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LAW- PAGE 18

1. Which case is related to the power of the court to examine the accused ?  (a) Baba Vs. Maharashtra State only (b) Durbal Singh Vs. State only  (c) Both (a) and (b)  (d) None of these​

2. Which one of the following term is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act ?  (a) Intention  (b) Preparation (c) Motive (d) Conduct

3. Contents of electronic records are proved in accordance of which the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act ?  (a) Section 65-A (b) Section 65-B (c) Section 67-A (d) Section 73-A

4. Evidence given by a witness, unable to communicate verbally in the court by writing or sign, shall be deemed to be   (a) Circumstantial evidence (b) Documentary evidence  (c) Oral evidence   (d) None of these

5. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?  (a) Section 113 B – Presumption as to dowry death  (b) Section 137 – Examination in Chief  (c) Section 151 – Indecent and scandalous questions  (d) Section 154 – Impeaching credit of witness
  
6. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the words ‘to form part of the same transaction’ are provided ?  (a) Section 12 (b) Section 9 (c) Section 11 (d) Section 6

7. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched under Indian Evidence Act ?  (a) Section 45 – Opinions of experts  (b) Section 67-A – Proof as to electronic signature  (c) Section 74 – Public documents  (d) Section 124 – Professional communication

8. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence has been substituted by the Information Technology Act, 2000 ?  (a) Section 29 (b) Section 35 (c) Section 39 (d) Section 40

9. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, makes the provision that there shall be no new trial on the ground of improper admission or rejection of evidence ?  (a) Section 167 (b) Section 161 (c) Section 165 (d) Section 147

10. Which of the following documents is ‘Public Document’ ?  (a) only the documents forming records of the acts of sovereign authority.  (b) only the documents forming records of the acts of official bodies.  (c) only the public records kept in any state of private documents.  (d) All of these

11. Which of the following questions shall not be asked in examining a witness ?  (a) only that which is intended to insult.  (b) only that which is intended to annoy.  (c) only that which appears to the court needlessly offensive.  (d) All of these

12. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, provisions for presumption as to gazettes in Electronic form has been made ?  (a) Section 85 C (b) Section 81 A (c) Section 88 A (d) Section 90 A

13. All facts, except the contents of documents may be proved by  (a) Primary evidence  (b) Secondary evidence  (c) Oral evidence   (d) Circumstantial evidence

14. Which one of the following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay under the law of evidence ?  (a) Expert’s opinion  (b) Dying declaration  (c) Confession   (d) Res gestae

15. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act deals only with civil matters ?  (a) Section 19 (b) Section 20 (c) Section 21 (d) Section 23

16. Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act is founded upon the doctrine laid down in which one of the following case ?  (a) Banwari Lal Vs. Sukhdarshan (b) Pikard Vs. Sears  (c) B. Coleman Vs. P.P. Das Gupta (d) Vishnu Datt Sharma Vs. Dayasharan

17. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, a judge is empowered to ask any question relevant or irrelevant to a witness or a party to a suit ?  (a) Section 164 (b) Section 165 (c) Section 166 (d) Section 167

18. Muslim Law does not apply to which of the following ?  (a) Gifts   (b) Maintenance  (c) Just and Trust Properties (d) Succession to agricultural land

19. Who delivered the dissenting (minority) judgment in the Triple Talak case ?  (a) Justice Kurian Joseph (b) Justice Khehar Singh  (c) Justice Fali S. Nariman (d) Justice U.U. Lalit

20. Under the Waqf Act, 1995 the power of Tribunal to determine disputes regarding Auqof is given in which of the following sentence ?  (a) Section 6 (b) Section 9 (c) Section 7 (d) Section 10

21. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 option of puberty is available to  (a) The husband only  (b) The wife only  (c) Husband and wife both  (d) Husband and wife both with approval of guardian

22. Which one is not a recognized branch of Sunni School of Muslim Law ?  (a) Ithana Ashari (b) Hanafi (c) Maliki (d) Shafei
​
23. Which one of the following is not correct with reference to Legal incidence of Wakf ?  (a) The wakif ceases to have any interest in it. (b) The property ceases to be heritable.  (c) The wakif becomes irrevocable. (d) The wakif has right to alter the Wakf.

24. Govind Dayal V. Inayatullah is a leading case on which of the followings ?  (a) Wakf (b) Pre-emption (c) Wills (d) Guardianship

25. Jurisdiction of Family Court applies to which of the following community ?  (a) Lingayat (b) Muslims (c) Buddhists (d) All of these

26. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 a Muslim marriage may be dissolved in which of the followings ?  (a) By the husband alone by pronouncing talak.  (b) By the wife pronouncing reverence of relationship.  (c) By the court on the ground of mutual consent.  (d) By the court in a petition filed by the wife.

27. Muta Marriage is permitted under which of the following ?  (a) In all branches of Hanafi School  (b) In only Ithana Asharia branch of Shia School  (c) In only Maliki branch of Hanafi School  (d) In all the branches of Shia School

28. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act has been amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018. Select the correct answer with the help of code given below :  (1)  Section 53 A  (2)  Section 119 (3)  Section 146  Code :  (a) Only (1) is correct.  (b) Only (2) and (3) are correct.  (c) Only (1) and (3) are correct. (d) Only (3) is correct. 

29. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provision has been made for permanent alimony and maintenance ?  (a) Section 24 (b) Section 26 (c) Section 25 (d) Section 27

30. Limitation of filing appeal against decrees under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is from date of decree is  (a) 30 days (b) 45 days (c) 60 days (d) 90 days

31. Dastane V. Dastane related to which of the following matter in Hindu Law ?   (a) Restitution of conjugal rights (b) Cruelty  (c) Adultery   (d) Spinda

32. Which one of the followings is not the ground of Judicial separation u/s 10 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?  (a) Adultery   (b) Cruelty  (c) Leprosy   (d) Missing of less than seven years

33. “No petition of divorce can be presented within one year of marriage.” It is provided in which following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act ?  (a) Under Section 14  (b) Under Section 12  (c) Under Section 13  (d) Under Section 11

34. Right of a child in womb is given under which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Succession Act ?  (a) Section 24 (b) Section 22 (c) Section 20 (d) Section 25

35. Which of the following is not the heir of class II of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 ?  (a) Father   (b) Father’s father, father’s mother  (c) Mother’s father, mother’s mother (d) Brother and sister by uterine blood

36. No person shall be entitled to dispose of or deal with the property of a Hindu minor merely because on the ground of his or her being the defacto guardian of the minor is provided under which of the following Sections of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act ?  (a) Section 10   (b) Section 11  (c) Section 12   (d) Section 13

37. The adoption is to be proved as fact and the burden is on the person who asserts, is held in which of the following case ?  (a) Sitabai Vs. Ramchandra  (b) Kishori Lal Vs. Chaltibai  (c) Jasveer Kaur Vs. District Judge, Deharadun  (d) Smt. Vijaya Manohar Vs. Kashi Rao Rajaram

38. Under Sunni Law in the matter of inheritance, what is share of son in his father’s property except land after death of father ?  (a) 1/3 of the property  (b) 1/2 of the property  (c) 3/4  of the property  (d) There is no specific share.

39. Under Hindu Succession Act, one person is said to be ‘agnate’ of another if the two are related  (a) by blood or adoption wholly through males.  (b) by blood or adoption but not wholly through males  (c) by half blood through males  (d) None of these

40. Who is the natural guardian of a married girl ?  (a) Her Mother   (b) Her Father  (c) Her Husband   (d) Her Father-in-law

41. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act relates to voidable marriage ?  (a) Section 10 (b) Section 13 (c) Section 8 (d) Section 12

42. Tagore Vs. Tagore laid down which one of the following rule of law ?  (a) A Hindu cannot dispose of his property by gift intervene in favour of an unborn child.  (b) Karta of a Joint Hindu Family has power to intervene into family matters.  (c) A partition of joint family property can be reopened.  (d) Adoption of an orphan is not valid.

43. Which one of the following Sections of the Cr. P.C. deals with ‘evidence for defence’ ?  (a) Section 264 (b) Section 243 (c) Section 237 (d) Section 242

44. Power of the court to convert summons cases into warrant cases is provided under which one of the following Sections of the Cr. P.C. ?  (a) Section 302 (b) Section 259 (c) Section 301 (d) Section 322

45. Claims and objections to attachment of property is provided under which one of the following Sections of the Cr. P.C. ?  (a) Section 84 (b) Section 85 (c) Section 86 (d) Section 87

46. The validity of an order made under Section 144 of Cr. P.C. is   (a) three months (b) four months (c) two months (d) five months

47. The power to postpone the execution of death sentence is conferred on  (a) the Court of Session  (b) the Court of Judicial Magistrate  (c) the High Court  (d) the Court of District Magistrate

48. An accused person shall be a competent witness according to which one of the Sections of Cr. P.C. ?  (a) Section 314 (b) Section 316 (c) Section 317 (d) Section 315

49. Which ‘form’ mentioned in the Second Schedule of Cr. P.C. is related with ‘Charge’ ?  (a) Form 31 (b) Form 32 (c) Form 33 (d) Form 34

50. According to Section 97 of the Cr. P.C., who is not competent to issue a search warrant ?  (a) The District Magistrate (b) The Sub-divisional Magistrate  (c) The Magistrate of First Class (d) The Court of Session

Answer Key: 

1. C
2 A
3 B
4 C
5 D
6 D

7 D
8 C   
9 A  
10 D   
11 D

12 B
13 C
14 A
15 D
16 B
17 B

18 D
19 B   
20 C   
21 B   
22 A 
23 D  
24 B   
25 D   
26 D 

27 B 
28 C
29 C
30 D
31 B
32 D
33 A
34 C
35 D

​36 B 
37 B 

38 D  
39 A  

40 C
41 D
42 A
43 B
44 B
45 A
46 C
47 C
48 D
49 B

50 D
51. Which one of the following Sections provides statutory duties of a mortgagee in possession under the Transfer of Property Act ?   (a) Section 78 (b) Section 76 (c) Section 77 (d) Section 79

52. If an intestate has left no heir qualified to succeed to his or her property, such property shall devolve on which of the following ?   (a) State Government  (b) Brothers  (c) Both (a) and (b)  (d) None of these

53. A Magistrate empowered under Section 190 of Cr. P.C. may order an investigation by police in a cognizable offence.  This is provided under which of the following sections of Cr. P.C. ?  (a) Section 154 (3)  (b) Section 155 (3)  (c) Section 156 (3)  (d) Section 157 (4)

54. Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code are covered under Section 95 of the Cr. P.C. ?  (a) Section 124 A only  (b) Section 153 A and S. 153 B only  (c) Section 292, 293 and 295 A only (d) All of these

55. The High Court may exercise its inherent power under Section 482 on which of the following grounds ?  (a) in rarest of rate case  (b) in ex debito justice  (c) to prevent abuse of process of any court  (d) All of these

56. If a judge dies after writing his judgment but before delivering in open court, then the judgment shall be considered as  (a) Judgment of the court (b) Opinion of the judge  (c) Only a dying declaration (d) None of these

57. Who may record confession under S. 164 of the Cr. P.C. ?  (a) Any Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction only.  (b) Any Judicial Magistrate not having jurisdiction only.  (c) Any Metropolitan Magistrate not having jurisdiction only.  (d) All of these.

58. In which of the following case it was held that the function of the police and judiciary is complementary to each other ?    (a) King Emperor Vs. Najir Ahmad  (b) Anand Chintamani Dighe Vs. State of Maharashtra  (c) Manisi Jain Vs. State of Gujarat  (d) None of these

59. Under the Criminal Procedure Code, which of the followings is not correctly matched ? (a) Medical Examination of the Victim of rape – S. 164A (b) Letter of request to competent authority for investigation in a country or place outside India – S. 166A (c) Release of accused when evidence deficient – S. 167 (d) Diary of proceedings in investigation – S. 172 

60. Which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code provides ‘Victim Compensation Scheme’ ?  (a) Section 357 (b) Section 357 A (c) Section 357 C (d) Section 357 B

61. “Name of the victim of sexual offence shall not be mentioned.”  It was held in which of the following cases ?  (a) S. Ramkrishna Vs. State (b) Balwant Rai Vs. Changi Ram  (c) Gulzari Lal Vs. State of U.P. (d) Ramapati Vs. State of Bihar

62. Which one of the following is not correctly matched in the Criminal Procedure code ? (a) Section 2(d) – Complaint   (b) Section 2(h) – Investigation  (c) Section 2(r) – Police report  (d) Section 2(w) – Victim 

63. Discharge of the accused before trial has been provided under which of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code ?  Choose the correct answer with the help of code given below :  (1) Section 227 (2) Section 239 (3) Section 255  Code :  (a) Only (1) is correct.  (b) Only (2) is correct.  (c) Both (1) and (2) are correct. (d) Both (1) and (3) are correct.

64. Consider the following statements to summary trial under the Criminal Procedure Code and choose the correct answer with the help of the code given below :  (1) Offences under Sections 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code may be tried by summary trial.  (2) Sentence under summary trial shall not be passed less than three months.  (3) Procedure of trial of summon case shall be followed in summary trial.  Code :  (a) Only (1) and (2) are correct. (b) Only (2) and (3) are correct.  (c) Only (1) and (3) are correct. (d) All (1), (2) and (3) are correct.

65. Section 41-B was inserted in the Criminal Procedure Code by the Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act in which of the following year ?  (a) in 2008 (b) in 2010 (c) in 2005 (d) None of these

66. No court shall take cognizance of an offence under the Criminal Procedure Code after the expiry of the period of limitation under Section 468. Which one of the following is not correct ?  (a) Six months, if the offence is punishable with fine only.  (b) One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year.  (c) Two years in respect of economic offences.  (d) Three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding three years. 

67. “Irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings” is provided in which of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code ?  (a) Section 461 (b) Section 460 (c) Section 462 (d) Section 458

68. Power of High Court to confirm sentence is provided under which of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code ?  (a) Section 366 (b) Section 367 (c) Section 369 (d) Section 368

69. Section 195-A of Indian Penal Code is related to :  (a) Punishment for false evidence (b) Threat to give false evidence  (c) Using evidence known to be false (d) Issuing or signing false certificate

70. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched under Indian Penal Code ?  (a) Section 93 – Communication made in good faith  (b) Section 95 – Act causing slight harm  (c) Section 54 – Commutation of sentence of imprisonment for life  (d) Section 54-A – Definition of ‘appropriate government’ 

71. A man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, e-mail or any other form of electronic communication, commit the offence of   (a) Trafficking of woman (b) Sexual harassment   (c) Voyeurism   (d) Stalking

72. The punishment for attempting to commit offence punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment is provided in   (a) under Section 511 IPC (b) under Section 509 IPC  (c) under Section 510 IPC (d) under Section 507 IPC

73. The offence of ‘attempt to commit culpable homicide’ is punishable under which of the following Section of IPC ?   (a) Section 304 (b) Section 308 (c) Section 310 (d) Section 301

74. ‘A’ puts jewels into a box belonging to ‘B’ with the intention that they may be found in that box, and this circumstances may cause ‘B’ to be convicted of theft.   ‘A’ has committed the offence under which Section of IPC given below ?    (a) Section 191  (b) Section 193 (c) Section 194 (d) Section 192

75. ‘A’ a carrier, is entrusted by ‘Z’ with property to be carried by land or by water. ‘A’ dishonestly misappropriates of property.  A has committed the offence of :  (a) Criminal misappropriation of property (b) Cheating  (c) Criminal breach of trust (d) Criminal breach of trust by carrier, etc. 

76. When a person tries to escape from lawful custody while taken to a Magistrate to furnish security for good behaviour could be punished under the provision of :   (a) Section 224 IPC  (b) Section 225 IPC  (c) Section 225-A IPC  (d) Section 225-B IPC

77. A young man waves a currency note of rupees two thousands in front of a woman as if he offers the money for an indecent favour from the woman, he may be criminally booked under :   (a) Section 509 IPC  (b) Section 489-B IPC  (c) Section 508 IPC  (d) Section 354-B IPC

78. Under which one of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code the offence of ‘Voyeurism’ has been defined ?  (a) Section 354-A (b) Section 354-B (c) Section 354-C (d) Section 354-D

79. Dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by deceased person at the time of his death, is an offence punishable under the Indian Penal Code in :  (a) Section 404 (b) Section 406 (c) Section 407 (d) Section 409

80. When two or more persons indulge in fighting at a public place and thereby commit breach of peace, they commit the offence of :  (a) Robbery (b) Riot (c) Public nuisance (d) Affray

81. ‘A’ signs his own name to a Bill of Exchange, intending that it may be believed that the bill was drawn by another person of same name. ‘A’ has committed the offence of    (a) Cheating   (b) Mischief  (c) Forgery   (d) Fabricating false evidence

82. Where a woman is gang raped, each of those persons shall be deemed to have committed the offence of rape and shall be punished with :   (a) Death  (b) Imprisonment for life  (c) Imprisonment for life with fine  (d) Rigorous imprisonment not less than twenty years

83. Which one of the following is not an essential element of the offence of acid attack mentioned under Section 326-A of the IPC ?  (a) Partial damage, deformity or burn (b) Maiming, disfigurement or disablement   (c) Damage, disfigurement or grievous hurt  (d) only bodily pain

84. ‘A’ causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to ‘Z’, intending to cause damage to Z’s crops. ‘A’ committed the offence of   (a) Cheating    (b) Mischief   (c) Dishonest misappropriation of property (d) None of these

85. Right to private defence is available to all irrespective of gender and age of persons except :  (a) Police officers   (b) Officers of armed forces  (c) Aggressors   (d) Officers of B.S.F.

86. The minimum punishment in term of imprisonment provided under the Indian Penal Code is :  (a) 24 hours (b) 7 days (c) two days (d) one month

87. The word illegal as defined in the Indian Penal Code means :  (a) everything which is an offence only.  (b) everything which is prohibited by law only.  (c) everything which furnishes ground for a civil action only.  (d) All of these

88. ‘A’ a private doctor running his own clinic, refuses to provide medical treatment to ‘B’, a victim of acid attack.  ‘A’ is liable under which one of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code ?  (a) Section 166  (b) Section 166-A (c) Section 166-B (d) Section 167

89. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, commit the offence of :  (a) wrongful restraint  (b) abduction  (c) kidnapping   (d) abetment  

90. Which one is not a theory of attempt for Section 511 of Indian Penal Code ?  (a) Proximity rule   (b) Theory of impossibility  (c) Object theory   (d) Durhum rule

91. Section 497 of Indian Penal Code is struck down by the Supreme Court in which of the following case ?   (a) Navtejsingh Johar Vs. Union of India   (b) Joseph Shine Vs. Union of India  (c) Tahsean S. Poonawala Vs. Union of India  (d) Naz Foundation Trust Vs. Suresh Kumar Kaushal

92. Which one of the following is not the ingredients of the Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?  (a) Criminal act done by several person  (b) In the furtherance of common intention  (c) Meeting of the minds of those who involved in crime  (d) Similar intention of those who involved in the crime

93. The principle of Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act is based on which one of the following cases ?  (a) Girijesh Vs. Dattadin (b) Chamaru Sahu Vs. Sona Kuer  (c) Theluson Vs. Woodford (d) None of these

94. ‘A’ transfers property to ‘B’ in trust for ‘C’ and directs ‘B’ to give possession of the property to ‘C’ when he attains the age of 25. ‘C’ has :  (a) contingent interest  (b) vested interest  (c) both contingent and vested interest (d) No interest

95. The object of the principle of Lis-pendens is to :  (a) only maintaining the status-quo.  (b) only restraining further litigation.  (c) only restraining creation of new facts during litigation.  (d) All of these

96. Which one of the following is not a constructive notice ?  (a) Gross negligence regarding to a fact (b) Registration  (c) Actual possession  (d) Definite knowledge

97. A lessee is not entitled to the right of marshalling under which one of the following Sections of the T.P. Act ?   (a) Section 55   (b) Section 56 (c) Section 57 (d) Section 81

Answer Key:


​51 B
52 A
53 C
54 A
55 D
56 B
57 D
58 A
59 C
60 B
​
61 A   
62 D  
63 C   
64 D   
65 A

66 C
67 B
68 D
69 B
70 C
71 D
72 A
73 B
74 D
75 C
76 D
77 A
78 C
79 A
80 D
81 C 
82 D 
83 D 
84 B 
85 C 
86 A
87 D
88 C
89 B
90 D 

91 B 
92 D
93 C
94 B 
95 D
96 D
97 B
​
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