POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS- PAGE 5
Political Science & International Relations MCQs
1. Which among the following is correct regarding the decline of Political theory?
(A) Historicism
(B) Hyper factualism
(C) Moral relativism
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
2. Who among the following is not an exponent of contextualism?
(A) Skinner
(B) Pocock
(C) Winch
(D) Wittgenstein
Ans: D
3. Who amongst the following is a defender of Plato?
(A) Popper
(B) Crossman
(C) Berlin
(D) Levinson
Ans: D
4. Who defines citizen as sharing “in the civic life of ruling and being ruled in turn”?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Polybius
(D) Cicero
Ans: B
5. Amongst the following whose political theory is based on nominalism?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Green
Ans: A
6. John Locke’s ‘Two Treatises on Civil Government is a critique of
(A) Hobbes
(B) Filmer
(C) Grotius
(D) Diggers
Ans: B
7. Which among the following is correct?
General Will refers to
(A) My Own Real Will
(B) Group Mind
(C) A common me
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
8. Who among the following thought of human beings as ‘home faber’?
(A) St. Simon
(B) Guizot
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Sismondi
Ans: C
9. Who among the following says that the workers do not spontaneously become socialists, but only trade unionists, and revolutionary ideology must in consequence be brought to them by professional revolutionaries?
(A) Marx
(B) M.N. Roy
(C) Mao
(D) Lenin
Ans: D
10. Which among the following is correct so far as Aurobindo beliefs are concerned?
(A) Belief that his education and talent belong to God which could not be utilised for personal happiness alone.
(B) His resolve that he would not merely repeat the name of God, but have direct realisation of Him.
(C) His conviction that he did not regard the country as an inert object, but as the Mother.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: D
11. Who among the following criticized Marxian theory of surplus value?
(A) Savarkar
(B) M.N. Roy
(C) Aurobindo
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans: B
12. Who among the following said: “Those who say that religion has nothing to do with politics do not know what religion means”?
(A) Aurobindo
(B) M.K. Gandhi
(C) Subhas Bose
(D) M.N. Roy
Ans: B
13. Identify the correct sequence of the books written by F.A. Hayek
(i) Rules and Order
(ii) The Mirage of Social Justice
(iii) The Constitution of Liberty
(iv) The Road to Serfdom
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Ans: C
14. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. M. Sandel i. The Restructuring of Social and Political theory
b. M. Waltzer ii. Contemporary Political Philosophy
c. W. Kymlicka iii. Spheres of Justice: A Defence of Pluralism and Equality
d. R.J. Bernstein iv. Liberalism and the Limits of Justice
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: B
15. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Great Political theories, originated as Sabine put it, in the interstices of Political and Social crises.
Reason (R): There is no disinterested political theory.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
16. According to Almond and Verba the individuals, in a parochial culture have low
(A) Cognitive Orientation about the Political System, its leaders and operation.
(B) Affective Orientation about the system, its leaders and operation.
(C) Evaluative orientation about the system, its leaders and operation.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: D
17. The ‘Block Vote System’ is also known as
(A) First-past-the-post system
(B) Limited vote system
(C) Proportional representation
(D) List system
Ans: A
18. In the American Presidential election, in case no candidate secures the required majority, the decision is referred to the
(A) Electorate
(B) Electoral college
(C) Senate
(D) House of Representatives
Ans: D
19. According to S.P. Huntigton Political Development takes place when
(A) Mass Mobilisation and Participation is greater than Institutionalisation.
(B) Mass Mobilisation and Participation is lesser than Institutionalisation.
(C) There is rigidity in the Institutions.
(D) There is no generational change in Institutions.
Ans: B
20. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Model)
a. Party Identification Model i. linking voting behaviour to group membership.
b. Sociological Model ii. Voting a national actor.
c. National Choice Model iii. Voting shaped by process of ideological manipulation.
d. Dominant Ideology Model iv. Psychological attachment of people to political parties.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: C
21. The concept of Unified and divided government was invented in the U.S.A. Divided Government means
(i) That the Presidency is held by one party and Senate of the Congress is controlled by the other party.
(ii) That the Presidency is held by one party the House of Representative of the congress is held by the other party.
(iii) That the Presidency is held by one party and both the chambers of Congress are controlled by the other party.
(iv) That the Presidency and both the chambers of congress are under the control of same party.
Select the correct answer from the following codes:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
22. Who among the following regards political development as political modernization plus institutionalization?
(A) Almond
(B) Helio Jaquaribe
(C) Cyril Black
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
23. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Schools of Modernization) (Writers)
a. Psychological School i. Daniel Lerner
b. Structural School ii. G.A. Almond
c. Normative School iii. Sheldon Wolin
d. Post-modernist School iv. Lyotard
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: A
24. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Walter Rodney i. Theories of Under development and Development
b. Geoffray Kay ii. How Europe Under developed Africa
c. Ronald H. Chilcote iii. Development and under development: A Marxist Analysis
d. Joseph Schumpeter iv. Imperialism: Social classes
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) ii iii i iv
Ans: D
25. The pressure groups – the National Council of Churches and the Anti-Saloon League are in
(A) The United States of America
(B) The United Kingdom
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
Ans: A
26. Name the variety of motives that can underpin the decision to join interest groups provided by James Wilson.
(i) Instrumental
(ii) Purposive
(iii) Expressive
(iv) Selective Incentives
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: C
27. Who of the following makes a distinction between liberal constitutionalism and Democratic disorder?
(A) Francis Fukuyama
(B) Theda Skocpol
(C) B.F. Skinner
(D) Fareed Zakaria
Ans: B
28. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Pre-occupations with faction and pressure groups. i. Robert Dahl
b. Managerial Revolution ii. Burnham
c. Participatory Democracy iii. Pateman
d. Instrumentalist theory of the state iv. Miliband
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: A
29. Which of the following are the features of the list system of voting?
(i) The Constituencies are both single and multi-member ones.
(ii) The Constituencies are only multi-member ones.
(iii) The voters vote for the individual candidates.
(iv) Parties put up a panel of candidates for election.
Select the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) are correct.
(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
30. Assertion (A): Lucian Pye identified three key ingredients of Political development as equality, capacity and differentiation.
Reason (R): High level of differentiation leads to development and capacity building.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
31. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Prime Minister) (Tenure of the Prime Minister)
a. I.K. Gujral i. 16 May 1996 – 1 June 1996
b. A.B. Vajpayee ii. 21 April 1997 – 18 March 1998
c. H.D. Deve Gowda iii. 10 November 1990 – 21 June, 1991
d. Chandra Shekhar iv. 1 June, 1996 – 20 April, 1997
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) i iii iv ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Ans: B
32. Which of the following is the correct sequence regarding the passage of the Budget?
1. Voting on Grants
2. General Discussion
3. Finance Bill
4. Appropriation Bill
Select the correct code from the following:
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 2, 4, 3
Ans: B
33. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood.
(B) Protection of language, script or culture of minorities.
(C) The state shall endeavour to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living and to improve public health.
(D) To develop cottage industries.
Ans: B
34. Assertion (A): The President of India is indirectly elected.
Reason (R): Under a Parliamentary system of Government, the head of State is only a nominal head.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
35. Assertion (A): Money bills originate only in the Lower House of the Parliament.
Reason (R): The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly elected body.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
36. Which one of the following committees, is an exclusive committee of Rajya Sabha?
(i) Committee on Subordinate Legislation.
(ii) Committee on Government Assurance.
(iii) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table.
(iv) Committee on Public Undertakings.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (iv), (iii), (ii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)
Ans: D
37. According to Article 170, the maximum members of the State Legislative Assemblies which are directly elected could be
(A) 403
(B) 485
(C) 484
(D) 500
Ans: D
38. Who is the editor/author of the book – “Politics and the State in India”?
(A) M.N. Srinivas
(B) Dharma Kumar
(C) Zoya Hasan
(D) Atul Kohli
Ans: C
39. Which of the following has been provided by the Indian Constitution?
(A) Religious education cannot be imparted in private educational institutions.
(B) In private religious institutions presence is not compulsory in religious education.
(C) In private religious institutions presence is compulsory in religious education.
(D) Religious education can be imparted in government educational institutions.
Ans: B
40. Which of the following is not a peasants’ movement?
(A) Kheda Movement
(B) Tabligh Movement
(C) Telangana Movement
(D) Tebhaga Movement
Ans: B
41. Which of the following phrase has been used by Bendict Anderson for Indian Nationalism?
(A) Polycentric Nationalism
(B) Ethnocentric Nationalism
(C) Imagined community
(D) Liberal Nationalism
Ans: C
42. Which of the following is Atul Kohli’s definition of the crisis of governability in India as
(i) The absence of enduring coalitions.
(ii) Policy ineffectiveness.
(iii) An incapacity to accommodate political conflict without violence.
(iv) Growing disjuncture between centralization and development.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: A
43. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Ideas)
a. Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph i. State is Chief allocator of resources and Chief facilitator among social groups.
b. Partha Chatterjee ii. Indian State embedded in group and class pluralism.
c. Frankel and MSA Rao iii. Over developed post-colonial state.
d. Hamza Alavi iv. Democratic politics split between public institutions and political institutions.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: C
44. Who pointed out that the western antonym of “secular” is “religious”. But in India, the antonym of “secular” is “communal”?
(A) T.N. Madan
(B) Rajeev Bhargav
(C) Ashis Nandy
(D) Thomas Pantham
Ans: D
45. Which one is not an element of the Secular State is India?
(A) Civil Equality.
(B) Freedom of Religion.
(C) No religious education by the State.
(D) Taxation on religious property.
Ans: D
46. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Seldon Oliver i. A power of Public Administration
b. Lepaworky Albert (ed.) ii. The Philosophy of Management
c. Ashok Chanda iii. Administration the Art and Science of Organisation and Management
d. Finer S.E. iv. Indian Administration
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii i ii iv
Ans: C
47. In India promotion cases of senior Civil Servants are decided by
(A) The Head Office
(B) The Departmental Promotion Committee
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Committee
Ans: D
48. Who among the following says that Public Administration includes the operations only of the executive branch of Government?
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) L.D. White
(C) W.F. Willoughby
(D) L.D. White and Luther Gulick
Ans: A
49. The concept of the “Zone of indifference” is associated with
(A) Motivation
(B) Authority
(C) Leadership
(D) Decision-making
Ans: B
50. Which of the following is a feature of Public Corporation?
(A) It enjoys complete administrative autonomy from the control from ministry.
(B) It has its own budget separate from National Budget.
(C) It has complete autonomy in the Management of funds.
(D) It enjoys the initiative of a Private Enterprise.
Ans: A
(A) Historicism
(B) Hyper factualism
(C) Moral relativism
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
2. Who among the following is not an exponent of contextualism?
(A) Skinner
(B) Pocock
(C) Winch
(D) Wittgenstein
Ans: D
3. Who amongst the following is a defender of Plato?
(A) Popper
(B) Crossman
(C) Berlin
(D) Levinson
Ans: D
4. Who defines citizen as sharing “in the civic life of ruling and being ruled in turn”?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Polybius
(D) Cicero
Ans: B
5. Amongst the following whose political theory is based on nominalism?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Green
Ans: A
6. John Locke’s ‘Two Treatises on Civil Government is a critique of
(A) Hobbes
(B) Filmer
(C) Grotius
(D) Diggers
Ans: B
7. Which among the following is correct?
General Will refers to
(A) My Own Real Will
(B) Group Mind
(C) A common me
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
8. Who among the following thought of human beings as ‘home faber’?
(A) St. Simon
(B) Guizot
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Sismondi
Ans: C
9. Who among the following says that the workers do not spontaneously become socialists, but only trade unionists, and revolutionary ideology must in consequence be brought to them by professional revolutionaries?
(A) Marx
(B) M.N. Roy
(C) Mao
(D) Lenin
Ans: D
10. Which among the following is correct so far as Aurobindo beliefs are concerned?
(A) Belief that his education and talent belong to God which could not be utilised for personal happiness alone.
(B) His resolve that he would not merely repeat the name of God, but have direct realisation of Him.
(C) His conviction that he did not regard the country as an inert object, but as the Mother.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: D
11. Who among the following criticized Marxian theory of surplus value?
(A) Savarkar
(B) M.N. Roy
(C) Aurobindo
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans: B
12. Who among the following said: “Those who say that religion has nothing to do with politics do not know what religion means”?
(A) Aurobindo
(B) M.K. Gandhi
(C) Subhas Bose
(D) M.N. Roy
Ans: B
13. Identify the correct sequence of the books written by F.A. Hayek
(i) Rules and Order
(ii) The Mirage of Social Justice
(iii) The Constitution of Liberty
(iv) The Road to Serfdom
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Ans: C
14. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. M. Sandel i. The Restructuring of Social and Political theory
b. M. Waltzer ii. Contemporary Political Philosophy
c. W. Kymlicka iii. Spheres of Justice: A Defence of Pluralism and Equality
d. R.J. Bernstein iv. Liberalism and the Limits of Justice
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: B
15. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Great Political theories, originated as Sabine put it, in the interstices of Political and Social crises.
Reason (R): There is no disinterested political theory.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
16. According to Almond and Verba the individuals, in a parochial culture have low
(A) Cognitive Orientation about the Political System, its leaders and operation.
(B) Affective Orientation about the system, its leaders and operation.
(C) Evaluative orientation about the system, its leaders and operation.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: D
17. The ‘Block Vote System’ is also known as
(A) First-past-the-post system
(B) Limited vote system
(C) Proportional representation
(D) List system
Ans: A
18. In the American Presidential election, in case no candidate secures the required majority, the decision is referred to the
(A) Electorate
(B) Electoral college
(C) Senate
(D) House of Representatives
Ans: D
19. According to S.P. Huntigton Political Development takes place when
(A) Mass Mobilisation and Participation is greater than Institutionalisation.
(B) Mass Mobilisation and Participation is lesser than Institutionalisation.
(C) There is rigidity in the Institutions.
(D) There is no generational change in Institutions.
Ans: B
20. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Model)
a. Party Identification Model i. linking voting behaviour to group membership.
b. Sociological Model ii. Voting a national actor.
c. National Choice Model iii. Voting shaped by process of ideological manipulation.
d. Dominant Ideology Model iv. Psychological attachment of people to political parties.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: C
21. The concept of Unified and divided government was invented in the U.S.A. Divided Government means
(i) That the Presidency is held by one party and Senate of the Congress is controlled by the other party.
(ii) That the Presidency is held by one party the House of Representative of the congress is held by the other party.
(iii) That the Presidency is held by one party and both the chambers of Congress are controlled by the other party.
(iv) That the Presidency and both the chambers of congress are under the control of same party.
Select the correct answer from the following codes:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: C
22. Who among the following regards political development as political modernization plus institutionalization?
(A) Almond
(B) Helio Jaquaribe
(C) Cyril Black
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
23. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Schools of Modernization) (Writers)
a. Psychological School i. Daniel Lerner
b. Structural School ii. G.A. Almond
c. Normative School iii. Sheldon Wolin
d. Post-modernist School iv. Lyotard
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iii ii iv i
Ans: A
24. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Walter Rodney i. Theories of Under development and Development
b. Geoffray Kay ii. How Europe Under developed Africa
c. Ronald H. Chilcote iii. Development and under development: A Marxist Analysis
d. Joseph Schumpeter iv. Imperialism: Social classes
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) ii iii i iv
Ans: D
25. The pressure groups – the National Council of Churches and the Anti-Saloon League are in
(A) The United States of America
(B) The United Kingdom
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
Ans: A
26. Name the variety of motives that can underpin the decision to join interest groups provided by James Wilson.
(i) Instrumental
(ii) Purposive
(iii) Expressive
(iv) Selective Incentives
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: C
27. Who of the following makes a distinction between liberal constitutionalism and Democratic disorder?
(A) Francis Fukuyama
(B) Theda Skocpol
(C) B.F. Skinner
(D) Fareed Zakaria
Ans: B
28. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Pre-occupations with faction and pressure groups. i. Robert Dahl
b. Managerial Revolution ii. Burnham
c. Participatory Democracy iii. Pateman
d. Instrumentalist theory of the state iv. Miliband
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv i ii
Ans: A
29. Which of the following are the features of the list system of voting?
(i) The Constituencies are both single and multi-member ones.
(ii) The Constituencies are only multi-member ones.
(iii) The voters vote for the individual candidates.
(iv) Parties put up a panel of candidates for election.
Select the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) are correct.
(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
30. Assertion (A): Lucian Pye identified three key ingredients of Political development as equality, capacity and differentiation.
Reason (R): High level of differentiation leads to development and capacity building.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
31. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Prime Minister) (Tenure of the Prime Minister)
a. I.K. Gujral i. 16 May 1996 – 1 June 1996
b. A.B. Vajpayee ii. 21 April 1997 – 18 March 1998
c. H.D. Deve Gowda iii. 10 November 1990 – 21 June, 1991
d. Chandra Shekhar iv. 1 June, 1996 – 20 April, 1997
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) i iii iv ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Ans: B
32. Which of the following is the correct sequence regarding the passage of the Budget?
1. Voting on Grants
2. General Discussion
3. Finance Bill
4. Appropriation Bill
Select the correct code from the following:
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 2, 4, 3
Ans: B
33. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood.
(B) Protection of language, script or culture of minorities.
(C) The state shall endeavour to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living and to improve public health.
(D) To develop cottage industries.
Ans: B
34. Assertion (A): The President of India is indirectly elected.
Reason (R): Under a Parliamentary system of Government, the head of State is only a nominal head.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
35. Assertion (A): Money bills originate only in the Lower House of the Parliament.
Reason (R): The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly elected body.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
36. Which one of the following committees, is an exclusive committee of Rajya Sabha?
(i) Committee on Subordinate Legislation.
(ii) Committee on Government Assurance.
(iii) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table.
(iv) Committee on Public Undertakings.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (iv), (iii), (ii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)
Ans: D
37. According to Article 170, the maximum members of the State Legislative Assemblies which are directly elected could be
(A) 403
(B) 485
(C) 484
(D) 500
Ans: D
38. Who is the editor/author of the book – “Politics and the State in India”?
(A) M.N. Srinivas
(B) Dharma Kumar
(C) Zoya Hasan
(D) Atul Kohli
Ans: C
39. Which of the following has been provided by the Indian Constitution?
(A) Religious education cannot be imparted in private educational institutions.
(B) In private religious institutions presence is not compulsory in religious education.
(C) In private religious institutions presence is compulsory in religious education.
(D) Religious education can be imparted in government educational institutions.
Ans: B
40. Which of the following is not a peasants’ movement?
(A) Kheda Movement
(B) Tabligh Movement
(C) Telangana Movement
(D) Tebhaga Movement
Ans: B
41. Which of the following phrase has been used by Bendict Anderson for Indian Nationalism?
(A) Polycentric Nationalism
(B) Ethnocentric Nationalism
(C) Imagined community
(D) Liberal Nationalism
Ans: C
42. Which of the following is Atul Kohli’s definition of the crisis of governability in India as
(i) The absence of enduring coalitions.
(ii) Policy ineffectiveness.
(iii) An incapacity to accommodate political conflict without violence.
(iv) Growing disjuncture between centralization and development.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: A
43. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Ideas)
a. Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph i. State is Chief allocator of resources and Chief facilitator among social groups.
b. Partha Chatterjee ii. Indian State embedded in group and class pluralism.
c. Frankel and MSA Rao iii. Over developed post-colonial state.
d. Hamza Alavi iv. Democratic politics split between public institutions and political institutions.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) i ii iii iv
Ans: C
44. Who pointed out that the western antonym of “secular” is “religious”. But in India, the antonym of “secular” is “communal”?
(A) T.N. Madan
(B) Rajeev Bhargav
(C) Ashis Nandy
(D) Thomas Pantham
Ans: D
45. Which one is not an element of the Secular State is India?
(A) Civil Equality.
(B) Freedom of Religion.
(C) No religious education by the State.
(D) Taxation on religious property.
Ans: D
46. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Seldon Oliver i. A power of Public Administration
b. Lepaworky Albert (ed.) ii. The Philosophy of Management
c. Ashok Chanda iii. Administration the Art and Science of Organisation and Management
d. Finer S.E. iv. Indian Administration
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii i ii iv
Ans: C
47. In India promotion cases of senior Civil Servants are decided by
(A) The Head Office
(B) The Departmental Promotion Committee
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Committee
Ans: D
48. Who among the following says that Public Administration includes the operations only of the executive branch of Government?
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) L.D. White
(C) W.F. Willoughby
(D) L.D. White and Luther Gulick
Ans: A
49. The concept of the “Zone of indifference” is associated with
(A) Motivation
(B) Authority
(C) Leadership
(D) Decision-making
Ans: B
50. Which of the following is a feature of Public Corporation?
(A) It enjoys complete administrative autonomy from the control from ministry.
(B) It has its own budget separate from National Budget.
(C) It has complete autonomy in the Management of funds.
(D) It enjoys the initiative of a Private Enterprise.
Ans: A
51. According to David Nachmias and D.H. Rosenbloom, which one of the following is not a feature of participatory bureaucracy?
(A) Civil Service Associations to protect them from political tyranny.
(B) High level of social representativeness in a national bureaucracy.
(C) Participation of bureaucratic employees in decisions.
(D) Citizen participation in bureaucratic policy making
Ans: A
52. Who among the following introduced the concept of ‘Zone of Indifference’ in an organization?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Douglas McGregor
(C) Chester I. Barnard
(D) Chris Argyris
Ans: C
53. Taylor’s concept of Mental Revolution stands for
(A) Cooperation, Harmony and Restricted output
(B) Restricted output and Cooperation
(C) Harmony and Cooperation
(D) Economy, Cooperation and restricted output.
Ans: C
54. Which of the following committee recommended two-tier Panchayatiraj institutions?
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(C) R.R. Diwakar Committee
(D) L.M. Singhvi Committee
Ans: A
55. When was the Central Vigilance Commission set up by the Government of India?
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1967
(D) 1971
Ans: B
56. Arrange the following committees in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Kripalani Committee
(ii) Santhanam Committee
(iii) Tek Chand Committee
(iv) Vivian Bose Committee
Codes:
(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(C) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(D) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
Ans: D
57. Which of the following committees recommended Block Level Planning?
(A) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(C) L.N. Singhvi Committee
(D) Dantwala Committee
Ans: D
58. Which among the following is not a feature of Liberalisation?
(A) Deregulation
(B) Debureaucratisation
(C) Disinvestment
(D) Statisation
Ans: D
59. The institution of ‘Ombudsman’ was first introduced in
(A) Denmark
(B) UK
(C) Sweden
(D) Switzerland
Ans: C
60. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Talking about responsibility, Follett maintains that “the distinction between those who manage and those who are managed is somewhat fading.’
Reason (R): ‘Each individual function must be seen in terms of its interdependence with other functions’ in the organization.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
61. Which of the following was an important figure in the development of liberal perspectives on international politics?
(A) Thomas Hobbes
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Hans J. Morganthan
(D) Henry Kissinger
Ans: B
62. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Samuel P. Huntington (i) Retreat of the State
(b) Joseph Nye (ii) World Systems
(c) Susan Strange (iii) Clash of Civilizations
(d) Immanuel Wallerstein (iv) Soft Power
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Ans: A
63. The Bretton Woods Agreement
(A) led to a campaign to save the rainforest
(B) argues that the Soviet Union was a success of the unmixed economy
(C) led to the establishment of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(D) led to the establishment of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
Ans: C
64. According to many realists, how is international peace best secured?
(A) Concessions by peaceful States to powerful ones.
(B) A balance of power between States.
(C) Trying to spread democratic values throughout the world.
(D) A worldwide federation of States.
Ans: B
65. In the field of nuclear strategy what does MAD stand for?
(A) Missiles Are Dangerous
(B) Mammals Are Doomed
(C) Make America Die
(D) Mutually Assured Destruction
Ans: D
66. Who said the following, ‘War is Foreign Policy by other means”?
(A) Carl von Clausewitz
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte
(C) Quincy Wright
(D) Hugo Clausewitz
Ans: A
67. Non-alignment as India’s foreign policy meant
(A) neutrality
(B) equidistance between the three blocs during the cold war
(C) independence and judging each issue on its relevance to our national interest.
(D) interference into the internal affairs of other States.
Ans: C
68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): India is for nuclear disarmament at the global level and for a credible minimum deterrence at the regional level.
Reason (R): India’s nuclear policy has dual objectives.
Codes
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
69. What is the correct sequence of the following Ministers of External Affairs of India?
(i) S.M. Krishna
(ii) Atal. B. Vajpayee
(iii) Pranab Mukherjee
(iv) Swarna Singh
Arrange the following chronologically from who came first:
(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Ans: A
70. “Indira Doctrine” is considered an important aspect of India’s foreign policy for it defines
(A) The objectives of India’s foreign policy.
(B) It equates India’s security with that of the region and the predominance of India.
(C) India’s security is coterminous with the region and any interference of external powers is taken as a threat to India’s security.
(D) Doctrine enunciated by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi which was for the neighbours.
Ans: C
71. The United Nations Charter is mainly
(A) largely concerned with individual human rights.
(B) wholly concerned with the relationship between States.
(C) devoted to a wide range of subjects including peace, justice, freedom and economic and social rights.
(D) devoted to duties and rights of great, medium and small powers.
Ans: C
72. International society tradition is also known as the
(A) Anglo-American School of International Relations.
(B) English School of International Relations.
(C) European School of International Relations
(D) Alternative School of International Relations
Ans: B
73. The main purpose of the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord was
(A) India’s war against Tamils.
(B) India’s intention to partition Sri Lanka.
(C) To end the ethnic strife between the Sinhalese and Tamils.
(D) To legalise Tamil Militant groups.
Ans: C
74. The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) forum
(A) is part of a more general trend towards regional blocs?
(B) accounts for over half the world’s GDP
(C) has member states which include authoritarian regimes as well as democracies.
(D) All of the above are true.
Ans: D
75. The US approach to the Cold War was originally set out in
(A) The Nixon Doctrine
(B) The Marshall Plan
(C) The Monroe Doctrine
(D) The Truman Doctrine
Ans: D
76. Which of the following statements are correct about the Swiss Political System?
1. The Centre in Switzerland is more powerful than that of the U.S.A.
2. Swiss Government has right to military intervention in case of secession.
3. The residuary powers belong to the units.
4. Swiss political system is unitary.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 1, 2, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: C
77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Thinkers) (Concepts)
a. M. Focault i. Will to power
b. Steven Lukes ii. Bio power
c. Stewart Clegg iii. Radical view of power
d. F. Nietzche iv. Circuits of power
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) i iv iii ii
(D) ii iii iv i
Ans: D
78. Which one is not the attribute of one party system?
(A) Sectarian (Exclusive, regional, class, ideological) support.
(B) Closed, Authoritarian, Direct action, Repressive organization.
(C) Diffused, National integration, Community building, Mobilisation.
(D) Comprehensive, Clientele oriented, Pragmatic support.
Ans: D
79. Which of the following, according to Lucian Pye, are the crises of Political development?
1. Crisis of Identity
2. Crisis of Legitimacy
3. Crisis of Leadership
4. Crisis of Integrity
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 4
Ans: A
80. Match List-I with List-II. Select correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Elites) (Functions)
a. Current Political Elites i. Goal attainment
b. Economic Military, Scientific, Diplomatic Elites ii. Adaptation
c. Priest, Philosophers, Educators iii. Integration
d. Artists, Writers, top Actors iv. Pattern Maintenance
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: A
81. Who made the following statement in the Constituent Assembly in connection with the Amendment Procedure of the Constitution of India?
‘That while we want this Constitution to be solid and as permanent as a structure we can make it, nevertheless there is no permanence in Constitutions. … If you make anything rigid and permanent, you stop the Nation’s growth, the growth of a living, vital organic people’.
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans: B
82. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during National Emergency?
(A) Articles 14 and 15
(B) Articles 19 and 20
(C) Articles 21 and 22
(D) Articles 20 and 21
Ans: D
83. Who among the following called Jayaprakash Narain, Ram Manohar Lohia and other Socialists as Japanese agents during 1942 movement?
(A) Communist Party of India
(B) Akali Dal
(C) Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh
(D) Muslim League
Ans: A
84. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes.
Assertion (A): Caste system was an epitome of the traditional society, a ‘closed system’, where generation after generation of individuals did similar kinds of work and lived more or less similar kinds of lives.
Reason (R): Caste system encapsulated within it the features of a social structure and normative religious behaviour, and even provided a fairly comprehensive idea about the personal lives of individuals living in the Hindu Caste Society.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.
Ans: B
85. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes.
Assertion (A): Over the years, the Supreme Court of India has failed to demonstrate a commitment to preserving constitutional liberty, and expanding and protecting human rights.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court has played and continues to play a critical role in shaping India’s constitutional democracy far beyond that which the drafters of the Constitution envisaged or what courts in other countries play.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Ans: D
86. Which one of the following is not applicable to Public Interest Litigation?
(A) Constitutional obligation of the Judiciary towards the marginalised sections of society.
(B) Locus standi.
(C) Public spirited citizens can move the court on behalf of the poor.
(D) Judiciary overlooks a strict construction of procedural formalities in entertaining petitions.
Ans: B
87. Which among the following pertains to the sixty first Constitutional Amendment?
(A) Ninth Schedule
(B) Defection
(C) Amendment of Article 368
(D) Lowering of voting age
Ans: D
88. The Sikhs got special electorates in which of the following Acts?
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: C
89. Which of the following Committees of the Constituent Assembly was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru?
(A) Steering Committee
(B) Union Powers Committee
(C) Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities
(D) Provincial Constitution Committee
Ans: B
90. Who among the following developed the concept, ‘derivative discourse’?
(A) Ashish Nandy
(B) Partha Chatterjee
(C) Ashutosh Varshney
(D) Sudipta Kaviraj
Ans: B
91. MNREGA is not associated with which of the following?
(A) Providing Employment
Opportunities
(B) Reduction of poverty
(C) Preventing Distress Migration
(D) Agrarian crises
Ans: D
92. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
Commission/Committee Issues
a. Mahajan Commission i. Maharashtra- Karnataka Boundary Dispute
b. Sri Krishna Commission ii. Muslim Minority
c. Punchi Commission iii. Telengana/A.P.
d. Sachar Committee iv. Centre-State Relations
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv i iii ii
Ans: B
93. Who among the following first initiated the study of State Politics in India?
(A) Iqbal Narain
(B) Paul R. Brass
(C) Stanley Kochanak
(D) Myron Weiner
Ans: D
94. Which one of the following was the largest Opposition party in the Eighth Lok Sabha (1984)?
(A) Bhartiya Janata Party
(B) Communist Party of India
(C) Telugu Desam Party
(D) National Lok Dal
Ans: C
95. With which of the following States, was the Programme, Janmabhoomi associated?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: D
96. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Approach) (Characteristics)
a. Behavioural 1. Agrarian- Transition Industrialization
b. Bureaucratic 2. Administrative system as a subsystem of the society
c. Ecological 3. Analyses of human behavior in administrative settings
d. General Systems 4. Legal-Rational Authority
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans: B
97. Which of the following is concerned with the substantive functions of the Government?
(A) Staff Agency
(B) Line Agency
(C) Auxiliary Agency
(D) Staff and Auxiliary Agencies
Ans: B
98. Who among the following termed the four different bases of organization as four Ps?
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) L.D. White
(C) Henry Fayol
(D) Herbert Simon
Ans: A
99. The chief reason for delegation of authority from headquarters to field officers is to
(A) Facilitate decision-making at the local level.
(B) Inculcate skills in the field officers.
(C) Control the field office.
(D) Decongest the headquarters.
Ans: D
100. Which of the following are the characteristics of development administration?
1. Change-orientation
2. Client orientation
3. Citizen-participative orientation
4. Ecological perspective
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
(A) Civil Service Associations to protect them from political tyranny.
(B) High level of social representativeness in a national bureaucracy.
(C) Participation of bureaucratic employees in decisions.
(D) Citizen participation in bureaucratic policy making
Ans: A
52. Who among the following introduced the concept of ‘Zone of Indifference’ in an organization?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Douglas McGregor
(C) Chester I. Barnard
(D) Chris Argyris
Ans: C
53. Taylor’s concept of Mental Revolution stands for
(A) Cooperation, Harmony and Restricted output
(B) Restricted output and Cooperation
(C) Harmony and Cooperation
(D) Economy, Cooperation and restricted output.
Ans: C
54. Which of the following committee recommended two-tier Panchayatiraj institutions?
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(C) R.R. Diwakar Committee
(D) L.M. Singhvi Committee
Ans: A
55. When was the Central Vigilance Commission set up by the Government of India?
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1967
(D) 1971
Ans: B
56. Arrange the following committees in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Kripalani Committee
(ii) Santhanam Committee
(iii) Tek Chand Committee
(iv) Vivian Bose Committee
Codes:
(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(C) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(D) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
Ans: D
57. Which of the following committees recommended Block Level Planning?
(A) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(C) L.N. Singhvi Committee
(D) Dantwala Committee
Ans: D
58. Which among the following is not a feature of Liberalisation?
(A) Deregulation
(B) Debureaucratisation
(C) Disinvestment
(D) Statisation
Ans: D
59. The institution of ‘Ombudsman’ was first introduced in
(A) Denmark
(B) UK
(C) Sweden
(D) Switzerland
Ans: C
60. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Talking about responsibility, Follett maintains that “the distinction between those who manage and those who are managed is somewhat fading.’
Reason (R): ‘Each individual function must be seen in terms of its interdependence with other functions’ in the organization.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
61. Which of the following was an important figure in the development of liberal perspectives on international politics?
(A) Thomas Hobbes
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Hans J. Morganthan
(D) Henry Kissinger
Ans: B
62. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Samuel P. Huntington (i) Retreat of the State
(b) Joseph Nye (ii) World Systems
(c) Susan Strange (iii) Clash of Civilizations
(d) Immanuel Wallerstein (iv) Soft Power
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Ans: A
63. The Bretton Woods Agreement
(A) led to a campaign to save the rainforest
(B) argues that the Soviet Union was a success of the unmixed economy
(C) led to the establishment of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(D) led to the establishment of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
Ans: C
64. According to many realists, how is international peace best secured?
(A) Concessions by peaceful States to powerful ones.
(B) A balance of power between States.
(C) Trying to spread democratic values throughout the world.
(D) A worldwide federation of States.
Ans: B
65. In the field of nuclear strategy what does MAD stand for?
(A) Missiles Are Dangerous
(B) Mammals Are Doomed
(C) Make America Die
(D) Mutually Assured Destruction
Ans: D
66. Who said the following, ‘War is Foreign Policy by other means”?
(A) Carl von Clausewitz
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte
(C) Quincy Wright
(D) Hugo Clausewitz
Ans: A
67. Non-alignment as India’s foreign policy meant
(A) neutrality
(B) equidistance between the three blocs during the cold war
(C) independence and judging each issue on its relevance to our national interest.
(D) interference into the internal affairs of other States.
Ans: C
68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): India is for nuclear disarmament at the global level and for a credible minimum deterrence at the regional level.
Reason (R): India’s nuclear policy has dual objectives.
Codes
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: A
69. What is the correct sequence of the following Ministers of External Affairs of India?
(i) S.M. Krishna
(ii) Atal. B. Vajpayee
(iii) Pranab Mukherjee
(iv) Swarna Singh
Arrange the following chronologically from who came first:
(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Ans: A
70. “Indira Doctrine” is considered an important aspect of India’s foreign policy for it defines
(A) The objectives of India’s foreign policy.
(B) It equates India’s security with that of the region and the predominance of India.
(C) India’s security is coterminous with the region and any interference of external powers is taken as a threat to India’s security.
(D) Doctrine enunciated by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi which was for the neighbours.
Ans: C
71. The United Nations Charter is mainly
(A) largely concerned with individual human rights.
(B) wholly concerned with the relationship between States.
(C) devoted to a wide range of subjects including peace, justice, freedom and economic and social rights.
(D) devoted to duties and rights of great, medium and small powers.
Ans: C
72. International society tradition is also known as the
(A) Anglo-American School of International Relations.
(B) English School of International Relations.
(C) European School of International Relations
(D) Alternative School of International Relations
Ans: B
73. The main purpose of the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord was
(A) India’s war against Tamils.
(B) India’s intention to partition Sri Lanka.
(C) To end the ethnic strife between the Sinhalese and Tamils.
(D) To legalise Tamil Militant groups.
Ans: C
74. The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) forum
(A) is part of a more general trend towards regional blocs?
(B) accounts for over half the world’s GDP
(C) has member states which include authoritarian regimes as well as democracies.
(D) All of the above are true.
Ans: D
75. The US approach to the Cold War was originally set out in
(A) The Nixon Doctrine
(B) The Marshall Plan
(C) The Monroe Doctrine
(D) The Truman Doctrine
Ans: D
76. Which of the following statements are correct about the Swiss Political System?
1. The Centre in Switzerland is more powerful than that of the U.S.A.
2. Swiss Government has right to military intervention in case of secession.
3. The residuary powers belong to the units.
4. Swiss political system is unitary.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 1, 2, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: C
77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Thinkers) (Concepts)
a. M. Focault i. Will to power
b. Steven Lukes ii. Bio power
c. Stewart Clegg iii. Radical view of power
d. F. Nietzche iv. Circuits of power
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) i iv iii ii
(D) ii iii iv i
Ans: D
78. Which one is not the attribute of one party system?
(A) Sectarian (Exclusive, regional, class, ideological) support.
(B) Closed, Authoritarian, Direct action, Repressive organization.
(C) Diffused, National integration, Community building, Mobilisation.
(D) Comprehensive, Clientele oriented, Pragmatic support.
Ans: D
79. Which of the following, according to Lucian Pye, are the crises of Political development?
1. Crisis of Identity
2. Crisis of Legitimacy
3. Crisis of Leadership
4. Crisis of Integrity
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 4
Ans: A
80. Match List-I with List-II. Select correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Elites) (Functions)
a. Current Political Elites i. Goal attainment
b. Economic Military, Scientific, Diplomatic Elites ii. Adaptation
c. Priest, Philosophers, Educators iii. Integration
d. Artists, Writers, top Actors iv. Pattern Maintenance
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) ii i iv iii
Ans: A
81. Who made the following statement in the Constituent Assembly in connection with the Amendment Procedure of the Constitution of India?
‘That while we want this Constitution to be solid and as permanent as a structure we can make it, nevertheless there is no permanence in Constitutions. … If you make anything rigid and permanent, you stop the Nation’s growth, the growth of a living, vital organic people’.
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans: B
82. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during National Emergency?
(A) Articles 14 and 15
(B) Articles 19 and 20
(C) Articles 21 and 22
(D) Articles 20 and 21
Ans: D
83. Who among the following called Jayaprakash Narain, Ram Manohar Lohia and other Socialists as Japanese agents during 1942 movement?
(A) Communist Party of India
(B) Akali Dal
(C) Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh
(D) Muslim League
Ans: A
84. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes.
Assertion (A): Caste system was an epitome of the traditional society, a ‘closed system’, where generation after generation of individuals did similar kinds of work and lived more or less similar kinds of lives.
Reason (R): Caste system encapsulated within it the features of a social structure and normative religious behaviour, and even provided a fairly comprehensive idea about the personal lives of individuals living in the Hindu Caste Society.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.
Ans: B
85. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes.
Assertion (A): Over the years, the Supreme Court of India has failed to demonstrate a commitment to preserving constitutional liberty, and expanding and protecting human rights.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court has played and continues to play a critical role in shaping India’s constitutional democracy far beyond that which the drafters of the Constitution envisaged or what courts in other countries play.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Ans: D
86. Which one of the following is not applicable to Public Interest Litigation?
(A) Constitutional obligation of the Judiciary towards the marginalised sections of society.
(B) Locus standi.
(C) Public spirited citizens can move the court on behalf of the poor.
(D) Judiciary overlooks a strict construction of procedural formalities in entertaining petitions.
Ans: B
87. Which among the following pertains to the sixty first Constitutional Amendment?
(A) Ninth Schedule
(B) Defection
(C) Amendment of Article 368
(D) Lowering of voting age
Ans: D
88. The Sikhs got special electorates in which of the following Acts?
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(B) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: C
89. Which of the following Committees of the Constituent Assembly was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru?
(A) Steering Committee
(B) Union Powers Committee
(C) Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities
(D) Provincial Constitution Committee
Ans: B
90. Who among the following developed the concept, ‘derivative discourse’?
(A) Ashish Nandy
(B) Partha Chatterjee
(C) Ashutosh Varshney
(D) Sudipta Kaviraj
Ans: B
91. MNREGA is not associated with which of the following?
(A) Providing Employment
Opportunities
(B) Reduction of poverty
(C) Preventing Distress Migration
(D) Agrarian crises
Ans: D
92. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
Commission/Committee Issues
a. Mahajan Commission i. Maharashtra- Karnataka Boundary Dispute
b. Sri Krishna Commission ii. Muslim Minority
c. Punchi Commission iii. Telengana/A.P.
d. Sachar Committee iv. Centre-State Relations
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv i iii ii
Ans: B
93. Who among the following first initiated the study of State Politics in India?
(A) Iqbal Narain
(B) Paul R. Brass
(C) Stanley Kochanak
(D) Myron Weiner
Ans: D
94. Which one of the following was the largest Opposition party in the Eighth Lok Sabha (1984)?
(A) Bhartiya Janata Party
(B) Communist Party of India
(C) Telugu Desam Party
(D) National Lok Dal
Ans: C
95. With which of the following States, was the Programme, Janmabhoomi associated?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: D
96. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Approach) (Characteristics)
a. Behavioural 1. Agrarian- Transition Industrialization
b. Bureaucratic 2. Administrative system as a subsystem of the society
c. Ecological 3. Analyses of human behavior in administrative settings
d. General Systems 4. Legal-Rational Authority
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans: B
97. Which of the following is concerned with the substantive functions of the Government?
(A) Staff Agency
(B) Line Agency
(C) Auxiliary Agency
(D) Staff and Auxiliary Agencies
Ans: B
98. Who among the following termed the four different bases of organization as four Ps?
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) L.D. White
(C) Henry Fayol
(D) Herbert Simon
Ans: A
99. The chief reason for delegation of authority from headquarters to field officers is to
(A) Facilitate decision-making at the local level.
(B) Inculcate skills in the field officers.
(C) Control the field office.
(D) Decongest the headquarters.
Ans: D
100. Which of the following are the characteristics of development administration?
1. Change-orientation
2. Client orientation
3. Citizen-participative orientation
4. Ecological perspective
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D