MICROBIOLOGY (MEDICAL EDUCATION)- PAGE 3
MICROBIOLOGY (MEDICAL EDUCATION)
1. Yeast like fungus is :
(A) Candida albicans (B) Trichophyton
(C) Cryptococcus neoformans (D) Epidermophyton
Ans: A
2. Which one of the following Bacteria is Cell wall deficient ?
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Salmonella typhi
(C) Mycoplasma (D) Treponema pallidum
Ans: C
3. Which of the following is Ig E mediated ?
(A) Anaphylaxis (B) Serum sickness
(C) Tuberculin test (D) Arthus reaction
Ans: A
4. Pili can be detected by :
(A) ZN staining (B) India ink preparation
(C) Hanging drop preparation (D) Haemagglutination
Ans: D
5. Methods of capsular stain :
(A) India Ink (B) Gram stain
(C) Albert stain (D) ZN stain
Ans: A
6. Natural passive immunity includes all Except :
(A) Through placenta from mother to fetus
(B) Acquired after recovery from infectious disease.
(C) By colostrums to infant from mother.
(D) Through mother’s milk to child.
Ans: B
7. Which of the following is true for bacterial cell wall ?
(A) Associated with motility (B) Associated with endotoxin
(C) Shows Quellung Phenomenon (D) Also called as capsule
Ans: B
8. All the following statements are true, Except:
(A) Conventional PCR is only qualitative, not quantitative.
(B) PCR cannot differentiate between viable or nonviable organisms
(C) PCR can be used to detect genes of drug resistance
(D) Conventional PCR amplifies only the RNA
Ans: D
9. Dermatophyte infecting hair & skin only :
(A) Microsporum (B) Trichophyton
(C) Epidermophyton (D) All of the above
Ans: A
10. Which of the following is Selective medium ?
(A) Chocolate Agar (B) Blood Agar
(C) Nutrient Agar (D) Potassium Tellurite Agar
Ans: D
11. Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis ?
(A) Acid fastness (B) Spore formation
(C) Capsulated (D) Gram negative
Ans: A
12. Lawn culture is employed for:
(A) Viable count (B) Antibiotic sensitivity
(C) Motility of bacteria (D) Primary inoculation of clinical specimen
Ans: B
13. Autoclaving is the method to sterilise :
(A) Inoculating wire loops (B) Surgical Instruments
(C) Loeffler’s serum slope (D) Plasma
Ans: B
14. Organism arranged in clusters resembling ‘bunch of grapes’:
(A) C. diphtheria (B) Staphylococci
(C) Streptococci (D) Actinomycetes
Ans: B
15. In ZN stain discoloration of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis is done by
(A) 25% H2 SO4 (B) 5% H2 SO4 (C) 10% H2 SO4 (D) 1% H2 SO4
Ans: A
16. An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the organism?
(A) Nose (B) Colon
(C) Vagina (D) Throat
Ans: A
17. Which of the following Immunoglobulin is secreted in breast milk
(A) Ig M (B) Ig G
(C) Ig A (D) Ig E
Ans: C
18. Which of the following is true for Selenite F Broth ?
(A) Enrichment media (B) Differential media
(C) Enriched media (D) Transport media
Ans: A
19. Dimorphic fungi is / are :
(A) H.capsulatum (B) Sporotrichum
(C) Blastomyces (D) All of the above
Ans: D
20. Low redox potential of culture medium is required for growth of
(A) Anaerobic Bacteria (B) Escherichia coli
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) None of the above
Ans: A
21. Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea except
(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Vibrio cholera
(C) Enterococcus faecalis (D) Escherichia coli
Ans: C
22. The role of bacterial capsules as virulence factors is usually related to their ability to interfere with
(A) Antibody binding
(B) B lymphocyte activation
(C) Antibacterial penetration of bacterial cells
(D) Phagocytosis
Ans: D
23. The coagulase test is used to differentiate
(A) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
(B) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
(C) Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
Ans: B
24. Which compound is found in the envelopes of Gram-positive bacteria, but not in Gram-negatives?
(A) Peptidoglycan. (B) Teichoic acid
(C) Porin proteins. (D) Capsule
Ans: B
25. Which one of the following is true
(A) Agar has nutrient properties
(B) Chocolate medium is selective medium
(C) Addition of selective substances in a solid medium is called enrichment media
(D) Nutrient broth is basal medium
Ans: D
26. Larval form of Taenia solium is seen in:
(A) Pig (B) Cattle
(C) Dog (D) Cat
Ans: A
27. Which of the following tests would be most useful for examination of Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts in stool?
(A) Trichrome stain (B) Modified acid-fast stain
(C) Gram stain (D) Methylene blue stain
Ans: B
28. MALDI-TOF stands for:
(A) Matrix assisted laser desorption Ionisation Time of Flight
(B) Matrix assisted light dissociation Ionisation Time of Flight
(C) Matrix associated lens Desorption Identification Time of Flight
(D) Matrix associated Laser Desorption Ionisation Total of Flight
Ans: A
29. What is the symmetry of Poxviruses ?
(A) Icosahedral (B) Complex
(C) Helical (D) None of the above
Ans: B
30. Relapse of malaria is not seen in infection with:
(A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Plasmodium ovale
(C) Plasmodium falciparum (D) All of the above
Ans: C
31. BCG vaccine is:
(A) a live attenuated vaccine (B) a subunit vaccine
(C) a killed vaccine (D) a synthetic peptide vaccine
Ans: A
32. Diagnosis of Typhoid fever in the first week is by
(A) Widal test (B) Urine culture
(C) Stool culture (D) Blood culture
Ans: D
33. Which of the following bacteria is sexually transmitted and causes soft chancre?
(A) T. pallidum (B) H. aegyptius
(C) H. ducreyi (D) H. influenza
Ans: C
34. Which of the following disease is tick borne?
(A) Kyasanur Forest disease (B) Dengue
(C) Yellow fever (D) Japanese encephalitis
Ans: A
35. Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections except :
(A) Klebsiella pneumonia (B) Escherichia coli
(C) Bacteriodes fragilis (D) Proteus mirabilis
Ans: C
36. Cold agglutinin test is useful for the diagnosis of
(A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae (B) H. influenza
(C) N. menigitidis (D) Cryptococcus neoformans
Ans: A
37. Granules of Madurella mycetomatis are :
(A) White (B) Red
(C) Black (D) Yellow
Ans: C
38. Which of the following bacteria produces saccharolytic reaction in RCMB
(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Clostridium tetani
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) None of the above
Ans: A
39. A parasite that must spend atleast part of its life cycle on or in host is called;
(A) Facultative parasite (B) Hyperparasite
(C) Obligate parasite (D) Pathogenic Parasite
Ans: C
40. Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular pathogens?
(A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) B cells
(C) Antibodies (D) Complement
Ans: A
41. A type of cell culture that can reproduce for an extended number of generations and is used to support viral replication is
(A) Primary cell culture (B) Continuous cell line culture
(C) Cell strain (D) Connective tissue
Ans: B
42. Presence of Taurocholate in Mac Conkey agar makes the media
(A) Differential media (B) Selective media
(C) Basal media (D) Enriched media
Ans: B
43. Which of the following inference indicates the ability of an organism to utilise citrate as a sole source of carbon in Simmon’s citrate medium?
(A) Blue colour (B) Appearance of growth
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
44. Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
(A) Retrovirus (B) Enterovirus
(C) Rhabdovirus (D) Adenovirus
Ans: D
45. Cell mediated Immunity is by virtue of:
(A) NK cell (B) Eosinophil
(C) Cytotoxic T cells (D) All of the above
Ans: D
46. Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity?
(A) Artificially acquired active immunity (B) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(C) Naturally acquired active immunity (D) None of the above
Ans: B
47. Example(s) of enriched medium/media is/ are
(A) Loeffler’s serum slope (B) Blood agar
(C) Blood culture media (D) All of the above
Ans: D
48. An epitope is
(A) a B-cell (B) a hapten.
(C) an antibody (D) The antigenic determinant site.
Ans: D
49. All the following statements about cytomegalovirus infection are true Except :
(A) Humans are the only host for CMV (B) It can cause congenital infections
(C) It is a RNA virus (D) Can cause Chorioretinitis
Ans: C
50. Which of the following is likely to contain structures composed of N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine:
(A) Spheroplasts (B) Mycoplasmas
(C) Staphylococcus (D) Amoebas
Ans: C
(A) Candida albicans (B) Trichophyton
(C) Cryptococcus neoformans (D) Epidermophyton
Ans: A
2. Which one of the following Bacteria is Cell wall deficient ?
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Salmonella typhi
(C) Mycoplasma (D) Treponema pallidum
Ans: C
3. Which of the following is Ig E mediated ?
(A) Anaphylaxis (B) Serum sickness
(C) Tuberculin test (D) Arthus reaction
Ans: A
4. Pili can be detected by :
(A) ZN staining (B) India ink preparation
(C) Hanging drop preparation (D) Haemagglutination
Ans: D
5. Methods of capsular stain :
(A) India Ink (B) Gram stain
(C) Albert stain (D) ZN stain
Ans: A
6. Natural passive immunity includes all Except :
(A) Through placenta from mother to fetus
(B) Acquired after recovery from infectious disease.
(C) By colostrums to infant from mother.
(D) Through mother’s milk to child.
Ans: B
7. Which of the following is true for bacterial cell wall ?
(A) Associated with motility (B) Associated with endotoxin
(C) Shows Quellung Phenomenon (D) Also called as capsule
Ans: B
8. All the following statements are true, Except:
(A) Conventional PCR is only qualitative, not quantitative.
(B) PCR cannot differentiate between viable or nonviable organisms
(C) PCR can be used to detect genes of drug resistance
(D) Conventional PCR amplifies only the RNA
Ans: D
9. Dermatophyte infecting hair & skin only :
(A) Microsporum (B) Trichophyton
(C) Epidermophyton (D) All of the above
Ans: A
10. Which of the following is Selective medium ?
(A) Chocolate Agar (B) Blood Agar
(C) Nutrient Agar (D) Potassium Tellurite Agar
Ans: D
11. Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis ?
(A) Acid fastness (B) Spore formation
(C) Capsulated (D) Gram negative
Ans: A
12. Lawn culture is employed for:
(A) Viable count (B) Antibiotic sensitivity
(C) Motility of bacteria (D) Primary inoculation of clinical specimen
Ans: B
13. Autoclaving is the method to sterilise :
(A) Inoculating wire loops (B) Surgical Instruments
(C) Loeffler’s serum slope (D) Plasma
Ans: B
14. Organism arranged in clusters resembling ‘bunch of grapes’:
(A) C. diphtheria (B) Staphylococci
(C) Streptococci (D) Actinomycetes
Ans: B
15. In ZN stain discoloration of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis is done by
(A) 25% H2 SO4 (B) 5% H2 SO4 (C) 10% H2 SO4 (D) 1% H2 SO4
Ans: A
16. An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the organism?
(A) Nose (B) Colon
(C) Vagina (D) Throat
Ans: A
17. Which of the following Immunoglobulin is secreted in breast milk
(A) Ig M (B) Ig G
(C) Ig A (D) Ig E
Ans: C
18. Which of the following is true for Selenite F Broth ?
(A) Enrichment media (B) Differential media
(C) Enriched media (D) Transport media
Ans: A
19. Dimorphic fungi is / are :
(A) H.capsulatum (B) Sporotrichum
(C) Blastomyces (D) All of the above
Ans: D
20. Low redox potential of culture medium is required for growth of
(A) Anaerobic Bacteria (B) Escherichia coli
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) None of the above
Ans: A
21. Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea except
(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Vibrio cholera
(C) Enterococcus faecalis (D) Escherichia coli
Ans: C
22. The role of bacterial capsules as virulence factors is usually related to their ability to interfere with
(A) Antibody binding
(B) B lymphocyte activation
(C) Antibacterial penetration of bacterial cells
(D) Phagocytosis
Ans: D
23. The coagulase test is used to differentiate
(A) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
(B) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
(C) Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
Ans: B
24. Which compound is found in the envelopes of Gram-positive bacteria, but not in Gram-negatives?
(A) Peptidoglycan. (B) Teichoic acid
(C) Porin proteins. (D) Capsule
Ans: B
25. Which one of the following is true
(A) Agar has nutrient properties
(B) Chocolate medium is selective medium
(C) Addition of selective substances in a solid medium is called enrichment media
(D) Nutrient broth is basal medium
Ans: D
26. Larval form of Taenia solium is seen in:
(A) Pig (B) Cattle
(C) Dog (D) Cat
Ans: A
27. Which of the following tests would be most useful for examination of Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts in stool?
(A) Trichrome stain (B) Modified acid-fast stain
(C) Gram stain (D) Methylene blue stain
Ans: B
28. MALDI-TOF stands for:
(A) Matrix assisted laser desorption Ionisation Time of Flight
(B) Matrix assisted light dissociation Ionisation Time of Flight
(C) Matrix associated lens Desorption Identification Time of Flight
(D) Matrix associated Laser Desorption Ionisation Total of Flight
Ans: A
29. What is the symmetry of Poxviruses ?
(A) Icosahedral (B) Complex
(C) Helical (D) None of the above
Ans: B
30. Relapse of malaria is not seen in infection with:
(A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Plasmodium ovale
(C) Plasmodium falciparum (D) All of the above
Ans: C
31. BCG vaccine is:
(A) a live attenuated vaccine (B) a subunit vaccine
(C) a killed vaccine (D) a synthetic peptide vaccine
Ans: A
32. Diagnosis of Typhoid fever in the first week is by
(A) Widal test (B) Urine culture
(C) Stool culture (D) Blood culture
Ans: D
33. Which of the following bacteria is sexually transmitted and causes soft chancre?
(A) T. pallidum (B) H. aegyptius
(C) H. ducreyi (D) H. influenza
Ans: C
34. Which of the following disease is tick borne?
(A) Kyasanur Forest disease (B) Dengue
(C) Yellow fever (D) Japanese encephalitis
Ans: A
35. Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections except :
(A) Klebsiella pneumonia (B) Escherichia coli
(C) Bacteriodes fragilis (D) Proteus mirabilis
Ans: C
36. Cold agglutinin test is useful for the diagnosis of
(A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae (B) H. influenza
(C) N. menigitidis (D) Cryptococcus neoformans
Ans: A
37. Granules of Madurella mycetomatis are :
(A) White (B) Red
(C) Black (D) Yellow
Ans: C
38. Which of the following bacteria produces saccharolytic reaction in RCMB
(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Clostridium tetani
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) None of the above
Ans: A
39. A parasite that must spend atleast part of its life cycle on or in host is called;
(A) Facultative parasite (B) Hyperparasite
(C) Obligate parasite (D) Pathogenic Parasite
Ans: C
40. Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular pathogens?
(A) Cytotoxic T cells (B) B cells
(C) Antibodies (D) Complement
Ans: A
41. A type of cell culture that can reproduce for an extended number of generations and is used to support viral replication is
(A) Primary cell culture (B) Continuous cell line culture
(C) Cell strain (D) Connective tissue
Ans: B
42. Presence of Taurocholate in Mac Conkey agar makes the media
(A) Differential media (B) Selective media
(C) Basal media (D) Enriched media
Ans: B
43. Which of the following inference indicates the ability of an organism to utilise citrate as a sole source of carbon in Simmon’s citrate medium?
(A) Blue colour (B) Appearance of growth
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: C
44. Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
(A) Retrovirus (B) Enterovirus
(C) Rhabdovirus (D) Adenovirus
Ans: D
45. Cell mediated Immunity is by virtue of:
(A) NK cell (B) Eosinophil
(C) Cytotoxic T cells (D) All of the above
Ans: D
46. Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity?
(A) Artificially acquired active immunity (B) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(C) Naturally acquired active immunity (D) None of the above
Ans: B
47. Example(s) of enriched medium/media is/ are
(A) Loeffler’s serum slope (B) Blood agar
(C) Blood culture media (D) All of the above
Ans: D
48. An epitope is
(A) a B-cell (B) a hapten.
(C) an antibody (D) The antigenic determinant site.
Ans: D
49. All the following statements about cytomegalovirus infection are true Except :
(A) Humans are the only host for CMV (B) It can cause congenital infections
(C) It is a RNA virus (D) Can cause Chorioretinitis
Ans: C
50. Which of the following is likely to contain structures composed of N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine:
(A) Spheroplasts (B) Mycoplasmas
(C) Staphylococcus (D) Amoebas
Ans: C
51. How are viruses different from bacteria?
(A) viruses don’t replicate by binary fission
(B) viruses do not have cell wall
(C) viruses are obligate intracellular
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
52. Which of the following parasites is not seen in faecal specimens?
(A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Cyclospora cayetanensis
(C) Toxoplasma gondii (D) Enterocytozoon bieneusi
Ans: C
53. Botulinum toxin prevents release of ________, thus blocking neurotransmission at peripheral synapses, leading to flaccid paralysis.
(A) Gamma - aminobutyric acid (B) Glycine
(C) Acetylcholine (D) All of the above
Ans: C
54. The following diseases are transmitted by arthropod vector :
(A) Malaria (B) Schistosomiasis
(C) Yellow Fever (D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
55. All of the following are Gram Positive Spore forming Rods Except
(A) B.anthracis (B) C.diphtheriae
(C) Cl.botulinum (D) Corynebacterium
Ans: D
56. Which parasite causing autoinfection?
(A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Leishmania donovani
(C) Entamoeba histolytica (D) Enterobius vermicularis
Ans: D
57. Which of the following is Oxidase Positive ?
(A) Shigella spp. (B) S.typhi
(C) Proteus mirabilis (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans: D
58. Genital lesion of Primary Syphilis is called as
(A) Pseudomembrane (B) Soft Chancre
(C) Gumma (D) Hard Chancre
Ans: D
59. Fungi which do not have a sexual stage;
(A) Zygomycota (B) Ascomycota
(C) Basidiomycota (D) Fungi imperfecti
Ans: D
60. All the following worms lay bile stained eggs except:
(A) Ascaris lumbricoides (B) Fasciola hepatica
(C) Ancylostoma duodenale (D) Taenia solium
Ans: C
61. Which of the following viruses has not been associated with human cancer?
(A) Varicella-zoster virus (B) Hepatitis C virus
(C) Hepatitis B virus (D) Human Papilloma Virus
Ans: A
62. Toxic Shock Syndrome was first discovered in
(A) Drug addicts (B) Tampon users
(C) Alcoholics (D) Tetanus patients
Ans: B
63. Nagler reaction detects :
(A) Coagulase (B) Lecithinase
(C) Hyaluronidase (D) Urease
Ans: B
64. Pus from abscess shows plenty of Gram Negative Rods and pus cells. The organism recovered by culture method will be:
(A) Enterococcus fecalis (B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(C) Gonococcus (D) B.anthracis
Ans: B
65. Virulence of Meningococcus is due to :
(A) Capsule (B) Enterotoxin
(C) Neurotoxin (D) Flagella
Ans: A
66. An immunoglobulin is a
(A) carbohydrate. (B) fatty acid.
(C) glycoprotein. (D) protein.
Ans: C
67. All the following are known to cause Systemic Mycoses except:
(A) Histoplasma capsulatum (B) Malassezia furfur
(C) Blastomyces dermatitidis (D) Coccidioides immitis
Ans: C
68. Which of the following acts as vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?
(A) Reduviid bug (B) Tsetse fly
(C) Dearfly (D) Blackfly
Ans: A
69. The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of C1 with
(A) Antigen. (B) Antigen-Antibody complexes
(C) Factor B.. (D) Bacterial lipopolysaccharides.
Ans: B
70. The molecular basis for the effect of cholera toxin on duodenal mucosal cells is
(A) Increase in cGMP (B) Inactivation of G1 protein
(C) Increased activity of potassium pumps (D) Increased in cAMP
Ans: D
71. Viruses can be seen using:
(A) Light Microscope (B) Dark Field Microscope
(C) Electron microscope (D) None of the above
Ans: C
72. All the following organisms are sexually transmitted except:
(A) Klebsiella granulomatosis (B) Treponema pallidum
(C) Chlamydia trachomatis (D) Hepatitis A virus
Ans: D
73. Which is known as Australia antigen?
(A) HBsAg (B) HBeAg
(C) HBcAg (D) HBV DNA
Ans: A
74. The most commonly used method for isolation of Chlamydia:
(A) Culture on artificial media (B) Culture on Vero cell line
(C) Inoculation into guinea pig (D) Culture on Mc Coy cell line
Ans: D
75. Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with which of the following?
(A) Clonorchis sinensis (B) Fasciola hepatica
(C) Fasciola gigantic (D) Schistosoma haematobium
Ans: A
76. Which of the following uses an oxygen sensitive fluorescent compound to detect presence of microorganisms?
(A) BACTEC (B) RT PCR
(C) ESP culture system (D) Conventional PCR
Ans: A
77. All of the following are tests for Disinfectants except:
(A) Ridel walker Test (B) Chick Martin test
(C) Schick test (D) Kelsey and Maurer test
Ans: C
78. Albert staining is performed to detect :
(A) Metachromatic granules (B) Spores of Cl.tetani
(C) Treponema pallidum (D) Capsule of Pneumococcus
Ans: A
79. Which of the following is caused by E.coli O157 :H7 ?
(A) Pseudomembranous colitis (B) Amoebic dysentery
(C) ETEC diarrhea (D) Hemorrhagic colitis
Ans: D
80. Which of the following has protein A ?
(A) Streptococcus pyogenes (B) E.coli
(C) Salmonella typhi (D) Staphylococcus aureus
Ans: D
81. All are non pathogenic Entamoeba except:
(A) Entamoeba coli (B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Entamoeba hartmanni (D) Entamoeba gingivalis
Ans: B
82. Which of the following cause congenital infection?
(A) Toxoplasma (B) Cytomegalovirus
(C) Rubella virus (D) All of the above
Ans: D
83. What is the total valancies of IgM?
(A) 10 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 1
Ans: A
84. During the window period of patient with AIDS, Best diagnostic test is:
(A) ELISA (B) Western Blot
(C) Rapid test (D) p24 antigen detection
Ans: D
85. Diarrhea in AIDS patient may be caused by:
(A) Cryptosporidium parvum (B) Microsporidia
(C) Isospora belli (D) All of the above
Ans: D
86. Bacterial fimbriae present on the outer cell surface are used for:
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Motility
(C) Cell wall synthesis
(D) Adherence and exchange of genetic information.
Ans: D
87. The use of the antibiotics that inhibit or inactivate cellular ribosomes will result directly in the loss of which of the following functions:
(A) ATP production (B) DNA replication
(C) Phagocytosis (D) Protein synthesis
Ans: D
88. Which of the following is produced by Clostridium tetani ?
(A) Alpha toxin (B) Enterotoxin
(C) Exfoliative Toxin (D) Neurotoxin
Ans: D
89. Which of the following can be identified by milk ring test?
(A) Brucellosis (B) Salmonellosis
(C) Bovine tuberculosis (D) All of the above
Ans: D
90. Isotypes refer to variations in the:
(A) heavy chain constant region. (B) heavy chain variable region.
(C) light chain constant region. (D) light chain variable region.
Ans: A
91. Paul-Bunnell heterophile antibody test aids in the diagnosis of:
(A) Infectious mononucleosis (B) Genital herpes
(C) Chicken pox (D) acute gingivostomatitis
Ans: A
92. Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for the diagnosis of:
(A) Toxoplasmosis (B) Histoplasmosis
(C) Leishmaniasis (D) Chaga’s disease
Ans: A
93. Each of the following statements concerning Cryptococcus neoformans are correct EXCEPT
(A) Its natural habitat is the soil, especially associated with pigeon feces
(B) Budding yeasts are found in the lesions
(C) The initial site of infection is usually the lung
(D) Pathogenesis is related primarily to the production of exotoxin A.
Ans: D
94. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility?
(A) Type I (B) Type II
(C) Type III (D) Type IV
Ans: B
95. Which of the following viral agents can cause diarrhoea?
(A) Norwalk agent (B) Rotaviruses
(C) Enteric adenovirus (D) All of the above
Ans: D
96. Clinically, Hepatitis E virus infection resembles:
(A) Hepatitis A infection (B) Hepatitis C infection
(C) Hepatitis B infection (D) Hepatitis D infection
Ans: A
97. Hand rub should not be used in which condition?
(A) Before touching the patient (B) After touching the patient
(C) After touching patient’s surrounding (D) Hands are visibly soiled
Ans: D
98. Which of the following bacteria are intrinsically resistant to Vancomycin?
(A) Staphylococcus (B) Enterococcus
(C) Streptococcus (D) E.coli
Ans: D
99. Which of following is the characteristic of Shigella spp. ?
(A) H2S production (B) Absence of motility
(C) Lactose fermentation (D) Spiral shape
Ans: B
100. Which of the following should be method of choice for the diagnosis of Cholera ?
(A) Blood collection in BHI broth (B) Throat swab in CaryBlair medium
(C) Stool specimen in VR medium (D) Stool specimen in Glycerol saline
Ans: C
(A) viruses don’t replicate by binary fission
(B) viruses do not have cell wall
(C) viruses are obligate intracellular
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
52. Which of the following parasites is not seen in faecal specimens?
(A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Cyclospora cayetanensis
(C) Toxoplasma gondii (D) Enterocytozoon bieneusi
Ans: C
53. Botulinum toxin prevents release of ________, thus blocking neurotransmission at peripheral synapses, leading to flaccid paralysis.
(A) Gamma - aminobutyric acid (B) Glycine
(C) Acetylcholine (D) All of the above
Ans: C
54. The following diseases are transmitted by arthropod vector :
(A) Malaria (B) Schistosomiasis
(C) Yellow Fever (D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
55. All of the following are Gram Positive Spore forming Rods Except
(A) B.anthracis (B) C.diphtheriae
(C) Cl.botulinum (D) Corynebacterium
Ans: D
56. Which parasite causing autoinfection?
(A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Leishmania donovani
(C) Entamoeba histolytica (D) Enterobius vermicularis
Ans: D
57. Which of the following is Oxidase Positive ?
(A) Shigella spp. (B) S.typhi
(C) Proteus mirabilis (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans: D
58. Genital lesion of Primary Syphilis is called as
(A) Pseudomembrane (B) Soft Chancre
(C) Gumma (D) Hard Chancre
Ans: D
59. Fungi which do not have a sexual stage;
(A) Zygomycota (B) Ascomycota
(C) Basidiomycota (D) Fungi imperfecti
Ans: D
60. All the following worms lay bile stained eggs except:
(A) Ascaris lumbricoides (B) Fasciola hepatica
(C) Ancylostoma duodenale (D) Taenia solium
Ans: C
61. Which of the following viruses has not been associated with human cancer?
(A) Varicella-zoster virus (B) Hepatitis C virus
(C) Hepatitis B virus (D) Human Papilloma Virus
Ans: A
62. Toxic Shock Syndrome was first discovered in
(A) Drug addicts (B) Tampon users
(C) Alcoholics (D) Tetanus patients
Ans: B
63. Nagler reaction detects :
(A) Coagulase (B) Lecithinase
(C) Hyaluronidase (D) Urease
Ans: B
64. Pus from abscess shows plenty of Gram Negative Rods and pus cells. The organism recovered by culture method will be:
(A) Enterococcus fecalis (B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(C) Gonococcus (D) B.anthracis
Ans: B
65. Virulence of Meningococcus is due to :
(A) Capsule (B) Enterotoxin
(C) Neurotoxin (D) Flagella
Ans: A
66. An immunoglobulin is a
(A) carbohydrate. (B) fatty acid.
(C) glycoprotein. (D) protein.
Ans: C
67. All the following are known to cause Systemic Mycoses except:
(A) Histoplasma capsulatum (B) Malassezia furfur
(C) Blastomyces dermatitidis (D) Coccidioides immitis
Ans: C
68. Which of the following acts as vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?
(A) Reduviid bug (B) Tsetse fly
(C) Dearfly (D) Blackfly
Ans: A
69. The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of C1 with
(A) Antigen. (B) Antigen-Antibody complexes
(C) Factor B.. (D) Bacterial lipopolysaccharides.
Ans: B
70. The molecular basis for the effect of cholera toxin on duodenal mucosal cells is
(A) Increase in cGMP (B) Inactivation of G1 protein
(C) Increased activity of potassium pumps (D) Increased in cAMP
Ans: D
71. Viruses can be seen using:
(A) Light Microscope (B) Dark Field Microscope
(C) Electron microscope (D) None of the above
Ans: C
72. All the following organisms are sexually transmitted except:
(A) Klebsiella granulomatosis (B) Treponema pallidum
(C) Chlamydia trachomatis (D) Hepatitis A virus
Ans: D
73. Which is known as Australia antigen?
(A) HBsAg (B) HBeAg
(C) HBcAg (D) HBV DNA
Ans: A
74. The most commonly used method for isolation of Chlamydia:
(A) Culture on artificial media (B) Culture on Vero cell line
(C) Inoculation into guinea pig (D) Culture on Mc Coy cell line
Ans: D
75. Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with which of the following?
(A) Clonorchis sinensis (B) Fasciola hepatica
(C) Fasciola gigantic (D) Schistosoma haematobium
Ans: A
76. Which of the following uses an oxygen sensitive fluorescent compound to detect presence of microorganisms?
(A) BACTEC (B) RT PCR
(C) ESP culture system (D) Conventional PCR
Ans: A
77. All of the following are tests for Disinfectants except:
(A) Ridel walker Test (B) Chick Martin test
(C) Schick test (D) Kelsey and Maurer test
Ans: C
78. Albert staining is performed to detect :
(A) Metachromatic granules (B) Spores of Cl.tetani
(C) Treponema pallidum (D) Capsule of Pneumococcus
Ans: A
79. Which of the following is caused by E.coli O157 :H7 ?
(A) Pseudomembranous colitis (B) Amoebic dysentery
(C) ETEC diarrhea (D) Hemorrhagic colitis
Ans: D
80. Which of the following has protein A ?
(A) Streptococcus pyogenes (B) E.coli
(C) Salmonella typhi (D) Staphylococcus aureus
Ans: D
81. All are non pathogenic Entamoeba except:
(A) Entamoeba coli (B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Entamoeba hartmanni (D) Entamoeba gingivalis
Ans: B
82. Which of the following cause congenital infection?
(A) Toxoplasma (B) Cytomegalovirus
(C) Rubella virus (D) All of the above
Ans: D
83. What is the total valancies of IgM?
(A) 10 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 1
Ans: A
84. During the window period of patient with AIDS, Best diagnostic test is:
(A) ELISA (B) Western Blot
(C) Rapid test (D) p24 antigen detection
Ans: D
85. Diarrhea in AIDS patient may be caused by:
(A) Cryptosporidium parvum (B) Microsporidia
(C) Isospora belli (D) All of the above
Ans: D
86. Bacterial fimbriae present on the outer cell surface are used for:
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Motility
(C) Cell wall synthesis
(D) Adherence and exchange of genetic information.
Ans: D
87. The use of the antibiotics that inhibit or inactivate cellular ribosomes will result directly in the loss of which of the following functions:
(A) ATP production (B) DNA replication
(C) Phagocytosis (D) Protein synthesis
Ans: D
88. Which of the following is produced by Clostridium tetani ?
(A) Alpha toxin (B) Enterotoxin
(C) Exfoliative Toxin (D) Neurotoxin
Ans: D
89. Which of the following can be identified by milk ring test?
(A) Brucellosis (B) Salmonellosis
(C) Bovine tuberculosis (D) All of the above
Ans: D
90. Isotypes refer to variations in the:
(A) heavy chain constant region. (B) heavy chain variable region.
(C) light chain constant region. (D) light chain variable region.
Ans: A
91. Paul-Bunnell heterophile antibody test aids in the diagnosis of:
(A) Infectious mononucleosis (B) Genital herpes
(C) Chicken pox (D) acute gingivostomatitis
Ans: A
92. Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for the diagnosis of:
(A) Toxoplasmosis (B) Histoplasmosis
(C) Leishmaniasis (D) Chaga’s disease
Ans: A
93. Each of the following statements concerning Cryptococcus neoformans are correct EXCEPT
(A) Its natural habitat is the soil, especially associated with pigeon feces
(B) Budding yeasts are found in the lesions
(C) The initial site of infection is usually the lung
(D) Pathogenesis is related primarily to the production of exotoxin A.
Ans: D
94. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility?
(A) Type I (B) Type II
(C) Type III (D) Type IV
Ans: B
95. Which of the following viral agents can cause diarrhoea?
(A) Norwalk agent (B) Rotaviruses
(C) Enteric adenovirus (D) All of the above
Ans: D
96. Clinically, Hepatitis E virus infection resembles:
(A) Hepatitis A infection (B) Hepatitis C infection
(C) Hepatitis B infection (D) Hepatitis D infection
Ans: A
97. Hand rub should not be used in which condition?
(A) Before touching the patient (B) After touching the patient
(C) After touching patient’s surrounding (D) Hands are visibly soiled
Ans: D
98. Which of the following bacteria are intrinsically resistant to Vancomycin?
(A) Staphylococcus (B) Enterococcus
(C) Streptococcus (D) E.coli
Ans: D
99. Which of following is the characteristic of Shigella spp. ?
(A) H2S production (B) Absence of motility
(C) Lactose fermentation (D) Spiral shape
Ans: B
100. Which of the following should be method of choice for the diagnosis of Cholera ?
(A) Blood collection in BHI broth (B) Throat swab in CaryBlair medium
(C) Stool specimen in VR medium (D) Stool specimen in Glycerol saline
Ans: C