PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION- PAGE 5
UPSC Public Administration MCQs
1. Felix Nigro points out four basic elements of similarity between the public and private administration. Which of the following is not among those four?
(A) Bureaucratic element
(B) Service and cost
(C) Concept of techniques of scientific management
(D) Human relation approach
Ans: B
2. Assertion (A): Theoretically, Minnowbrook Conference III represents both Simonesque and Waldonian perspectives.
Reason (R): Some were drawn to Economics, Organization theory and Management and others have appreciated frameworks and methods from Political Science, Sociology, Philosophy and History.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
3. Chester Barnard’s ‘Zone of Indifference’ represents which of the following?
(A) Those which will clearly be unacceptable and not obeyed.
(B) Those which are on neutral line.
(C) Those which are unquestionably acceptable.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: C
4. Which of the following is the ‘motivation factor’ in ‘Two Factor’ theory of Herzberg?
(A) Working condition
(B) Work itself
(C) Policy and Administration
(D) Interpersonal Relations
Ans: B
5. Who defined bureaucracy as “Organisation that cannot correct its behaviour by learning from its errors”?
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Robert Merton
(C) Max Weber
(D) M. Crozier
Ans: D
6. “Loss of freedom and humanity necessarily leads to loss of morality.” Who among the following held this view?
(A) Hegel
(B) Karl Marx
(C) V.I. Lenin
(D) Mao-Tse-Tung
Ans: B
7. Which of the following is not an approach of decentralization according to James W. Fester?
(A) Dual Role Approach
(B) Administrative Approach
(C) Productive or Business Approach
(D) Doctrinal Approach
Ans: C
8. Who of the following developed the concept of ‘Knowledge Worker’?
(A) F.J. Roethlisberger
(B) Rosamery O’Leary
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Anne Osborn Krueger
Ans: C
9. Assertion (A): Administrative Theory is marked by a plethora of competing schools, a polygot of languages and accordingly, a confusion of Logic.
Reason (R): Each competing school questions the others, adventurism is rampant and commonly accepted standards of control do not exist.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
10. Organization economic theory strives to ensure that worker interest coincides with organization’s interest which are embodied in organization’s owner. This idea is a part of which of following theory?
(A) Principal-agent Theory
(B) Maturity-Immaturity Theory
(C) Herzberg’s Two-factor Theory
(D) Contribution-Satisfaction Equilibrium Theory
Ans: A
11. Consider the following assumptions of Total Quality Management and select the correct answer by using codes given below:
(i) Quality focus
(ii) Continuous improvement
(iii) Top management commitment
(iv) Empowerment and team management
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
12. ‘The real fault that must be found with the principle of the unity of command is that it is incompatible with the principle of specialization.’ This view was expressed by
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Max Weber
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Peter Drucker
Ans: C
13. “Government isn’t the solution; Government is the problem”, who said it?
(A) George Washington
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) George W. Bush
(D) Ronald Reagan
Ans: D
14. Dwight Waldo in his book ‘The Administrative State’ has criticised which of the following?
(i) Notion of unchanging principles of organization.
(ii) Role of human emotions in organizational working.
(iii) Narrowness of values of economy and efficiency.
(iv) Inconsistencies in methodology used in determining the principles.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
15. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalist cum specialist administrators
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans: C
16. Which one of the following statements about Fast Stream in British Civil Service is not correct?
(A) It is a Talent Management Programme.
(B) It is both for graduates and non-graduates who have potential to become the future leaders.
(C) It is open to people from any academic discipline.
(D) It has five separate schemes in it.
Ans: B
17. Growth and significance of public and private sectors in a system is known as which of the following?
(A) Socialist Economy
(B) Mixed Economy
(C) Planned Economy
(D) Capitalist Economy
Ans: B
18. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission enjoys the rank of a
(A) Cabinet Minister
(B) Minister of State
(C) Deputy Minister
(D) Secretary to Government of India
Ans: A
19. The extent to which formally differentiated structure of a diffracted society co-exist with undifferentiated structure of a fused type is called by F.W. Riggs as
(A) Heterogeneity
(B) Formalism
(C) Overlapping
(D) Poly-communalism
Ans: C
20. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of additional courts (by a law passed by Parliament) for the better administration of law?
(A) Article 247
(B) Article 248
(C) Article 249
(D) Article 256
Ans: A
21. Which one of the following is not correct about International Bank for Reconstruction and Development?
(A) It was founded in 1944.
(B) It was founded to cater the financial needs of poorer countries.
(C) It promotes sustainable, equitable and job creating growth.
(D) It supports long term human and social development needs.
Ans: B
22. Which of the following countries are eligible to receive low interest or no interest loans and grants from International Development Association?
(i) India
(ii) Indonesia
(iii) Bangladesh
(iv) Pakistan
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
23. Which of the following is not related to Social Welfare Administration?
(A) Central Social Welfare Board
(B) National Commission for SCs and STs
(C) National Commission for Women
(D) National Human Rights Commission
Ans: D
24. Which one of the following is not associated with World Trade Organization?
(A) Uruguay Round
(B) Doha Development Agenda
(C) Bretton Wood System
(D) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
Ans: C
25. Assertion (A): Development administration requires administrative modernization.
Reason (R): Development administration requires creation of new administrative structures and reorientation of existing one to suit the needs of development programmes.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
26. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Type of Organisation) (Characteristics)
(a) Project Organisation (i) Existence of horizontal and diagonal relationship
(b) Matrix Organisation (ii) Facilitates co-operation team work and customer orientation
(c) Horizontal Organisation (iii) Independent unit having link with a web of other units
(d) Network Organisation (iv) Project organization plus a functional organisation
(v) Flexible to facilitate management change
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (v) (ii) (iii)
(C) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
Ans: B
27. Which of the following is the basis of influence in an informal organisation?
(A) Organisational position
(B) Person
(C) Authority
(D) Closeness with higher people
Ans: B
28. “Hierarchy is the linchpin that locks the form.” Who said it?
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Urwick and Gullick
(C) Mooney and Reiley
(D) Earl Latham
Ans: D
29. Which one of the following is not a method of co-ordination?
(A) Planning
(B) Standardization of procedures
(C) Centralized house-keeping
(D) Inspection
Ans: D
30. “Bureaucracy is an organization that maximizes efficiency in administration or an institutional method of organized social conduct in the interest of administrative efficiency.” – Who has made this statement?
(A) Peter M. Blau
(B) Max Weber
(C) Thomson
(D) Alvin Gouldner
Ans: A
31. Which of the following are the characteristics of communication network, called grapevine in an organisation? Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(i) It is not controlled by management.
(ii) It is perceived by most employees as being more believable and reliable.
(iii) It is largely used to serve the organisational interest.
(iv) It is an important source of information.
Codes:
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(C) (ii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) & (iv)
Ans: D
32. The book ‘From Max Weber: Essays in Sociology’ was edited by –
(A) H.H. Hearth
(B) C.W. Mills
(C) Talcott Parsons and H.H. Hearth
(D) H.H. Hearth and C.W. Mills
Ans: C
33. Which among the following are major functions of line agency?
(i) Making decisions
(ii) To ensure that Chief Executive is adequately informed
(iii) Maintaining production
(iv) Taking responsibility
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv)
Ans: B
34. According to Kautilya’s ‘Arthasastra’ a King should avoid –
(i) Lust
(ii) Greed
(iii) Confrontation
(iv) Vanity
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
35. “Charismatic authority can be routinized so that it continues to exist even after the departure of charismatic leader.” Who said it?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Chester Bernard
(C) Max Weber
(D) Peter Blau
Ans: C
36. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Thinkers) (Ideas)
(a) Herbert Simon (i) Incrementalism
(b) Charles Lindbolm (ii) Black Box Model
(c) David Easton (iii) Art of Judgement
(d) Geoffrey Vickers (iv) Bounded Rationality
(v) Modified Rationalism
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
(D) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)
Ans: A
37. Who among the following has coined the term ‘Representative Bureaucracy’?
(A) Robert Merton
(B) Donald J. Kingsley
(C) F.M. Marx
(D) Herman Finer
Ans: B
38. Which one of the following is not M.P. Follett’s Criticism of Classical Theory?
(A) It treats organisation a closed system.
(B) It suffers from one-sidedness.
(C) It is mechanical in approach
(D) It ignores psychological aspects.
Ans: A
39. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Concepts) (Thinkers)
(a) Linking Pin Model (i) Rensis Likert
(b) Decision Tree (ii) Duncan
(c) Garbage Cane Model (iii) Alderfer
(d) ERG Theory (iv) Cohen, March and Olson
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: C
40. Who called the Scientific Management as ‘Physiological Organisation Theory’?
(A) Robert Hoxic
(B) Oliver Sheldon
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Simon and March
Ans: D
41. According to Elton Mayo, a worker’s performance is primarily related to
(A) The worker’s personality Variable
(B) Technological tools
(C) Interaction setting in an organization
(D) Socially acquired attitude of the worker in and outside of the factory.
Ans: C
42. Which of the following statements is/are linked to F.W. Taylor?
(i) Trade Unionism is unacceptable.
(ii) Scientific Management is mechanical.
(iii) Worker is a technical man.
(iv) Piece-rate wage plan is an unhealthy practice.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (i), (iii)
(D) (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
43. Assertion (A): Comparative Public Administration is productive and active in nature.
Reason (R): The idea of decline of Comparative Public Administration is premature, although Comparative Public Administration does not appear to have reached a critical point of development.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: B
44. According to Ferrel Heady, which of the following is not a feature of the administrative systems of the developing countries?
(A) Colonial legacy
(B) Lack of technical competence
(C) Formalism
(D) Operational autonomy
Ans: D
45. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of ‘Sala Model’?
(A) Institutional corruption
(B) Nepotism
(C) Formalism
(D) Actual behaviour is similar to formal expectations.
Ans: D
46. “Administration is the most obvious part of Government.” Who of the following made this statement?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) L.D. White
(D) Frank J. Goodnow
Ans: B
47. “The politics – administration dichotomy is a misleading distinction which has become a fetish, a stereotype in the minds of theorists and practitioners alike.” Who said this?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Carl J. Friedrich
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans: C
48. Which of the following is not the correct source of New Public Management?
(A) New Public Administration
(B) Public Choice Theory
(C) Managerialism
(D) Chicago School of Economics
Ans: A
49. Assertion (A): New Public Administration openly rejected the value neutrality.
Reason (R): Value neutrality in Public Administration is impossibility and the discipline should explicitly espouse the cause of the disadvantaged sections of the Society.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: B
50. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Books) (Authors)
(a) Administration: The Art and Science of Organisation and Management (i) Frank Marini
(b) Toward a New Public Administration: Minnow brook Perspective (ii) Jan-Erick- Lane
(c) Making Democracy Work (iii) Albert Lepawaski
(d) Public Administration and Public Management (iv) Robert D. Putnam
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Ans: B
(A) Bureaucratic element
(B) Service and cost
(C) Concept of techniques of scientific management
(D) Human relation approach
Ans: B
2. Assertion (A): Theoretically, Minnowbrook Conference III represents both Simonesque and Waldonian perspectives.
Reason (R): Some were drawn to Economics, Organization theory and Management and others have appreciated frameworks and methods from Political Science, Sociology, Philosophy and History.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
3. Chester Barnard’s ‘Zone of Indifference’ represents which of the following?
(A) Those which will clearly be unacceptable and not obeyed.
(B) Those which are on neutral line.
(C) Those which are unquestionably acceptable.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: C
4. Which of the following is the ‘motivation factor’ in ‘Two Factor’ theory of Herzberg?
(A) Working condition
(B) Work itself
(C) Policy and Administration
(D) Interpersonal Relations
Ans: B
5. Who defined bureaucracy as “Organisation that cannot correct its behaviour by learning from its errors”?
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Robert Merton
(C) Max Weber
(D) M. Crozier
Ans: D
6. “Loss of freedom and humanity necessarily leads to loss of morality.” Who among the following held this view?
(A) Hegel
(B) Karl Marx
(C) V.I. Lenin
(D) Mao-Tse-Tung
Ans: B
7. Which of the following is not an approach of decentralization according to James W. Fester?
(A) Dual Role Approach
(B) Administrative Approach
(C) Productive or Business Approach
(D) Doctrinal Approach
Ans: C
8. Who of the following developed the concept of ‘Knowledge Worker’?
(A) F.J. Roethlisberger
(B) Rosamery O’Leary
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Anne Osborn Krueger
Ans: C
9. Assertion (A): Administrative Theory is marked by a plethora of competing schools, a polygot of languages and accordingly, a confusion of Logic.
Reason (R): Each competing school questions the others, adventurism is rampant and commonly accepted standards of control do not exist.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
10. Organization economic theory strives to ensure that worker interest coincides with organization’s interest which are embodied in organization’s owner. This idea is a part of which of following theory?
(A) Principal-agent Theory
(B) Maturity-Immaturity Theory
(C) Herzberg’s Two-factor Theory
(D) Contribution-Satisfaction Equilibrium Theory
Ans: A
11. Consider the following assumptions of Total Quality Management and select the correct answer by using codes given below:
(i) Quality focus
(ii) Continuous improvement
(iii) Top management commitment
(iv) Empowerment and team management
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
12. ‘The real fault that must be found with the principle of the unity of command is that it is incompatible with the principle of specialization.’ This view was expressed by
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Max Weber
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Peter Drucker
Ans: C
13. “Government isn’t the solution; Government is the problem”, who said it?
(A) George Washington
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) George W. Bush
(D) Ronald Reagan
Ans: D
14. Dwight Waldo in his book ‘The Administrative State’ has criticised which of the following?
(i) Notion of unchanging principles of organization.
(ii) Role of human emotions in organizational working.
(iii) Narrowness of values of economy and efficiency.
(iv) Inconsistencies in methodology used in determining the principles.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
15. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalist cum specialist administrators
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans: C
16. Which one of the following statements about Fast Stream in British Civil Service is not correct?
(A) It is a Talent Management Programme.
(B) It is both for graduates and non-graduates who have potential to become the future leaders.
(C) It is open to people from any academic discipline.
(D) It has five separate schemes in it.
Ans: B
17. Growth and significance of public and private sectors in a system is known as which of the following?
(A) Socialist Economy
(B) Mixed Economy
(C) Planned Economy
(D) Capitalist Economy
Ans: B
18. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission enjoys the rank of a
(A) Cabinet Minister
(B) Minister of State
(C) Deputy Minister
(D) Secretary to Government of India
Ans: A
19. The extent to which formally differentiated structure of a diffracted society co-exist with undifferentiated structure of a fused type is called by F.W. Riggs as
(A) Heterogeneity
(B) Formalism
(C) Overlapping
(D) Poly-communalism
Ans: C
20. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of additional courts (by a law passed by Parliament) for the better administration of law?
(A) Article 247
(B) Article 248
(C) Article 249
(D) Article 256
Ans: A
21. Which one of the following is not correct about International Bank for Reconstruction and Development?
(A) It was founded in 1944.
(B) It was founded to cater the financial needs of poorer countries.
(C) It promotes sustainable, equitable and job creating growth.
(D) It supports long term human and social development needs.
Ans: B
22. Which of the following countries are eligible to receive low interest or no interest loans and grants from International Development Association?
(i) India
(ii) Indonesia
(iii) Bangladesh
(iv) Pakistan
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
23. Which of the following is not related to Social Welfare Administration?
(A) Central Social Welfare Board
(B) National Commission for SCs and STs
(C) National Commission for Women
(D) National Human Rights Commission
Ans: D
24. Which one of the following is not associated with World Trade Organization?
(A) Uruguay Round
(B) Doha Development Agenda
(C) Bretton Wood System
(D) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
Ans: C
25. Assertion (A): Development administration requires administrative modernization.
Reason (R): Development administration requires creation of new administrative structures and reorientation of existing one to suit the needs of development programmes.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
26. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Type of Organisation) (Characteristics)
(a) Project Organisation (i) Existence of horizontal and diagonal relationship
(b) Matrix Organisation (ii) Facilitates co-operation team work and customer orientation
(c) Horizontal Organisation (iii) Independent unit having link with a web of other units
(d) Network Organisation (iv) Project organization plus a functional organisation
(v) Flexible to facilitate management change
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (v) (ii) (iii)
(C) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
Ans: B
27. Which of the following is the basis of influence in an informal organisation?
(A) Organisational position
(B) Person
(C) Authority
(D) Closeness with higher people
Ans: B
28. “Hierarchy is the linchpin that locks the form.” Who said it?
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Urwick and Gullick
(C) Mooney and Reiley
(D) Earl Latham
Ans: D
29. Which one of the following is not a method of co-ordination?
(A) Planning
(B) Standardization of procedures
(C) Centralized house-keeping
(D) Inspection
Ans: D
30. “Bureaucracy is an organization that maximizes efficiency in administration or an institutional method of organized social conduct in the interest of administrative efficiency.” – Who has made this statement?
(A) Peter M. Blau
(B) Max Weber
(C) Thomson
(D) Alvin Gouldner
Ans: A
31. Which of the following are the characteristics of communication network, called grapevine in an organisation? Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(i) It is not controlled by management.
(ii) It is perceived by most employees as being more believable and reliable.
(iii) It is largely used to serve the organisational interest.
(iv) It is an important source of information.
Codes:
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(C) (ii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) & (iv)
Ans: D
32. The book ‘From Max Weber: Essays in Sociology’ was edited by –
(A) H.H. Hearth
(B) C.W. Mills
(C) Talcott Parsons and H.H. Hearth
(D) H.H. Hearth and C.W. Mills
Ans: C
33. Which among the following are major functions of line agency?
(i) Making decisions
(ii) To ensure that Chief Executive is adequately informed
(iii) Maintaining production
(iv) Taking responsibility
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv)
Ans: B
34. According to Kautilya’s ‘Arthasastra’ a King should avoid –
(i) Lust
(ii) Greed
(iii) Confrontation
(iv) Vanity
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
35. “Charismatic authority can be routinized so that it continues to exist even after the departure of charismatic leader.” Who said it?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Chester Bernard
(C) Max Weber
(D) Peter Blau
Ans: C
36. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Thinkers) (Ideas)
(a) Herbert Simon (i) Incrementalism
(b) Charles Lindbolm (ii) Black Box Model
(c) David Easton (iii) Art of Judgement
(d) Geoffrey Vickers (iv) Bounded Rationality
(v) Modified Rationalism
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
(D) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)
Ans: A
37. Who among the following has coined the term ‘Representative Bureaucracy’?
(A) Robert Merton
(B) Donald J. Kingsley
(C) F.M. Marx
(D) Herman Finer
Ans: B
38. Which one of the following is not M.P. Follett’s Criticism of Classical Theory?
(A) It treats organisation a closed system.
(B) It suffers from one-sidedness.
(C) It is mechanical in approach
(D) It ignores psychological aspects.
Ans: A
39. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Concepts) (Thinkers)
(a) Linking Pin Model (i) Rensis Likert
(b) Decision Tree (ii) Duncan
(c) Garbage Cane Model (iii) Alderfer
(d) ERG Theory (iv) Cohen, March and Olson
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: C
40. Who called the Scientific Management as ‘Physiological Organisation Theory’?
(A) Robert Hoxic
(B) Oliver Sheldon
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Simon and March
Ans: D
41. According to Elton Mayo, a worker’s performance is primarily related to
(A) The worker’s personality Variable
(B) Technological tools
(C) Interaction setting in an organization
(D) Socially acquired attitude of the worker in and outside of the factory.
Ans: C
42. Which of the following statements is/are linked to F.W. Taylor?
(i) Trade Unionism is unacceptable.
(ii) Scientific Management is mechanical.
(iii) Worker is a technical man.
(iv) Piece-rate wage plan is an unhealthy practice.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (i), (iii)
(D) (iii), (iv)
Ans: C
43. Assertion (A): Comparative Public Administration is productive and active in nature.
Reason (R): The idea of decline of Comparative Public Administration is premature, although Comparative Public Administration does not appear to have reached a critical point of development.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: B
44. According to Ferrel Heady, which of the following is not a feature of the administrative systems of the developing countries?
(A) Colonial legacy
(B) Lack of technical competence
(C) Formalism
(D) Operational autonomy
Ans: D
45. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of ‘Sala Model’?
(A) Institutional corruption
(B) Nepotism
(C) Formalism
(D) Actual behaviour is similar to formal expectations.
Ans: D
46. “Administration is the most obvious part of Government.” Who of the following made this statement?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) L.D. White
(D) Frank J. Goodnow
Ans: B
47. “The politics – administration dichotomy is a misleading distinction which has become a fetish, a stereotype in the minds of theorists and practitioners alike.” Who said this?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Carl J. Friedrich
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans: C
48. Which of the following is not the correct source of New Public Management?
(A) New Public Administration
(B) Public Choice Theory
(C) Managerialism
(D) Chicago School of Economics
Ans: A
49. Assertion (A): New Public Administration openly rejected the value neutrality.
Reason (R): Value neutrality in Public Administration is impossibility and the discipline should explicitly espouse the cause of the disadvantaged sections of the Society.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: B
50. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Books) (Authors)
(a) Administration: The Art and Science of Organisation and Management (i) Frank Marini
(b) Toward a New Public Administration: Minnow brook Perspective (ii) Jan-Erick- Lane
(c) Making Democracy Work (iii) Albert Lepawaski
(d) Public Administration and Public Management (iv) Robert D. Putnam
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Ans: B
51. Which one of the following is optimal model of policy-making according to Y. Dror?
(A) Pure Rational Model
(B) Incremental Model
(C) Economically Rational and Extra-rational Model
(D) Pure Rational and Economically Rational Model
Ans: C
52. Assertion (A): Public administration theorists, instead of political scientists, dominate the rationalist approach to policymaking and implementation.
Reason (R): New Public Management lays emphasis on the deeper role of public agencies in managing and delivery of public services.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
53. Put the following stages of rational policy planning process in the sequential order:
(i) Appraisal
(ii) Formulation of alternative courses of action
(iii) Discerning problem
(iv) Review
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: C
54. Which of the following are the definitional elements of public policy?
(i) Declaration of goals
(ii) Proposed course of action
(iii) A declaration of general purpose
(iv) An authoritative decision
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (ii)
Ans: A
55. Which one of the following makes provisions for social security?
(A) Indian Contract Act
(B) Maternity Benefit Act
(C) Indian Industries Act
(D) Indian Companies Act
Ans: B
56. Policy analysis is concerned with
(A) Finding out the impact of policy
(B) Intuitive judgments about the effects of policy
(C) Prescription of policy rather than explanation of policy
(D) Finding out the contents of policy rather than the search for causes and consequences
Ans: A
57. Assertion (A): The role of the national planning agency in the formulation of fundamental social and economic policies is gradually diminishing.
Reason (R): Policies are now taking shape in a greater degree from debates in Parliament and from the play of new social and political forces within the community.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
58. Which is not a part of the Telecom Sector reforms in India?
(A) Corporatisation of telecom services.
(B) Grant of autonomy to Bharat Sanchar Nigam.
(C) Introduction of regulation.
(D) Adjusting to intellectual property regime.
Ans: D
59. Which one of the following is correct regarding ‘economic and social planning’?
(A) It is included in Union List.
(B) It is a part of the State List.
(C) It is incorporated in Concurrent List.
(D) It is not in any of the above stated lists.
Ans: C
60. Which of the following is known as the third sector of Indian economy?
(A) Public Sector
(B) Co-operatives
(C) Private Sector
(D) Joint Sector
Ans: B
61. Global Constitutionalism has impacted India’s economic policy in which of the following ways?
(i) It has led to liberalisation of trade.
(ii) It led to the introduction of competition in both the public and private sectors of economy.
(iii) It led to encouragement to FDI.
(iv) It led to adoption of the policy of privatisation.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv) and (ii)
Ans: C
62. The Panchayati Raj Divas (Day) in India is celebrated on
(A) 21st April
(B) 24th April
(C) 2nd October
(D) 14th November
Ans: B
63. Lord Ripon’s Resolution on ‘Local- Self Government’ was adopted on
(A) 18th April, 1882
(B) 18th June, 1882
(C) 18th May, 1882
(D) 18th December, 1882
Ans: C
64. Which one of the following is not included in Eleventh Schedule of Constitution of India?
(A) Planning for economic and social development
(B) Non-conventional energy sources
(C) Poverty alleviation programme
(D) Technical training and vocational education
Ans: A
65. Which of the following is/are the recommendations of P.K. Thungon Committee?
(i) Fixed term of 5 years for Panchayati Raj Bodies.
(ii) The Panchayati Raj Bodies should not remain superseded for more than six months.
(iii) District Collector should be made the CEO of the Zila Parishad.
(iv) Setting up of State Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only
Ans: A
66. Which one of the following has prescribed a local Government led, community wide and participatory effort to establish a comprehensive action strategy for environmental protection, economic prosperity and community well being in the local jurisdiction?
(A) UN Millennium Development Goals
(B) Local Agenda 21
(C) World Urbanisation Prospects 2001
(D) An Urbanizing World: Global Report on Human Settlements
Ans: B
67. Assertion (A): Civil society organisations promote participative democratic practices.
Reason (R): The salient feature of participative democracy is the presence of a large number of voluntary agencies.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
68. MNREGA is a programme that is
(i) open to social audit
(ii) implemented by the Gram Panchayat at the village level
(iii) implemented by the village development officer and Gram Panchayat at the village level
(iv) meant for all unskilled able bodied persons desirous to seek work
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
69. Assertion (A): Rural Development Programmes suffer from lack of effective monitoring and evaluation.
Reason (R): Rural Development Administration is deficient in professionalism and have multiplicity of authorities.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
70. Arrange the following in a chronological order:
(i) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
(ii) National Commission on Urbanisation
(iii) Taxation Inquiry Committee
(iv) Local Finance Inquiry Committee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Ans: C
71. Rural Development means:
(i) Provision of social services
(ii) Improving infrastructure facilities
(iii) Providing economic help to the individuals and groups for self employment
(iv) Capacity building of rural local government
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
72. Arrange the following programmes for rural development in a sequence and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Intensive Area Development Scheme
(ii) Tribal Area Development Programme
(iii) Drought-prone Area Programme
(iv) Command Area Development Programme
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
Ans: B
73. National Capital Region Planning Board is
(A) Statutory Body
(B) Created by an executive order
(C) Established by the Planning Commission
(D) Created by the Ministry of Urban Development under judicial direction
Ans: A
74. The Community Development Programme was started on the recommendation of
(A) Krishnamachari Committee
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
Ans: A
75. Which of the following statements are correct about the rural cooperatives?
(i) They are schools of social dialogue and democracy.
(ii) They are based on the values of self-help and self responsibility.
(iii) They can transform survival type of activities into legally protected and productive work.
(iv) Their members are generally both producers and beneficiaries.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
76. Which one of the following concept is not developed by Peter Drucker?
(A) Generic Management
(B) The concept of Transactional Influence
(C) Management by Objectives
(D) Knowledge Worker
Ans: B
77. Who among the following rejected the principle of unity of command?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) F.W. Taylor
(C) Henry Fayol
(D) Presthus
Ans: B
78. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Job-centric supervisor in the scheme of Rensis Likert?
(A) He exerts heavy pressure on worker for work.
(B) He shows confidence in subordinates.
(C) He allows little freedom to subordinates.
(D) He helps subordinates when mistakes occur.
Ans: D
79. Which one is not among the four systems of management or leadership styles given by Rensis Likert?
(A) Exploitative authoritative
(B) Benevolent authoritative
(C) Constructive
(D) Participative (Democratic)
Ans: C
80. Which theory considers personality, motives, values and skills as attributes of leadership?
(A) Trait theory
(B) Behavioural theory
(C) Situational theory
(D) Contingency model
Ans: A
81. Yehezkel Dror refers ‘Meta Policy’ as
(A) Policy on policy making system
(B) Master policy
(C) Super policy
(D) Integrated policy
Ans: A
82. Which of the following is the part of executive office of the U.S. President?
(A) White House staff and office of Management and budget.
(B) White House staff and office of Personnel Management
(C) Office of Management and Budget and Federal Labour Relation Authority
(D) Office of Management and Budget and Office of Personnel Management
Ans: A
83. Who said the following words about comparative Public Administration “the theory of public administration applied to diverse cultures and national settings and the body of factual data by which it can be examined?”
(A) Robert A. Dahal
(B) Ferral Heady and S.L. Stokes
(C) William J. Siffin
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans: B
84. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Comments)
a. J.S. Mill i. Continental nuisance
b. Thomas Carlyle ii. Professional Governors of government
c. Dewey iii. Trained incapacity
d. Vablan iv. Occupational Psychosis
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i iv ii iii
Ans: A
85. There are many gaps in the organisation and operation of development programmes which are:
(i) Inadequate administrative planning
(ii) Traditional administrative practices
(iii) Procedural deficiencies
(iv) Lack of consciousness of achieving goals
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
86. Assertion (A): Bureaucracy seems to be an essential ingredient of modern civilization.
Reason (R): Bureaucracies are found in all large and complex organizations.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
87. “Development administration is concerned with maximizing innovation for development”. Who gave this definition?
(A) John Montgomery
(B) Edward Weidner
(C) F.W. Riggs
(D) Han Been Lee
Ans: B
88. “Improvement in the effectiveness of development administration depends on the quality and training of public servants who man it and on a social and political environment which liberates their energies.” Who of the following made this statement?
(A) J.N. Khosla
(B) Merle Fainsod
(C) Irving Swerdlow
(D) F.W. Riggs
Ans: B
89. Assertion (A): The community development programme was launched to secure total development of material and human resources of rural areas.
Reason (R): It was realised while implementing the programme that social change is not possible unless the efforts are people centred and involvement of people in their development is not ensured.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
90. Which of the following is/are the roles of Gram Sabha in the areas covered under Panchayats Extension to the Scheduled Areas as PESA Act, 1996?
(i) Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the scheduled areas.
(ii) Gram sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
(iii) Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting licence or mining lease for any minerals in the scheduled areas.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
91. According to 2nd ARC, task of delimitation and reservation of constituencies for local governments should be entrusted to
(A) National Election Commission
(B) State Election Commission
(C) Union Parliament
(D) State Legislature
Ans: B
92. The planning departments of the Development Authorities should be merged with District Planning Committee and Metropolitan Planning Committees. This recommendation was made by
(A) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(B) Dantewala Committee
(C) K. Santhanum Committee
(D) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans: B
93. The principle of subsidiarity is related to
(A) Assigning more financial powers from centre to states.
(B) Devolution of functions to Panchayats to make them function as an institution of self-government.
(C) Delegation of authority within an organization
(D) Delegation of authority outside the organisation
Ans: B
94. Which one of the following is not included in the Twelveth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(A) Planning for economic and social development
(B) Water supply
(C) Technical training and vocational education
(D) Safeguarding the interest of weaker sections
Ans: C
95. Assertion (A): Zila Parishad is vested with planning and development functions.
Reason (R): District traditionally has been recognised as the administrative unit required performing the related functions.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
96. The major concerns of Public Administration discipline is/are
(i) Absorption of the principles of democracy.
(ii) Policy sensitivity
(iii) Innovative, proactive and risk taking administration
(iv) Coping capacity of administration and government to face modern challenges.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
97. Frederick Taylor noticed a phenomenon of workers, purposely operating below their capacity and called it
(A) Skiving
(B) Lack of standards of work
(C) Unscientific decision making
(D) Failure of management to design jobs
Ans: A
98. A formal organization
(i) Grows and expands
(ii) Is deliberately impersonal
(iii) Forces the members of the group to observe the common rules
(iv) Relationship created by the organization structure is to be honoured by everyone.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
99. Arrange Elton Mayo’s experiments in a chronological sequence. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) First Inquiry
(ii) Human Attitudes and Sentiments
(iii) The Great Illumination
(iv) Absenteeism in the Industries
(v) Social organisation
Codes:
(A) (i), (iv), (v), (iii) and (ii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) and (v)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii), (v) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Ans: C
100. Which of the following statements about Simon’s view of rationality is correct?
(A) Rationality is uni-dimensional.
(B) Simon propounds the concept of total rationality.
(C) Every decision maker has unlimited knowledge about alternatives.
(D) Rationality is limited by the skills, values, and purpose and knowledge levels of the decision maker.
Ans: D
(A) Pure Rational Model
(B) Incremental Model
(C) Economically Rational and Extra-rational Model
(D) Pure Rational and Economically Rational Model
Ans: C
52. Assertion (A): Public administration theorists, instead of political scientists, dominate the rationalist approach to policymaking and implementation.
Reason (R): New Public Management lays emphasis on the deeper role of public agencies in managing and delivery of public services.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
53. Put the following stages of rational policy planning process in the sequential order:
(i) Appraisal
(ii) Formulation of alternative courses of action
(iii) Discerning problem
(iv) Review
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: C
54. Which of the following are the definitional elements of public policy?
(i) Declaration of goals
(ii) Proposed course of action
(iii) A declaration of general purpose
(iv) An authoritative decision
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (ii)
Ans: A
55. Which one of the following makes provisions for social security?
(A) Indian Contract Act
(B) Maternity Benefit Act
(C) Indian Industries Act
(D) Indian Companies Act
Ans: B
56. Policy analysis is concerned with
(A) Finding out the impact of policy
(B) Intuitive judgments about the effects of policy
(C) Prescription of policy rather than explanation of policy
(D) Finding out the contents of policy rather than the search for causes and consequences
Ans: A
57. Assertion (A): The role of the national planning agency in the formulation of fundamental social and economic policies is gradually diminishing.
Reason (R): Policies are now taking shape in a greater degree from debates in Parliament and from the play of new social and political forces within the community.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
58. Which is not a part of the Telecom Sector reforms in India?
(A) Corporatisation of telecom services.
(B) Grant of autonomy to Bharat Sanchar Nigam.
(C) Introduction of regulation.
(D) Adjusting to intellectual property regime.
Ans: D
59. Which one of the following is correct regarding ‘economic and social planning’?
(A) It is included in Union List.
(B) It is a part of the State List.
(C) It is incorporated in Concurrent List.
(D) It is not in any of the above stated lists.
Ans: C
60. Which of the following is known as the third sector of Indian economy?
(A) Public Sector
(B) Co-operatives
(C) Private Sector
(D) Joint Sector
Ans: B
61. Global Constitutionalism has impacted India’s economic policy in which of the following ways?
(i) It has led to liberalisation of trade.
(ii) It led to the introduction of competition in both the public and private sectors of economy.
(iii) It led to encouragement to FDI.
(iv) It led to adoption of the policy of privatisation.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv) and (ii)
Ans: C
62. The Panchayati Raj Divas (Day) in India is celebrated on
(A) 21st April
(B) 24th April
(C) 2nd October
(D) 14th November
Ans: B
63. Lord Ripon’s Resolution on ‘Local- Self Government’ was adopted on
(A) 18th April, 1882
(B) 18th June, 1882
(C) 18th May, 1882
(D) 18th December, 1882
Ans: C
64. Which one of the following is not included in Eleventh Schedule of Constitution of India?
(A) Planning for economic and social development
(B) Non-conventional energy sources
(C) Poverty alleviation programme
(D) Technical training and vocational education
Ans: A
65. Which of the following is/are the recommendations of P.K. Thungon Committee?
(i) Fixed term of 5 years for Panchayati Raj Bodies.
(ii) The Panchayati Raj Bodies should not remain superseded for more than six months.
(iii) District Collector should be made the CEO of the Zila Parishad.
(iv) Setting up of State Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only
Ans: A
66. Which one of the following has prescribed a local Government led, community wide and participatory effort to establish a comprehensive action strategy for environmental protection, economic prosperity and community well being in the local jurisdiction?
(A) UN Millennium Development Goals
(B) Local Agenda 21
(C) World Urbanisation Prospects 2001
(D) An Urbanizing World: Global Report on Human Settlements
Ans: B
67. Assertion (A): Civil society organisations promote participative democratic practices.
Reason (R): The salient feature of participative democracy is the presence of a large number of voluntary agencies.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
68. MNREGA is a programme that is
(i) open to social audit
(ii) implemented by the Gram Panchayat at the village level
(iii) implemented by the village development officer and Gram Panchayat at the village level
(iv) meant for all unskilled able bodied persons desirous to seek work
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
69. Assertion (A): Rural Development Programmes suffer from lack of effective monitoring and evaluation.
Reason (R): Rural Development Administration is deficient in professionalism and have multiplicity of authorities.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
70. Arrange the following in a chronological order:
(i) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
(ii) National Commission on Urbanisation
(iii) Taxation Inquiry Committee
(iv) Local Finance Inquiry Committee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Ans: C
71. Rural Development means:
(i) Provision of social services
(ii) Improving infrastructure facilities
(iii) Providing economic help to the individuals and groups for self employment
(iv) Capacity building of rural local government
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
72. Arrange the following programmes for rural development in a sequence and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Intensive Area Development Scheme
(ii) Tribal Area Development Programme
(iii) Drought-prone Area Programme
(iv) Command Area Development Programme
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
Ans: B
73. National Capital Region Planning Board is
(A) Statutory Body
(B) Created by an executive order
(C) Established by the Planning Commission
(D) Created by the Ministry of Urban Development under judicial direction
Ans: A
74. The Community Development Programme was started on the recommendation of
(A) Krishnamachari Committee
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
Ans: A
75. Which of the following statements are correct about the rural cooperatives?
(i) They are schools of social dialogue and democracy.
(ii) They are based on the values of self-help and self responsibility.
(iii) They can transform survival type of activities into legally protected and productive work.
(iv) Their members are generally both producers and beneficiaries.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
76. Which one of the following concept is not developed by Peter Drucker?
(A) Generic Management
(B) The concept of Transactional Influence
(C) Management by Objectives
(D) Knowledge Worker
Ans: B
77. Who among the following rejected the principle of unity of command?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) F.W. Taylor
(C) Henry Fayol
(D) Presthus
Ans: B
78. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Job-centric supervisor in the scheme of Rensis Likert?
(A) He exerts heavy pressure on worker for work.
(B) He shows confidence in subordinates.
(C) He allows little freedom to subordinates.
(D) He helps subordinates when mistakes occur.
Ans: D
79. Which one is not among the four systems of management or leadership styles given by Rensis Likert?
(A) Exploitative authoritative
(B) Benevolent authoritative
(C) Constructive
(D) Participative (Democratic)
Ans: C
80. Which theory considers personality, motives, values and skills as attributes of leadership?
(A) Trait theory
(B) Behavioural theory
(C) Situational theory
(D) Contingency model
Ans: A
81. Yehezkel Dror refers ‘Meta Policy’ as
(A) Policy on policy making system
(B) Master policy
(C) Super policy
(D) Integrated policy
Ans: A
82. Which of the following is the part of executive office of the U.S. President?
(A) White House staff and office of Management and budget.
(B) White House staff and office of Personnel Management
(C) Office of Management and Budget and Federal Labour Relation Authority
(D) Office of Management and Budget and Office of Personnel Management
Ans: A
83. Who said the following words about comparative Public Administration “the theory of public administration applied to diverse cultures and national settings and the body of factual data by which it can be examined?”
(A) Robert A. Dahal
(B) Ferral Heady and S.L. Stokes
(C) William J. Siffin
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans: B
84. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Comments)
a. J.S. Mill i. Continental nuisance
b. Thomas Carlyle ii. Professional Governors of government
c. Dewey iii. Trained incapacity
d. Vablan iv. Occupational Psychosis
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) i iv ii iii
Ans: A
85. There are many gaps in the organisation and operation of development programmes which are:
(i) Inadequate administrative planning
(ii) Traditional administrative practices
(iii) Procedural deficiencies
(iv) Lack of consciousness of achieving goals
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
86. Assertion (A): Bureaucracy seems to be an essential ingredient of modern civilization.
Reason (R): Bureaucracies are found in all large and complex organizations.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
87. “Development administration is concerned with maximizing innovation for development”. Who gave this definition?
(A) John Montgomery
(B) Edward Weidner
(C) F.W. Riggs
(D) Han Been Lee
Ans: B
88. “Improvement in the effectiveness of development administration depends on the quality and training of public servants who man it and on a social and political environment which liberates their energies.” Who of the following made this statement?
(A) J.N. Khosla
(B) Merle Fainsod
(C) Irving Swerdlow
(D) F.W. Riggs
Ans: B
89. Assertion (A): The community development programme was launched to secure total development of material and human resources of rural areas.
Reason (R): It was realised while implementing the programme that social change is not possible unless the efforts are people centred and involvement of people in their development is not ensured.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
90. Which of the following is/are the roles of Gram Sabha in the areas covered under Panchayats Extension to the Scheduled Areas as PESA Act, 1996?
(i) Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the scheduled areas.
(ii) Gram sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
(iii) Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting licence or mining lease for any minerals in the scheduled areas.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
91. According to 2nd ARC, task of delimitation and reservation of constituencies for local governments should be entrusted to
(A) National Election Commission
(B) State Election Commission
(C) Union Parliament
(D) State Legislature
Ans: B
92. The planning departments of the Development Authorities should be merged with District Planning Committee and Metropolitan Planning Committees. This recommendation was made by
(A) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(B) Dantewala Committee
(C) K. Santhanum Committee
(D) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans: B
93. The principle of subsidiarity is related to
(A) Assigning more financial powers from centre to states.
(B) Devolution of functions to Panchayats to make them function as an institution of self-government.
(C) Delegation of authority within an organization
(D) Delegation of authority outside the organisation
Ans: B
94. Which one of the following is not included in the Twelveth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(A) Planning for economic and social development
(B) Water supply
(C) Technical training and vocational education
(D) Safeguarding the interest of weaker sections
Ans: C
95. Assertion (A): Zila Parishad is vested with planning and development functions.
Reason (R): District traditionally has been recognised as the administrative unit required performing the related functions.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
96. The major concerns of Public Administration discipline is/are
(i) Absorption of the principles of democracy.
(ii) Policy sensitivity
(iii) Innovative, proactive and risk taking administration
(iv) Coping capacity of administration and government to face modern challenges.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: D
97. Frederick Taylor noticed a phenomenon of workers, purposely operating below their capacity and called it
(A) Skiving
(B) Lack of standards of work
(C) Unscientific decision making
(D) Failure of management to design jobs
Ans: A
98. A formal organization
(i) Grows and expands
(ii) Is deliberately impersonal
(iii) Forces the members of the group to observe the common rules
(iv) Relationship created by the organization structure is to be honoured by everyone.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: B
99. Arrange Elton Mayo’s experiments in a chronological sequence. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) First Inquiry
(ii) Human Attitudes and Sentiments
(iii) The Great Illumination
(iv) Absenteeism in the Industries
(v) Social organisation
Codes:
(A) (i), (iv), (v), (iii) and (ii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) and (v)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii), (v) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Ans: C
100. Which of the following statements about Simon’s view of rationality is correct?
(A) Rationality is uni-dimensional.
(B) Simon propounds the concept of total rationality.
(C) Every decision maker has unlimited knowledge about alternatives.
(D) Rationality is limited by the skills, values, and purpose and knowledge levels of the decision maker.
Ans: D