variance has not been established

(C) That there is a significant difference between the three categorical variables included in the analysis

(D) It implies that the sample is not representative of the population

Ans: D

40. What is an effect size ?

(A) The p value (B) The chi-square value

(C) The magnitude of the relationship between variables (D) The likelihood of type 1 and type 2 errors

Ans: C

41. The _____ is a statistical test of the equality of the variance of two populations.

(A) z test (B) t- test (C) F test (D) ANOVA

Ans: C

42. A researcher measured the same group of people’s physiological reactions while watching horror films and compared them to when watching erotic films. The resulting data were skewed. What test should be used to analyse the data ?

(A) Independent t-test (B) Wilcoxon signed-rank test (C) Dependent (related) t-test (D) Mann–Whitney test

Ans: B

43. What is the appropriate interpretation of this test ?

(A) Reject H0 : All three fish populations have different mean weights

(B) Reject H0 : Exactly two of the three fish populations have the same means

(C) Reject H0 : At least one of the fish populations differs from the others in terms of their mean weight

(D) Fail to reject H0 : The mean weights of the fish in these three populations are the same

Ans: C

44. A listing of the possible outcomes of an experiment and their corresponding probability is called…..

(A) Random Variable (B) Contingency table (C) Probability distribution (D) Frequency distribution

Ans: C

45. The error sum of squares can be obtained from the equation in 2 way ANOVA

(A) SSE = SST + SSR + SSC (B) SSE = SST – SSC + SSR

(C) SSE = SST – SSR + SSC (D) SSE = SST – SSR – SSC

Ans: D

46. In one-way ANOVA, which of the following is used within the F-ratio as a of the variance of individual observations ?

(A) SSTR (B) MSTR (C) SSE (D) MSE

Ans: C

47. Which of the numbers below might IBM SPSS report as 10.574 E-05 ?

(A) 0.00010574 (B) 10.569 (C) 1057400.0 (D) 0000.10574

Ans: A

48. A correlation between age and health of a person found to be –1.09. On the basis of this you would tell the doctors that:

(A) The age is good predictor of health (B) The age is poor predictor of health

(C) None of these (D) No relation between age and health

Ans: C

49. Suppose we have generated the data with help of polynomial regression of degree 3 (degree 3 will perfectly fit this data). Now consider below points and choose the option based on these points. 1. Simple Linear regression will have high bias and low variance 2. Simple Linear regression will have low bias and high variance 3. polynomial of degree 3 will have low bias and high variance 4. Polynomial of degree 3 will have low bias and Low variance

(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

Ans: C

50. Multicollinearity exists when

(A) Independent variables are correlated less than -0.70 or more than 0.70

(B) An independent variable is strongly correlated with a dependent variable

(C) There is only one independent variable

(D) The relation between dependent and independent variable is non -linear

Ans: A

51. Draw a sample from a convenient, readily available population. It doesn’t give a representative sample for the population but can be useful for pilot testing.

(A) Adaptive Sampling (B) Accidental Sampling (C) Acceptance – rejection sampling (D) None of these

Ans: B

52. Data elements such as name, date of birth, address and sex is known as

(A) Administrative (B) Clinical (C) Demographic (D) Financial

Ans: C

53. The recurrence relation between P(x) and P(x + 1) in a Poisson distribution is given by

(A) P(x + 1) – m P(x) = 0 (B) m P(x + 1) – P(x) = 0 (C) (x + 1) P(x + 1) – m P(x) = 0 (D) (x + 1) P(x) – x P(x + 1) = 0

Ans: C

54. Who was the editor of Sankhya from 1933 to 1972.

(A) Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis (B) Prof. C. R. Rao (C) R. A. Fisher (D) Sukhatme

Ans: A

55. Which of the following is not True.

1. Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis won the battle and the National Sample Survey was established in 1950.

2. A Central Statistical Unit was established by the Government of India in 1949 to work under the technical guidance of Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis as Honorary Statistical Adviser to the cabinet.

3. In Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis 1958 found a simple but very effective technique known as Fractile Graphical Analysis.

4. By 1959-60, the Indian Statistical Institute became, for all practical purposes, a National Computer Centre for the country.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3

(C) Only 4 (D) All true

Ans: D

56. When Prof. P. C. Mahalanobis set up the Indian Statistical Institute for advanced research and training in statistics.

(A) 17th December 1931 (B) 17th December 1950 (C) 21st august 1950 (D) None of Above

Ans: A

57. The range of regressioin coefficient is:

(A) –1 to +1 (B) 0 to 1 (C) –8 to +8 (D) 0 to 8

Ans: C

59. This sampling method is implemented in situations where the topic is highly sensitive and not openly discussed such as conducting surveys to gather information about HIV Aids. Not many victims will readily respond to the questions but researchers can contact people they might know or volunteers associated with the cause to get in touch with the victims and collect information.

(A) Simple random Sampling (B) Convenient Sampling (C) Quota Sampling (D) Snow ball Sampling

Ans: D

60. In sampling, selection of members in this sampling technique happens on basis of a pre-set standard. In this case, as a sample is fromed on basis of specific attributes, the created sample will have the same attributes that are found in the total population. It is an extremely quick method of collecting samples.

(A) Simple random Sampling (B) Convenient Sampling (C) Quota Sampling (D) Snow ball Sampling

Ans: C

61. Which agency collect data of national family health survey

(A) CSO (B) NSSO (C) IIPS (D) Both (A) and (B)

Ans: C

62. What is true about late expanding phase of demographic cycle ?

(A) Birth rate is lower than death rate. (B) Death rate begins to decline, while the birth rate remain unchanged

(C) Death rate decline still further, and the birth rate tends to fall (D) High birth rate and high death rate

Ans: C

63. In demographic cycle low stationary phase corresponds to which stages ?

(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Forth

Ans: D

64. Normality is checked by which methods ?

(A) Skewness and Histogram (B) Kolmogroov-Smirnov and Shapiro-Wilks (C) Box And Whisker plot (D) All of above

Ans: D

65. Among the following measures which is not likely to help in improving India’s balance of payments position ?

(A) Devaluation of the rupee (B) Imposition of higher duty on exports

(C) Imposition of higher duty on imports (D) Encouragement of import substitution

Ans: B

66. Identify the correct sequence of the establishment of steel plants in India from the earliest to the latest:

(A) Bhilai, Jamshedpur, Vishakhapatnam, Bokaro (B) Bokaro, Jamshedpur, Vishakhapatnam, Bhilai

(C) Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Bhilai, Vishakhapatnam (D) Jamshedpur, Bhilai, Bokaro, Vishakhapatnam

Ans: D

67. Find the incorrect statement with respect to Special Economic Zones (SEZ) ?

(A) No license is required for import (B) No permission for subcontracting

(C) Manufacturing and service activities are allowed (D) No routine examination of cargo for export/import by customs authorities

Ans: B

68. The aim of current Industrial policy of India :

(A) Accelerating the performance of mixed economy (B) Discourage the performance of the private sector

(C) Increasing the production of public sector units (D) Promoting the private sector units

Ans: A

69. Population pyramids are useful to:

(A) Express the population growth rates (B) Express the age-sex distribution

(C) Indicate the birth rates (D) Indicate the death rates

Ans: B

70. Theorem which states that as sample size increases sampling distribution must approach normal distribution is classified as

(A) limited approximation theorem (B) secondary limit theorem

(C) primary limit theorem (D) central limit theorem

Ans: D

71. When statistical inference is made on basis of sample results about characteristics of population then this is classified as

(A) inferential statistics (B) sample statistics (C) population statistics (D) population variability

Ans: A

72. The standard error increases when sample size is:

(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Fixed (D) More than 30

Ans: B

73. A physician wants to know if the mean heart rate after use of a new drug differs from the healthy population rate of 72 beats/min. He considers a mean difference of 6 beats/min to be clinically meaningful. He also chooses 9.1 beats/min as the variation expected based on a previously published study. How many patients will be need to carry out the study with 5% probability of Type 1 error and 80% power ?

(A) 17 (B) 18 (C) 23 (D) 43

Ans: B

74. Which of the followings are the assumptions of the Gauss-Markov Theorm

1. Linearity 2. Random 3. Non-Collinearity 4. Exogeneity 5. Homoscedasticity

(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) only 5 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All

Ans: D

75. If the rate of addition of new member’s increases with respect to the individual lost of the same population, then the graph obtained has:

(A) Declined growth (B) Exponential growth (C) Zero growth (D) None of the above

Ans: B

76. Demographic processes does not include

(A) fertility (B) morbidity (C) mortality (D) social mobility

Ans: B

77. Birth rate is

(A) live birth/1000 mid-year population (B) Birth/ 1000 mid-year population

(C) Live birth/ 10000 mid-year population (D) Live birth/ 10000 population of reproductive age Group (15-45 year)

Ans: A

78. In a town of 36000 people, there are 1200 live births, and 60 infants ‘death’. What is the IMR (Infant mortality rate) ?

(A) 50 (B) 25 (C) 10 (D) 5

Ans: A

79. Which of the fertility rates have midyear population as denominator ?

(A) crude birth rate (B) general fertility rate (C) general marital fertility rate (D) All of above

Ans: D

80. Indian population pyramid is –

(A) Narrow apex (B) broad apex (C) Narrow base (D) None of these

Ans: A

81. Sex ratio is

(A) 1 male per 1000 female (B) 1000 female per 1000 male (C) No. of female per 1000 male (D) None of these

Ans: C

82. If birth rate is 42 and death rate is 31 so annual growth rate is –

(A) 11% (B) 1.1% (C) 0.25% (D) 2.5%

Ans: B

83. If total fertility rate in India is 2.2 the crude birth rate _______ per 1000.

(A) 18.6 (B) 19.2 (C) 22.4 (D) 26.2

Ans: A

84. Use of the Non-Probability Sampling Method

(A) Create a hypothesis (B) Explroatroy research (C) Budget and time constraints (D) All of Above

Ans: D

85. If TFR in a population is 4 per women the GRR approx. would be

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

Ans: A

86. If the third moment about mean is zero then distribution is

(A) Negatively skewed (B) Positively skewed (C) Symmetrical (D) Normal

Ans: C

87. A researcher measured the same group of people’s physiological reactions while watching horror films and compared them to when watching erotic films, and a documentary about wildlife. The resulting data were skewed. What test should be used to analyse the data ?

(A) Independent analysis of variance (B) Repeated-measures analysis of variance (C) Friedman’s ANOVA (D) Kruskal–Wallis test

Ans: C

88. Which of the following does a box–whisker plot not display ?

(A) The mean (B) The median (C) Outliers (D) The lower quartile

Ans: A

89. Out of the following options, which type of graph could we use to compare frequency distributions of several groups simultaneously ? (A) Population pyramid (B) Simple histogram (C) Frequency polygon (D) Simple 3-D bar chart

Ans: A

90. If mean of percentages, rates and ratios is to be calculated then central tendency measure which must be used in this situation is

(A) weighted arithmetic mean (B) paired arithmetic mean (C) non-paired arithmetic mean (D) square of arithmetic mean

Ans: A

91. The zero population growth due to equal birth and death rates is called:

(A) Natural increase (B) Demographic transition (C) Fertility rate (D) Replacement level

Ans: B

92. The mean of a distribution is 23, the median is 24, and the mode is 25.5. It is most likely that this distribution is:

(A) Positively Skewed (B) Symmetrical (C) Negatively Skewed (D) None of these

Ans: C

93. Maximum value of correlation is

(A) 2 (B) 1.5 (C) 1 (D) 0

Ans: C

94. Primary data and _______ data are same

(A) Grouped (B) Secondary data (C) Ungrouped (D) None of these

Ans: C

95. C. R. Rao completed his Ph.D. under whom and when.

(A) Pandurang Vasudeo Sukhatme, 1949 (B) Ronald Fisher, 1936 (C) John –Turkey, 1987 (D) R. A. Fisher, 1946

Ans: D

96. Who was the founder of Indian Econometric Society and Indian Society for Medical Statistics which hold conferences every year to discuss problems of current interest ?

(A) C. R. Rao (B) Pandurang Vasudeo Sukhatme (C) Raghuraj Bahadur (D) Raj Chandra Bose

Ans: A

97. Who is known for his pioneering work of applying random sampling methods in agricultural statistics and in biometry, in the 1940s. He was also influential in the establishment of the Indian Agricultural Statistics Research Institute.

(A) Pandurang Vasudeo Sukhatme (B) C. R. Rao (C) P. C. Mahalanobis (D) Raj Chandra Bose

Ans: A

98. In Standard normal distribution, the value of median is

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) Not fixed

Ans: B

99. It is suitable to use Binomial Distribution only for

(A) Large values of ‘n’ (B) Fractional values of ‘n’ (C) Small values of ‘n’ (D) Any value of ‘n’

Ans: C

100. Chebyshev’s inequality states that the probability of a “Six Sigma” event is less than :

(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 30% (D) 3%

Ans: D

(A) Adaptive Sampling (B) Accidental Sampling (C) Acceptance – rejection sampling (D) None of these

Ans: B

52. Data elements such as name, date of birth, address and sex is known as

(A) Administrative (B) Clinical (C) Demographic (D) Financial

Ans: C

53. The recurrence relation between P(x) and P(x + 1) in a Poisson distribution is given by

(A) P(x + 1) – m P(x) = 0 (B) m P(x + 1) – P(x) = 0 (C) (x + 1) P(x + 1) – m P(x) = 0 (D) (x + 1) P(x) – x P(x + 1) = 0

Ans: C

54. Who was the editor of Sankhya from 1933 to 1972.

(A) Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis (B) Prof. C. R. Rao (C) R. A. Fisher (D) Sukhatme

Ans: A

55. Which of the following is not True.

1. Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis won the battle and the National Sample Survey was established in 1950.

2. A Central Statistical Unit was established by the Government of India in 1949 to work under the technical guidance of Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis as Honorary Statistical Adviser to the cabinet.

3. In Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis 1958 found a simple but very effective technique known as Fractile Graphical Analysis.

4. By 1959-60, the Indian Statistical Institute became, for all practical purposes, a National Computer Centre for the country.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3

(C) Only 4 (D) All true

Ans: D

56. When Prof. P. C. Mahalanobis set up the Indian Statistical Institute for advanced research and training in statistics.

(A) 17th December 1931 (B) 17th December 1950 (C) 21st august 1950 (D) None of Above

Ans: A

57. The range of regressioin coefficient is:

(A) –1 to +1 (B) 0 to 1 (C) –8 to +8 (D) 0 to 8

Ans: C

59. This sampling method is implemented in situations where the topic is highly sensitive and not openly discussed such as conducting surveys to gather information about HIV Aids. Not many victims will readily respond to the questions but researchers can contact people they might know or volunteers associated with the cause to get in touch with the victims and collect information.

(A) Simple random Sampling (B) Convenient Sampling (C) Quota Sampling (D) Snow ball Sampling

Ans: D

60. In sampling, selection of members in this sampling technique happens on basis of a pre-set standard. In this case, as a sample is fromed on basis of specific attributes, the created sample will have the same attributes that are found in the total population. It is an extremely quick method of collecting samples.

(A) Simple random Sampling (B) Convenient Sampling (C) Quota Sampling (D) Snow ball Sampling

Ans: C

61. Which agency collect data of national family health survey

(A) CSO (B) NSSO (C) IIPS (D) Both (A) and (B)

Ans: C

62. What is true about late expanding phase of demographic cycle ?

(A) Birth rate is lower than death rate. (B) Death rate begins to decline, while the birth rate remain unchanged

(C) Death rate decline still further, and the birth rate tends to fall (D) High birth rate and high death rate

Ans: C

63. In demographic cycle low stationary phase corresponds to which stages ?

(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Forth

Ans: D

64. Normality is checked by which methods ?

(A) Skewness and Histogram (B) Kolmogroov-Smirnov and Shapiro-Wilks (C) Box And Whisker plot (D) All of above

Ans: D

65. Among the following measures which is not likely to help in improving India’s balance of payments position ?

(A) Devaluation of the rupee (B) Imposition of higher duty on exports

(C) Imposition of higher duty on imports (D) Encouragement of import substitution

Ans: B

66. Identify the correct sequence of the establishment of steel plants in India from the earliest to the latest:

(A) Bhilai, Jamshedpur, Vishakhapatnam, Bokaro (B) Bokaro, Jamshedpur, Vishakhapatnam, Bhilai

(C) Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Bhilai, Vishakhapatnam (D) Jamshedpur, Bhilai, Bokaro, Vishakhapatnam

Ans: D

67. Find the incorrect statement with respect to Special Economic Zones (SEZ) ?

(A) No license is required for import (B) No permission for subcontracting

(C) Manufacturing and service activities are allowed (D) No routine examination of cargo for export/import by customs authorities

Ans: B

68. The aim of current Industrial policy of India :

(A) Accelerating the performance of mixed economy (B) Discourage the performance of the private sector

(C) Increasing the production of public sector units (D) Promoting the private sector units

Ans: A

69. Population pyramids are useful to:

(A) Express the population growth rates (B) Express the age-sex distribution

(C) Indicate the birth rates (D) Indicate the death rates

Ans: B

70. Theorem which states that as sample size increases sampling distribution must approach normal distribution is classified as

(A) limited approximation theorem (B) secondary limit theorem

(C) primary limit theorem (D) central limit theorem

Ans: D

71. When statistical inference is made on basis of sample results about characteristics of population then this is classified as

(A) inferential statistics (B) sample statistics (C) population statistics (D) population variability

Ans: A

72. The standard error increases when sample size is:

(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Fixed (D) More than 30

Ans: B

73. A physician wants to know if the mean heart rate after use of a new drug differs from the healthy population rate of 72 beats/min. He considers a mean difference of 6 beats/min to be clinically meaningful. He also chooses 9.1 beats/min as the variation expected based on a previously published study. How many patients will be need to carry out the study with 5% probability of Type 1 error and 80% power ?

(A) 17 (B) 18 (C) 23 (D) 43

Ans: B

74. Which of the followings are the assumptions of the Gauss-Markov Theorm

1. Linearity 2. Random 3. Non-Collinearity 4. Exogeneity 5. Homoscedasticity

(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) only 5 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All

Ans: D

75. If the rate of addition of new member’s increases with respect to the individual lost of the same population, then the graph obtained has:

(A) Declined growth (B) Exponential growth (C) Zero growth (D) None of the above

Ans: B

76. Demographic processes does not include

(A) fertility (B) morbidity (C) mortality (D) social mobility

Ans: B

77. Birth rate is

(A) live birth/1000 mid-year population (B) Birth/ 1000 mid-year population

(C) Live birth/ 10000 mid-year population (D) Live birth/ 10000 population of reproductive age Group (15-45 year)

Ans: A

78. In a town of 36000 people, there are 1200 live births, and 60 infants ‘death’. What is the IMR (Infant mortality rate) ?

(A) 50 (B) 25 (C) 10 (D) 5

Ans: A

79. Which of the fertility rates have midyear population as denominator ?

(A) crude birth rate (B) general fertility rate (C) general marital fertility rate (D) All of above

Ans: D

80. Indian population pyramid is –

(A) Narrow apex (B) broad apex (C) Narrow base (D) None of these

Ans: A

81. Sex ratio is

(A) 1 male per 1000 female (B) 1000 female per 1000 male (C) No. of female per 1000 male (D) None of these

Ans: C

82. If birth rate is 42 and death rate is 31 so annual growth rate is –

(A) 11% (B) 1.1% (C) 0.25% (D) 2.5%

Ans: B

83. If total fertility rate in India is 2.2 the crude birth rate _______ per 1000.

(A) 18.6 (B) 19.2 (C) 22.4 (D) 26.2

Ans: A

84. Use of the Non-Probability Sampling Method

(A) Create a hypothesis (B) Explroatroy research (C) Budget and time constraints (D) All of Above

Ans: D

85. If TFR in a population is 4 per women the GRR approx. would be

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

Ans: A

86. If the third moment about mean is zero then distribution is

(A) Negatively skewed (B) Positively skewed (C) Symmetrical (D) Normal

Ans: C

87. A researcher measured the same group of people’s physiological reactions while watching horror films and compared them to when watching erotic films, and a documentary about wildlife. The resulting data were skewed. What test should be used to analyse the data ?

(A) Independent analysis of variance (B) Repeated-measures analysis of variance (C) Friedman’s ANOVA (D) Kruskal–Wallis test

Ans: C

88. Which of the following does a box–whisker plot not display ?

(A) The mean (B) The median (C) Outliers (D) The lower quartile

Ans: A

89. Out of the following options, which type of graph could we use to compare frequency distributions of several groups simultaneously ? (A) Population pyramid (B) Simple histogram (C) Frequency polygon (D) Simple 3-D bar chart

Ans: A

90. If mean of percentages, rates and ratios is to be calculated then central tendency measure which must be used in this situation is

(A) weighted arithmetic mean (B) paired arithmetic mean (C) non-paired arithmetic mean (D) square of arithmetic mean

Ans: A

91. The zero population growth due to equal birth and death rates is called:

(A) Natural increase (B) Demographic transition (C) Fertility rate (D) Replacement level

Ans: B

92. The mean of a distribution is 23, the median is 24, and the mode is 25.5. It is most likely that this distribution is:

(A) Positively Skewed (B) Symmetrical (C) Negatively Skewed (D) None of these

Ans: C

93. Maximum value of correlation is

(A) 2 (B) 1.5 (C) 1 (D) 0

Ans: C

94. Primary data and _______ data are same

(A) Grouped (B) Secondary data (C) Ungrouped (D) None of these

Ans: C

95. C. R. Rao completed his Ph.D. under whom and when.

(A) Pandurang Vasudeo Sukhatme, 1949 (B) Ronald Fisher, 1936 (C) John –Turkey, 1987 (D) R. A. Fisher, 1946

Ans: D

96. Who was the founder of Indian Econometric Society and Indian Society for Medical Statistics which hold conferences every year to discuss problems of current interest ?

(A) C. R. Rao (B) Pandurang Vasudeo Sukhatme (C) Raghuraj Bahadur (D) Raj Chandra Bose

Ans: A

97. Who is known for his pioneering work of applying random sampling methods in agricultural statistics and in biometry, in the 1940s. He was also influential in the establishment of the Indian Agricultural Statistics Research Institute.

(A) Pandurang Vasudeo Sukhatme (B) C. R. Rao (C) P. C. Mahalanobis (D) Raj Chandra Bose

Ans: A

98. In Standard normal distribution, the value of median is

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) Not fixed

Ans: B

99. It is suitable to use Binomial Distribution only for

(A) Large values of ‘n’ (B) Fractional values of ‘n’ (C) Small values of ‘n’ (D) Any value of ‘n’

Ans: C

100. Chebyshev’s inequality states that the probability of a “Six Sigma” event is less than :

(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 30% (D) 3%

Ans: D