PHARMACOLOGY
PHARMACOLOGY SYLLABUS
(These syllabus may change from time to time. Please check with the relevant Public Service Commission websites for any changes in the syllabus)
General Pharmacology
Introduction to Pharmacology Pharmaco-kinetics: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism and Excretion of drugs Pharmacodynamics: Mechanism of action and factors modifying action of Drugs, Drug-Drug interactions New drug development and Clinical trials Adverse drug reactions Pharmacovigilance Rational use of Drugs Concept of essential drugs Drugs use in pregnancy, lactation and geriatrics pharmacology
Autonomic Nervous System
Introduction to ANS Cholinergics and Anti-cholinergics Adrenergics and Anti-adrenergic Drugs Drugs acting on Autonomic Ganglion
Peripheral Nervous System
Skeletal Muscle relaxants Local anaesthetics
Autacoids
Histamine and Anti-Histaminics, Prostaglandins, Leukotrienes and Platelets Activating Factors, 5-HT Agonists and Antagonists
Central Nervous System
Introduction to CNS Alcohols General Anaesthetics Opioid Analgesics Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs including drug treatment of Rheumatoid Arthiritis and Gout Sedatives and Hypnotics Anti-epileptics Psychopharmacology- Antipsychotics, antianxiety drugs, antidepressants, antimanic agents Anti-parkinsonian drugs CNS Stimulants and cognition enhancers Drug Abuse
Respiratory System
Drugs use in Cough and treatment of Bronchial Asthma
Renal System
Diuretics and Antidiuretics Drugs affecting Renin-Angiotensin System and Plasma kinins Cardiovascular System Cardiac Glycosides and treatment of Congestive Heart Failure Antianginal drugs Antihypertensives, Antiarrhythmics Drugs for shock
Drugs acting on Blood and Blood formation
Hematinics Antiplatelet drugs Coagulants and anti coagulants Fibrinolytics Hypolipidemic drugs
Gastrointestinal System
Drug treatment of peptic ulcer Emetics, Antiemetics and Prokinetics Purgatives Antidiarrheals Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Endocrinology
Anterior and Posterior pituitary hormones Drugs affecting Calcium Metabolism Thyroid and Antithyroid drugs Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus Corticosteroids Male and Female Sex Hormones including Contraceptives Drugs acting on Uterus
Antimicrobial Agents
General consideration to Antimicrobials Sulphonamides and Quinolones Beta-lactams (Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems and Monobactams) Tetracyclines and Chloramphenicol Macrolides and miscellaneous antibiotics Urinary antiseptics Drug treatment of sexually transmitted diseases Aminoglycosides Chemotherapy of Tuberculosis and Leprosy Antiamebic drugs Antimalarials Antihelmintics Antifungals Antiviral drugs and AntiHIV drugs
Chemotherapy of Neoplastic diseases
Anticancer drugs
Miscellaneous Topics
Immunosuppressants and Immunomodulators Chelating Agents and treatment of Heavy Metal Poisoning Gene Therapy Vitamins Antiseptics and Disinfectants Vaccines
General Pharmacology
Introduction to Pharmacology Pharmaco-kinetics: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism and Excretion of drugs Pharmacodynamics: Mechanism of action and factors modifying action of Drugs, Drug-Drug interactions New drug development and Clinical trials Adverse drug reactions Pharmacovigilance Rational use of Drugs Concept of essential drugs Drugs use in pregnancy, lactation and geriatrics pharmacology
Autonomic Nervous System
Introduction to ANS Cholinergics and Anti-cholinergics Adrenergics and Anti-adrenergic Drugs Drugs acting on Autonomic Ganglion
Peripheral Nervous System
Skeletal Muscle relaxants Local anaesthetics
Autacoids
Histamine and Anti-Histaminics, Prostaglandins, Leukotrienes and Platelets Activating Factors, 5-HT Agonists and Antagonists
Central Nervous System
Introduction to CNS Alcohols General Anaesthetics Opioid Analgesics Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs including drug treatment of Rheumatoid Arthiritis and Gout Sedatives and Hypnotics Anti-epileptics Psychopharmacology- Antipsychotics, antianxiety drugs, antidepressants, antimanic agents Anti-parkinsonian drugs CNS Stimulants and cognition enhancers Drug Abuse
Respiratory System
Drugs use in Cough and treatment of Bronchial Asthma
Renal System
Diuretics and Antidiuretics Drugs affecting Renin-Angiotensin System and Plasma kinins Cardiovascular System Cardiac Glycosides and treatment of Congestive Heart Failure Antianginal drugs Antihypertensives, Antiarrhythmics Drugs for shock
Drugs acting on Blood and Blood formation
Hematinics Antiplatelet drugs Coagulants and anti coagulants Fibrinolytics Hypolipidemic drugs
Gastrointestinal System
Drug treatment of peptic ulcer Emetics, Antiemetics and Prokinetics Purgatives Antidiarrheals Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Endocrinology
Anterior and Posterior pituitary hormones Drugs affecting Calcium Metabolism Thyroid and Antithyroid drugs Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus Corticosteroids Male and Female Sex Hormones including Contraceptives Drugs acting on Uterus
Antimicrobial Agents
General consideration to Antimicrobials Sulphonamides and Quinolones Beta-lactams (Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems and Monobactams) Tetracyclines and Chloramphenicol Macrolides and miscellaneous antibiotics Urinary antiseptics Drug treatment of sexually transmitted diseases Aminoglycosides Chemotherapy of Tuberculosis and Leprosy Antiamebic drugs Antimalarials Antihelmintics Antifungals Antiviral drugs and AntiHIV drugs
Chemotherapy of Neoplastic diseases
Anticancer drugs
Miscellaneous Topics
Immunosuppressants and Immunomodulators Chelating Agents and treatment of Heavy Metal Poisoning Gene Therapy Vitamins Antiseptics and Disinfectants Vaccines
Pharmacology Answer Keys
1) Constitutive activity is the physiological effect that may be produced sometime:
A) In presence of an Inverse agonist
B) In absence of an agonist
C) In presence of partial agonist
D) In presence of an antagonist
Ans: 2
2) Which statement is not true?
A) Enalapril is pro-drug
B) Bacampicilin converts in body into ampicilin
C) Prednisolone is prodrug of prednisone
Ans: 3
D) Diazepam produces active metabolite oxazepam
3) All are pharmacogenetic conditions except:
A) G-6-PD deficiency
B) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
C) Malignant hyperthermia
D) Coumarin insensitivity
Ans: 2
4) Which of the following drugs is not effectively removed by dialysis:-
A) Digoxin
B) Salicylates
C) Methanol
D) Ethylene glycol
Ans: 1
5) After the intravenous injection of phenoxybenzamine the peak effect is obtained at about :
A) Immediate
B) 15 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
Ans: 4
6) Fenolodopam used in hypertensive emergencies, may act as a vasodilator:
A) By increasing cAMP in vascular smooth muscle
B) By increasing cGMP in vascular smooth muscle
C) By decreasing Calcium influx in vascular smooth muscle
D) By preventing depolarization of vascular smooth muscle
Ans: 1
7) Oxethazaine is
A) A topical anaesthetic used orally in gastritis
B) An anticholinergic drug for motion sickness
C) An antihistaminic drug for vomiting
D) None of the above
Ans: 1
8) Intravenous regional anaesthesia is mainly used for
A) Upper abdomen surgery
B) Lower abdomen surgery
C) Thoracic surgery
D) Upper limb surgery
Ans: 4
9) Following are the indirect acting sympathomimetics except
A) Phenmetrazine
B) Modafinil
C) Methylphenidate
D) Dexmedetomidine
Ans: 4
10) Which of the following is correct regarding drug interactions with nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers (NMBs)?
A) Desflurane reduces the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs
B) Cholinesterase inhibitors increase the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs
C) Aminoglycosides increase the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs
D) Calcium channel blockers reduce the effect of nondepolarizing NMBs
Ans: 3
11) A beta adrenoceptor blocker which is not likely to be effective in improving the essential skeletal muscle tremors is :
A) Propronolol
B) Timolol
C) Nadolol
D) Betaxolol
Ans: 4
12) A patient developed anaphylactic shock was treated with adrenaline. However, the patient did not respond fully to this
treatment. History revealed that the patient was taking the following hypertensive which could have prevented the effect of
adrenaline:
A) Atenolol
B) Propranolol
C) Doxazosin
D) Acebutalol
Ans: 2
13) Most common dose related adverse drug reaction of phenytoin that requires dosage adjustment include:
A) Nystagmus
B) Loss of smooth extra ocular pursuit movements
C) Diplopia and Ataxia
D) None of the above
Ans: 3
14) All statements are true regarding Cilostozol except
A) It is PDE-III inhibitor
B) It has vasodilating activity
C) It has a favourable effect on lipid profile
D) Not extensively metabolised by CYP isoenzymes
Ans: 4
15) Loading dose is usually given to start therapy with all anti platelet agents EXCEPT:
A) Ticagrelor
B) Clopidogrel
C) Prasugrel
D) Dipyridamole
Ans: 4
16) Which of the following reduces Triglyceride synthesis in liver by primarily inhibiting the lipolysis in adipose tissue
andthus limiting the available free fatty acids required for TG synthesis:
A) Lovastatin
B) Niacin
C) Cholestyramine
D) Fenofibrate
Ans: 2
17) All are true regarding Glinides except – A) They stimulate insulin secretion
B) Bind to distinct site on beta cells thus closing ATP sensitive K+ channel
C) Categorized as “Post Prandial Glucose Regulators”
D) Should always be combined with sulfonylurea
Ans: 4
18) Following Dopamine agonist can cause a modest reduction in HbA1c and has a glucose lowering effect in type-2
diabetes:
A) Aphmorphine
B) Bromocriptine
C) Rotigotine
D) Ropinirole
Ans: 2
19) Plasma half life of the following may be increased significantly with concurrent use of cimetidine –
A) Pramipexole
B) Rophinirole
C) Apromophine
D) Bromocrptine
Ans: 1
20) Among the drugs used in patients of multiple sclerosis, following can cause ‘first-dose bradycardia’
A) Interferon β1a
B) Fingolimod
C) Dimethy fumarate
D) Glatiramer
Ans: 2
21) A potassium channel blocker, approved for symptomatic treatment of Multiple sclerosis is
A) Dofetilide
B) Dronedarone
C) Sotalol
D) Dalfampridine
Ans: 4
22) All the following agents may cause cognitive impairment, including memory problems when used at recommended
doses except – A) Diphenhydramine
B) Zolpidem
C) Phenobarbital
D) Ramelteon
Ans: 4
23) Which of the following agents has a rapid anxiolytic effect and would be best for the acute management in anxiety?
A) Buspirone
B) Venlafaxine
C) Lorazepam
D) Escitalopram
Ans: 3
24) An antidepressant that may be useful in relieving the pain associated with fibromyalgia is :
A) Dapoxetine
B) Citalopram
C) Fluoxetine
D) Duloxetine
Ans: 4
25) The antidepressant which is also available in a transdermal delivery system include
A) Tranylcypromine
B) Phenelizne
C) Isocarboxazid
D) Selegiline
Ans: 4
26) Which among the following antidepressant acts mainly through its antagonistic action on 5HT2A and alpha2 receptors:
A) Doxepin
B) Moprotiline
C) Mirtzapine
D) Selegiline
Ans: 3
27) Which is the following antidepressant is contraindicated in a patient of angle closure glaucoma
A) Amitriptyline
B) Sertraline
C) Bupropion
D) Mirtzapine
Ans: 1
28) An adolescent male is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following antipsychotic agents may have the
best chance to improve his apathy and blunted affect ?
A) Chlorpromazine
B) Fluphenazine
C) Haloperidol
D) Risperidone
Ans: 4
29) Which one of the following antipsychotics has been shown to be a partial agonist at the dopamine D2 receptor?
A) Aripiprazole
B) Clozapine
C) Haloperidol
D) Risperidone
Ans: 1
30) Which of the following antipsychotic agents is most associated with the possibility of a haematological dyscrasis such
as agranulocytosis in a patient being treated for schizophrenia
A) Chlropromazine
B) Buspirone
C) Lithium
D) Clozapine
Ans: 4
A) In presence of an Inverse agonist
B) In absence of an agonist
C) In presence of partial agonist
D) In presence of an antagonist
Ans: 2
2) Which statement is not true?
A) Enalapril is pro-drug
B) Bacampicilin converts in body into ampicilin
C) Prednisolone is prodrug of prednisone
Ans: 3
D) Diazepam produces active metabolite oxazepam
3) All are pharmacogenetic conditions except:
A) G-6-PD deficiency
B) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
C) Malignant hyperthermia
D) Coumarin insensitivity
Ans: 2
4) Which of the following drugs is not effectively removed by dialysis:-
A) Digoxin
B) Salicylates
C) Methanol
D) Ethylene glycol
Ans: 1
5) After the intravenous injection of phenoxybenzamine the peak effect is obtained at about :
A) Immediate
B) 15 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
Ans: 4
6) Fenolodopam used in hypertensive emergencies, may act as a vasodilator:
A) By increasing cAMP in vascular smooth muscle
B) By increasing cGMP in vascular smooth muscle
C) By decreasing Calcium influx in vascular smooth muscle
D) By preventing depolarization of vascular smooth muscle
Ans: 1
7) Oxethazaine is
A) A topical anaesthetic used orally in gastritis
B) An anticholinergic drug for motion sickness
C) An antihistaminic drug for vomiting
D) None of the above
Ans: 1
8) Intravenous regional anaesthesia is mainly used for
A) Upper abdomen surgery
B) Lower abdomen surgery
C) Thoracic surgery
D) Upper limb surgery
Ans: 4
9) Following are the indirect acting sympathomimetics except
A) Phenmetrazine
B) Modafinil
C) Methylphenidate
D) Dexmedetomidine
Ans: 4
10) Which of the following is correct regarding drug interactions with nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers (NMBs)?
A) Desflurane reduces the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs
B) Cholinesterase inhibitors increase the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs
C) Aminoglycosides increase the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs
D) Calcium channel blockers reduce the effect of nondepolarizing NMBs
Ans: 3
11) A beta adrenoceptor blocker which is not likely to be effective in improving the essential skeletal muscle tremors is :
A) Propronolol
B) Timolol
C) Nadolol
D) Betaxolol
Ans: 4
12) A patient developed anaphylactic shock was treated with adrenaline. However, the patient did not respond fully to this
treatment. History revealed that the patient was taking the following hypertensive which could have prevented the effect of
adrenaline:
A) Atenolol
B) Propranolol
C) Doxazosin
D) Acebutalol
Ans: 2
13) Most common dose related adverse drug reaction of phenytoin that requires dosage adjustment include:
A) Nystagmus
B) Loss of smooth extra ocular pursuit movements
C) Diplopia and Ataxia
D) None of the above
Ans: 3
14) All statements are true regarding Cilostozol except
A) It is PDE-III inhibitor
B) It has vasodilating activity
C) It has a favourable effect on lipid profile
D) Not extensively metabolised by CYP isoenzymes
Ans: 4
15) Loading dose is usually given to start therapy with all anti platelet agents EXCEPT:
A) Ticagrelor
B) Clopidogrel
C) Prasugrel
D) Dipyridamole
Ans: 4
16) Which of the following reduces Triglyceride synthesis in liver by primarily inhibiting the lipolysis in adipose tissue
andthus limiting the available free fatty acids required for TG synthesis:
A) Lovastatin
B) Niacin
C) Cholestyramine
D) Fenofibrate
Ans: 2
17) All are true regarding Glinides except – A) They stimulate insulin secretion
B) Bind to distinct site on beta cells thus closing ATP sensitive K+ channel
C) Categorized as “Post Prandial Glucose Regulators”
D) Should always be combined with sulfonylurea
Ans: 4
18) Following Dopamine agonist can cause a modest reduction in HbA1c and has a glucose lowering effect in type-2
diabetes:
A) Aphmorphine
B) Bromocriptine
C) Rotigotine
D) Ropinirole
Ans: 2
19) Plasma half life of the following may be increased significantly with concurrent use of cimetidine –
A) Pramipexole
B) Rophinirole
C) Apromophine
D) Bromocrptine
Ans: 1
20) Among the drugs used in patients of multiple sclerosis, following can cause ‘first-dose bradycardia’
A) Interferon β1a
B) Fingolimod
C) Dimethy fumarate
D) Glatiramer
Ans: 2
21) A potassium channel blocker, approved for symptomatic treatment of Multiple sclerosis is
A) Dofetilide
B) Dronedarone
C) Sotalol
D) Dalfampridine
Ans: 4
22) All the following agents may cause cognitive impairment, including memory problems when used at recommended
doses except – A) Diphenhydramine
B) Zolpidem
C) Phenobarbital
D) Ramelteon
Ans: 4
23) Which of the following agents has a rapid anxiolytic effect and would be best for the acute management in anxiety?
A) Buspirone
B) Venlafaxine
C) Lorazepam
D) Escitalopram
Ans: 3
24) An antidepressant that may be useful in relieving the pain associated with fibromyalgia is :
A) Dapoxetine
B) Citalopram
C) Fluoxetine
D) Duloxetine
Ans: 4
25) The antidepressant which is also available in a transdermal delivery system include
A) Tranylcypromine
B) Phenelizne
C) Isocarboxazid
D) Selegiline
Ans: 4
26) Which among the following antidepressant acts mainly through its antagonistic action on 5HT2A and alpha2 receptors:
A) Doxepin
B) Moprotiline
C) Mirtzapine
D) Selegiline
Ans: 3
27) Which is the following antidepressant is contraindicated in a patient of angle closure glaucoma
A) Amitriptyline
B) Sertraline
C) Bupropion
D) Mirtzapine
Ans: 1
28) An adolescent male is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following antipsychotic agents may have the
best chance to improve his apathy and blunted affect ?
A) Chlorpromazine
B) Fluphenazine
C) Haloperidol
D) Risperidone
Ans: 4
29) Which one of the following antipsychotics has been shown to be a partial agonist at the dopamine D2 receptor?
A) Aripiprazole
B) Clozapine
C) Haloperidol
D) Risperidone
Ans: 1
30) Which of the following antipsychotic agents is most associated with the possibility of a haematological dyscrasis such
as agranulocytosis in a patient being treated for schizophrenia
A) Chlropromazine
B) Buspirone
C) Lithium
D) Clozapine
Ans: 4
31) Which is the following drugs is most useful for the treatment of absence seizures?
A) Rufinamide
B) Tiagabine
C) Levetiracetam
D) Lamotrigine
Ans: 4
32) Which is the following is a first-line medication for generalized tonic-clonic seizures ?
A) Ethosuximide
B) Felbamate
C) Clonazepam
D) Topiramate
Ans: 4
33) Which of the following is a potent analgesic but a weak anaesthetic ?
A) Etomidate
B) Halothane
C) Midazolam
D) Nitrous oxide
Ans: 4
34) An elderly patient with asthma and low blood pressure requires anaesthesia for an emergency surgical procedure.
Which of the following agents would be most appropriate for inducing anaesthesia in this patient ?
A) Desflurane
B) Ketamine
C) Propotol
D) Thiopental
Ans: 2
35) Adrenaline causes vasoconstriction in all of the following vessels except
A) Gut
B) Cerebral
C) Cutaneous
D) Renal
Ans: 2
36) All of the following are bronchoconstrictor except
A) PGE2
B) PGF2α
C) LTC4
D) LTD4
Ans: 1
37) Platelet activation factor has all characters except
A) Produces platelets aggregation and release reaction
B) Chemotactic to neutorophils, eosinophila and monocytes
C) Vasoconstrictor to most of the blood vessels
D) Bronchoconstrictor
Ans: 3
38) Allopurinol :
A) Increases the metabolism of theophyline
B) Decreases the metabolism of theophyline
C) Increases oral absorption of theophyline
D) Decreases oral absorption of theophyline
Ans: 2
39) All of the following have receptors at cell membrane except
A) Insulin
B) Oxytocin
C) Adrenaline
D) Thyroxine
Ans: 4
40) Cosyntropin test is for :
A) Diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
B) Diagnosis of thyroid insufficiency
C) Diagnosis of pituitary insufficiency
D) None of the above
Ans: 1
41) Radioactive Iodine131 emits following rays
A) X rays and Beta rays
B) Beta rays and Alpha rays
C) Delta rays and Beta rays
D) Delta rays and X rays
Ans: 1
42) Tyrosine protein kinase activity is present at
A) Alpha subunit of insulin receptors
B) Beta subunit of insulin receptors
C) Gamma subunit of insulin receptors
D) Delta subunit of insulin receptors
Ans: 2
43) Which of the following drugs is metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase ?
A) Atracurium
B) Cis-atracurium
C) Methenamine hippurate
D) Mivacurium
Ans: 4
44) All of the following drugs may be useful in Hereditary Angioedema, except
A) Icatibant
B) Danazol
C) Midodrine
D) Tranexamic acid
Ans: 3
45) A disulfiram like reaction with Alcohol is seen with all of the following, except
A) Procarbazine
B) Carbamazepine
C) Chlorpropamide
D) Cefoperazine
Ans: 2
46) Biliary Pseudolithiasis is a side effect of high doses of:
A) Amphotericin - B
B) Imipinem
C) Ceftriaxone
D) Vancomycin
Ans: 3
47) Shortest break period to switch over from a MAO inhibitor to another antidepressant will be observed after stopping
the therapy with
A) Moclobemide
B) Tranylcypromine
C) Phenelzine
D) Selegiline
Ans: 1
48) Drug of choice for primary therapy of invasive aspergillosis is
A) Fluconazole
B) Voriconazole
C) Flucytosine
D) Itraconazole
Ans: 2
49) False statement regarding Raloxifene is that it –
A) Increases bone density without increasing the risk of endometrial cancer
B) Decreases risk of invasive breast cancer
C) Decreases risk of venous thromboembolism
D) Decreases Total Cholesterol
Ans: 3
50) Chopidogrel therapy is likely to be ineffective in following patients
A) Poor CYP 2D6 metabolizer
B) Fast CYP 1A2 metabolizer
C) Poor CYP 2E1 metabolizer
D) Poor CYP 2C19 metabolizer
Ans: 4
51) Postmenopausal female developed osteoporotic vertebral fracture. Which one of the following is likely to reduce her
pain of osteoporotic fracture :
A) Calcitonin
B) Zoledronic acid
C) Denosumab
D) Teriparatide
Ans: 1
52) An alcoholic male suffering from Hepatic cirrhosis had ascites and oedema. Which one of the following would be most
appropriate choice
A) Cholrthalidone
B) Spinorolactone
C) Furosemide
D) Hydrochlorthiazide
Ans: 2
53) Which one of the following is a side effect of Amlodpine
A) Bradycardia
B) Cough
C) Ankle edema
D) QT prolongation
Ans: 3
54) A patient on antipsychotic medication developed muscle rigidity, fever, altered mental status & stupor, unstable blood
pressure and myoglobinemia. Which one of the following drugs may be helpful
A) Gabapentin
B) Amantadine
C) Bromocriptine
D) Pramipexole
Ans: 3
55) A patient of cardiovascular disease needs a Non-Sterordal Anti inflammatory drug for some other ailment. Which one
of the following appear to be least likely to be harmful
A) Ibuprofen
B) Piroxicam
C) Inodomethacin
D) Paracetamol
Ans: 4
56) All statements are correct except
A) Inhalation of CO2 can accelerate induction and recovery of general anaesthesia
B) Inhalation of CO2 produces cerebral vasodilation
C) Inhalation of CO2 stimulates respiration
D) Intercostal muscles paralysis occurs in phase I of general anaesthesia
Ans: 4
57) Amongst following maximum blood : Gas partition coefficient is with
A) Nitrous oxide
B) Desflurane
C) Halothane
D) Isoflurane
Ans: 3
58) Which of the following statement regarding Tapentadol is not correct
A) It is an agonist at the mu receptor
B) It is an inhibitor of Nor-epinphrine uptake
C) Metabolised mainly by glucuronidation
D) Dose should be reduced in moderate renal impairment
Ans: 4
59) Which of the following opioids is the best choice for treating pain associated with diabetic peripheral neuropathy
A) Morphine
B) Tapentadol
C) Codeine
D) Buprenorphine
Ans: 2
60) Which of the following is correct regarding digoxin when used for atrial fibrillation
A) Digoxin works by blocking voltage-sensitive calcium channels
B) Digoxin is used for rhythm control in patients with atrial fibrillation
C) Digoxin increases conduction velocity through the AV node
D) Digoxin levels of 1 to 2 ng/mL are desirable in the treatment of atrial fibrillation
Ans: 4
61) In which disease state is cilostazol contraindicated
A) Peripheral arterial diseases
B) Gout
C) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
D) Osteoporosis
Ans: 3
62) Which is considered “fibrin selective” because it rapidly activates plasminogen that is bound to fibrin
A) Alteplase
B) Fondaparinux
C) Streptokinase
D) Urokinase
Ans: 1
63) All are true statements regarding Rifabutin except :
A) It is preferred in AIDS patients taking PIs or NNRTIs
B) It is more potent inducer of CYP 450 enzymes than Rifampicin
C) It can cause skin hyperpigmentation
D) It can cause neutropenia
Ans: 2
64) A 56 year old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of swelling, redness, and pain in his right leg. The patient is diagnosed with acute DVT and requires treatment with an anticoagulant. All of the following are approved for treatment of this patient’s DVT except
A) Rivaroxban
B) Dabigatran
C) Enoxaparin
D) Heparin
Ans: 2
65) A 58 years old man receives intravenous alteplase treatment for acute stroke. Five minutes following completion of alteplase infusion, he develops orolingual angioedema. Which of the following drugs may have increased the risk of developing orolingual angioedema in this patient:
A) ACE inhibitor
B) GP IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
C) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
D) Thiazide diuretic
Ans: 1
66) Drug that is misused in sexual assaults or so called “date-rapes”
A) Gepirone
B) Flunitrazepam
C) Midazolam
D) Zaleplon
Ans: 2
67) A hallucinogenic drug, commonly known as Ecstasy or Molly and was popularized among those attending late-night
“rave” parties
A) Bultylone
B) Mehtylene dioxypyrovalerone
C) Methylene dioxymethamphetamine
D) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Ans: 3
68) Following statement regarding Ranolazine are true except that it
A) Inhibits the late phase of the sodium current
B) Does not prolong QT interval
C) Has antianginal as well as antiarrythmic properties
D) Reduces intracellular sodium & calcium overload
Ans: 2
69) Following statement regarding Fondaparinux are correct except that it :
A) Is a synthetic derivative of L-arginine
B) Selectively inhibits only factor Xa
C) Is approved for prophylaxis of various thromboembolism
D) Is eliminated in the urine mainly as unchanged drug
Ans: 1
70) The anion-exchange resin that can be used in type-2 diabetes due to the glucose-lowering effects
A) Cholestyramine
B) Colestipol
C) Colesevelam
D) None of the above
Ans: 3
71) “Monday morning disease” occurs in workers of chemical industries due to exposure to
A) Organophosphates
B) Pentylenetetrazole
C) Organic Nitrate
D) Methylxanthines
Ans: 3
72) Sodium bicarbonate is not preferred as an oral antacid for long term use because
A) It is a weak antacid
B) Systemic absorption can produce transient metabolic alkalosis
C) It can increase the Flatulence
D) It can aggravate the pain of peptic ulcer
Ans: 2
73) Following statement are true regarding Hydroxyurea except that:
A) It can reduce the frequency of painful sickle cell crises
B) It can be used to treat chronic myelogenous leukaemia
C) It can be used to treat polycythemia vera
D) It apparently decreases the foetal haemoglobin levels
Ans: 4
74) Out of the following drugs the antimicrobial that can be given as one time dose for the treatment of urinary treat
infection is:
A) Aztreonam
B) Vancomycin
C) Fosfomycin
D) Telavanacin
Ans: 3
75) Following lipopeptide antibiotic should never be used in the treatment of pneumonia (since it is inactivated by
pulmonary surfactants) :
A) Linezolid
B) Daptomycin
C) Dalfopristin
D) All of the above
Ans: 2
76) Which of the following antibiotic combinations is inappropriate based on antagonism at the same site of action:
A) Clindamycin and erythromycin
B) Doxycycline and amoxicillin
C) Tigecyline and azithromycin
D) Ciprofloxacin and amoxicillin
Ans: 1
77) A 30 year old pregnant female has cellulitis caused by MRSA. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most
appropriate option:
A) Doxcycline
B) Clindamycin
C) Quinupristin/daltopristin
D) Tigecycline
Ans: 2
78) Pseudotumor cerbri can occur as an adverse reaction after long term therapy with:
A) Tetracyclines
B) Clindamycin
C) Rifampicin
D) Ciprofoxacin
Ans: 1
79) Following are possible uses of androgens except:
A) Testicular failure in children
B) Hypopituitarism
C) Hereditary angioneurotic edema
D) Carcinoma of breast in male
Ans: 4
80) All of the following decrease therapeutic effects of levodopa except:
A) Butyrophenones
B) Phenothiazines
C) Metoclopramide
D) Pergolide
Ans: 4
81) Which of the following phenothiazine has least anti-emetic effect:
A) Thioridazine
B) Chlorpromazine
C) Thiothixene
D) Trifluoperazine
Ans: 1
82) Which butyrophenone is also used for producing neuroleptanalgesia:
A) Flupenthixol
B) Droperidol
C) Fentanyl
D) Ketamine
Ans: 2
83) Which statement is false:
A) Blockade of dopaminergic system in limbic system produces antipsychotic effect of chlorpromazine
B) Blockade of dopaminergic system in basal ganglia produces extrapyamidal symptoms
C) Blockade of dopaminergic system in CTZ induces vomiting by chlorpromazine
D) Chlorpromazine increases proclactin secretion
Ans: 3
84) Morphine reduces all the following except:
A) Follicle stimulating hormone
B) Adrenocortictropic hormone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Growth hormone
Ans: 4
85) Which statement is false regarding verapamil:
A) It prolongs A-V nodal effective refractory period
B) It has negative inotropic action’
C) It increases P-R interval
D) It decreases R-R interval
Ans: 4
86) Intravenous furosemide is used for rapid control of symptoms in Acute LVF. It provides quick relief of dyspnoea by:
A) Producing bronchodilation
B) Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume
C) Stimulating left ventricular contractility
D) Causing venodilation
Ans: 4
87) Therapeutic effects of warfarin appear only when
A) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 5%
B) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 10%
C) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 20%
D) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 40%
Ans: 4
88) All of the following are plasminogen inhibitors except:
A) Epsilon Amino Caprioic Acid
B) Tranexamic acid
C) Aprotinin
D) Kallikrein
Ans: 4
89) All of the following can produce constipation except:
A) Aluminium hydroxide gel
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Magnesium carbonate
D) Nifedipine
Ans: 3
90) Which of the following is not a side effect of metoclopramide:
A) Constipation
B) Muscle dystonia
C) Gynaecomastia
D) Galactorrhoea
Ans: 1
91) All of the following sulphonamides are short acting except:
A) Sulfisoxazole
B) Sulfamethizole
C) Sulfadiazine
D) Sulfadoxine
Ans: 4
92) Which is most potent tetracycline:
A) Doxycycline
B) Minocyline
C) Demeclocyline
D) Methacycline
Ans: 2
93) Which of the following NSAID has good tissue penetrability with concentration in synovial fluid:
A) Ketorolac
B) Diclofenac sodium
C) Sulindac
D) Piroxicam
Ans: 2
94) QTc prolongation in ECG can be observed with all of the following except
A) Procainamide
B) Sotalol
C) Sparfloxacin
D) Verapamil
Ans: 4
95) The Nitrate which undergoes little first pass metabolism is:
A) Isosorbide mononitrate
B) Nitroglycerine
C) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
D) Isosorbide dinitrate
Ans: 1
96) Which of the following is most potent local anaesthetic:
A) Dibucaine
B) Cocaine
C) Lignocaine
D) Bupivacaine
Ans: 1
97) Narconanalysis of criminals is done by giving:
A) Thiopentone
B) Opium
C) Diazepam
D) Ketamine
Ans: 1
98) Most potent opioid among the following is:
A) Alfentanil
B) Fentanyl
C) Sufentanil
D) Remifentanil
Ans: 3
99) Filgrastim is used for the treatment of:
A) Neutropenia
B) Anaemia
C) Polycythemia
D) Neutrophilia
Ans: 1
100) The following anti ulcer drug DOES NOT act by reducing the secretion of or neutralizing gastric acid
A) Megaldrate
B) Sucralfate
C) Misoprostol
D) Omeprazole
Ans: 2
A) Rufinamide
B) Tiagabine
C) Levetiracetam
D) Lamotrigine
Ans: 4
32) Which is the following is a first-line medication for generalized tonic-clonic seizures ?
A) Ethosuximide
B) Felbamate
C) Clonazepam
D) Topiramate
Ans: 4
33) Which of the following is a potent analgesic but a weak anaesthetic ?
A) Etomidate
B) Halothane
C) Midazolam
D) Nitrous oxide
Ans: 4
34) An elderly patient with asthma and low blood pressure requires anaesthesia for an emergency surgical procedure.
Which of the following agents would be most appropriate for inducing anaesthesia in this patient ?
A) Desflurane
B) Ketamine
C) Propotol
D) Thiopental
Ans: 2
35) Adrenaline causes vasoconstriction in all of the following vessels except
A) Gut
B) Cerebral
C) Cutaneous
D) Renal
Ans: 2
36) All of the following are bronchoconstrictor except
A) PGE2
B) PGF2α
C) LTC4
D) LTD4
Ans: 1
37) Platelet activation factor has all characters except
A) Produces platelets aggregation and release reaction
B) Chemotactic to neutorophils, eosinophila and monocytes
C) Vasoconstrictor to most of the blood vessels
D) Bronchoconstrictor
Ans: 3
38) Allopurinol :
A) Increases the metabolism of theophyline
B) Decreases the metabolism of theophyline
C) Increases oral absorption of theophyline
D) Decreases oral absorption of theophyline
Ans: 2
39) All of the following have receptors at cell membrane except
A) Insulin
B) Oxytocin
C) Adrenaline
D) Thyroxine
Ans: 4
40) Cosyntropin test is for :
A) Diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
B) Diagnosis of thyroid insufficiency
C) Diagnosis of pituitary insufficiency
D) None of the above
Ans: 1
41) Radioactive Iodine131 emits following rays
A) X rays and Beta rays
B) Beta rays and Alpha rays
C) Delta rays and Beta rays
D) Delta rays and X rays
Ans: 1
42) Tyrosine protein kinase activity is present at
A) Alpha subunit of insulin receptors
B) Beta subunit of insulin receptors
C) Gamma subunit of insulin receptors
D) Delta subunit of insulin receptors
Ans: 2
43) Which of the following drugs is metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase ?
A) Atracurium
B) Cis-atracurium
C) Methenamine hippurate
D) Mivacurium
Ans: 4
44) All of the following drugs may be useful in Hereditary Angioedema, except
A) Icatibant
B) Danazol
C) Midodrine
D) Tranexamic acid
Ans: 3
45) A disulfiram like reaction with Alcohol is seen with all of the following, except
A) Procarbazine
B) Carbamazepine
C) Chlorpropamide
D) Cefoperazine
Ans: 2
46) Biliary Pseudolithiasis is a side effect of high doses of:
A) Amphotericin - B
B) Imipinem
C) Ceftriaxone
D) Vancomycin
Ans: 3
47) Shortest break period to switch over from a MAO inhibitor to another antidepressant will be observed after stopping
the therapy with
A) Moclobemide
B) Tranylcypromine
C) Phenelzine
D) Selegiline
Ans: 1
48) Drug of choice for primary therapy of invasive aspergillosis is
A) Fluconazole
B) Voriconazole
C) Flucytosine
D) Itraconazole
Ans: 2
49) False statement regarding Raloxifene is that it –
A) Increases bone density without increasing the risk of endometrial cancer
B) Decreases risk of invasive breast cancer
C) Decreases risk of venous thromboembolism
D) Decreases Total Cholesterol
Ans: 3
50) Chopidogrel therapy is likely to be ineffective in following patients
A) Poor CYP 2D6 metabolizer
B) Fast CYP 1A2 metabolizer
C) Poor CYP 2E1 metabolizer
D) Poor CYP 2C19 metabolizer
Ans: 4
51) Postmenopausal female developed osteoporotic vertebral fracture. Which one of the following is likely to reduce her
pain of osteoporotic fracture :
A) Calcitonin
B) Zoledronic acid
C) Denosumab
D) Teriparatide
Ans: 1
52) An alcoholic male suffering from Hepatic cirrhosis had ascites and oedema. Which one of the following would be most
appropriate choice
A) Cholrthalidone
B) Spinorolactone
C) Furosemide
D) Hydrochlorthiazide
Ans: 2
53) Which one of the following is a side effect of Amlodpine
A) Bradycardia
B) Cough
C) Ankle edema
D) QT prolongation
Ans: 3
54) A patient on antipsychotic medication developed muscle rigidity, fever, altered mental status & stupor, unstable blood
pressure and myoglobinemia. Which one of the following drugs may be helpful
A) Gabapentin
B) Amantadine
C) Bromocriptine
D) Pramipexole
Ans: 3
55) A patient of cardiovascular disease needs a Non-Sterordal Anti inflammatory drug for some other ailment. Which one
of the following appear to be least likely to be harmful
A) Ibuprofen
B) Piroxicam
C) Inodomethacin
D) Paracetamol
Ans: 4
56) All statements are correct except
A) Inhalation of CO2 can accelerate induction and recovery of general anaesthesia
B) Inhalation of CO2 produces cerebral vasodilation
C) Inhalation of CO2 stimulates respiration
D) Intercostal muscles paralysis occurs in phase I of general anaesthesia
Ans: 4
57) Amongst following maximum blood : Gas partition coefficient is with
A) Nitrous oxide
B) Desflurane
C) Halothane
D) Isoflurane
Ans: 3
58) Which of the following statement regarding Tapentadol is not correct
A) It is an agonist at the mu receptor
B) It is an inhibitor of Nor-epinphrine uptake
C) Metabolised mainly by glucuronidation
D) Dose should be reduced in moderate renal impairment
Ans: 4
59) Which of the following opioids is the best choice for treating pain associated with diabetic peripheral neuropathy
A) Morphine
B) Tapentadol
C) Codeine
D) Buprenorphine
Ans: 2
60) Which of the following is correct regarding digoxin when used for atrial fibrillation
A) Digoxin works by blocking voltage-sensitive calcium channels
B) Digoxin is used for rhythm control in patients with atrial fibrillation
C) Digoxin increases conduction velocity through the AV node
D) Digoxin levels of 1 to 2 ng/mL are desirable in the treatment of atrial fibrillation
Ans: 4
61) In which disease state is cilostazol contraindicated
A) Peripheral arterial diseases
B) Gout
C) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
D) Osteoporosis
Ans: 3
62) Which is considered “fibrin selective” because it rapidly activates plasminogen that is bound to fibrin
A) Alteplase
B) Fondaparinux
C) Streptokinase
D) Urokinase
Ans: 1
63) All are true statements regarding Rifabutin except :
A) It is preferred in AIDS patients taking PIs or NNRTIs
B) It is more potent inducer of CYP 450 enzymes than Rifampicin
C) It can cause skin hyperpigmentation
D) It can cause neutropenia
Ans: 2
64) A 56 year old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of swelling, redness, and pain in his right leg. The patient is diagnosed with acute DVT and requires treatment with an anticoagulant. All of the following are approved for treatment of this patient’s DVT except
A) Rivaroxban
B) Dabigatran
C) Enoxaparin
D) Heparin
Ans: 2
65) A 58 years old man receives intravenous alteplase treatment for acute stroke. Five minutes following completion of alteplase infusion, he develops orolingual angioedema. Which of the following drugs may have increased the risk of developing orolingual angioedema in this patient:
A) ACE inhibitor
B) GP IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
C) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
D) Thiazide diuretic
Ans: 1
66) Drug that is misused in sexual assaults or so called “date-rapes”
A) Gepirone
B) Flunitrazepam
C) Midazolam
D) Zaleplon
Ans: 2
67) A hallucinogenic drug, commonly known as Ecstasy or Molly and was popularized among those attending late-night
“rave” parties
A) Bultylone
B) Mehtylene dioxypyrovalerone
C) Methylene dioxymethamphetamine
D) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Ans: 3
68) Following statement regarding Ranolazine are true except that it
A) Inhibits the late phase of the sodium current
B) Does not prolong QT interval
C) Has antianginal as well as antiarrythmic properties
D) Reduces intracellular sodium & calcium overload
Ans: 2
69) Following statement regarding Fondaparinux are correct except that it :
A) Is a synthetic derivative of L-arginine
B) Selectively inhibits only factor Xa
C) Is approved for prophylaxis of various thromboembolism
D) Is eliminated in the urine mainly as unchanged drug
Ans: 1
70) The anion-exchange resin that can be used in type-2 diabetes due to the glucose-lowering effects
A) Cholestyramine
B) Colestipol
C) Colesevelam
D) None of the above
Ans: 3
71) “Monday morning disease” occurs in workers of chemical industries due to exposure to
A) Organophosphates
B) Pentylenetetrazole
C) Organic Nitrate
D) Methylxanthines
Ans: 3
72) Sodium bicarbonate is not preferred as an oral antacid for long term use because
A) It is a weak antacid
B) Systemic absorption can produce transient metabolic alkalosis
C) It can increase the Flatulence
D) It can aggravate the pain of peptic ulcer
Ans: 2
73) Following statement are true regarding Hydroxyurea except that:
A) It can reduce the frequency of painful sickle cell crises
B) It can be used to treat chronic myelogenous leukaemia
C) It can be used to treat polycythemia vera
D) It apparently decreases the foetal haemoglobin levels
Ans: 4
74) Out of the following drugs the antimicrobial that can be given as one time dose for the treatment of urinary treat
infection is:
A) Aztreonam
B) Vancomycin
C) Fosfomycin
D) Telavanacin
Ans: 3
75) Following lipopeptide antibiotic should never be used in the treatment of pneumonia (since it is inactivated by
pulmonary surfactants) :
A) Linezolid
B) Daptomycin
C) Dalfopristin
D) All of the above
Ans: 2
76) Which of the following antibiotic combinations is inappropriate based on antagonism at the same site of action:
A) Clindamycin and erythromycin
B) Doxycycline and amoxicillin
C) Tigecyline and azithromycin
D) Ciprofloxacin and amoxicillin
Ans: 1
77) A 30 year old pregnant female has cellulitis caused by MRSA. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most
appropriate option:
A) Doxcycline
B) Clindamycin
C) Quinupristin/daltopristin
D) Tigecycline
Ans: 2
78) Pseudotumor cerbri can occur as an adverse reaction after long term therapy with:
A) Tetracyclines
B) Clindamycin
C) Rifampicin
D) Ciprofoxacin
Ans: 1
79) Following are possible uses of androgens except:
A) Testicular failure in children
B) Hypopituitarism
C) Hereditary angioneurotic edema
D) Carcinoma of breast in male
Ans: 4
80) All of the following decrease therapeutic effects of levodopa except:
A) Butyrophenones
B) Phenothiazines
C) Metoclopramide
D) Pergolide
Ans: 4
81) Which of the following phenothiazine has least anti-emetic effect:
A) Thioridazine
B) Chlorpromazine
C) Thiothixene
D) Trifluoperazine
Ans: 1
82) Which butyrophenone is also used for producing neuroleptanalgesia:
A) Flupenthixol
B) Droperidol
C) Fentanyl
D) Ketamine
Ans: 2
83) Which statement is false:
A) Blockade of dopaminergic system in limbic system produces antipsychotic effect of chlorpromazine
B) Blockade of dopaminergic system in basal ganglia produces extrapyamidal symptoms
C) Blockade of dopaminergic system in CTZ induces vomiting by chlorpromazine
D) Chlorpromazine increases proclactin secretion
Ans: 3
84) Morphine reduces all the following except:
A) Follicle stimulating hormone
B) Adrenocortictropic hormone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Growth hormone
Ans: 4
85) Which statement is false regarding verapamil:
A) It prolongs A-V nodal effective refractory period
B) It has negative inotropic action’
C) It increases P-R interval
D) It decreases R-R interval
Ans: 4
86) Intravenous furosemide is used for rapid control of symptoms in Acute LVF. It provides quick relief of dyspnoea by:
A) Producing bronchodilation
B) Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume
C) Stimulating left ventricular contractility
D) Causing venodilation
Ans: 4
87) Therapeutic effects of warfarin appear only when
A) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 5%
B) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 10%
C) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 20%
D) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 40%
Ans: 4
88) All of the following are plasminogen inhibitors except:
A) Epsilon Amino Caprioic Acid
B) Tranexamic acid
C) Aprotinin
D) Kallikrein
Ans: 4
89) All of the following can produce constipation except:
A) Aluminium hydroxide gel
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Magnesium carbonate
D) Nifedipine
Ans: 3
90) Which of the following is not a side effect of metoclopramide:
A) Constipation
B) Muscle dystonia
C) Gynaecomastia
D) Galactorrhoea
Ans: 1
91) All of the following sulphonamides are short acting except:
A) Sulfisoxazole
B) Sulfamethizole
C) Sulfadiazine
D) Sulfadoxine
Ans: 4
92) Which is most potent tetracycline:
A) Doxycycline
B) Minocyline
C) Demeclocyline
D) Methacycline
Ans: 2
93) Which of the following NSAID has good tissue penetrability with concentration in synovial fluid:
A) Ketorolac
B) Diclofenac sodium
C) Sulindac
D) Piroxicam
Ans: 2
94) QTc prolongation in ECG can be observed with all of the following except
A) Procainamide
B) Sotalol
C) Sparfloxacin
D) Verapamil
Ans: 4
95) The Nitrate which undergoes little first pass metabolism is:
A) Isosorbide mononitrate
B) Nitroglycerine
C) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
D) Isosorbide dinitrate
Ans: 1
96) Which of the following is most potent local anaesthetic:
A) Dibucaine
B) Cocaine
C) Lignocaine
D) Bupivacaine
Ans: 1
97) Narconanalysis of criminals is done by giving:
A) Thiopentone
B) Opium
C) Diazepam
D) Ketamine
Ans: 1
98) Most potent opioid among the following is:
A) Alfentanil
B) Fentanyl
C) Sufentanil
D) Remifentanil
Ans: 3
99) Filgrastim is used for the treatment of:
A) Neutropenia
B) Anaemia
C) Polycythemia
D) Neutrophilia
Ans: 1
100) The following anti ulcer drug DOES NOT act by reducing the secretion of or neutralizing gastric acid
A) Megaldrate
B) Sucralfate
C) Misoprostol
D) Omeprazole
Ans: 2