OPTHALMOLOGY- PAGE 2
OPTHALMOLOGY MCQs
1. Crowding phenomena is seen in:
1) Myopia 2) Presbyopia 3) Hypermetropia 4) Ambylopia
Ans: D
2. Vision 2020 is associated with :
1) Trachoma 2) Age related macular degeneration 3) Night blindness 4) Spring catarrh
Ans: A
3. Goldenhar's syndrome is associated with what prominent ocular manifestation
1) Micro cornea 2) Basal cell carcinoma 3) Melanoma 4) Epibulbar dermoids
Ans: D
4. YAG laser wave is
1) Colorless 2) Red 3) Green 4) Blue
Ans: A
5. Bitemporal hemianopia indicates that the lesion is at :
1) Optic nerve 2) Optic tract 3) Occipital lobe 4) Optic chiasma
Ans: D
6. Which muscle is intorter of eye:
1) Inferior oblique 2) Inferior rectus 3) Superior rectus 4) Medial rectus
Ans: C
7. Under the school eye screening programme in India, the initial vision screening of school children is done by:
1) School teachers 2) Primary level health workers 3) Ophthalmic assistant 4) Medical officers
Ans: A
8. Ring of soemmering is seen in :
1) Siderosis 2) Complicated cataract 3) After cataract 4) Traumatic cataract
Ans: C
9. Hirschberg test is used to detect -
1) Manifest Squint 2) Field Charting 3) Latent squint 4) Nystagmus
Ans: A
10. Excimer laser photorefractive keratectomy :
1) is excellent for hyperopia upto 5 diopters 2) is best for myopia between 2 and 6 diopters
3) Uses a 48 mm excimer laser 4) Should be used to correct astigmatism upto to 4.5 diopters
Ans: 2
11. With-the-rule astigmatism is :
1) A negative cylinder at 180 2) A positive cylinder at 180
3) A negative cylinder at 90 4) Less common than against-the-rule astigmatism
Ans: A
12. Spring catarrh is :
1) Type I hypersensitivity reaction 2) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
3) Type III hypersensitivity reaction 4) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Ans: A
13. Macular function tests are all except :
1) Red Green glasses. 2) Entoptic view test. 3) Maddox rod test. 4) Two point discrimination test.
Ans: A
14. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome is diagnosed in a patient. All of the following are true except :
1) the condition is found worldwide 2) the peak age is 45
3) it is rare in blacks 4) it is bilateral in over 50% of patients
Ans: B
15. The difference in magnification between an intraocular lens and the original crystalline lens in approximately:
1) 0.035 2) 0.025 3) 0.015 4) 0.005
Ans: C
16. Whitnall's ligament is seen in
1) Muller's muscle 2) Frontal muscle 3) Levator palpebrae superioris 4) Superior oblique
Ans: C
17. Steroid induced cataract is :
1) Posterior subcapsular cataract 2) Anterior subcapsular cataract 3) Nuclear cataract 4) Cupulliform cataract
Ans: A
18. All the following are risk factors for the development of retinal breaks except :
1) Hypermetropia 2) Myopia 3) Lattice degeneration of the retina 4) Ocular nonsurgical trauma
Ans: A
19. Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are seen in :
1) Morgagnian cataract 2) Diabetic cataract 3) Intumescent cataract 4) Traumatic cataract
Ans: 2
20. Chronic dacrocystitis is most often caused by
1) Neisseria gonococci 2) Staphylococci 3) Chlamydia trachomatis 4) Streptococcal pneumoniae
Ans: B
21. Roth's spots are seen in :
1) Diabetes mellitus 2) Sub acute bacterial endocarditis 3) Eales disease 4) Optic nerve tumours
Ans: B
22. Blood in Schlemm's canal is seen in:
1) phacomorphic glaucoma 2) carotid-cavernous fistula 3) angle recession glaucoma 4) pseudo exfoliation
Ans: B
23. Ocular muscle most commonly involvend in thyrotoxic myopathy is
1) Superior oblique 2) Inferior oblique . 3) Inferior rectus 4) superior rectus
Ans: 3
24. Corneal curvature is measured by
1) pachymeter 2) keratometer 3) placido's disc 4) specular microscope
Ans: B
25. Macular function tests include A/E
1) amsler grid test 2) photo stress test 3) indirect slit lamp biomicroscopy 4) retinal electoretinogram
Ans: C
26. For slit lamp biomicroscopic examination all of these lenses are used except
1) hruby lens 2) goldman's 3mirror contact lens 3) 90 d lens 4) direct ophthalmoscope
Ans: D
27. In fincham's test if coloured halo is found to be broken up into segments,then dignosis may be
1) PACG 2) OAG 3) immature cataract 4) mucopurulent conjunctivitis
Ans: C
28. Homonymous hemianopia field defect may be caused by which of the following lesions:
1) A lesion of the optic chiasm 2) A lesion of the occipital lobe 3) Optic Neuritis 4) An attack of migraine
Ans: 2
29. Which of the following is contraindicated in the early management of a patient with hyphema
1) Steroids 2) Cycloplegics 3) IOP lowering agents 4) Immediate evacuation of hyphaema
Ans: D
30. Presenting symptoms of viral conjunctivitis do NOT include:
1) Watery discharge 2) Diffuse conjunctival injection 3) Foreign body sensation 4) purulent discharge
Ans: D
31. Corneal topography can be used for:
1) Diagnosing keratoconus 2) Before cataract surgery to determine the curvature of the cornea
3) Detecting astigmatism 4) All of the above
Ans: D
32. Which of the following is the first line management of keratoconus
1) collagen cross linking 2) Hard contact lenses 3) Penetrating keratoplasty 4) spectacles
Ans: D
33. Mascular edema is caused by all except
1) Microancurysm 2) Capillary dilatation 3) Increase permiability 4) none
Ans: D
34. Macular sparing homonymous hemianopia is seen in lesions of
1) Optic tract 2) Parietal lobe 3) Temporal lobe 4) Occipital lobe
Ans: D
35. Tarsorrhaphy may be indicated in which cranial nerve palsy
1) Fourth nerve 2) Third nerve 3) Seventh nerve 4) Sixth nerve
Ans: C
36. Optic atrophy has been reported following use of
1) Ethambutol 2) Streptomycin 3) 3. Isoniazid 4) All of above
Ans: D
37. The pupil which is small contracts on convergence but does no react to light is
1) Tonic pupil of Ade 2) Pupil in Horner’s syndrome 3) Marcus Gunn pupil 4) Argyl Robertson pupil
Ans: D
38. Microsperophakia in a patient of stocky build and small stubby fingers is most likely to be
1) Marfan’s syndrome 2) Ehler Danlos syndrome 3) Weil Marchesani syndrome 4) Alport syndrome
Ans: C
39. Seconday open angle glaucoma in uveitis can be due to
1) A total peripheral anterior synechia 2) Annular synechia 3) Occlusion pupil 4) Trabeculitis
Ans: D
40. Tensilon test involves injection of
1) Physostigmine 2) Acetylcholine 3) Neostigmine 4) Edrophonium chloride
Ans: D
41. All are active VEGF agents EXCEPT
1) Bevacizumab 2) Ranibizumab 3) Verteprofin 4) Pegapatanib sodium
Ans: C
42. Relative afferent papillary defect (RAPD) is characteristically seen in damage to:
1) Optic nerve 2) Optic tract 3) Lateral geniculate body 4) Occulomotor nerve
Ans: A
43. Commonest cause of traumatic myopia after injury occurs
1) damage to suspensory ligament 2) Anterior dilocation of lens 3) Posterior subluxation of lens 4) Ciliary spasm
Ans: D
44. If the pupil is not in normal position it is termed as
1) Dyscoria 2) Corectopia 3) Polycoria 4) Aniscoria
Ans: B
45. In LPS resection which ligament is landmark for resection site
1) Ligament of Lock wood 2) Whitnalls Ligament 3) Suspensory ligament of zinn 4) none of the above
Ans: 2
46. A old age person of seventy years come in eye OPD with inetermittent epiprora, What is the most likely cause physiological epiphora
1) Punctum stenosis 2) Obstruction at lower canalicular region
3) Structure of naso lacrimal duct 4) Orbicularis muscles weakness
Ans: D
47. What is the most common lympho proliferative isorder of orbit
1) Leukemia 2) Lymphoma 3) Atypical lymphoid hyperplasia 4) Histocytosis
Ans: B
48. A 20 year old women with 3D sp both eye glasses with 6/6 vision underwent lasik surgery. On next day she had corneal haze on S/L and pain with blurred vision. What is most likely diagnosis.
1) Infection Keratitis 2) Diffuse lamellar Keratitis 3) Intestitial Keratitis 4) Disciform Keratitis
Ans: B
49. If any prostaglandin are added with timolol 0.5% drops. What amount of additive reduction of intraocular pressure is seen
1) 5 to 10% 2) 10 to 15% 3) 15 to 28% 4) 25 to 40 %
Ans: C
50. Light tissue interaction for yag laser work on principle of
1) Photo coagulation 2) Photo disruption 3) Photo Ablation 4) none of the above
Ans: B
1) Myopia 2) Presbyopia 3) Hypermetropia 4) Ambylopia
Ans: D
2. Vision 2020 is associated with :
1) Trachoma 2) Age related macular degeneration 3) Night blindness 4) Spring catarrh
Ans: A
3. Goldenhar's syndrome is associated with what prominent ocular manifestation
1) Micro cornea 2) Basal cell carcinoma 3) Melanoma 4) Epibulbar dermoids
Ans: D
4. YAG laser wave is
1) Colorless 2) Red 3) Green 4) Blue
Ans: A
5. Bitemporal hemianopia indicates that the lesion is at :
1) Optic nerve 2) Optic tract 3) Occipital lobe 4) Optic chiasma
Ans: D
6. Which muscle is intorter of eye:
1) Inferior oblique 2) Inferior rectus 3) Superior rectus 4) Medial rectus
Ans: C
7. Under the school eye screening programme in India, the initial vision screening of school children is done by:
1) School teachers 2) Primary level health workers 3) Ophthalmic assistant 4) Medical officers
Ans: A
8. Ring of soemmering is seen in :
1) Siderosis 2) Complicated cataract 3) After cataract 4) Traumatic cataract
Ans: C
9. Hirschberg test is used to detect -
1) Manifest Squint 2) Field Charting 3) Latent squint 4) Nystagmus
Ans: A
10. Excimer laser photorefractive keratectomy :
1) is excellent for hyperopia upto 5 diopters 2) is best for myopia between 2 and 6 diopters
3) Uses a 48 mm excimer laser 4) Should be used to correct astigmatism upto to 4.5 diopters
Ans: 2
11. With-the-rule astigmatism is :
1) A negative cylinder at 180 2) A positive cylinder at 180
3) A negative cylinder at 90 4) Less common than against-the-rule astigmatism
Ans: A
12. Spring catarrh is :
1) Type I hypersensitivity reaction 2) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
3) Type III hypersensitivity reaction 4) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Ans: A
13. Macular function tests are all except :
1) Red Green glasses. 2) Entoptic view test. 3) Maddox rod test. 4) Two point discrimination test.
Ans: A
14. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome is diagnosed in a patient. All of the following are true except :
1) the condition is found worldwide 2) the peak age is 45
3) it is rare in blacks 4) it is bilateral in over 50% of patients
Ans: B
15. The difference in magnification between an intraocular lens and the original crystalline lens in approximately:
1) 0.035 2) 0.025 3) 0.015 4) 0.005
Ans: C
16. Whitnall's ligament is seen in
1) Muller's muscle 2) Frontal muscle 3) Levator palpebrae superioris 4) Superior oblique
Ans: C
17. Steroid induced cataract is :
1) Posterior subcapsular cataract 2) Anterior subcapsular cataract 3) Nuclear cataract 4) Cupulliform cataract
Ans: A
18. All the following are risk factors for the development of retinal breaks except :
1) Hypermetropia 2) Myopia 3) Lattice degeneration of the retina 4) Ocular nonsurgical trauma
Ans: A
19. Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are seen in :
1) Morgagnian cataract 2) Diabetic cataract 3) Intumescent cataract 4) Traumatic cataract
Ans: 2
20. Chronic dacrocystitis is most often caused by
1) Neisseria gonococci 2) Staphylococci 3) Chlamydia trachomatis 4) Streptococcal pneumoniae
Ans: B
21. Roth's spots are seen in :
1) Diabetes mellitus 2) Sub acute bacterial endocarditis 3) Eales disease 4) Optic nerve tumours
Ans: B
22. Blood in Schlemm's canal is seen in:
1) phacomorphic glaucoma 2) carotid-cavernous fistula 3) angle recession glaucoma 4) pseudo exfoliation
Ans: B
23. Ocular muscle most commonly involvend in thyrotoxic myopathy is
1) Superior oblique 2) Inferior oblique . 3) Inferior rectus 4) superior rectus
Ans: 3
24. Corneal curvature is measured by
1) pachymeter 2) keratometer 3) placido's disc 4) specular microscope
Ans: B
25. Macular function tests include A/E
1) amsler grid test 2) photo stress test 3) indirect slit lamp biomicroscopy 4) retinal electoretinogram
Ans: C
26. For slit lamp biomicroscopic examination all of these lenses are used except
1) hruby lens 2) goldman's 3mirror contact lens 3) 90 d lens 4) direct ophthalmoscope
Ans: D
27. In fincham's test if coloured halo is found to be broken up into segments,then dignosis may be
1) PACG 2) OAG 3) immature cataract 4) mucopurulent conjunctivitis
Ans: C
28. Homonymous hemianopia field defect may be caused by which of the following lesions:
1) A lesion of the optic chiasm 2) A lesion of the occipital lobe 3) Optic Neuritis 4) An attack of migraine
Ans: 2
29. Which of the following is contraindicated in the early management of a patient with hyphema
1) Steroids 2) Cycloplegics 3) IOP lowering agents 4) Immediate evacuation of hyphaema
Ans: D
30. Presenting symptoms of viral conjunctivitis do NOT include:
1) Watery discharge 2) Diffuse conjunctival injection 3) Foreign body sensation 4) purulent discharge
Ans: D
31. Corneal topography can be used for:
1) Diagnosing keratoconus 2) Before cataract surgery to determine the curvature of the cornea
3) Detecting astigmatism 4) All of the above
Ans: D
32. Which of the following is the first line management of keratoconus
1) collagen cross linking 2) Hard contact lenses 3) Penetrating keratoplasty 4) spectacles
Ans: D
33. Mascular edema is caused by all except
1) Microancurysm 2) Capillary dilatation 3) Increase permiability 4) none
Ans: D
34. Macular sparing homonymous hemianopia is seen in lesions of
1) Optic tract 2) Parietal lobe 3) Temporal lobe 4) Occipital lobe
Ans: D
35. Tarsorrhaphy may be indicated in which cranial nerve palsy
1) Fourth nerve 2) Third nerve 3) Seventh nerve 4) Sixth nerve
Ans: C
36. Optic atrophy has been reported following use of
1) Ethambutol 2) Streptomycin 3) 3. Isoniazid 4) All of above
Ans: D
37. The pupil which is small contracts on convergence but does no react to light is
1) Tonic pupil of Ade 2) Pupil in Horner’s syndrome 3) Marcus Gunn pupil 4) Argyl Robertson pupil
Ans: D
38. Microsperophakia in a patient of stocky build and small stubby fingers is most likely to be
1) Marfan’s syndrome 2) Ehler Danlos syndrome 3) Weil Marchesani syndrome 4) Alport syndrome
Ans: C
39. Seconday open angle glaucoma in uveitis can be due to
1) A total peripheral anterior synechia 2) Annular synechia 3) Occlusion pupil 4) Trabeculitis
Ans: D
40. Tensilon test involves injection of
1) Physostigmine 2) Acetylcholine 3) Neostigmine 4) Edrophonium chloride
Ans: D
41. All are active VEGF agents EXCEPT
1) Bevacizumab 2) Ranibizumab 3) Verteprofin 4) Pegapatanib sodium
Ans: C
42. Relative afferent papillary defect (RAPD) is characteristically seen in damage to:
1) Optic nerve 2) Optic tract 3) Lateral geniculate body 4) Occulomotor nerve
Ans: A
43. Commonest cause of traumatic myopia after injury occurs
1) damage to suspensory ligament 2) Anterior dilocation of lens 3) Posterior subluxation of lens 4) Ciliary spasm
Ans: D
44. If the pupil is not in normal position it is termed as
1) Dyscoria 2) Corectopia 3) Polycoria 4) Aniscoria
Ans: B
45. In LPS resection which ligament is landmark for resection site
1) Ligament of Lock wood 2) Whitnalls Ligament 3) Suspensory ligament of zinn 4) none of the above
Ans: 2
46. A old age person of seventy years come in eye OPD with inetermittent epiprora, What is the most likely cause physiological epiphora
1) Punctum stenosis 2) Obstruction at lower canalicular region
3) Structure of naso lacrimal duct 4) Orbicularis muscles weakness
Ans: D
47. What is the most common lympho proliferative isorder of orbit
1) Leukemia 2) Lymphoma 3) Atypical lymphoid hyperplasia 4) Histocytosis
Ans: B
48. A 20 year old women with 3D sp both eye glasses with 6/6 vision underwent lasik surgery. On next day she had corneal haze on S/L and pain with blurred vision. What is most likely diagnosis.
1) Infection Keratitis 2) Diffuse lamellar Keratitis 3) Intestitial Keratitis 4) Disciform Keratitis
Ans: B
49. If any prostaglandin are added with timolol 0.5% drops. What amount of additive reduction of intraocular pressure is seen
1) 5 to 10% 2) 10 to 15% 3) 15 to 28% 4) 25 to 40 %
Ans: C
50. Light tissue interaction for yag laser work on principle of
1) Photo coagulation 2) Photo disruption 3) Photo Ablation 4) none of the above
Ans: B
51:-The usual angle subtended by the visual axis and anatomical axis of the eye is A:-0 degree B:-5 degree C:-10 degree D:-15 degree Ans: B
52:-The superior rectus muscle is inserted _ mm behind the superior limbus A:-5.5 mm B:-6.5 mm C:-6.9 mm D:-7.7 mm Ans: D
53:-The primary and secondary actions of superior rectus muscle are A:-elevation, adduction and intorsion B:-elevation, abduction and intorsion C:-elevation, adduction and extorsion D:-elevation, abduction and extorsion Ans: A
54:-The angle subtended between the visual axis and the orbital axis when the eye looks straight ahead at a fixed point is A:-10 degree B:-23 degree C:-30 degree D:-35 degree Ans: B
55:-The yoke muscle of left superior oblique is A:-left inferior oblique B:-right inferior oblique C:-right inferior rectus D:-left inferior rectus Ans: C
56:-ln paretic squint A:-secondary deviation is the same as primary deviation B:-secondary deviation exceeds primary deviation C:-secondary deviation is less than primary deviation D:-none of the above Ans: B
57:-The following are tests for stereopsis EXCEPT
A:-TNO
B:-FRISBY
C:-TITMUS
D:-CARDIFF CARDS
Ans: D
58:-During Hirschberg test, if the corneal light reflection is seen at the temporal border of a 4 mm size pupil the angle of deviation of the eye is about A:-5 degree B:-15 degree C:-30 degree D:-45 degree Ans: B
59:-The following statements about congenital / essential / infantile esotropia are true EXCEPT A:-idiopathic condition with a small (<10 D) angle of deviation B:-develops within first 6 months of life C:-no significant refractive error D:-associated with limitation of ocular movements Ans: D
60:-The following surgical procedure weakens the action of an extraocular muscle A:-resection B:-advancement of muscle nearer to the limbus C:-posterior fixation suture D:-tucking Ans: C
61:-The following statement regarding Treacher Collins syndrome is true EXCEPT A:-malformation of the derivatives of first and second branchial arches B:-associated with micrognatia and malformed ears C:-coloboma of upper eyelid D:-cataract Ans: C
62:-The following statement regarding capillary hemangioma is true A:-presents one year after birth B:-more common in females C:-seen more in lower eyelid D:-not associated with orbital extensions and visceral hemangiomas Ans: B
63:-Majority of the basal cell carcinoma lesions are seen in the A:-lower eyelid B:-medial canthus C:-upper eyelid D:-lateral canthus Ans: A
64:-The following statements are true about intradermal naevus EXCEPT A:-most common type of acquired melanocytic naevus B:-seen mainly in elderly patients C:-papillomatous lesion with only little pigmentation D:-has malignant potential Ans: D
65:-The most common primary orbital malignancy in children is A:-embryonal sarcoma B:-neuroblastoma C:-myeloid sarcoma D:-Langerhans cell granulomatosis Ans: A
66:-ln preseptal cellulitis, the following finding is not seen A:-normal pupillary reaction B:-proptosis C:-no chemosis D:-normal ocular motility Ans: B
67:-The following features are seen in adult patients with idiopathic orbital inflammatory disease EXCEPT
A:-bilateral periorbital swelling
B:-radiotherapy may be considered if there is not improvement after 2 weeks of adequate steroid therapy. C:-severe prolonged inflammation can lead to a frozen orbit
D:-spontaneous remission can occur in some cases
Ans: A
68:-The characteristic 5 shaped ptosis is seen in A:-myasthenia gravis B:-injury to levator palpebrae superioris C:-acute dacryoadenitis D:-third carnial nerve palsy Ans: C
69:-The following structures pass through the superior orbital fissure EXCEPT A:-superior division of Oculomotor nerve B:-inferior division of Oculomotor nerve C:-superior Ophthalmic vein D:-inferior Ophthalmic vein Ans: D
70:-Pseudo - enophthalmos is seen in A:-blow out fracture of orbital floor B:-atrophy of orbital contents following radiotherapy C:-metastatic schirrous carcinoma of orbit D:-microphthalmos Ans: D
71:-The most common tumour causing optico ciliary collaterals is A:-optic nerve sheath meningioma B:-optic nerve glioma C:-cavernous hemangioma D:-capillary hemangioma Ans: A
72:-The following statements are true about thyroid eye disease EXCEPT A:-smoking is a risk factor for developing thyroid eye disease B:-males are affected more than females C:-the disease is not related with the severity of thyroid dysfuction D:-radioactive iodine used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism can worsen the thyroid eye disease Ans: B
73:-The following findings are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 EXCEPT A:-acoustic neuroma B:-meningioma C:-optic nerve glioma D:-neurofibroma Ans: A
74:-A 10 years old girl presents to an eye hospital with anterior uveitis and polyarthritis. ANA test positive, Rheumatoid factor negative. Most likely diagnosis is A:-Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B:-Juvenile idiopathic arthritis C:-Systemic lupus erythematosus D:-Polyarteritis nodosa Ans: B
75:-A patient with giant cell arteritis can present with the following ocular findings EXCEPT A:-anterior ischemic optic neuropathy B:-central retinal artery occlusion C:-central retinal vein occlusion D:-diplopia Ans: C
76:-Marfan's syndrome patient can present with all the following EXCEPT
A:-ectopia lentis B:-retinal detachment C:-hypermetropia D:-hypoplasia of dilator pupillae
Ans: C
77:-A patient presents with fever, parotid gland enlargement, uveitis and facial cranial nerve palsy. Most likely diagnosis is A:-Mumps B:-Heerfordt syndrome C:-Multiple sclerosis D:-Reiter syndrome Ans: B
78:-The following are diagnostic criteria for Behcet syndrome EXCEPT A:-painful oral aphthous ulceration B:-arthritis C:-uveitis D:-erythema nodosum Ans: B
79:-The following is TRUE in myasthenia gravis A:-positive ice pack test B:-weakness of skeletal and cardiac muscles C:-affects males more than females D:-negative edrophonium test Ans: A
80:-The following features of vortex keratopathy are true EXCEPT A:-visual acuity is not affected by the corneal epithelial deposits in the visual axis B:-due to hydroxychloroquine has no relationship to the dosage and duration of treatment. C:-keratopathy due to amiodarone is related to the dose and duration of treatment D:-the keratopathy changes due to hydroxychloroquine are not usually reversible on cessation of treatment Ans: D
81:-The following statements regarding homocystinuria are true EXCEPT A:-enzyme cystathionine synthetase is deficient. B:-intravascular thrombosis can occur during general anesthesia C:-downward dislocation of lens is seen in some patients D:-autosomal dominant inheritance Ans: D
82:-In Trisomy 21 patients, the iris lesions are termed as A:-lisch nodules B:-brushfield spots C:-iris nevi D:-iris mammillations Ans: B
83:-The commonest cause of blindness in India is A:-diabetic retinopathy B:-glaucoma C:-age related macular degeneration D:-cataract Ans: D
84:-The National Program for Control of Blindness was launched in India in A:-1971 B:-1976 C:-1982 D:-1990 Ans: B
85:-The chairman of the District Blindness Control Society is A:-District Medical Officer B:-District Ophthalmic Surgeon C:-District Collector D:-District Programme Officer Ans: C
86:-The following diseases are being managed under vision 2020 EXCEPT
A:-cataract B:-refractive errors
C:-glaucoma D:-onchocerciasis
Ans: C
87:-Watzke Allen test helps in diagnosis of which condition
A:-AMD
B:-Best disease
C:-Macular hole
D:-Oguchi's disease
Ans: C
88:-After death, the donated eye should be removed within A:-two hours B:-six hours C:-twelve hours D:-twenty four hours
Ans: B
89:-The main source of antigens for corneal allograft rejection is from A:-corneal epithelium‘ ‘ B:-bowman's membrane C:-corneal stromal tissue D:-corneal endothelium Ans: D
90:-Donor corneoscleral button can be preserved in McCarey Kaufman medium for A:-two days B:-four days C:-two weeks D:-two months Ans: B
91:-ln severe Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy, panretinal laser photocoagulation is first given to which part of the retina A:-superior B:-temporal C:-inferior D:-nasal Ans: C
92:-Spatulated surgical needles are used in the following surgeries EXCEPT A:-corneoscleral suturing B:-scleral buckling surgery for retinal detachment C:-strabismus surgery D:-dacryocystorhinostomy Ans: D
93:-The Tooke corneal knife can be used in all the following surgeries EXCEPT A:-full thickness keratoplasty B:-trabeculectomy surgery C:-lamellar keratoplasty D:-pterygium surgery Ans: A
94:-The McPherson forceps should not be used for
A:-tying 10.0 sutures B:-holding the intraocular lens during its implantation C:-holding the scleral tissue during sclerocorneal wound suturing D:-tearing the anterior capsule of the lens in cataract surgery Ans: C
95:-Compared to bupivacaine 0.5%, lignocaine 2% has
A:-longer time for onset of action B:-longer duration of anaesthesia
C:-longer duration of analgesia D:- none of the above Ans: D
96:-Wavelength of Nd Yag laser light is
A:-193 nm B:-488 nm C:-532 nm D:-1064 nm
Ans: D
97:-The following wavelength is not used during retinal laser treatment of macular lesions A:-488 nm B:-514 nm C:-532 nm D:-577 nm Ans: A
98:-Destruction of the pathogenic microorganisms and spores from surgical instruments is termed as A:-sterilisation B:-disinfection C:-decontamination D:-sanitization Ans: A
99:-The National Program for Control of Blindness aims at reducing the prevalence of blindness by 2020 to A:-0.l% B:-0.3% C:-0.5% D:-1% Ans: B
100:-Khodadoust line is seen in A:-keratoconus B:-pterygium C:-corneal graft rejection D:-siderosis
Ans: C
52:-The superior rectus muscle is inserted _ mm behind the superior limbus A:-5.5 mm B:-6.5 mm C:-6.9 mm D:-7.7 mm Ans: D
53:-The primary and secondary actions of superior rectus muscle are A:-elevation, adduction and intorsion B:-elevation, abduction and intorsion C:-elevation, adduction and extorsion D:-elevation, abduction and extorsion Ans: A
54:-The angle subtended between the visual axis and the orbital axis when the eye looks straight ahead at a fixed point is A:-10 degree B:-23 degree C:-30 degree D:-35 degree Ans: B
55:-The yoke muscle of left superior oblique is A:-left inferior oblique B:-right inferior oblique C:-right inferior rectus D:-left inferior rectus Ans: C
56:-ln paretic squint A:-secondary deviation is the same as primary deviation B:-secondary deviation exceeds primary deviation C:-secondary deviation is less than primary deviation D:-none of the above Ans: B
57:-The following are tests for stereopsis EXCEPT
A:-TNO
B:-FRISBY
C:-TITMUS
D:-CARDIFF CARDS
Ans: D
58:-During Hirschberg test, if the corneal light reflection is seen at the temporal border of a 4 mm size pupil the angle of deviation of the eye is about A:-5 degree B:-15 degree C:-30 degree D:-45 degree Ans: B
59:-The following statements about congenital / essential / infantile esotropia are true EXCEPT A:-idiopathic condition with a small (<10 D) angle of deviation B:-develops within first 6 months of life C:-no significant refractive error D:-associated with limitation of ocular movements Ans: D
60:-The following surgical procedure weakens the action of an extraocular muscle A:-resection B:-advancement of muscle nearer to the limbus C:-posterior fixation suture D:-tucking Ans: C
61:-The following statement regarding Treacher Collins syndrome is true EXCEPT A:-malformation of the derivatives of first and second branchial arches B:-associated with micrognatia and malformed ears C:-coloboma of upper eyelid D:-cataract Ans: C
62:-The following statement regarding capillary hemangioma is true A:-presents one year after birth B:-more common in females C:-seen more in lower eyelid D:-not associated with orbital extensions and visceral hemangiomas Ans: B
63:-Majority of the basal cell carcinoma lesions are seen in the A:-lower eyelid B:-medial canthus C:-upper eyelid D:-lateral canthus Ans: A
64:-The following statements are true about intradermal naevus EXCEPT A:-most common type of acquired melanocytic naevus B:-seen mainly in elderly patients C:-papillomatous lesion with only little pigmentation D:-has malignant potential Ans: D
65:-The most common primary orbital malignancy in children is A:-embryonal sarcoma B:-neuroblastoma C:-myeloid sarcoma D:-Langerhans cell granulomatosis Ans: A
66:-ln preseptal cellulitis, the following finding is not seen A:-normal pupillary reaction B:-proptosis C:-no chemosis D:-normal ocular motility Ans: B
67:-The following features are seen in adult patients with idiopathic orbital inflammatory disease EXCEPT
A:-bilateral periorbital swelling
B:-radiotherapy may be considered if there is not improvement after 2 weeks of adequate steroid therapy. C:-severe prolonged inflammation can lead to a frozen orbit
D:-spontaneous remission can occur in some cases
Ans: A
68:-The characteristic 5 shaped ptosis is seen in A:-myasthenia gravis B:-injury to levator palpebrae superioris C:-acute dacryoadenitis D:-third carnial nerve palsy Ans: C
69:-The following structures pass through the superior orbital fissure EXCEPT A:-superior division of Oculomotor nerve B:-inferior division of Oculomotor nerve C:-superior Ophthalmic vein D:-inferior Ophthalmic vein Ans: D
70:-Pseudo - enophthalmos is seen in A:-blow out fracture of orbital floor B:-atrophy of orbital contents following radiotherapy C:-metastatic schirrous carcinoma of orbit D:-microphthalmos Ans: D
71:-The most common tumour causing optico ciliary collaterals is A:-optic nerve sheath meningioma B:-optic nerve glioma C:-cavernous hemangioma D:-capillary hemangioma Ans: A
72:-The following statements are true about thyroid eye disease EXCEPT A:-smoking is a risk factor for developing thyroid eye disease B:-males are affected more than females C:-the disease is not related with the severity of thyroid dysfuction D:-radioactive iodine used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism can worsen the thyroid eye disease Ans: B
73:-The following findings are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 EXCEPT A:-acoustic neuroma B:-meningioma C:-optic nerve glioma D:-neurofibroma Ans: A
74:-A 10 years old girl presents to an eye hospital with anterior uveitis and polyarthritis. ANA test positive, Rheumatoid factor negative. Most likely diagnosis is A:-Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis B:-Juvenile idiopathic arthritis C:-Systemic lupus erythematosus D:-Polyarteritis nodosa Ans: B
75:-A patient with giant cell arteritis can present with the following ocular findings EXCEPT A:-anterior ischemic optic neuropathy B:-central retinal artery occlusion C:-central retinal vein occlusion D:-diplopia Ans: C
76:-Marfan's syndrome patient can present with all the following EXCEPT
A:-ectopia lentis B:-retinal detachment C:-hypermetropia D:-hypoplasia of dilator pupillae
Ans: C
77:-A patient presents with fever, parotid gland enlargement, uveitis and facial cranial nerve palsy. Most likely diagnosis is A:-Mumps B:-Heerfordt syndrome C:-Multiple sclerosis D:-Reiter syndrome Ans: B
78:-The following are diagnostic criteria for Behcet syndrome EXCEPT A:-painful oral aphthous ulceration B:-arthritis C:-uveitis D:-erythema nodosum Ans: B
79:-The following is TRUE in myasthenia gravis A:-positive ice pack test B:-weakness of skeletal and cardiac muscles C:-affects males more than females D:-negative edrophonium test Ans: A
80:-The following features of vortex keratopathy are true EXCEPT A:-visual acuity is not affected by the corneal epithelial deposits in the visual axis B:-due to hydroxychloroquine has no relationship to the dosage and duration of treatment. C:-keratopathy due to amiodarone is related to the dose and duration of treatment D:-the keratopathy changes due to hydroxychloroquine are not usually reversible on cessation of treatment Ans: D
81:-The following statements regarding homocystinuria are true EXCEPT A:-enzyme cystathionine synthetase is deficient. B:-intravascular thrombosis can occur during general anesthesia C:-downward dislocation of lens is seen in some patients D:-autosomal dominant inheritance Ans: D
82:-In Trisomy 21 patients, the iris lesions are termed as A:-lisch nodules B:-brushfield spots C:-iris nevi D:-iris mammillations Ans: B
83:-The commonest cause of blindness in India is A:-diabetic retinopathy B:-glaucoma C:-age related macular degeneration D:-cataract Ans: D
84:-The National Program for Control of Blindness was launched in India in A:-1971 B:-1976 C:-1982 D:-1990 Ans: B
85:-The chairman of the District Blindness Control Society is A:-District Medical Officer B:-District Ophthalmic Surgeon C:-District Collector D:-District Programme Officer Ans: C
86:-The following diseases are being managed under vision 2020 EXCEPT
A:-cataract B:-refractive errors
C:-glaucoma D:-onchocerciasis
Ans: C
87:-Watzke Allen test helps in diagnosis of which condition
A:-AMD
B:-Best disease
C:-Macular hole
D:-Oguchi's disease
Ans: C
88:-After death, the donated eye should be removed within A:-two hours B:-six hours C:-twelve hours D:-twenty four hours
Ans: B
89:-The main source of antigens for corneal allograft rejection is from A:-corneal epithelium‘ ‘ B:-bowman's membrane C:-corneal stromal tissue D:-corneal endothelium Ans: D
90:-Donor corneoscleral button can be preserved in McCarey Kaufman medium for A:-two days B:-four days C:-two weeks D:-two months Ans: B
91:-ln severe Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy, panretinal laser photocoagulation is first given to which part of the retina A:-superior B:-temporal C:-inferior D:-nasal Ans: C
92:-Spatulated surgical needles are used in the following surgeries EXCEPT A:-corneoscleral suturing B:-scleral buckling surgery for retinal detachment C:-strabismus surgery D:-dacryocystorhinostomy Ans: D
93:-The Tooke corneal knife can be used in all the following surgeries EXCEPT A:-full thickness keratoplasty B:-trabeculectomy surgery C:-lamellar keratoplasty D:-pterygium surgery Ans: A
94:-The McPherson forceps should not be used for
A:-tying 10.0 sutures B:-holding the intraocular lens during its implantation C:-holding the scleral tissue during sclerocorneal wound suturing D:-tearing the anterior capsule of the lens in cataract surgery Ans: C
95:-Compared to bupivacaine 0.5%, lignocaine 2% has
A:-longer time for onset of action B:-longer duration of anaesthesia
C:-longer duration of analgesia D:- none of the above Ans: D
96:-Wavelength of Nd Yag laser light is
A:-193 nm B:-488 nm C:-532 nm D:-1064 nm
Ans: D
97:-The following wavelength is not used during retinal laser treatment of macular lesions A:-488 nm B:-514 nm C:-532 nm D:-577 nm Ans: A
98:-Destruction of the pathogenic microorganisms and spores from surgical instruments is termed as A:-sterilisation B:-disinfection C:-decontamination D:-sanitization Ans: A
99:-The National Program for Control of Blindness aims at reducing the prevalence of blindness by 2020 to A:-0.l% B:-0.3% C:-0.5% D:-1% Ans: B
100:-Khodadoust line is seen in A:-keratoconus B:-pterygium C:-corneal graft rejection D:-siderosis
Ans: C
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