RADIODIAGNOSIS- PAGE 1
RADIODIAGNOSIS MCQ- PAGE 1
1. DDH is best evaluated with :
(A) MRI (B) MDCT (C) Arthrography (D) Ultrasound
Ans: D
2. Wyberg type 3 patella is associated with :
(A) Chondromalacia patella (B) Patella baja (C) Patellar dislocation (D) Patellar rupture
Ans: C
3. Earliest evidence of healing rickets is :
(A) Reappearance of metaphyseal white line (B) Normal alkaline phosphatase (C) Loss of metaphyseal cupping (D) Narrowing of physeal plate
Ans: A
4. Tomb stone ileum is seen in :
(A) Morquio disease (B) Bilateral DDH (C) MPS1 (D) Achondroplasia
Ans: D
5. Double decidual sac sign is seen in :
(A) Twin pregnancy (B) Ectopic pregnancy (C) Subchorionic hematoma (D) Normal pregnancy
Ans: D
6. One of the following is not a radiologic sign of osteogenesis imperfecta :
(A) Thin calvarium (B) Excess callus (C) Platy spondyli (D) Wimberger sign
Ans: D
7. Curvilinear suprasellar calcification is seen in :
(A) Colloid cyst (B) Craniopharyngioma (C) Meningioma (D) Dermoid cyst
Ans: B
8. Thyroid ablation is done with :
(A) Technetium pertechnitate (B) Thallium (C) Iodine 123 (D) Iodine 131
Ans: D
9. Most important sequence for pancreatic MR imaging :
(A) T1 FS imaging (B) T2 images (C) T1 images (D) T2 FS images
Ans: A
10. Saucerisation is seen in :
(A) Osteosarcoma (B) Plasmacytoma (C) Ewings sarcoma (D) Chondrosarcoma
Ans: C
11. In petrous bone MR imaging, number of nerves seen at IAC is :
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Three (D) Five
Ans: B
12. Empty sac sign is seen in :
(A) Following complete abortion (B) Arachnoiditis (C) Disc prolapse (D) Reducible hernia
Ans: B
13. Vertebral step sign is seen in :
(A) Haemophilia (B) Gauchers disease (C) Thalassemia (D) Ochronosis
Ans: B
14. Crystal used in ultrasound is :
(A) Lead zirconate titanate (B) Calcium tungstate (C) Caesium iodide (D) Barium cyanofluride
Ans: A
15. Pseudo fracture is not seen in :
(A) Osteopetrosis (B) Osteomalacia (C) Pagets disease (D) Osteogenesis imperfecta
Ans: A
16. Nuchal fold thickness is measured at :
(A) 11-14 weeks (B) 21-24 weeks (C) 31-34 weeks (D) 36-38 weeks
Ans: B
17. Ideal time for doing HSG is :
(A) 3-6 days of menstrual cycle (B) 10-13 days of menstrual cycle (C) 1-3 days of menstrual cycle (D) 7-10 days of menstrual cycle
Ans: D
18. Melting sign is seen in resolution of :
(A) Pulmonary edema (B) Pulmonary infarct (C) Consolidation (D) Ca bronchus - post radiation
Ans: B
19. Renal scarring is best detected by technitium labelled with :
(A) DTPA (B) DMSA (C) MAG3 (D) Pertechnetate
Ans: B
20. Hidebound appearance is seen in :
(A) Systemic sclerosis (B) Strogyloidiasis (C) Whipples disease (D) Coeliac disease
Ans: A
(A) MRI (B) MDCT (C) Arthrography (D) Ultrasound
Ans: D
2. Wyberg type 3 patella is associated with :
(A) Chondromalacia patella (B) Patella baja (C) Patellar dislocation (D) Patellar rupture
Ans: C
3. Earliest evidence of healing rickets is :
(A) Reappearance of metaphyseal white line (B) Normal alkaline phosphatase (C) Loss of metaphyseal cupping (D) Narrowing of physeal plate
Ans: A
4. Tomb stone ileum is seen in :
(A) Morquio disease (B) Bilateral DDH (C) MPS1 (D) Achondroplasia
Ans: D
5. Double decidual sac sign is seen in :
(A) Twin pregnancy (B) Ectopic pregnancy (C) Subchorionic hematoma (D) Normal pregnancy
Ans: D
6. One of the following is not a radiologic sign of osteogenesis imperfecta :
(A) Thin calvarium (B) Excess callus (C) Platy spondyli (D) Wimberger sign
Ans: D
7. Curvilinear suprasellar calcification is seen in :
(A) Colloid cyst (B) Craniopharyngioma (C) Meningioma (D) Dermoid cyst
Ans: B
8. Thyroid ablation is done with :
(A) Technetium pertechnitate (B) Thallium (C) Iodine 123 (D) Iodine 131
Ans: D
9. Most important sequence for pancreatic MR imaging :
(A) T1 FS imaging (B) T2 images (C) T1 images (D) T2 FS images
Ans: A
10. Saucerisation is seen in :
(A) Osteosarcoma (B) Plasmacytoma (C) Ewings sarcoma (D) Chondrosarcoma
Ans: C
11. In petrous bone MR imaging, number of nerves seen at IAC is :
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Three (D) Five
Ans: B
12. Empty sac sign is seen in :
(A) Following complete abortion (B) Arachnoiditis (C) Disc prolapse (D) Reducible hernia
Ans: B
13. Vertebral step sign is seen in :
(A) Haemophilia (B) Gauchers disease (C) Thalassemia (D) Ochronosis
Ans: B
14. Crystal used in ultrasound is :
(A) Lead zirconate titanate (B) Calcium tungstate (C) Caesium iodide (D) Barium cyanofluride
Ans: A
15. Pseudo fracture is not seen in :
(A) Osteopetrosis (B) Osteomalacia (C) Pagets disease (D) Osteogenesis imperfecta
Ans: A
16. Nuchal fold thickness is measured at :
(A) 11-14 weeks (B) 21-24 weeks (C) 31-34 weeks (D) 36-38 weeks
Ans: B
17. Ideal time for doing HSG is :
(A) 3-6 days of menstrual cycle (B) 10-13 days of menstrual cycle (C) 1-3 days of menstrual cycle (D) 7-10 days of menstrual cycle
Ans: D
18. Melting sign is seen in resolution of :
(A) Pulmonary edema (B) Pulmonary infarct (C) Consolidation (D) Ca bronchus - post radiation
Ans: B
19. Renal scarring is best detected by technitium labelled with :
(A) DTPA (B) DMSA (C) MAG3 (D) Pertechnetate
Ans: B
20. Hidebound appearance is seen in :
(A) Systemic sclerosis (B) Strogyloidiasis (C) Whipples disease (D) Coeliac disease
Ans: A
21. Sandwitch sign in mesentery is seen in :
(A) Sclerosing mesenteritis (B) Lymphoma (C) Crohns disease (D) Peritoneal tuberculosis
Ans: B
22. Antral sign is seen in :
(A) Fungal sinusitis (B) Angiofibroma (C) Nasopharyngear carcinoma (D) Mucocoele
Ans: B
23. Size of Microbubbles in ultrasound contrast agents are :
(A) 10-17 micrometer (B) 2-7 micrometer (C) 1-3 micrometer (D) 20-27 micrometer
Ans: B
24. Fecal tagging is done in :
(A) CT colonography (B) Defecography (C) MR enterography (D) MR defecography
Ans: A
25. Which one of the following antenataly detected condition shows no spontaneous regression ?
(A) Cytic adenomatoid malformation (B) Congenital neuroblastoma (C) Cystic hygroma (D) Duodenal atresia
Ans: D
(A) Sclerosing mesenteritis (B) Lymphoma (C) Crohns disease (D) Peritoneal tuberculosis
Ans: B
22. Antral sign is seen in :
(A) Fungal sinusitis (B) Angiofibroma (C) Nasopharyngear carcinoma (D) Mucocoele
Ans: B
23. Size of Microbubbles in ultrasound contrast agents are :
(A) 10-17 micrometer (B) 2-7 micrometer (C) 1-3 micrometer (D) 20-27 micrometer
Ans: B
24. Fecal tagging is done in :
(A) CT colonography (B) Defecography (C) MR enterography (D) MR defecography
Ans: A
25. Which one of the following antenataly detected condition shows no spontaneous regression ?
(A) Cytic adenomatoid malformation (B) Congenital neuroblastoma (C) Cystic hygroma (D) Duodenal atresia
Ans: D
26. Choroidal excavation is seen in :
(A) Choroidal detachment (B) Choroidal hematoma (C) Choroidal melanoma (D) Retinal detachment
Ans: C
27. IVP showing “egg in spoon” appearance is diagnostic of :
(A) PUJ obstruction (B) Horse shoe kidney (C) Medullary sponge kidney (D) Renal papillary necrosis
Ans: D
28. “Apple on string” heart is seen in :
(A) Persistent truncus (B) Ebsteins anomaly (C) TAPVD (D) Transposition of great arteries
Ans: D
29. Chest radiograph in a SLE patient is unlikely to reveal :
(A) Interstitial fibrosis (B) Pleural effusion (C) Elevated diaphragm (D) Pneumonitis
Ans: A
30. Steeple sign is seen in :
(A) Caustic stricture esophagus (B) Laryngeal hemangioma (C) Croup (D) Epiglottitis
Ans: C
31. False statement regarding lung hila in chest X-ray is :
(A) Eparterial bronchus seen on left side
(B) Left hilum is at a higher level
(C) Margin of hilum concave laterally
(D) Minor part of hilar shadow is formed by bronchus
Ans: A
32. Tree in bud sign is classically seen in :
(A) Pulmonary TB (B) Bronchiectasis (C) Emphysema (D) Silicosis
Ans: A
33. Crescent sign in chest radiograph is seen in :
(A) Unruptured lung hydatid (B) Pulmonary gangrene (C) Dermoid cyst (D) Wegeners granulomatosis
Ans: B
34. Reverse bat wing appearance is seen in :
(A) Pulmonary edema (B) Following clearance of pulmonary edema (C) Lupus pneumonitis (D) Eosinophilic pneumonitis
Ans: D
35. Enlargement of skull is not seen in :
(A) Adrenoleukodystrophy (B) Alexanders disease (C) Canavans disease (D) Hurlers disease
Ans: A
36. Humming bird appearance in MR brain is seen in :
(A) Huntingtons disease (B) Progressive supranuclear palsy (C) Multisystem atrophy (D) Wilsons disease
Ans: B
37. Anode rotating speed in x-ray tube is :
(A) 30,000 RPM (B) 300 RPM (C) 3000 RPM (D) 5000 RPM
Ans: C
38. Best radiologic investigation for local staging of ca rectum is :
(A) Transrectal ultrasound (B) MD CT (C) PET scanning (D) MRI
Ans: D
39. Intraluminal T1 bright signal in gall bladder is not seen in :
(A) Adenomyosis of Gb (B) Pigment stones (C) Biliary sludge (D) Fasting state bile
Ans: A
40. Pine tree bladder is seen in :
(A) Augmentation cystoplasty (B) Tuberculosis (C) Neurogenic bladder (D) Cystitis glandularis
Ans: C
41. String of beads appearance in renal angiogram is seen in :
(A) Poly arteritis nodosa (B) Fibromuscular dysplasia (C) Renal AV fistula (D) Aneurysm of renal artery
Ans: B
42. Iodinated contrast hexabrix is :
(A) Non ionic dimer (B) Ionic monomer (C) Ionic dimer (D) Non ionic monomer
Ans: C
43. Napkin ring lesion is seen in :
(A) Amoebic ulcer (B) Diverticular disease (C) Ulcerative colitis (D) Ca colon
Ans: D
44. Pearl necklace sign in MR imaging is seen in :
(A) Adenomyomatosis of gall bladder (B) Array of intraductal CBD stones (C) Gall stones (D) Chronic cholecystitis
Ans: A
45. CT Densitometry is useful in :
(A) Otitis media (B) Osteopetrosis (C) Otosclerosis (D) Oto mycosis
Ans: C
46. Post intravenous Gd-BOPTA MR imaging is useful for :
(A) Arterial phase imaging
(B) Combined arterial and portal venous phase images
(C) Arterial, venous and late hepatocyte phase imaging
(D) Late hepatocyte phase imaging only
Ans: C
47. Pneumobilia is not seen in :
(A) Gall stone ileus (B) Post sphincterotomy (C) Old age (D) Necrotizing entero colitis
Ans: D
48. Central dot sign is seen in :
(A) Carolis disease (B) Focal nodular hyperplasia (C) Liver hydatid (D) Hemangioma liver
Ans: A
49. Driven snow appearance is seen in :
(A) Cementoma (B) Caicifying odontogenic epithelial tumor (C) Frost bite (D) Adamantinoma
Ans: B
50. Tear drop sign is seen in :
(A) Fracture lacrimal bone (B) Injury to nasolacrimal duct (C) Blow out fracture floor of orbit (D) Scleral rupture
Ans: C
51. Gyral pattern of enhancement is not seen in contrast MR of :
(A) Cerebral infarction (B) Leptomeningeal metastasis (C) Sturge weber syndrome (D) Neurofibromatosis
Ans: D
52. Twin peak sign is seen in :
(A) Mono chorionic mono amniotic twins (B) Di chorionic di amniotic twins (C) Mono chorionic di amniotic twins (D) Di chorionic mono amniotic twins
Ans: B
(A) Choroidal detachment (B) Choroidal hematoma (C) Choroidal melanoma (D) Retinal detachment
Ans: C
27. IVP showing “egg in spoon” appearance is diagnostic of :
(A) PUJ obstruction (B) Horse shoe kidney (C) Medullary sponge kidney (D) Renal papillary necrosis
Ans: D
28. “Apple on string” heart is seen in :
(A) Persistent truncus (B) Ebsteins anomaly (C) TAPVD (D) Transposition of great arteries
Ans: D
29. Chest radiograph in a SLE patient is unlikely to reveal :
(A) Interstitial fibrosis (B) Pleural effusion (C) Elevated diaphragm (D) Pneumonitis
Ans: A
30. Steeple sign is seen in :
(A) Caustic stricture esophagus (B) Laryngeal hemangioma (C) Croup (D) Epiglottitis
Ans: C
31. False statement regarding lung hila in chest X-ray is :
(A) Eparterial bronchus seen on left side
(B) Left hilum is at a higher level
(C) Margin of hilum concave laterally
(D) Minor part of hilar shadow is formed by bronchus
Ans: A
32. Tree in bud sign is classically seen in :
(A) Pulmonary TB (B) Bronchiectasis (C) Emphysema (D) Silicosis
Ans: A
33. Crescent sign in chest radiograph is seen in :
(A) Unruptured lung hydatid (B) Pulmonary gangrene (C) Dermoid cyst (D) Wegeners granulomatosis
Ans: B
34. Reverse bat wing appearance is seen in :
(A) Pulmonary edema (B) Following clearance of pulmonary edema (C) Lupus pneumonitis (D) Eosinophilic pneumonitis
Ans: D
35. Enlargement of skull is not seen in :
(A) Adrenoleukodystrophy (B) Alexanders disease (C) Canavans disease (D) Hurlers disease
Ans: A
36. Humming bird appearance in MR brain is seen in :
(A) Huntingtons disease (B) Progressive supranuclear palsy (C) Multisystem atrophy (D) Wilsons disease
Ans: B
37. Anode rotating speed in x-ray tube is :
(A) 30,000 RPM (B) 300 RPM (C) 3000 RPM (D) 5000 RPM
Ans: C
38. Best radiologic investigation for local staging of ca rectum is :
(A) Transrectal ultrasound (B) MD CT (C) PET scanning (D) MRI
Ans: D
39. Intraluminal T1 bright signal in gall bladder is not seen in :
(A) Adenomyosis of Gb (B) Pigment stones (C) Biliary sludge (D) Fasting state bile
Ans: A
40. Pine tree bladder is seen in :
(A) Augmentation cystoplasty (B) Tuberculosis (C) Neurogenic bladder (D) Cystitis glandularis
Ans: C
41. String of beads appearance in renal angiogram is seen in :
(A) Poly arteritis nodosa (B) Fibromuscular dysplasia (C) Renal AV fistula (D) Aneurysm of renal artery
Ans: B
42. Iodinated contrast hexabrix is :
(A) Non ionic dimer (B) Ionic monomer (C) Ionic dimer (D) Non ionic monomer
Ans: C
43. Napkin ring lesion is seen in :
(A) Amoebic ulcer (B) Diverticular disease (C) Ulcerative colitis (D) Ca colon
Ans: D
44. Pearl necklace sign in MR imaging is seen in :
(A) Adenomyomatosis of gall bladder (B) Array of intraductal CBD stones (C) Gall stones (D) Chronic cholecystitis
Ans: A
45. CT Densitometry is useful in :
(A) Otitis media (B) Osteopetrosis (C) Otosclerosis (D) Oto mycosis
Ans: C
46. Post intravenous Gd-BOPTA MR imaging is useful for :
(A) Arterial phase imaging
(B) Combined arterial and portal venous phase images
(C) Arterial, venous and late hepatocyte phase imaging
(D) Late hepatocyte phase imaging only
Ans: C
47. Pneumobilia is not seen in :
(A) Gall stone ileus (B) Post sphincterotomy (C) Old age (D) Necrotizing entero colitis
Ans: D
48. Central dot sign is seen in :
(A) Carolis disease (B) Focal nodular hyperplasia (C) Liver hydatid (D) Hemangioma liver
Ans: A
49. Driven snow appearance is seen in :
(A) Cementoma (B) Caicifying odontogenic epithelial tumor (C) Frost bite (D) Adamantinoma
Ans: B
50. Tear drop sign is seen in :
(A) Fracture lacrimal bone (B) Injury to nasolacrimal duct (C) Blow out fracture floor of orbit (D) Scleral rupture
Ans: C
51. Gyral pattern of enhancement is not seen in contrast MR of :
(A) Cerebral infarction (B) Leptomeningeal metastasis (C) Sturge weber syndrome (D) Neurofibromatosis
Ans: D
52. Twin peak sign is seen in :
(A) Mono chorionic mono amniotic twins (B) Di chorionic di amniotic twins (C) Mono chorionic di amniotic twins (D) Di chorionic mono amniotic twins
Ans: B
53. Maximum permissible radiation in a pregnancy
(A) 0.1 msv (B) 1 msv
(C) 10 msv (D) 100 msv
Ans: B
54. The purpose of rotating anode is to spread the
(A) Radiation (B) Heat
(C) Electrons (D) Protons
Ans: B
55. Left hilum is
(A) Higher level than right (B) Lower level than right
(C) Denser than right (D) Lucent than right
Ans: A
56. Most widely used transduces material in USG is
(A) Barium sulphate (B) Lead zirconate titanate
(C) Lanthanum sulphide (D) Gadolinium oxide
Ans: B
57. Slip ring technology is used in
(A) CT (B) MRI
(C) USG (D) SPECT
Ans: A
58. Step absent in automatic processing
(A) Washing (B) Drying
(C) Rinsing (D) Fixing
Ans: C
59. Low KVP is used in
(A) Barium enema (B) Mammography
(C) DSA (D) CT angiography
Ans: B
60. PD in MRI stands for
(A) Proton density (B) Peripheral density
(C) Proton dosimeter (D) Proton dimension
Ans: A
61. BMFT contraindicated in
(A) Large bowel obstruction (B) Small bowel obstruction
(C) Ulcerative colitis (D) Crohn’s disease
Ans: A
62. MR spectroscopy details on the tissue
(A) Blood flow (B) Perfusion
(C) Biochemistry (D) Anatomy
Ans: C
63. The best view for the speniod sinus is
(A) Caldwell view (B) Waters view
(C) Basal view (D) Lateral view
Ans: D
64. SNR in MRI is increased by improving
(A) Resolution (B) Bandwidth
(C) Acquisition time (D) Gradient strength
Ans: C
65. Collimation results in
(A) Increased radiation exposure to the patient
(B) Increased scatter within the patient
(C) Improved tissue contrast
(D) Improved quantum mottle
Ans: C
66. The most important physical process responsible for tissue contrast in CT imaging is
(A) Coherent scatter (B) Photoelectric absorption
(C) Incoherent scatter (D) Characteristic X-ray production
Ans: B
67. The major technical challenge in cardiac CT is
(A) Spatial resolution (B) Temporal resolution
(C) Contrast resolution (D) Three-dimensional reconstruction
Ans: B
68. In X-ray imaging, noise is determined by
(A) Energy of X-rays hitting the detector
(B) Number of X-rays hitting the detector
(C) Tissue contrast
(D) Amount of scatter hitting the detector
Ans: B
69. Tissue contrast is generated by what type of interaction ?
(A) Rayleigh scatter (B) Compton scatter
(C) Photoelectric effect (D) Overall attenuation
Ans: C
70. False statement regarding patellar views :
(A) In Hughston method patient is prone with 55 degree knee flexion.
(B) Settegast is prone with 90 degree flexion.
(C) Standard sunrise view is better than mountain view to demonstrate patellar
subluxation.
(D) Vertical fracture are best identified in sunrise view.
Ans: C
71. False statement regarding Film processing
(A) In a developing solution hydroquinone act faster than phenindion.
(B) Preservatives in a developing solution prevent both internal and external oxidation.
(C) Sodium carbonate and sodium hydroxide are accelerators.
(D) In manual processing film remains for 3-5 minute depending on temperature of
solution.
Ans: A
72. X-ray artefacts false is
(A) Suppression of grid lining by moving grids high line rates
(B) Plexi glass used for positioning causes attenuating difference in the image
(C) Latent image in CR is due to incomplete erasure of previous image
(D) Back scatter through the back of detectors fixed by less shielding attached to back of
Detectors
Ans: D
73. True in silver recovery
(A) Used fixer solution contains high concentration of silver
(B) Metallic replacement is in expensive
(C) Electrolytic method yields pure silver
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
74. Regarding radiation safety false statement is
(A) larger the dose shorter will be the latent period.
(B) reducing exposure time by one half reduces the dose received by one half.
(C) transparent plates of thick plastics can be used for shielding beta particles.
(D) absorbed dose 1 Gy is equal to 100 J of absorbed energy / KG of matter.
Ans: D
75. Maximum patient radiation is seen in
(A) CT abdomen (B) CT chest
(C) Barium enema (D) PET CT
Ans: D
76. Barium is used in diagnostic radiology – False statement is
(A) Low atomic number (B) Inert
(C) Non-toxic (D) Non-absorbable
Ans: A
77. DSA stands for
(A) Digital Substraction Angiography (B) Direct Substraction Angiography
(C) Dual Substraction Angiography (D) Direct Substitution Angiography
Ans: A
78. 10 day rule is applicable in
(A) MRI (B) USG
(C) HSG (D) Doppler
Ans: C
79. ALARA is used in the context of
(A) MRI safety (B) Radiation safety
(C) USG safety (D) None of the above
Ans: B
80. Double sided film is used in
(A) CT (B) MRI
(C) CR (D) Conventional
Ans: D
81. Used to decrease scattered radiation
(A) Grid (B) Air gap technique
(C) Both (D) None
Ans: C
82. Centering in Chest PA is at which spinous process :
(A) T7 (B) T6
(C) T1 (D) T3
Ans: A
83. Percentage of barium used for BMFT is
(A) 25 (B) 10
(C) 50 (D) 20
Ans: C
84. Safe light is seen in
(A) DARK room (B) CT room
(C) MRI room (D) DSA room
Ans: A
85. View for petrous bone is
(A) Waters (B) Caldwell
(C) Towns (D) Stenvers
Ans: D
86. Organ most sensitive for radiation is
(A) Testis (B) Kidney
(C) Heart (D) Brain
Ans: A
87. The maximum field of view which can be obtained with a specific radiographic system is
generally limited by the :
(A) Focal spot size (B) Anode size
(C) Anode angle (D) Heel effect
Ans: C
88. The maximum MA which can be used for a single radiographic exposure is related to al except :
(A) KV (B) Exposure time
(C) Focal spot size (D) Heel effect
Ans: D
89. The primary X-ray beam penetration through a patient can be increased by increasing all except :
(A) KV (B) MAS
(C) Filtration (D) Beam area
Ans: C
90. Melting point of tungsten is
(A) 3400 °C (B) 340 °C
(C) 34 °C (D) 34000 °C
Ans: A
91. Relatively low KV values are used in some X-ray procedures for the purpose of
(A) increasing penetration (B) increasing contrast sensitivity
(C) decreasing patient exposure (D) decreasing area contrast
Ans: B
92. Grid is used in all, except :
(A) LS spine lateral (B) Skull lateral
(C) Scaphoid oblique (D) C spine lateral
Ans: C
93. If you change from a low ratio to a high ratio grid you would expect :
(A) A decrease in patient exposure
(B) An increase in image contrast
(C) An increase in grid X-ray penetration
(D) Positioning to be less critical
Ans: B
94. Voltage of safe light is
(A) 15 (B) 55
(C) 75 (D) 115
Ans: A
95. Sensitivity speck is related to
(A) USG (B) MRI
(C) X-ray film (D) All of the above
Ans: C
96. The thickness of an intensifying screen has a significant effect on all, except :
(A) Image contrast (B) Image blurring
(C) Receptor sensitivity (D) Patient exposure
Ans: A
97. Unit of MRI is
(A) Decibel (B) Hertz
(C) Honsefield (D) Tesla
Ans: D
98. Developer solution contains
(A) Sodium alum (B) Thiosulphate
(C) Silver halide (D) Phenindione
Ans: D
99. All are radiation monitoring devices
(A) Film badge (B) TLD
(C) None (D) Both
Ans: D
100. HSG is done to assess
(A) Ureters (B) Urethra
(C) Uterus (D) Urachus
Ans: C
(A) 0.1 msv (B) 1 msv
(C) 10 msv (D) 100 msv
Ans: B
54. The purpose of rotating anode is to spread the
(A) Radiation (B) Heat
(C) Electrons (D) Protons
Ans: B
55. Left hilum is
(A) Higher level than right (B) Lower level than right
(C) Denser than right (D) Lucent than right
Ans: A
56. Most widely used transduces material in USG is
(A) Barium sulphate (B) Lead zirconate titanate
(C) Lanthanum sulphide (D) Gadolinium oxide
Ans: B
57. Slip ring technology is used in
(A) CT (B) MRI
(C) USG (D) SPECT
Ans: A
58. Step absent in automatic processing
(A) Washing (B) Drying
(C) Rinsing (D) Fixing
Ans: C
59. Low KVP is used in
(A) Barium enema (B) Mammography
(C) DSA (D) CT angiography
Ans: B
60. PD in MRI stands for
(A) Proton density (B) Peripheral density
(C) Proton dosimeter (D) Proton dimension
Ans: A
61. BMFT contraindicated in
(A) Large bowel obstruction (B) Small bowel obstruction
(C) Ulcerative colitis (D) Crohn’s disease
Ans: A
62. MR spectroscopy details on the tissue
(A) Blood flow (B) Perfusion
(C) Biochemistry (D) Anatomy
Ans: C
63. The best view for the speniod sinus is
(A) Caldwell view (B) Waters view
(C) Basal view (D) Lateral view
Ans: D
64. SNR in MRI is increased by improving
(A) Resolution (B) Bandwidth
(C) Acquisition time (D) Gradient strength
Ans: C
65. Collimation results in
(A) Increased radiation exposure to the patient
(B) Increased scatter within the patient
(C) Improved tissue contrast
(D) Improved quantum mottle
Ans: C
66. The most important physical process responsible for tissue contrast in CT imaging is
(A) Coherent scatter (B) Photoelectric absorption
(C) Incoherent scatter (D) Characteristic X-ray production
Ans: B
67. The major technical challenge in cardiac CT is
(A) Spatial resolution (B) Temporal resolution
(C) Contrast resolution (D) Three-dimensional reconstruction
Ans: B
68. In X-ray imaging, noise is determined by
(A) Energy of X-rays hitting the detector
(B) Number of X-rays hitting the detector
(C) Tissue contrast
(D) Amount of scatter hitting the detector
Ans: B
69. Tissue contrast is generated by what type of interaction ?
(A) Rayleigh scatter (B) Compton scatter
(C) Photoelectric effect (D) Overall attenuation
Ans: C
70. False statement regarding patellar views :
(A) In Hughston method patient is prone with 55 degree knee flexion.
(B) Settegast is prone with 90 degree flexion.
(C) Standard sunrise view is better than mountain view to demonstrate patellar
subluxation.
(D) Vertical fracture are best identified in sunrise view.
Ans: C
71. False statement regarding Film processing
(A) In a developing solution hydroquinone act faster than phenindion.
(B) Preservatives in a developing solution prevent both internal and external oxidation.
(C) Sodium carbonate and sodium hydroxide are accelerators.
(D) In manual processing film remains for 3-5 minute depending on temperature of
solution.
Ans: A
72. X-ray artefacts false is
(A) Suppression of grid lining by moving grids high line rates
(B) Plexi glass used for positioning causes attenuating difference in the image
(C) Latent image in CR is due to incomplete erasure of previous image
(D) Back scatter through the back of detectors fixed by less shielding attached to back of
Detectors
Ans: D
73. True in silver recovery
(A) Used fixer solution contains high concentration of silver
(B) Metallic replacement is in expensive
(C) Electrolytic method yields pure silver
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
74. Regarding radiation safety false statement is
(A) larger the dose shorter will be the latent period.
(B) reducing exposure time by one half reduces the dose received by one half.
(C) transparent plates of thick plastics can be used for shielding beta particles.
(D) absorbed dose 1 Gy is equal to 100 J of absorbed energy / KG of matter.
Ans: D
75. Maximum patient radiation is seen in
(A) CT abdomen (B) CT chest
(C) Barium enema (D) PET CT
Ans: D
76. Barium is used in diagnostic radiology – False statement is
(A) Low atomic number (B) Inert
(C) Non-toxic (D) Non-absorbable
Ans: A
77. DSA stands for
(A) Digital Substraction Angiography (B) Direct Substraction Angiography
(C) Dual Substraction Angiography (D) Direct Substitution Angiography
Ans: A
78. 10 day rule is applicable in
(A) MRI (B) USG
(C) HSG (D) Doppler
Ans: C
79. ALARA is used in the context of
(A) MRI safety (B) Radiation safety
(C) USG safety (D) None of the above
Ans: B
80. Double sided film is used in
(A) CT (B) MRI
(C) CR (D) Conventional
Ans: D
81. Used to decrease scattered radiation
(A) Grid (B) Air gap technique
(C) Both (D) None
Ans: C
82. Centering in Chest PA is at which spinous process :
(A) T7 (B) T6
(C) T1 (D) T3
Ans: A
83. Percentage of barium used for BMFT is
(A) 25 (B) 10
(C) 50 (D) 20
Ans: C
84. Safe light is seen in
(A) DARK room (B) CT room
(C) MRI room (D) DSA room
Ans: A
85. View for petrous bone is
(A) Waters (B) Caldwell
(C) Towns (D) Stenvers
Ans: D
86. Organ most sensitive for radiation is
(A) Testis (B) Kidney
(C) Heart (D) Brain
Ans: A
87. The maximum field of view which can be obtained with a specific radiographic system is
generally limited by the :
(A) Focal spot size (B) Anode size
(C) Anode angle (D) Heel effect
Ans: C
88. The maximum MA which can be used for a single radiographic exposure is related to al except :
(A) KV (B) Exposure time
(C) Focal spot size (D) Heel effect
Ans: D
89. The primary X-ray beam penetration through a patient can be increased by increasing all except :
(A) KV (B) MAS
(C) Filtration (D) Beam area
Ans: C
90. Melting point of tungsten is
(A) 3400 °C (B) 340 °C
(C) 34 °C (D) 34000 °C
Ans: A
91. Relatively low KV values are used in some X-ray procedures for the purpose of
(A) increasing penetration (B) increasing contrast sensitivity
(C) decreasing patient exposure (D) decreasing area contrast
Ans: B
92. Grid is used in all, except :
(A) LS spine lateral (B) Skull lateral
(C) Scaphoid oblique (D) C spine lateral
Ans: C
93. If you change from a low ratio to a high ratio grid you would expect :
(A) A decrease in patient exposure
(B) An increase in image contrast
(C) An increase in grid X-ray penetration
(D) Positioning to be less critical
Ans: B
94. Voltage of safe light is
(A) 15 (B) 55
(C) 75 (D) 115
Ans: A
95. Sensitivity speck is related to
(A) USG (B) MRI
(C) X-ray film (D) All of the above
Ans: C
96. The thickness of an intensifying screen has a significant effect on all, except :
(A) Image contrast (B) Image blurring
(C) Receptor sensitivity (D) Patient exposure
Ans: A
97. Unit of MRI is
(A) Decibel (B) Hertz
(C) Honsefield (D) Tesla
Ans: D
98. Developer solution contains
(A) Sodium alum (B) Thiosulphate
(C) Silver halide (D) Phenindione
Ans: D
99. All are radiation monitoring devices
(A) Film badge (B) TLD
(C) None (D) Both
Ans: D
100. HSG is done to assess
(A) Ureters (B) Urethra
(C) Uterus (D) Urachus
Ans: C
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