ORTHOPAEDIC SURGEON- PAGE 1
ORTHOPAEDIC SURGEON MCQs
1. Most common bone involved in hemangioma
(A) Femur (B) Tibia (C) Pelvis (D) Vertebra
Ans: D
2. Nerve involved in arcade of frosche is
(A) Median (B) Ulnar (C) Pin (D) Musculocutaneous
Ans: C
3. Terry Thomas sign is seen in
(A) Lower end radius fracture (B) Scapho-lunate dislocation (C) Acetabulum fracture (D) Meniscus cyst
Ans: B
4. Anatomical snuff box tenderness indicates fracture of
(A) Scaphoid (B) Naviculum (C) Talus (D) Cuboid
Ans: A
5. Shepherd crook deformity is seen in
(A) Fibrous dysplasia (B) Adamantinoma (C) Non-ossifying fibroma (D) Fibrous cortical defect
Ans: A
6. Osteochondritis known as sever’s disease is associated with
(A) Talus (B) Naviculum (C) Scaphoid (D) Calcaneum
Ans: D
7. Which of the following bmp is FDA approved for use?
(A) Rhbmp-1 (B) Rhbmp-3 (C) Rhbmp-7 (D) Rhbmp-6
Ans: C
8. Most common site for osteosarcoma is
(A) Upper end of femur (B) Lower end of femur
(C) Lower end of humerus (D) Lower end of tibia
Ans: B
9. Dequervain’s disease typically involves
(A) Flexor policis longus (B) Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
(C) Adductor policis (D) Extensor policis brevis and abductor policis longus
Ans: D
10. The deformity of tibia in triple deformity of knee is
(A) Extension, internal rotation, anterior subluxation (B) Flexion, external rotation, posterior subluxation
(C) Extension, posterior subluxation, internal rotation (D) Flexion, internal rotation, anterior subluxation
Ans: B
11. Earliest site of bone involvement in osteomyelitis is
(A) Metaphysis (B) Diaphysis (C) Epiphysis (D) Point of entry of nutrient artery
Ans: A
12. Blades of grass lesion is found in
(A) Paget’s disease (B) Thalessemia (C) Osteoporosis (D) None of the above
Ans: A
13. Nutrient and oxygen reach the chondrocyte across the perichondrium by
(A) Capillaries (B) Diffusion (C) Along neuron (D) Active transport
Ans: B
14. Herberden’s arthropathy affects
(A) Lumbar spine (B) Symmetrically large joints (C) Sacroiliac joints (D) Distal interphalangeal joint
Ans: D
15. Pectus carinatum is seen in
(A) Scurvy (B) Rickets (C) Hemophilia (D) Osteogenesis imperfecta
Ans: B
16. Salt pepper skull is a feature of
(A) Paget’s disease (B) Eosinophilic granuloma (C) Primary hyperparathyroidism (D) Multiple myeloma
Ans: C
17. Wimberger ring sign is seen in
(A) Scurvy (B) Syphilis (C) Paget’s disease (D) Hemophilia
Ans: A
18. Osteoporosis is caused by all except
(A) Fluorosis (B) Hypogonadism (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hyperparathyroidism
Ans: A
19. Caffey’s disease is
(A) Renal osteodystrophy (B) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
(C) Osteomyelitis of jaw in children (D) Chronic osteomyelitis in children
Ans: B
20. Pain in paget’s disease is best relieved by
(A) Simple analgesics (B) Narcotic analgesics (C) Radiation (D) Calcitonin
Ans: D
21. Trident hand is seen in
(A) Achondroplasia (B) Ochronosis (C) Eosinophilic granuloma (D) Calve’s disease
Ans: A
22. Osteogenesis imperfecta has abnormality in which type of collagen?
(A) Collagen 3 (B) Collagen 2 (C) Collagen 4 (D) Collagen 1
Ans: D
23. Marble bone disease is
(A) Paget’s disease (B) Ankylosing spondylitis (C) Osteopetrosis (D) Melorheostosis
Ans: C
24. Fairbankstriangle is seen in
(A) CTEV (B) DDH (C) SCFE (D) Coxa vara
Ans: D
25. Ortolani’s test is done for
(A) Congenital dislocation of hip (B) Patella dislocation (C) Meniscal injury (D) Perthe’s disease
Ans: A
26. Antalgic hip gait is related to which of the following
(A) Waaddling gat (B) Trendelenburg gait (C) Painful hip gait (D) Short leg gait
Ans: C
27. Von-Rosen’s sign is seen in
(A) Perthe’s disease (B) SCFE (C) DDH (D) CTEV
Ans: C
28. Boutonniere deformity has
(A) Hyperextension of pip joints & flexion of dip joints (B) Hyperextension of dip joint & flexion of pip joints
(C) Flexion of dip joints and extension at mcp joint (D) Flexion of dip joints
Ans: B
29. Windswept deformity is seen in
(A) Achondroplasia (B) Ankylosing spondylitis (C) Rickets (D) Scurvy
Ans: C
30. For ankylosing spondylitis all is true except
(A) Hla-B27 is found in 90% patients (B) Uveitis is found in 40% patients
(C) Condition is commoner in females (D) Radiological symptoms don’t occur in spine before symptoms
Ans: C
31. Bisphosphonates act by
(A) Increasing the osteoid formation (B) Increasing the mineralisation of osteoid
(C) Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of bone (D) Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion
Ans: C
32. Sprengel deformity of scapula is
(A) Elevated scapula (B) Undescended neck of scapula (C) Exostosis of scapula (D) None of the above
Ans: A
33. Phocomelia is best described as
(A) Defect in development of long bones (B) Defect in development of flat bones
(C) Defect of intramembranous ossification (D) Defect of cartilage replacement by bone
Ans: A
34. In ddh, most common associated anomaly is
(A) Shallow acetabulum (B) Femoral retroversion (C) Femoral anteversion (D) Pelvic obliquity
Ans: A
35. Madelung’s deformity involves the following
(A) Knee (B) Wrist (C) Hip (D) Elbow
Ans: B
36. Which of the following is a contra-indication to bracing in perthe’s disease
(A) Full range of motion at hip (B) Containable femoral head
(C) Progressive collapse of head (D) Adequate motor stregth and balance
Ans: C
37. Talocalcaneal angle in ap view in a patient with CTEV
(A) Increases with increase in heel varus (B) Decreases with increase in heel varus
(C) Is not affected by heel varus (D) None of the above
Ans: B
38. Which point is not included in pirani scoring for CTEV?
(A) Medial crease (B) Posterior crease (C) Medial border curvature (D) Equinus rigidity
Ans: C
39. Which anti-tubercular drug should be avoided in patients with gout and tuberculosis of the musculo-skeletal system
(A) Rifampicin (B) Isoniazid (C) Ethambutol (D) Pyrazinamide
Ans: D
40. Optimal position for ankle arthrodesis is
(A) Neutral dorsiflexion, 5-10 degrees external rotaion, 5 degrees hindfoot valgus
(B) 10-20 degrees plantarflexion, 10-20 degrees external rotaion, 10 degrees hindfoot valgus
(C) 30 degrees dorsiflexion
(D) 20-30 degrees dorsiflexion, 10-20 degrees internal rotation
Ans: A
41. Which of the following is a contraindication to ankle arthrodesis
(A) Talus avn (B) Inflammatory arthropathy (C) Profound vascular disease (D) Neuropathic arthropathy
Ans: C
42. Which of the following is a contraindication for knee arthrodesis
(A) Loss of extensor mechanism (B) Neuropathic arthropathy (C) Ipsilateral hip degenerative joint disease (D) Salvage of failed Tka
Ans: C
43. Which of the following is not included in the optimal position of shoulder arthrodesis
(A) 20-30 degrees external rotation (B) 10-20 degrees forward flexion
(C) 10-20 degrees abduction (D) 30-40 degrees internal rotation
Ans: A
44. The characteristic location of lesion in idiopathic avn of femoral head is
(A) Antero-inferior (B) Postero-superior (C) Antero-superior (D) Postero-inferior
Ans: C
45. Crescent sign/ subchondral fracture is seen in which stage of ficat-arlet staging system
(A) Stage 1 (B) Stage 2 (C) Stage 3 (D) Stage 4
Ans: B
46. Charnley’s concept of thr included
(A) Lengthening of lever arm of body weight
(B) Shortening on lever arm of abductor mechanism
(C) Lengthening of abductor mechanism
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
47. Classification system for radiographic categorisation of proximal femur based on cortical thickness and canal dimensions is
(A) Schimuzu (B) Dorr (C) Dunn (D) Ficat-arlet
Ans: B
48. Khanuja Et. Al. Classification is for
(A) Cementless acetabular components in Thr (B) Cemented acetabular components of Thr
(C) Cementless stems in Thr (D) None of the above
Ans: C
49. The anatomical femoral stems have
(A) Anterior bow in metaphyseal region (B) Posterior bow in diaphyseal region
(C) Anterior bow in diaphyseal region (D) None of the above
Ans: C
50. Alval- aseptic lymphocytic vasculitis associated lesion is associated with
(A) Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings (B) Metal-on-metal bearings
(C) Ceramic-on-polyethylene bearings (D) None of the above
Ans: B
(A) Femur (B) Tibia (C) Pelvis (D) Vertebra
Ans: D
2. Nerve involved in arcade of frosche is
(A) Median (B) Ulnar (C) Pin (D) Musculocutaneous
Ans: C
3. Terry Thomas sign is seen in
(A) Lower end radius fracture (B) Scapho-lunate dislocation (C) Acetabulum fracture (D) Meniscus cyst
Ans: B
4. Anatomical snuff box tenderness indicates fracture of
(A) Scaphoid (B) Naviculum (C) Talus (D) Cuboid
Ans: A
5. Shepherd crook deformity is seen in
(A) Fibrous dysplasia (B) Adamantinoma (C) Non-ossifying fibroma (D) Fibrous cortical defect
Ans: A
6. Osteochondritis known as sever’s disease is associated with
(A) Talus (B) Naviculum (C) Scaphoid (D) Calcaneum
Ans: D
7. Which of the following bmp is FDA approved for use?
(A) Rhbmp-1 (B) Rhbmp-3 (C) Rhbmp-7 (D) Rhbmp-6
Ans: C
8. Most common site for osteosarcoma is
(A) Upper end of femur (B) Lower end of femur
(C) Lower end of humerus (D) Lower end of tibia
Ans: B
9. Dequervain’s disease typically involves
(A) Flexor policis longus (B) Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
(C) Adductor policis (D) Extensor policis brevis and abductor policis longus
Ans: D
10. The deformity of tibia in triple deformity of knee is
(A) Extension, internal rotation, anterior subluxation (B) Flexion, external rotation, posterior subluxation
(C) Extension, posterior subluxation, internal rotation (D) Flexion, internal rotation, anterior subluxation
Ans: B
11. Earliest site of bone involvement in osteomyelitis is
(A) Metaphysis (B) Diaphysis (C) Epiphysis (D) Point of entry of nutrient artery
Ans: A
12. Blades of grass lesion is found in
(A) Paget’s disease (B) Thalessemia (C) Osteoporosis (D) None of the above
Ans: A
13. Nutrient and oxygen reach the chondrocyte across the perichondrium by
(A) Capillaries (B) Diffusion (C) Along neuron (D) Active transport
Ans: B
14. Herberden’s arthropathy affects
(A) Lumbar spine (B) Symmetrically large joints (C) Sacroiliac joints (D) Distal interphalangeal joint
Ans: D
15. Pectus carinatum is seen in
(A) Scurvy (B) Rickets (C) Hemophilia (D) Osteogenesis imperfecta
Ans: B
16. Salt pepper skull is a feature of
(A) Paget’s disease (B) Eosinophilic granuloma (C) Primary hyperparathyroidism (D) Multiple myeloma
Ans: C
17. Wimberger ring sign is seen in
(A) Scurvy (B) Syphilis (C) Paget’s disease (D) Hemophilia
Ans: A
18. Osteoporosis is caused by all except
(A) Fluorosis (B) Hypogonadism (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hyperparathyroidism
Ans: A
19. Caffey’s disease is
(A) Renal osteodystrophy (B) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
(C) Osteomyelitis of jaw in children (D) Chronic osteomyelitis in children
Ans: B
20. Pain in paget’s disease is best relieved by
(A) Simple analgesics (B) Narcotic analgesics (C) Radiation (D) Calcitonin
Ans: D
21. Trident hand is seen in
(A) Achondroplasia (B) Ochronosis (C) Eosinophilic granuloma (D) Calve’s disease
Ans: A
22. Osteogenesis imperfecta has abnormality in which type of collagen?
(A) Collagen 3 (B) Collagen 2 (C) Collagen 4 (D) Collagen 1
Ans: D
23. Marble bone disease is
(A) Paget’s disease (B) Ankylosing spondylitis (C) Osteopetrosis (D) Melorheostosis
Ans: C
24. Fairbankstriangle is seen in
(A) CTEV (B) DDH (C) SCFE (D) Coxa vara
Ans: D
25. Ortolani’s test is done for
(A) Congenital dislocation of hip (B) Patella dislocation (C) Meniscal injury (D) Perthe’s disease
Ans: A
26. Antalgic hip gait is related to which of the following
(A) Waaddling gat (B) Trendelenburg gait (C) Painful hip gait (D) Short leg gait
Ans: C
27. Von-Rosen’s sign is seen in
(A) Perthe’s disease (B) SCFE (C) DDH (D) CTEV
Ans: C
28. Boutonniere deformity has
(A) Hyperextension of pip joints & flexion of dip joints (B) Hyperextension of dip joint & flexion of pip joints
(C) Flexion of dip joints and extension at mcp joint (D) Flexion of dip joints
Ans: B
29. Windswept deformity is seen in
(A) Achondroplasia (B) Ankylosing spondylitis (C) Rickets (D) Scurvy
Ans: C
30. For ankylosing spondylitis all is true except
(A) Hla-B27 is found in 90% patients (B) Uveitis is found in 40% patients
(C) Condition is commoner in females (D) Radiological symptoms don’t occur in spine before symptoms
Ans: C
31. Bisphosphonates act by
(A) Increasing the osteoid formation (B) Increasing the mineralisation of osteoid
(C) Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of bone (D) Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion
Ans: C
32. Sprengel deformity of scapula is
(A) Elevated scapula (B) Undescended neck of scapula (C) Exostosis of scapula (D) None of the above
Ans: A
33. Phocomelia is best described as
(A) Defect in development of long bones (B) Defect in development of flat bones
(C) Defect of intramembranous ossification (D) Defect of cartilage replacement by bone
Ans: A
34. In ddh, most common associated anomaly is
(A) Shallow acetabulum (B) Femoral retroversion (C) Femoral anteversion (D) Pelvic obliquity
Ans: A
35. Madelung’s deformity involves the following
(A) Knee (B) Wrist (C) Hip (D) Elbow
Ans: B
36. Which of the following is a contra-indication to bracing in perthe’s disease
(A) Full range of motion at hip (B) Containable femoral head
(C) Progressive collapse of head (D) Adequate motor stregth and balance
Ans: C
37. Talocalcaneal angle in ap view in a patient with CTEV
(A) Increases with increase in heel varus (B) Decreases with increase in heel varus
(C) Is not affected by heel varus (D) None of the above
Ans: B
38. Which point is not included in pirani scoring for CTEV?
(A) Medial crease (B) Posterior crease (C) Medial border curvature (D) Equinus rigidity
Ans: C
39. Which anti-tubercular drug should be avoided in patients with gout and tuberculosis of the musculo-skeletal system
(A) Rifampicin (B) Isoniazid (C) Ethambutol (D) Pyrazinamide
Ans: D
40. Optimal position for ankle arthrodesis is
(A) Neutral dorsiflexion, 5-10 degrees external rotaion, 5 degrees hindfoot valgus
(B) 10-20 degrees plantarflexion, 10-20 degrees external rotaion, 10 degrees hindfoot valgus
(C) 30 degrees dorsiflexion
(D) 20-30 degrees dorsiflexion, 10-20 degrees internal rotation
Ans: A
41. Which of the following is a contraindication to ankle arthrodesis
(A) Talus avn (B) Inflammatory arthropathy (C) Profound vascular disease (D) Neuropathic arthropathy
Ans: C
42. Which of the following is a contraindication for knee arthrodesis
(A) Loss of extensor mechanism (B) Neuropathic arthropathy (C) Ipsilateral hip degenerative joint disease (D) Salvage of failed Tka
Ans: C
43. Which of the following is not included in the optimal position of shoulder arthrodesis
(A) 20-30 degrees external rotation (B) 10-20 degrees forward flexion
(C) 10-20 degrees abduction (D) 30-40 degrees internal rotation
Ans: A
44. The characteristic location of lesion in idiopathic avn of femoral head is
(A) Antero-inferior (B) Postero-superior (C) Antero-superior (D) Postero-inferior
Ans: C
45. Crescent sign/ subchondral fracture is seen in which stage of ficat-arlet staging system
(A) Stage 1 (B) Stage 2 (C) Stage 3 (D) Stage 4
Ans: B
46. Charnley’s concept of thr included
(A) Lengthening of lever arm of body weight
(B) Shortening on lever arm of abductor mechanism
(C) Lengthening of abductor mechanism
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
47. Classification system for radiographic categorisation of proximal femur based on cortical thickness and canal dimensions is
(A) Schimuzu (B) Dorr (C) Dunn (D) Ficat-arlet
Ans: B
48. Khanuja Et. Al. Classification is for
(A) Cementless acetabular components in Thr (B) Cemented acetabular components of Thr
(C) Cementless stems in Thr (D) None of the above
Ans: C
49. The anatomical femoral stems have
(A) Anterior bow in metaphyseal region (B) Posterior bow in diaphyseal region
(C) Anterior bow in diaphyseal region (D) None of the above
Ans: C
50. Alval- aseptic lymphocytic vasculitis associated lesion is associated with
(A) Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings (B) Metal-on-metal bearings
(C) Ceramic-on-polyethylene bearings (D) None of the above
Ans: B
51. Hypotension asssociated with bradycardia is
(A) Cardiogenic shock (B) Septic shock (C) Hypovolemic shock (D) Neurogenic shock
Ans: D
52. Metal-on-metal bearings should be avoided in
(A) Avn femoral head (B) Revision surgery (C) Young female (D) Inflammatory arthritis
Ans: C
53. Screw home mechanism is
(A) Internal rotation of tibia on femur in extension
(B) External rotation of tibia on femur in extension
(C) Internal rotation of tibia on femur in flexion
(D) External rotation of tibia on femur in flexion
Ans: B
54. Post-cam mechanism in Tkr is a substitute for
(A) ACL (B) PCL (C) MCL (D) LCL
Ans: B
55. Caspar criteria is used in diagnosis of
(A) Psoriatric arthritis (B) Rheumatoid arthritis (C) Ankylosing spondylitis (D) Reactive synovitis
Ans: A
56. Clutton’s joint is seen in
(A) Primary syphilis (B) Secondary syphilis (C) Tertiary syphilis (D) Congenital syphilis
Ans: D
57. Periarticular calcification is seen in
(A) RA (B) Pseudogout (C) OA (D) None of the above
Ans: B
58. Looser zone is a fracture of
(A) Osteoporosis (B) Osteomalacia (C) Metastasis (D) Scurvy
Ans: B
59. Criteria for clinical clearance in cervical injury includes
(A) Presence of posterior midline tenderness (B) Presence of focal neurological deficit
(C) Evidence of intoxication (D) Normal level of alertness
Ans: D
60. Radiographic markers of cervical spine instability include
(A) Compression fracture with < 25% loss of height (B) Translation < 3.5 mm
(C) Normal intervertebral disc space (D) Angular displacement > 11 degrees between adjacent vertebra
Ans: D
61. Traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 is
(A) Jefferson fracture (B) Hangman fracture (C) Clay-shoveler fracture (D) Jones fracture
Ans: B
62. In children best remodelling is seen in fractures with
(A) Angulation in diaphysis (B) Angulation in metaphysis (C) Rotation in diaphysis (D) Rotation in metaphysis
Ans: B
63. Type 6 Rang’s injury is
(A) Transverse fracture of metaphysis with longitudinal extension into physis
(B) Open injury with loss of physis
(C) Thurston holland sign
(D) Perichondral ring injury
Ans: D
64. Perichondral ring is
(A) Seen around foramen magnum (B) Seen around epiphyseal plate
(C) More prominent in adults (D) Shear stregth increases with age
Ans: B
65. In total hip replacement, acetabular screw placement should be in
(A) Antero-superior quadrant (B) Postero-superior quadrant
(C) Antero-inferior quadrant (D) Postero-inferior quadrant
Ans: B
66. Obturator vessel is at risk when the screws are placed in which quadrant
(A) antero-superior (B) Postero-superior (C) Antero-inferior (D) Postero-inferior
Ans: C
67. Which approach to hip carries more risk of heterotropic ossification
(A) Anterior (B) Posterior (C) Lateral (D) None of the above
Ans: A
68. Complete sciatic nerve palsy in total hip replacement is associated with
(A) 5-6 cm of limb shortening (B) 1-2 cm of limb lengthening (C) 4-5 cm of limb lengthening (D) None of the above
Ans: C
69. Which of the following is not included in the criteria for peri-prosthetic infection?
(A) 2 positive periprosthetic culture with phenotypically identical organism (B) Reduced ESR and CRP
(C) Elevated synovial fluid white blood cell count (D) Positive histologic analysis of peri-prosthetic tissue
Ans: B
70. Radiological sign of perthes disease includes
(A) Epiphyseal calcification (B) Organised calcification
(C) Lateral subluxation of femoral head (D) Restriction of abduction
Ans: C
71. Perthe’s disease is treated with
(A) High dose of calcium and steroids (B) Total hip replacement
(C) Supervised containment of femoral head in acetabulum (D) Relieving weight bearing
Ans: C
72. Trethowan sign is seen in
(A) Perthe’s disease (B) DDH (C) SCFE (D) Fracture neck of femur
Ans: C
73. Rocker bottom foot is due to
(A) Overtreatment of CTEV (B) Malunited fracture calcaneum (C) Horizontal talus (D) Neural tube defect
Ans: A
74. A 4 year old child presented to the clinic with a history of fall on an outstretched hand. Radiographs revealed a broken anterior cortex with an intact posterior cortex of the shaft of radius with an exaggerated bowing of the radius. The fracture sustained is known as
(A) Torus fracture (B) Greenstick fracture (C) Galeazzi fracture (D) Monteggia fracture dislocation
Ans: B
75. Metaphyseal fracture touching physis but not crossing it comes under which type of salterharris classification
(A) Type 1 (B) Type 2 (C) Type 3 (D) Type 4
Ans: B
76. Which of the following is a contraindication to use of teriparatide
(A) Osteoporosis (B) Vertebral compression fracture (C) Paget’s disease (D) None of the above
Ans: C
77. Rissers grading is used in
(A) PIVD (B) Scoliosis (C) Vertebral compression fracture (D) None of the above
Ans: B
78. Breech presentation is a risk factor for
(A) AVN femoral head (B) Perthe’s disease (C) DDH (D) SCFE
Ans: C
79. Median nerve lesion at the wrist causes all of the following except
(A) Thenar atrophy (B) Weakness of addductor policis (C) Weakness of 1st and 2nd lumbrical (D) Weakness of flexor policis longus
Ans: B
80. French osteotomy is used in treatment of
(A) Cubitus varus (B) Coxa vara (C) Genu valgus (D) Coxa valga
Ans: A
81. Which of the following is a marker of bone formation?
(A) Procollagen Type 1 (B) Urine n telopeptide (C) Urine hydroxyproline (D) Osteonectin
Ans: A
82. Tennis elbow is charaterized by
(A) Tenderness over medial epicondyle (B) Tendinitis of common flexor origin
(C) Tendinitis of common extensor origin (D) None of the above
Ans: C
83. Osgood-schlatter disease affects
(A) Tibial tuberosity (B) Lunate (C) Calcaneum (D) Navicular
Ans: A
84. Anatomical axis of tibia is in
(A) 3 degree varus of vertical axis of body (B) 3 degree valgus of vertical axis of body
(C) Neutral alignment (D) None of the above
Ans: A
85. In total knee replacement, tibial cut is made
(A) Perpendicular to the mechanical axis (B) In 3 degree varus
(C) Perpendicular to anatomical axis (D) None of the above
Ans: A
86. Primary function of patella is
(A) Reduce lever arm of extensor mechanism (B) Increase lever arm of extensor mechanism
(C) Reduce the extensor efficience (D) None of the above
Ans: B
87. Limbs with larger q angles have a greater tendency for
(A) Medial patellar subluxation (B) Lateral patellar subluxation (C) No patellar subluxation (D) None of the above
Ans: B
88. Posterior condylar cut is in
(A) internal rotation with reference to posterior condylar axis
(B) External rotation with reference to posterior condylar axis
(C) Neutral rotation
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
89. The proximal tibial cut affects
(A) Extension gap only (B) Flexion gap only (C) Extension and flexion gap (D) None of the above
Ans: C
90. When flexion and extension gaps are loose,
(A) Use thicker tibial inserts (B) Use thinner tibial inserts (C) Use bone graft (D) None of the above
Ans: A
91. Entry point for femur alignment rod is
(A) Posterior to origin of ACL (B) Anterior to origin of PCL (C) Anterior to attachment of ACL (D) None of the above
Ans: B
92. Risk of patella devascularisation is associated with
(A) Medial release (B) Lateral release (C) Posterior release (D) None of the above
Ans: B
93. Level of lateral patellar resection should be
(A) Deeper than that of medial patellar facet resection (B) Shallower than that of medial patellar resection
(C) Equal to that of medial patellar resection (D) None of the above
Ans: B
94. Contraindication for high tibial osteotomy includes
(A) Isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis (B) Flexion contracture < 15 degrees
(C) Intact peripheral blood flow (D) Inflammatory arthritis
Ans: D
95. Peroneal nerve palsy in high tibial osteotomy is associated with
(A) Medial opening wedge osteotomy (B) Medial closing osteotomy (C) Lateral closing wedge osteotomy (D) None of the above
Ans: C
96. Whiplash injury occurs due to
(A) Fall from height (B) Acute hyperextension of spine
(C) A blow to top of head (D) Acute hyperflexion of spine
Ans: B
97. Jefferson’s fracture is
(A) Fracture of spinous process of C7 (B) Fracture of axis
(C) Fracture of ring of atlas (D) Fracture of any cervical vertebra
Ans: C
98. Return of bulbocavernous reflex in spinal shock
(A) Partial lesion of spinal cord (B) Complete transection of spinal cord
(C) Incomplete transection of spinal cord (D) Sign of recovery from spinal shock
Ans: D
99. A 40 years old male patient after road traffic accident, has spinal injury. His lower limbs power is greater than that of upper limb and sacral sensations are present. The type of lesion is
(A) Anterior cord syndrome (B) Posterior cord syndrome
(C) Central cord syndrome (D) Complete spinal cord injury
Ans: C
100. A patient presented with saddle anaesthesia, bowel and bladder are normal and muscle power is normal. The diagnosis is
(A) Cauda equina syndrome (B) L3-L4 root involvement
(C) Conus medullaris syndrome (D) L4-L5 disc prolapse
Ans: C
(A) Cardiogenic shock (B) Septic shock (C) Hypovolemic shock (D) Neurogenic shock
Ans: D
52. Metal-on-metal bearings should be avoided in
(A) Avn femoral head (B) Revision surgery (C) Young female (D) Inflammatory arthritis
Ans: C
53. Screw home mechanism is
(A) Internal rotation of tibia on femur in extension
(B) External rotation of tibia on femur in extension
(C) Internal rotation of tibia on femur in flexion
(D) External rotation of tibia on femur in flexion
Ans: B
54. Post-cam mechanism in Tkr is a substitute for
(A) ACL (B) PCL (C) MCL (D) LCL
Ans: B
55. Caspar criteria is used in diagnosis of
(A) Psoriatric arthritis (B) Rheumatoid arthritis (C) Ankylosing spondylitis (D) Reactive synovitis
Ans: A
56. Clutton’s joint is seen in
(A) Primary syphilis (B) Secondary syphilis (C) Tertiary syphilis (D) Congenital syphilis
Ans: D
57. Periarticular calcification is seen in
(A) RA (B) Pseudogout (C) OA (D) None of the above
Ans: B
58. Looser zone is a fracture of
(A) Osteoporosis (B) Osteomalacia (C) Metastasis (D) Scurvy
Ans: B
59. Criteria for clinical clearance in cervical injury includes
(A) Presence of posterior midline tenderness (B) Presence of focal neurological deficit
(C) Evidence of intoxication (D) Normal level of alertness
Ans: D
60. Radiographic markers of cervical spine instability include
(A) Compression fracture with < 25% loss of height (B) Translation < 3.5 mm
(C) Normal intervertebral disc space (D) Angular displacement > 11 degrees between adjacent vertebra
Ans: D
61. Traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 is
(A) Jefferson fracture (B) Hangman fracture (C) Clay-shoveler fracture (D) Jones fracture
Ans: B
62. In children best remodelling is seen in fractures with
(A) Angulation in diaphysis (B) Angulation in metaphysis (C) Rotation in diaphysis (D) Rotation in metaphysis
Ans: B
63. Type 6 Rang’s injury is
(A) Transverse fracture of metaphysis with longitudinal extension into physis
(B) Open injury with loss of physis
(C) Thurston holland sign
(D) Perichondral ring injury
Ans: D
64. Perichondral ring is
(A) Seen around foramen magnum (B) Seen around epiphyseal plate
(C) More prominent in adults (D) Shear stregth increases with age
Ans: B
65. In total hip replacement, acetabular screw placement should be in
(A) Antero-superior quadrant (B) Postero-superior quadrant
(C) Antero-inferior quadrant (D) Postero-inferior quadrant
Ans: B
66. Obturator vessel is at risk when the screws are placed in which quadrant
(A) antero-superior (B) Postero-superior (C) Antero-inferior (D) Postero-inferior
Ans: C
67. Which approach to hip carries more risk of heterotropic ossification
(A) Anterior (B) Posterior (C) Lateral (D) None of the above
Ans: A
68. Complete sciatic nerve palsy in total hip replacement is associated with
(A) 5-6 cm of limb shortening (B) 1-2 cm of limb lengthening (C) 4-5 cm of limb lengthening (D) None of the above
Ans: C
69. Which of the following is not included in the criteria for peri-prosthetic infection?
(A) 2 positive periprosthetic culture with phenotypically identical organism (B) Reduced ESR and CRP
(C) Elevated synovial fluid white blood cell count (D) Positive histologic analysis of peri-prosthetic tissue
Ans: B
70. Radiological sign of perthes disease includes
(A) Epiphyseal calcification (B) Organised calcification
(C) Lateral subluxation of femoral head (D) Restriction of abduction
Ans: C
71. Perthe’s disease is treated with
(A) High dose of calcium and steroids (B) Total hip replacement
(C) Supervised containment of femoral head in acetabulum (D) Relieving weight bearing
Ans: C
72. Trethowan sign is seen in
(A) Perthe’s disease (B) DDH (C) SCFE (D) Fracture neck of femur
Ans: C
73. Rocker bottom foot is due to
(A) Overtreatment of CTEV (B) Malunited fracture calcaneum (C) Horizontal talus (D) Neural tube defect
Ans: A
74. A 4 year old child presented to the clinic with a history of fall on an outstretched hand. Radiographs revealed a broken anterior cortex with an intact posterior cortex of the shaft of radius with an exaggerated bowing of the radius. The fracture sustained is known as
(A) Torus fracture (B) Greenstick fracture (C) Galeazzi fracture (D) Monteggia fracture dislocation
Ans: B
75. Metaphyseal fracture touching physis but not crossing it comes under which type of salterharris classification
(A) Type 1 (B) Type 2 (C) Type 3 (D) Type 4
Ans: B
76. Which of the following is a contraindication to use of teriparatide
(A) Osteoporosis (B) Vertebral compression fracture (C) Paget’s disease (D) None of the above
Ans: C
77. Rissers grading is used in
(A) PIVD (B) Scoliosis (C) Vertebral compression fracture (D) None of the above
Ans: B
78. Breech presentation is a risk factor for
(A) AVN femoral head (B) Perthe’s disease (C) DDH (D) SCFE
Ans: C
79. Median nerve lesion at the wrist causes all of the following except
(A) Thenar atrophy (B) Weakness of addductor policis (C) Weakness of 1st and 2nd lumbrical (D) Weakness of flexor policis longus
Ans: B
80. French osteotomy is used in treatment of
(A) Cubitus varus (B) Coxa vara (C) Genu valgus (D) Coxa valga
Ans: A
81. Which of the following is a marker of bone formation?
(A) Procollagen Type 1 (B) Urine n telopeptide (C) Urine hydroxyproline (D) Osteonectin
Ans: A
82. Tennis elbow is charaterized by
(A) Tenderness over medial epicondyle (B) Tendinitis of common flexor origin
(C) Tendinitis of common extensor origin (D) None of the above
Ans: C
83. Osgood-schlatter disease affects
(A) Tibial tuberosity (B) Lunate (C) Calcaneum (D) Navicular
Ans: A
84. Anatomical axis of tibia is in
(A) 3 degree varus of vertical axis of body (B) 3 degree valgus of vertical axis of body
(C) Neutral alignment (D) None of the above
Ans: A
85. In total knee replacement, tibial cut is made
(A) Perpendicular to the mechanical axis (B) In 3 degree varus
(C) Perpendicular to anatomical axis (D) None of the above
Ans: A
86. Primary function of patella is
(A) Reduce lever arm of extensor mechanism (B) Increase lever arm of extensor mechanism
(C) Reduce the extensor efficience (D) None of the above
Ans: B
87. Limbs with larger q angles have a greater tendency for
(A) Medial patellar subluxation (B) Lateral patellar subluxation (C) No patellar subluxation (D) None of the above
Ans: B
88. Posterior condylar cut is in
(A) internal rotation with reference to posterior condylar axis
(B) External rotation with reference to posterior condylar axis
(C) Neutral rotation
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
89. The proximal tibial cut affects
(A) Extension gap only (B) Flexion gap only (C) Extension and flexion gap (D) None of the above
Ans: C
90. When flexion and extension gaps are loose,
(A) Use thicker tibial inserts (B) Use thinner tibial inserts (C) Use bone graft (D) None of the above
Ans: A
91. Entry point for femur alignment rod is
(A) Posterior to origin of ACL (B) Anterior to origin of PCL (C) Anterior to attachment of ACL (D) None of the above
Ans: B
92. Risk of patella devascularisation is associated with
(A) Medial release (B) Lateral release (C) Posterior release (D) None of the above
Ans: B
93. Level of lateral patellar resection should be
(A) Deeper than that of medial patellar facet resection (B) Shallower than that of medial patellar resection
(C) Equal to that of medial patellar resection (D) None of the above
Ans: B
94. Contraindication for high tibial osteotomy includes
(A) Isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis (B) Flexion contracture < 15 degrees
(C) Intact peripheral blood flow (D) Inflammatory arthritis
Ans: D
95. Peroneal nerve palsy in high tibial osteotomy is associated with
(A) Medial opening wedge osteotomy (B) Medial closing osteotomy (C) Lateral closing wedge osteotomy (D) None of the above
Ans: C
96. Whiplash injury occurs due to
(A) Fall from height (B) Acute hyperextension of spine
(C) A blow to top of head (D) Acute hyperflexion of spine
Ans: B
97. Jefferson’s fracture is
(A) Fracture of spinous process of C7 (B) Fracture of axis
(C) Fracture of ring of atlas (D) Fracture of any cervical vertebra
Ans: C
98. Return of bulbocavernous reflex in spinal shock
(A) Partial lesion of spinal cord (B) Complete transection of spinal cord
(C) Incomplete transection of spinal cord (D) Sign of recovery from spinal shock
Ans: D
99. A 40 years old male patient after road traffic accident, has spinal injury. His lower limbs power is greater than that of upper limb and sacral sensations are present. The type of lesion is
(A) Anterior cord syndrome (B) Posterior cord syndrome
(C) Central cord syndrome (D) Complete spinal cord injury
Ans: C
100. A patient presented with saddle anaesthesia, bowel and bladder are normal and muscle power is normal. The diagnosis is
(A) Cauda equina syndrome (B) L3-L4 root involvement
(C) Conus medullaris syndrome (D) L4-L5 disc prolapse
Ans: C
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