MEDICINE - PAGE 20
1. An elderly patient had cerebrovascular accident which was diagnosed as ischaemic in nature. Which of the following is a contraindication for thrombolysis? 1. Onset of symptoms to time of drug administration is ≤ 4.5 hours 2. Gastrointestinal bleeding in preceding 21 days Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
2. Consider the following insulin preparations: 1. Aspart 2. Glulisine 3. Detemir 4. Regular Which of the above are considered short acting insulin?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
3. A middle aged male known smoker presented with recurrent sinusitis, haemoptysis, haematuria, arthralgia and palpable purpura. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Wegener granulomatosis (b) Goodpasture syndrome
(c) Polyarteritis nodosa (d) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Ans: A
4. A patient presents with diarrhoea, steatorrhea and weight loss. Which of the following diseases is LEAST possible?
(a) Whipple disease (b) Tropical sprue (c) Celiac disease (d) Menetrier disease
Ans: D
5. Consider the following statements regarding post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) :
1. Immunosupressive therapy is effective
2. PSGN develops one to three weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis
3. PSGN develops two to six weeks after impetigo
4. The classic presentation is acute nephritis
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
6. A patient with long term implantable cardioverter defibrillator device developed neck and facial swelling, hoarseness of voice, nasal congestion, dysphagia and haemoptysis. The facial swelling increased on supine position. This patient most likely developed:
(a) Cardiac tamponade (b) Intracardiac thrombosis (c) Superior vena cava obstruction (d) Pulmonary thromboembolism
Ans: C
7. A patient of AIDS developed ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and global confusion. He is likely to have the deficiency of:
(a) Biotin (b) Niacin (c) Pyridoxine (d) Thiamine
Ans: D
8. An elderly male presents with persistent productive cough with large volume purulent sputum production. He has had several episodes in the past. He also had digital clubbing. He is a case of:
(a) Empyema (b) Bronchiectasis (c) Bronchopneumonia (d) Necrotising pneumonia
Ans: B
9. A chemical factory worker has acute onset dyspnoea with fever, chills, and malaise, following a few hours of exposure to a new chemical. These symptoms resolve in four to five days after removal from exposure. He is likely to have:
(a) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (b) Atypical pneumonia
(c) Cryptogenic organising pneumonia (d) Non-specific interstitial pneumonia
Ans: A
10. A 25 year old man presents with nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea with crampy abdominal pain. He gives history of consumption of rice preparation in his last meal. What is the likely organism causing the above complaints?
(a) Clostridium perfringens (b) Bacillus cereus (c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Campylobacter jejuni
Ans: B
11. A five year old child was diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, 18 months back. He was treated and successfully went into remission at that time. Following, the initial episode, the child has had 3 relapses, each of which was successfully treated with oral prednisolone (60mg/m2/24h) until remission, followed by 40mg/m2 single dose, alternate days for four weeks. What is the diagnosis?
(a) Nephrotic syndrome, infrequent relapses
(b) Nephrotic syndrome, frequent relapses
(c) Nephrotic syndrome, steroid dependent
(d) Nephrotic syndrome, steroid resistant
Ans: A
12. A 7 year old girl presents to you with non-specific abdominal pain, mild abdominal distension, and not growing well. The child weighs 14 kg and height is 95 cm. Systemic examination is normal. The haemoglobin was 7.5 g/dL (microcytic hypochromic RBCs) and has not responded to iron therapy. Which of the following will be the first investigation you will like to do for diagnosing the condition?
(a) Bone marrow aspiration (b) Tissue transglutaminase antibodies
(c) Lower GI contrast examination (d) Colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy
Ans: B
13. A seven year old boy weighing 20 kg presented with bleeding from upper GI tract (haemetemasis) for last 18 hours. On examination, PR-86/m, RR-16/m and BP-100/70 mmHg; and spleen is palpable 5 cm below costal margin. There is no other abnormality. Liver function tests are normal. What is the next best step in management?
(a) Fluid resuscitation with crystalloids (b) Intravenous vasopressin
(c) Intravenous propranolol (d) Transdermal nitroglycerine
Ans: B
14. A seven year old girl presents in emergency room with hypertension, lethargy, headache, seizures, and visual disturbances. Fundus examination reveals haemorrhages and exudates. Which of the following treatment regimen will be the most appropriate for this child?
(a) Sublingual nifedipine (b) Intravenous labetalol infusion (c) Intravenous minoxidil (d) Furosemide
Ans: B
15. On routine newborn screening at day 3 of life, the baby was found to have TSH level 40mU/L. What should be the next step?
(a) Repeat thyroid profile within one week
(b) Start child on thyroxine immediately
(c) Repeat thyroid profile after four weeks
(d) Repeat thyroid profile/ start thyroxine, if the child has clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism, otherwise wait and watch
Ans: A
16. A five year old girl is brought to you with history of fever for seven days associated with rash, anorexia, myalgia and petechial haemorrhages. Which of the following investigations will be most appropriate for making a diagnosis of dengue fever?
(a) Detection of NS1 antigen (b) Platelet count (c) IgG capture ELISA (d) Detection of IgM antibodies for dengue
Ans: D
17. An eight year old boy was diagnosed to have P.vivax malaria and was treated with appropriate dosages of chloroquine. The fever subsided but recurred after 3 weeks. Peripheral smear was again positive for P.vivax. This child should now be treated as a case with
(a) Relapse (b) Recrudescence (c) Either relapse/recrudescence (d) Fresh infection
Ans: C
18. A two day old neonate is brought with cyanosis, single second heart sound, and pansystolic murmur on the left sternal border. ECG reveals left axis deviation, right atrial overload and left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Tetrology of Fallot (b) Tricuspid atresia (c) Transposition of great arteries (d) Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
Ans: B
19. A three year old girl is brought with complaint of not being able to ever stand or walk. She achieved head control at one year of age. Examination reveals generalised hypotonia, brisk knee jerk, and ankle clonus. What is the likely diagnosis?
(a) Cerebral palsy (b) Spinal muscular atrophy (c) Congenital hypothyroidism (d) Congenital myotonic dystrophy
Ans: A
20. A child presents with sensations of itching, burning and a probable foreign body beneath the eyelids. Examination reveals photophobia, large oval follicles within the conjunctiva and preauricular adenopathy. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (b) Vernal conjunctivitis (c) Trachomatous conjunctivitis (d) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Ans: A
21. A seven year old boy presents with acute onset of mild intermittent pain in the right groin and a limp. Abduction and internal rotation of the hip were restricted on the affected side. There was no fever. Radiographs of the pelvis were normal. The most likely diagnosis is :
(a) Transient monoarticular synovitis (b) Legg Calve Perthes disease
(c) Slipped capital femoral epiphyses (d) Osteochondritis dissecans
Ans: A
22. A child is brought with history of ingestion of an unknown substance. On examination child has excess salivation, lacrimation, miosis, gastrointestinal cramps and emesis. What was the most likely substance ingested?
(a) Carbamates (b) Phenothiazines (c) Opioids (d) Tricyclic antidepressants
Ans: A
23. A term newborn presents with respiratory failure which is refractory to mechanical ventilation, surfactant replacement therapy, glucocorticoid administration and extra corporeal membrane oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Surfactant Protein B deficiency (b) Primary ciliary dyskinesia
(c) Persistent tachypnea of infancy (d) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis
Ans: A
24. A child after snake bite develops petechiae and ecchymosis on the skin. In addition, child develops bleeding from venipuncture site and oliguria. The most likely snake species is:
(a) Pit viper (b) Cobra (c) Mamba (d) Python
Ans: A
25. A six year old boy presents with short neck, low hairline and restriction of neck movements. The child also has Sprengel anomaly, scoliosis, and fused cervical vertebrae. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Atlantoaxial instability (b) Klippel Feil syndrome (c) Noonan syndrome (d) Sandifer syndrome
Ans: B
26. A 10 year old boy presents with recurrent bouts of nasal congestion, itching, sneezing, clear rhinorrhoea and conjunctival irritation. On examination he has conjunctival hyperaemia, allergic gape and a transverse nasal crease. Which of the following drugs is preferred for management of this child?
(a) Diphenhydramine (b) Fluticasone (c) Cetirizine (d) Ipratropium bromide
Ans: B
27. A two year old child presents with partial albinism and susceptibility to infection. Peripheral smear examination reveals giant peroxidise positive lysosomal granules in granulocytes. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?
(a) Angelman Syndrome (b) Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
(c) Waardenburg Syndrome (d) Chediak Higashi syndrome
Ans: D
28. A one year old child on exclusive milk feeds presents with constipation. On examination there is no fecal impaction. What is the next step in management?
(a) Oral lactulose (b) Increasing intake of vegetables and cereals
(c) Colonic enemas using polyethylene glycol (d) Milk of Magnesia
Ans: B
29. A six year old boy presents with generalized seizure disorder and hypo pigmented skin lesions. On examination he has tiny red nodules over the nose and cheeks. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Tuberous sclerosis (b) Sturge Weber disease (c) PHACE Syndrome (d) Neurofibromatosis
Ans: A
30. Which of the following can cause bilateral sensorineural hearing loss?
(a) Histiocytosis (b) Cholesteatoma (c) Loop diuretics (d) Glomus tumors
Ans: C
31. A 20 year old male walked into outpatient department with high grade fever, cough and chest pain for one day. Chest X-ray showed consolidation of left upper zone. His respiratory rate is 22/minute, pulse rate 96/minute, BP systolic 120 mmHg and blood urea 18 mg/dl. What is his CURB score?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans: A
32. Which of the following conditions is an autosomal dominant disorder?
(a) G-6PD deficiency (b) Sickel cell disease
(c) Fanconi anaemia (d) Marfan syndrome
Ans: D
33. Consider the following statements regarding the treatment of bronchial asthma:
1. Tablets of β2 adrenoceptor agonist are better than aerosol therapy
2. Inhaled corticosteroids are contraindicated in acute severe asthma
3. Oral steroids may be necessary for severe acute asthma
4. Anticholinergic bronchodilators are muscarinic antagonists
5. Salmeterol and formoterol are highly selective and potent long acting β2 adrenoceptor agonists
Which of the statements given above are true?
(a) 1, 4 and 5 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: B
34. Acute massive pulmonary embolism is manifested by the following EXCEPT:
(a) Reduced PaO2 and reduced PaCO2 (b) Pulmonary opacities in chest X ray
(c) SIQIIITIII with RBBB in ECG (d) Reduced cardiac output and acute right heart failure
Ans: B
35. The side effects of isoniazid include the following EXCEPT:
(a) Hepatitis (b) Rash (c) Peripheral neuropathy (d) Hyperuricaemia
Ans: D
36. A patient of COPD develops a large pneumothorax during a violent bout of coughing. The most appropriate management would be: 1. Simple aspiration 2. Tube thoracostomy 3. Pleurodesis Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
Ans: B
37. Carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) in arterial blood at sea level is:
(a) Less than 25 mm of Hg (b) 25-35 mm of Hg (c) 35-45 mm of Hg (d) 45-55 mm of Hg
Ans: C
38. The volume of fresh air entering the alveoli each minute is called as:
(a) Dead space (b) Diffusing capacity (c) Alveolar ventilation (d) Ventilation perfusion
Ans: C
39. Exacerbations of bronchial asthma that occur with little or no warning are called:
(a) Brittle asthma (b) Acute severe asthma (c) Poorly controlled asthma (d) Nocturnal asthma
Ans: A
40. Which of the following constituents of antacid can cause constipation?
(a) Magnesium hydroxide (b) Aluminium hydroxide (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: B
41. “TIPS” procedure in the treatment of cirrhosis liver stands for:
(a) Transvenous intrahepatic portal shunt
(b) Transvenous intraabdominal portal shunt
(c) Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
(d) Transjugular intrahepatic peritoneal shunt
Ans: C
42. The drug of choice in the treatment of oesophageal candidiasis is:
(a) Fluconazole (b) Nystatin oral suspension (c) IV amphotericin (d) Griseofulvin
Ans: A
43. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
(a) Caused by haloperidol
(b) Characterized by muscle rigidity and hyperthermia
(c) There is stimulation of central dopamine receptors in hypothalamus
(d) Treated by IV dantrolene
Ans: C
44. Type IV renal tubular acidosis may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Low molecular weight heparin (b) NSAIDS (c) Penicillin (d) Trimethoprim
Ans: C
45. Treatment options available for management of renal artery stenosis is/are:
(a) Medical treatment for hypertension by antihypertensive drugs
(b) Angioplasty, with or without stenting
(c) Renal artery bypass surgery
(d) All of these
Ans: D
46. A reversible cause of dementia is:
(a) Alzheimer disease (b) Huntington chorea (c) Parkinson disease (d) Subdural haematoma
Ans: D
47. In Wallenberg syndrome, where is the site of lesion?
(a) Lateral medulla (b) Medial medulla (c) Pontomedullary junction (d) Dorsal midbrain
Ans: A
48. The following are features of polycythaemia vera EXCEPT:
(a) Elevated red cell mass (b) Normal arterial oxygen saturation (c) Splenomegaly (d) Elevated plasma erythropoietin levels
Ans: D
49. Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
(a) Non-specific interstitial pneumonia (b) Acute interstitial pneumonia
(c) Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (d) Desquamative interstitial pneumonia
Ans: D
50. Which of the following is NOT true of Wilson disease?
(a) There is hepatolenticular degeneration (b) Autosomal recessive transmission
(c) Serum ceruloplasmin is increased (d) Urinary copper is increased
Ans: C
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
2. Consider the following insulin preparations: 1. Aspart 2. Glulisine 3. Detemir 4. Regular Which of the above are considered short acting insulin?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
3. A middle aged male known smoker presented with recurrent sinusitis, haemoptysis, haematuria, arthralgia and palpable purpura. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Wegener granulomatosis (b) Goodpasture syndrome
(c) Polyarteritis nodosa (d) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Ans: A
4. A patient presents with diarrhoea, steatorrhea and weight loss. Which of the following diseases is LEAST possible?
(a) Whipple disease (b) Tropical sprue (c) Celiac disease (d) Menetrier disease
Ans: D
5. Consider the following statements regarding post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) :
1. Immunosupressive therapy is effective
2. PSGN develops one to three weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis
3. PSGN develops two to six weeks after impetigo
4. The classic presentation is acute nephritis
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
6. A patient with long term implantable cardioverter defibrillator device developed neck and facial swelling, hoarseness of voice, nasal congestion, dysphagia and haemoptysis. The facial swelling increased on supine position. This patient most likely developed:
(a) Cardiac tamponade (b) Intracardiac thrombosis (c) Superior vena cava obstruction (d) Pulmonary thromboembolism
Ans: C
7. A patient of AIDS developed ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and global confusion. He is likely to have the deficiency of:
(a) Biotin (b) Niacin (c) Pyridoxine (d) Thiamine
Ans: D
8. An elderly male presents with persistent productive cough with large volume purulent sputum production. He has had several episodes in the past. He also had digital clubbing. He is a case of:
(a) Empyema (b) Bronchiectasis (c) Bronchopneumonia (d) Necrotising pneumonia
Ans: B
9. A chemical factory worker has acute onset dyspnoea with fever, chills, and malaise, following a few hours of exposure to a new chemical. These symptoms resolve in four to five days after removal from exposure. He is likely to have:
(a) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (b) Atypical pneumonia
(c) Cryptogenic organising pneumonia (d) Non-specific interstitial pneumonia
Ans: A
10. A 25 year old man presents with nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea with crampy abdominal pain. He gives history of consumption of rice preparation in his last meal. What is the likely organism causing the above complaints?
(a) Clostridium perfringens (b) Bacillus cereus (c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Campylobacter jejuni
Ans: B
11. A five year old child was diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, 18 months back. He was treated and successfully went into remission at that time. Following, the initial episode, the child has had 3 relapses, each of which was successfully treated with oral prednisolone (60mg/m2/24h) until remission, followed by 40mg/m2 single dose, alternate days for four weeks. What is the diagnosis?
(a) Nephrotic syndrome, infrequent relapses
(b) Nephrotic syndrome, frequent relapses
(c) Nephrotic syndrome, steroid dependent
(d) Nephrotic syndrome, steroid resistant
Ans: A
12. A 7 year old girl presents to you with non-specific abdominal pain, mild abdominal distension, and not growing well. The child weighs 14 kg and height is 95 cm. Systemic examination is normal. The haemoglobin was 7.5 g/dL (microcytic hypochromic RBCs) and has not responded to iron therapy. Which of the following will be the first investigation you will like to do for diagnosing the condition?
(a) Bone marrow aspiration (b) Tissue transglutaminase antibodies
(c) Lower GI contrast examination (d) Colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy
Ans: B
13. A seven year old boy weighing 20 kg presented with bleeding from upper GI tract (haemetemasis) for last 18 hours. On examination, PR-86/m, RR-16/m and BP-100/70 mmHg; and spleen is palpable 5 cm below costal margin. There is no other abnormality. Liver function tests are normal. What is the next best step in management?
(a) Fluid resuscitation with crystalloids (b) Intravenous vasopressin
(c) Intravenous propranolol (d) Transdermal nitroglycerine
Ans: B
14. A seven year old girl presents in emergency room with hypertension, lethargy, headache, seizures, and visual disturbances. Fundus examination reveals haemorrhages and exudates. Which of the following treatment regimen will be the most appropriate for this child?
(a) Sublingual nifedipine (b) Intravenous labetalol infusion (c) Intravenous minoxidil (d) Furosemide
Ans: B
15. On routine newborn screening at day 3 of life, the baby was found to have TSH level 40mU/L. What should be the next step?
(a) Repeat thyroid profile within one week
(b) Start child on thyroxine immediately
(c) Repeat thyroid profile after four weeks
(d) Repeat thyroid profile/ start thyroxine, if the child has clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism, otherwise wait and watch
Ans: A
16. A five year old girl is brought to you with history of fever for seven days associated with rash, anorexia, myalgia and petechial haemorrhages. Which of the following investigations will be most appropriate for making a diagnosis of dengue fever?
(a) Detection of NS1 antigen (b) Platelet count (c) IgG capture ELISA (d) Detection of IgM antibodies for dengue
Ans: D
17. An eight year old boy was diagnosed to have P.vivax malaria and was treated with appropriate dosages of chloroquine. The fever subsided but recurred after 3 weeks. Peripheral smear was again positive for P.vivax. This child should now be treated as a case with
(a) Relapse (b) Recrudescence (c) Either relapse/recrudescence (d) Fresh infection
Ans: C
18. A two day old neonate is brought with cyanosis, single second heart sound, and pansystolic murmur on the left sternal border. ECG reveals left axis deviation, right atrial overload and left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Tetrology of Fallot (b) Tricuspid atresia (c) Transposition of great arteries (d) Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
Ans: B
19. A three year old girl is brought with complaint of not being able to ever stand or walk. She achieved head control at one year of age. Examination reveals generalised hypotonia, brisk knee jerk, and ankle clonus. What is the likely diagnosis?
(a) Cerebral palsy (b) Spinal muscular atrophy (c) Congenital hypothyroidism (d) Congenital myotonic dystrophy
Ans: A
20. A child presents with sensations of itching, burning and a probable foreign body beneath the eyelids. Examination reveals photophobia, large oval follicles within the conjunctiva and preauricular adenopathy. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (b) Vernal conjunctivitis (c) Trachomatous conjunctivitis (d) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Ans: A
21. A seven year old boy presents with acute onset of mild intermittent pain in the right groin and a limp. Abduction and internal rotation of the hip were restricted on the affected side. There was no fever. Radiographs of the pelvis were normal. The most likely diagnosis is :
(a) Transient monoarticular synovitis (b) Legg Calve Perthes disease
(c) Slipped capital femoral epiphyses (d) Osteochondritis dissecans
Ans: A
22. A child is brought with history of ingestion of an unknown substance. On examination child has excess salivation, lacrimation, miosis, gastrointestinal cramps and emesis. What was the most likely substance ingested?
(a) Carbamates (b) Phenothiazines (c) Opioids (d) Tricyclic antidepressants
Ans: A
23. A term newborn presents with respiratory failure which is refractory to mechanical ventilation, surfactant replacement therapy, glucocorticoid administration and extra corporeal membrane oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Surfactant Protein B deficiency (b) Primary ciliary dyskinesia
(c) Persistent tachypnea of infancy (d) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis
Ans: A
24. A child after snake bite develops petechiae and ecchymosis on the skin. In addition, child develops bleeding from venipuncture site and oliguria. The most likely snake species is:
(a) Pit viper (b) Cobra (c) Mamba (d) Python
Ans: A
25. A six year old boy presents with short neck, low hairline and restriction of neck movements. The child also has Sprengel anomaly, scoliosis, and fused cervical vertebrae. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Atlantoaxial instability (b) Klippel Feil syndrome (c) Noonan syndrome (d) Sandifer syndrome
Ans: B
26. A 10 year old boy presents with recurrent bouts of nasal congestion, itching, sneezing, clear rhinorrhoea and conjunctival irritation. On examination he has conjunctival hyperaemia, allergic gape and a transverse nasal crease. Which of the following drugs is preferred for management of this child?
(a) Diphenhydramine (b) Fluticasone (c) Cetirizine (d) Ipratropium bromide
Ans: B
27. A two year old child presents with partial albinism and susceptibility to infection. Peripheral smear examination reveals giant peroxidise positive lysosomal granules in granulocytes. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?
(a) Angelman Syndrome (b) Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome
(c) Waardenburg Syndrome (d) Chediak Higashi syndrome
Ans: D
28. A one year old child on exclusive milk feeds presents with constipation. On examination there is no fecal impaction. What is the next step in management?
(a) Oral lactulose (b) Increasing intake of vegetables and cereals
(c) Colonic enemas using polyethylene glycol (d) Milk of Magnesia
Ans: B
29. A six year old boy presents with generalized seizure disorder and hypo pigmented skin lesions. On examination he has tiny red nodules over the nose and cheeks. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Tuberous sclerosis (b) Sturge Weber disease (c) PHACE Syndrome (d) Neurofibromatosis
Ans: A
30. Which of the following can cause bilateral sensorineural hearing loss?
(a) Histiocytosis (b) Cholesteatoma (c) Loop diuretics (d) Glomus tumors
Ans: C
31. A 20 year old male walked into outpatient department with high grade fever, cough and chest pain for one day. Chest X-ray showed consolidation of left upper zone. His respiratory rate is 22/minute, pulse rate 96/minute, BP systolic 120 mmHg and blood urea 18 mg/dl. What is his CURB score?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans: A
32. Which of the following conditions is an autosomal dominant disorder?
(a) G-6PD deficiency (b) Sickel cell disease
(c) Fanconi anaemia (d) Marfan syndrome
Ans: D
33. Consider the following statements regarding the treatment of bronchial asthma:
1. Tablets of β2 adrenoceptor agonist are better than aerosol therapy
2. Inhaled corticosteroids are contraindicated in acute severe asthma
3. Oral steroids may be necessary for severe acute asthma
4. Anticholinergic bronchodilators are muscarinic antagonists
5. Salmeterol and formoterol are highly selective and potent long acting β2 adrenoceptor agonists
Which of the statements given above are true?
(a) 1, 4 and 5 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: B
34. Acute massive pulmonary embolism is manifested by the following EXCEPT:
(a) Reduced PaO2 and reduced PaCO2 (b) Pulmonary opacities in chest X ray
(c) SIQIIITIII with RBBB in ECG (d) Reduced cardiac output and acute right heart failure
Ans: B
35. The side effects of isoniazid include the following EXCEPT:
(a) Hepatitis (b) Rash (c) Peripheral neuropathy (d) Hyperuricaemia
Ans: D
36. A patient of COPD develops a large pneumothorax during a violent bout of coughing. The most appropriate management would be: 1. Simple aspiration 2. Tube thoracostomy 3. Pleurodesis Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only
Ans: B
37. Carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) in arterial blood at sea level is:
(a) Less than 25 mm of Hg (b) 25-35 mm of Hg (c) 35-45 mm of Hg (d) 45-55 mm of Hg
Ans: C
38. The volume of fresh air entering the alveoli each minute is called as:
(a) Dead space (b) Diffusing capacity (c) Alveolar ventilation (d) Ventilation perfusion
Ans: C
39. Exacerbations of bronchial asthma that occur with little or no warning are called:
(a) Brittle asthma (b) Acute severe asthma (c) Poorly controlled asthma (d) Nocturnal asthma
Ans: A
40. Which of the following constituents of antacid can cause constipation?
(a) Magnesium hydroxide (b) Aluminium hydroxide (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: B
41. “TIPS” procedure in the treatment of cirrhosis liver stands for:
(a) Transvenous intrahepatic portal shunt
(b) Transvenous intraabdominal portal shunt
(c) Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
(d) Transjugular intrahepatic peritoneal shunt
Ans: C
42. The drug of choice in the treatment of oesophageal candidiasis is:
(a) Fluconazole (b) Nystatin oral suspension (c) IV amphotericin (d) Griseofulvin
Ans: A
43. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
(a) Caused by haloperidol
(b) Characterized by muscle rigidity and hyperthermia
(c) There is stimulation of central dopamine receptors in hypothalamus
(d) Treated by IV dantrolene
Ans: C
44. Type IV renal tubular acidosis may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Low molecular weight heparin (b) NSAIDS (c) Penicillin (d) Trimethoprim
Ans: C
45. Treatment options available for management of renal artery stenosis is/are:
(a) Medical treatment for hypertension by antihypertensive drugs
(b) Angioplasty, with or without stenting
(c) Renal artery bypass surgery
(d) All of these
Ans: D
46. A reversible cause of dementia is:
(a) Alzheimer disease (b) Huntington chorea (c) Parkinson disease (d) Subdural haematoma
Ans: D
47. In Wallenberg syndrome, where is the site of lesion?
(a) Lateral medulla (b) Medial medulla (c) Pontomedullary junction (d) Dorsal midbrain
Ans: A
48. The following are features of polycythaemia vera EXCEPT:
(a) Elevated red cell mass (b) Normal arterial oxygen saturation (c) Splenomegaly (d) Elevated plasma erythropoietin levels
Ans: D
49. Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
(a) Non-specific interstitial pneumonia (b) Acute interstitial pneumonia
(c) Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (d) Desquamative interstitial pneumonia
Ans: D
50. Which of the following is NOT true of Wilson disease?
(a) There is hepatolenticular degeneration (b) Autosomal recessive transmission
(c) Serum ceruloplasmin is increased (d) Urinary copper is increased
Ans: C
51. A 55 year old patient on treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis with Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol complain of pain in large and small joints. Which one of the following investigations will you order?
(a) Serum creatinine (b) Serum amylase (c) SGOT/SGPT (d) Serum uric acid
Ans: D
52. The following diseases can cause bullous lesions in the skin EXCEPT:
(a) Pemphigus (b) Impetigo (c) Toxic epidermal necrolysis (d) Pityriasis rosea
Ans: D
53. Which of the following disorder is autosomal recessive?
(a) Cystic fibrosis (b) Nail-patella syndrome (c) Myotonic dystrophy (d) Huntington disease
Ans: A
54. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment for overdose aspirin ingestion?
(a) Acetazolamide (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Allopurinol (d) N-acetyl-cysteine
Ans: B
55. Killer T cells which are responsible for defence against intracellular pathogen are expressed by which of the following CD phenotypes? (a) CD 2 (b) CD 5 (c) CD 8 (d) CD 10
Ans: C
56. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy is approved in the following conditions EXCEPT:
(a) Kawasaki disease (b) Severe rheumatoid arthritis (c) Guillain Barre syndrome (d) Dermatomyositis
Ans: B
57. Which of the following does NOT cause small vessel vasculitis?
(a) Churg Strauss Syndrome (b) Henoch-Schonlein purpura (c) Kawasaki disease (d) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Ans: C
58. Most common cells in peripheral blood smear of chronic myeloid leukemia are:
(a) Myeloblasts (b) Promyelocytes (c) Metamyelocytes (d) Neutrophils
Ans: D
59. Consider the following statements about infective endocarditis:
1. Modified Duke criteria are used for clinical diagnosis
2. Echocardiographic findings form one of the major Duke criteria
3. Presence of one major and two minor criteria is considered as diagnostic of endocarditis
4. Presence of glomerulonephritis is a minor Duke criterion
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
60. A 16 year old had an acute episode of dyspnoea, wheezing and coughing during early morning hours. The episode resolved spontaneously. What is the likely diagnosis?
(a) Pulmonary oedema (b) Asthma (c) Panic attack (d) Pneumonia
Ans: B
61. Which of the following is associated with hypercoagulable state?
1. Protein C deficiency
2. Antiphospholipid syndrome
3. Homocysteinemia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
(a) Serum creatinine (b) Serum amylase (c) SGOT/SGPT (d) Serum uric acid
Ans: D
52. The following diseases can cause bullous lesions in the skin EXCEPT:
(a) Pemphigus (b) Impetigo (c) Toxic epidermal necrolysis (d) Pityriasis rosea
Ans: D
53. Which of the following disorder is autosomal recessive?
(a) Cystic fibrosis (b) Nail-patella syndrome (c) Myotonic dystrophy (d) Huntington disease
Ans: A
54. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment for overdose aspirin ingestion?
(a) Acetazolamide (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Allopurinol (d) N-acetyl-cysteine
Ans: B
55. Killer T cells which are responsible for defence against intracellular pathogen are expressed by which of the following CD phenotypes? (a) CD 2 (b) CD 5 (c) CD 8 (d) CD 10
Ans: C
56. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy is approved in the following conditions EXCEPT:
(a) Kawasaki disease (b) Severe rheumatoid arthritis (c) Guillain Barre syndrome (d) Dermatomyositis
Ans: B
57. Which of the following does NOT cause small vessel vasculitis?
(a) Churg Strauss Syndrome (b) Henoch-Schonlein purpura (c) Kawasaki disease (d) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Ans: C
58. Most common cells in peripheral blood smear of chronic myeloid leukemia are:
(a) Myeloblasts (b) Promyelocytes (c) Metamyelocytes (d) Neutrophils
Ans: D
59. Consider the following statements about infective endocarditis:
1. Modified Duke criteria are used for clinical diagnosis
2. Echocardiographic findings form one of the major Duke criteria
3. Presence of one major and two minor criteria is considered as diagnostic of endocarditis
4. Presence of glomerulonephritis is a minor Duke criterion
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
60. A 16 year old had an acute episode of dyspnoea, wheezing and coughing during early morning hours. The episode resolved spontaneously. What is the likely diagnosis?
(a) Pulmonary oedema (b) Asthma (c) Panic attack (d) Pneumonia
Ans: B
61. Which of the following is associated with hypercoagulable state?
1. Protein C deficiency
2. Antiphospholipid syndrome
3. Homocysteinemia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
62. The umbilical cord normally contains:
(a) Two arteries and two veins (b) One artery and one vein (c) Two arteries and one vein (d) One artery and two veins
Ans: C
63. Painless genital ulcer is found in which one of the following genital infections?
(a) Grannloma inguinale (b) Chancroid (c) Lymphogranuloma venerum (d) Herpes simplex
Ans: C
64. Medical management of tubular ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following EXCEPT:
(a) Period of gestation 5 weeks (b) β HCG level more than 10,000 IU (c) Absent foetal cardiac activity (d) Gestational sac diameter 3 cm.
Ans: B
65. Cholestasis may lead to the following complications EXCEPT:
(a) Intrauterine foetal death (b) Meconium stained liquor (c) Preterm labour (d) Neonatal jaundice
Ans: D
66. Which of the following genital infections is associated with preterm labour?
(a) Human Papilloma Virus (b) Trichomonas vaginalis (c) Monilial vaginitis (d) Bacterial vaginosis
Ans: D
67. Multiple pregnancy is associated with an increased incidence of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Hyperemesis gravidarum (b) Congenital malformations (c) Pregnancy induced hypertension (d) Post date pregnancy
Ans: D
68. Which of the following conditions of the endometrium is associated with a significantly increased risk of development of cancer?
(a) Simple hyperplasia (b) Complex hyperplasia with atypia (c) Simple atypical hyperplasia (d) Complex hyperplasia
Ans: B
69. Surgical staging is done for all the genital malignancies EXCEPT:
(a) Ovarian malignancy (b) Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (c) Endometrial carcinoma (d) Fallopian tube malignancy
Ans: B
70. B‐Lynch suture for atonic postpartum haemorrhage
(a) compresses the uterus (b) ligates the uterine arteries (c) ligates the utero‐ovarian anastomosis (d) ligates the ovarian vessels
Ans: A
71. Regarding ‘Delancy’s levels of vaginal support’, consider the following pairs:
1. Level I .......... Supports distal urethra perineal body
2. Level II .......... Supports mid‐vagina
3. Level III .......... Supports apical defect
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
72. Regarding “conjoined twins”, which of the following statements is/are true?
1. These are always monozygotic
2. These result when division occurs before the embryonic disc is formed
3. Most common variety is thoracopagus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
73. The appropriate treatment for the baby of a woman who is HBsAg positive but HBeAg negative is
(a) Both active and passive immunisation soon after birth
(b) Passive immunisation soon after birth but active immunisation after one year of age
(c) Only active immunisation soon after birth (d) Only passive immunisation soon after birth
Ans: A
74. Consider the following pairs regarding foetal heart during labour:
Term .... Description
1. Early decelerations .... Most common during labour and are due to cord compression
2. Late decelerations .... Result due to any process leading to maternal hypotension, placental insufficiency or excessive uterine activity
3. Variable decelerations .... Are due to head compression leading to vagal stimulation Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans: D
75. A 26 year old woman P1L1 reports with High Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (HGSIL) on Pap smear (Papanicolaou smear). Further management for her is:
(a) VIA, VILI (b) Colposcopy and directed biopsy
(c) LEEP (d) Conisation
Ans: B
76. With reference to the displacement of uterus, the treatment of choice for genuine stress urinary incontinence is:
(a) Kegel’s perineal exercises (b) Kelly’s placation
(c) TVT‐O mid urethral tape (d) Periurethral injection of bulking agents
Ans: C
77. Regarding placental separation in III stage of labour, consider the following statements:
1. Separation of placenta occurs at deciduas spongiosa
2. In Shultz method, separation of placenta starts at centre
3. In Mathew Duncan’s method, separation begins at margin
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
78. A 16 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea with absent vagina, cervix and uterus in the presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics. Ovaries are present on USG.
The most probable diagnosis is:
(a) Kleinfelter’s syndrome (b) Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
(c) Mayer Rockitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome (d) Prader Willi syndrome
Ans: C
79. A 32 year old woman is noted to have 1200 cc of blood loss following a spontaneous vaginal delivery and delivery of placenta. The uterine fundus is palpated and noted to be firm. Which of the following is the most likely treatment for this patient?
(a) B’ lynch suture (b) Surgical repair of cervical tear
(c) Intramuscular prostaglandin (d) Replacement of inverted uterus
Ans: B
80. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding physiology of menstruation?
1. LH surge precedes ovulation
2. There are two peaks in serum estradiol levels, first in follicular and second in luteal phase
3. Serum progesterone has only one peak i.e., in luteal phase
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
81. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) of dispersion ?
1. Mode 2. Median 3. Standard Deviation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
82. Which among the following is/are the examples of primordial prevention ?
1. Adopting healthy lifestyles from childhood 2. Immunization of infants 3. Screening of cervical cancer Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
83. The appropriate statistical test to find out obesity as a significant risk factor for breast cancer is:
(a) Student’s paired ‘t’ test (b) Student’s unpaired ‘t’ test (c) Chi‐square test (d) Wilcoxon’s signed rank test
Ans: C
84. In a case control study, confounding factors can be minimized by the following EXCEPT:
(a) Matching of variables such as age and sex (b) Randomization during selection
(c) Stratification during analysis (d) Increasing sample size for cases and controls
Ans: D
85. Which one of the following is FALSE regarding confounding factor in epidemiological studies ?
(a) Associated both with exposure and disease (b) Distributed equally between study and control groups
(c) Independent risk factor for disease in question (d) Source of bias is interpretation
Ans: B
86. Denominator in calculation of case fatality rate is:
(a) Total number of deaths due to all causes (b) Total number of hospital admissions
(c) Total number of cases due to the disease concerned (d) Total number of deaths due to the disease concerned
Ans: C
87. A well of contaminated water resulting in an epidemic of acute watery diarrhoea is a typical example for
(a) Common source, single exposure epidemic (b) Common source, continuous exposure epidemic
(c) Slow epidemic (d) Propagated epidemic
Ans: B
88. An important measure of communicability of a disease is
(a) Incidence rate (b) Case fatality rate (c) Prevalence rate (d) Secondary attack rate
Ans: D
89. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding case fatality rate?
(a) Very useful indicator for both acute and chronic diseases
(b) One of the measures related to virulence
(c) It is the ratio of deaths to cases expressed as percentage
(d) Variation can occur for the same disease because of changes in the agent factors
Ans: A
90. Farmer’s lung is caused by the inhalation of:
(a) Grain dust with actinomycetes (b) Sugarcane dust (c) Silica dust (d) Cotton fibre dust
Ans: A
91. Suraksha Clinics are conducted under the aegis of which National Health Programme?
(a) Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme (b) Iodine Deficiency Disorders Programme
(c) National AIDS Control Programme (d) Reproductive and Child Health Programme
Ans: C
92. Mean + 2 S.D. contains
(a) 68.3 % values
(b) 91.2 % values
(c) 95.4 % values
(d) 99.7 % values
Ans: C
93. Infant Mortality Rate is expressed per:
(a) 1000 pregnancies (b) 1000 live births (c) 1000 under five children (d) 100,000 live births
Ans: B
94. Which of the following tests is NOT used for checking quality of pasteurisation of milk?
(a) Phosphatase test (b) Standard Plate count (c) Coliform count (d) Orthotoludine test
Ans: D
95. Which of the following are components of epidemiological triad?
(a) Sensitivity, specificity and predictive value (b) Time, place and person distribution
(c) Agent, host and environmental factors (d) Prevalence, incidence and attack rate
Ans: C
96. By applying the principles of ergonomics which of the following can be improved?
1. Designing of equipment and tools 2. Human efficiency
3. Layout of place of work 4. Reduction in industrial accidents
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans: B
97. The risk of disease is measured by
(a) Prevalence Rate (b) Incidence Rate (c) Attrition Rate (d) Fatality Rate
Ans: B
98. Tetanus spores can only be killed by
(a) Large doses of penicillin (b) Anti tetanus Serum (c) Tetanus toxoid (d) Gamma irradiation
Ans: D
99. Which is/are the correct statements regarding the cut off points for the diagnosis of anaemia? 1. Haemoglobin for adult males is 13 g/dl
2. Haemoglobin for adult non‐pregnant female is 12 g/dl
3. Haemoglobin for adult pregnant female is 11 g/dl
4. Haemoglobin for children six months to six years of age is 11 g/dl
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: B
100. Health functionary at PHC level is:
(a) ASHA (b) Anganwadi Worker (c) Health Assistant (Female) (d) Health Worker (Female)
Ans: C
(a) Two arteries and two veins (b) One artery and one vein (c) Two arteries and one vein (d) One artery and two veins
Ans: C
63. Painless genital ulcer is found in which one of the following genital infections?
(a) Grannloma inguinale (b) Chancroid (c) Lymphogranuloma venerum (d) Herpes simplex
Ans: C
64. Medical management of tubular ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following EXCEPT:
(a) Period of gestation 5 weeks (b) β HCG level more than 10,000 IU (c) Absent foetal cardiac activity (d) Gestational sac diameter 3 cm.
Ans: B
65. Cholestasis may lead to the following complications EXCEPT:
(a) Intrauterine foetal death (b) Meconium stained liquor (c) Preterm labour (d) Neonatal jaundice
Ans: D
66. Which of the following genital infections is associated with preterm labour?
(a) Human Papilloma Virus (b) Trichomonas vaginalis (c) Monilial vaginitis (d) Bacterial vaginosis
Ans: D
67. Multiple pregnancy is associated with an increased incidence of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Hyperemesis gravidarum (b) Congenital malformations (c) Pregnancy induced hypertension (d) Post date pregnancy
Ans: D
68. Which of the following conditions of the endometrium is associated with a significantly increased risk of development of cancer?
(a) Simple hyperplasia (b) Complex hyperplasia with atypia (c) Simple atypical hyperplasia (d) Complex hyperplasia
Ans: B
69. Surgical staging is done for all the genital malignancies EXCEPT:
(a) Ovarian malignancy (b) Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (c) Endometrial carcinoma (d) Fallopian tube malignancy
Ans: B
70. B‐Lynch suture for atonic postpartum haemorrhage
(a) compresses the uterus (b) ligates the uterine arteries (c) ligates the utero‐ovarian anastomosis (d) ligates the ovarian vessels
Ans: A
71. Regarding ‘Delancy’s levels of vaginal support’, consider the following pairs:
1. Level I .......... Supports distal urethra perineal body
2. Level II .......... Supports mid‐vagina
3. Level III .......... Supports apical defect
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
72. Regarding “conjoined twins”, which of the following statements is/are true?
1. These are always monozygotic
2. These result when division occurs before the embryonic disc is formed
3. Most common variety is thoracopagus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
73. The appropriate treatment for the baby of a woman who is HBsAg positive but HBeAg negative is
(a) Both active and passive immunisation soon after birth
(b) Passive immunisation soon after birth but active immunisation after one year of age
(c) Only active immunisation soon after birth (d) Only passive immunisation soon after birth
Ans: A
74. Consider the following pairs regarding foetal heart during labour:
Term .... Description
1. Early decelerations .... Most common during labour and are due to cord compression
2. Late decelerations .... Result due to any process leading to maternal hypotension, placental insufficiency or excessive uterine activity
3. Variable decelerations .... Are due to head compression leading to vagal stimulation Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans: D
75. A 26 year old woman P1L1 reports with High Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (HGSIL) on Pap smear (Papanicolaou smear). Further management for her is:
(a) VIA, VILI (b) Colposcopy and directed biopsy
(c) LEEP (d) Conisation
Ans: B
76. With reference to the displacement of uterus, the treatment of choice for genuine stress urinary incontinence is:
(a) Kegel’s perineal exercises (b) Kelly’s placation
(c) TVT‐O mid urethral tape (d) Periurethral injection of bulking agents
Ans: C
77. Regarding placental separation in III stage of labour, consider the following statements:
1. Separation of placenta occurs at deciduas spongiosa
2. In Shultz method, separation of placenta starts at centre
3. In Mathew Duncan’s method, separation begins at margin
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
78. A 16 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea with absent vagina, cervix and uterus in the presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics. Ovaries are present on USG.
The most probable diagnosis is:
(a) Kleinfelter’s syndrome (b) Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
(c) Mayer Rockitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome (d) Prader Willi syndrome
Ans: C
79. A 32 year old woman is noted to have 1200 cc of blood loss following a spontaneous vaginal delivery and delivery of placenta. The uterine fundus is palpated and noted to be firm. Which of the following is the most likely treatment for this patient?
(a) B’ lynch suture (b) Surgical repair of cervical tear
(c) Intramuscular prostaglandin (d) Replacement of inverted uterus
Ans: B
80. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding physiology of menstruation?
1. LH surge precedes ovulation
2. There are two peaks in serum estradiol levels, first in follicular and second in luteal phase
3. Serum progesterone has only one peak i.e., in luteal phase
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
81. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) of dispersion ?
1. Mode 2. Median 3. Standard Deviation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
82. Which among the following is/are the examples of primordial prevention ?
1. Adopting healthy lifestyles from childhood 2. Immunization of infants 3. Screening of cervical cancer Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
83. The appropriate statistical test to find out obesity as a significant risk factor for breast cancer is:
(a) Student’s paired ‘t’ test (b) Student’s unpaired ‘t’ test (c) Chi‐square test (d) Wilcoxon’s signed rank test
Ans: C
84. In a case control study, confounding factors can be minimized by the following EXCEPT:
(a) Matching of variables such as age and sex (b) Randomization during selection
(c) Stratification during analysis (d) Increasing sample size for cases and controls
Ans: D
85. Which one of the following is FALSE regarding confounding factor in epidemiological studies ?
(a) Associated both with exposure and disease (b) Distributed equally between study and control groups
(c) Independent risk factor for disease in question (d) Source of bias is interpretation
Ans: B
86. Denominator in calculation of case fatality rate is:
(a) Total number of deaths due to all causes (b) Total number of hospital admissions
(c) Total number of cases due to the disease concerned (d) Total number of deaths due to the disease concerned
Ans: C
87. A well of contaminated water resulting in an epidemic of acute watery diarrhoea is a typical example for
(a) Common source, single exposure epidemic (b) Common source, continuous exposure epidemic
(c) Slow epidemic (d) Propagated epidemic
Ans: B
88. An important measure of communicability of a disease is
(a) Incidence rate (b) Case fatality rate (c) Prevalence rate (d) Secondary attack rate
Ans: D
89. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding case fatality rate?
(a) Very useful indicator for both acute and chronic diseases
(b) One of the measures related to virulence
(c) It is the ratio of deaths to cases expressed as percentage
(d) Variation can occur for the same disease because of changes in the agent factors
Ans: A
90. Farmer’s lung is caused by the inhalation of:
(a) Grain dust with actinomycetes (b) Sugarcane dust (c) Silica dust (d) Cotton fibre dust
Ans: A
91. Suraksha Clinics are conducted under the aegis of which National Health Programme?
(a) Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme (b) Iodine Deficiency Disorders Programme
(c) National AIDS Control Programme (d) Reproductive and Child Health Programme
Ans: C
92. Mean + 2 S.D. contains
(a) 68.3 % values
(b) 91.2 % values
(c) 95.4 % values
(d) 99.7 % values
Ans: C
93. Infant Mortality Rate is expressed per:
(a) 1000 pregnancies (b) 1000 live births (c) 1000 under five children (d) 100,000 live births
Ans: B
94. Which of the following tests is NOT used for checking quality of pasteurisation of milk?
(a) Phosphatase test (b) Standard Plate count (c) Coliform count (d) Orthotoludine test
Ans: D
95. Which of the following are components of epidemiological triad?
(a) Sensitivity, specificity and predictive value (b) Time, place and person distribution
(c) Agent, host and environmental factors (d) Prevalence, incidence and attack rate
Ans: C
96. By applying the principles of ergonomics which of the following can be improved?
1. Designing of equipment and tools 2. Human efficiency
3. Layout of place of work 4. Reduction in industrial accidents
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans: B
97. The risk of disease is measured by
(a) Prevalence Rate (b) Incidence Rate (c) Attrition Rate (d) Fatality Rate
Ans: B
98. Tetanus spores can only be killed by
(a) Large doses of penicillin (b) Anti tetanus Serum (c) Tetanus toxoid (d) Gamma irradiation
Ans: D
99. Which is/are the correct statements regarding the cut off points for the diagnosis of anaemia? 1. Haemoglobin for adult males is 13 g/dl
2. Haemoglobin for adult non‐pregnant female is 12 g/dl
3. Haemoglobin for adult pregnant female is 11 g/dl
4. Haemoglobin for children six months to six years of age is 11 g/dl
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: B
100. Health functionary at PHC level is:
(a) ASHA (b) Anganwadi Worker (c) Health Assistant (Female) (d) Health Worker (Female)
Ans: C
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