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1. Which one is not an exception of defamation under Section 499 of Indian Penal Code ? (a) Public conduct of public servant (b) Malicious statements (c) Conduct of any person touching any public question (d) Publication of reports of proceedings of court
2. Which of the following case has been decided by the International Permanent Court of Justice ?
(a) Corfu Channel Case (b) Paquete Habana Case (c) S.S. Lotus Case (d) Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case
3. ‘Ex Acqua et bono’ maxim is related to
(a) Source of International Law (b) Law of Extradition (c) Law of Recognition (d) Law of State Succession
4. In which year World Health Organisation had been constituted ?
(a) 1942 (b) 1944 (c) 1945 (d) 1946
5. Who is the writer of the book ‘Theory of Justice’ ?
(a) John Rawls (b) Stammler (c) Kalson (d) Dwarkin
6. The Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018 came into effect from
(a) 1st July, 2018 (b) 1st October, 2018 (c) 26th July, 2018 (d) 26th October, 2018
7. The decision of the International Court of Justice is signed by whom ? (a) The Chairman (b) The Registrar (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
8. Who among the following can not sale and purchase an actionable claim ? (a) only judge (b) only legal practitioner (c) only any judicial officer (d) All of these
9. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (Act 17 of 2018) shall be deemed to have come into force on (a) 20th March, 2018 (b) 20th April, 2018 (c) 21st April, 2018 (d) 22nd April, 2018
10. ‘The Indian Constitution Corner Stone of a Nation’ book was authored by (a) John Austin (b) Granville Austin (c) A.L. Good Heart (d) H.L.A. Hart
11. Which one of the Chief Justice of India was Vice President of India from 1979 to 1984 ? (a) M. Hidayatullah (b) S.M. Sikri (c) A.N. Ray (d) K. Subba Rao
12. Which one of the following is a Neutralized State ? (a) India (b) Pakistan (c) Japan (d) Switzerland
13. What is the width of the excluded economic zone in International Law ? (a) 12 nautical miles (b) 24 nautical miles (c) 100 nautical miles (d) 200 nautical miles
14. A person born not in the country of his parents, would be the national of the country where he is born on the basis of the principle of (a) Jus Soli (b) Jus Sanguinis (c) Jus Jury (d) Jus Terti
15. “Asylum stops where extradition begins”. Above statement was made by (a) Kelsen (b) Starke (c) Schwarzenberger (d) Cobbett
16. Declaring a diplomat “persona non-grata” is a right of the (a) Sending State (b) Receiving State (c) Both sending and receiving State (d) None of these
17. The term ‘United Nations’ was suggested by (a) Roosevelt (b) Churchill (c) T.V. Soong (d) M. Litinov
18. The Principal organs of the United Nations are those whose names are mentioned in (a) Article 5 of the United Nations Charter (b) Article 6 of the United Nations Charter (c) Article 7 of the United Nations Charter (d) Article 8 of the United Nations Charter
19. In which Supreme Court case it was held that preamble is the basic structure of the Constitution ? (a) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India (b) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala (c) Chandra Bhavan Vs. State of Mysore (d) Nakara Vs. Union of India
20. Out of the following who has not been elected as Judge of International Court of Justice ? (a) Dr. Nagendra Singh (b) Dalveer Bhandari (c) R.S. Pathak (d) Ranganath Misra
21. Which one of the following is known as “Earth Summit ? (a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate change. (b) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development. (c) Convention on Biological Diversity (d) None of these
22. Which is not a peaceful means of settlement of dispute under International Law ? (a) Retortion (b) Conciliation (c) Negotiation (d) Good Offices
23. How many members are in Security council ? (a) 5 Permanent (b) 10 Permanent (c) 5 Permanent and 10 Temporary (d) None of these
24. Which of the following statement is correct ? (a) The concept of citizenship is relevant to International Law. (b) The concept of citizenship is irrelevant to Municipal Law. (c) The concept of citizenship is relevant to both International Law as well as Municipal Law. (d) The concept of citizenship is irrelevant to International Law.
25. Criminal procedure code has been included in which of the following lists ? (a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent list (d) All of these
26. Total number of Fundamental Duties provided under the Constitution of India are (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11
27. When a new State is formed through revolt, recognition usually granted is (a) De Jure (b) De Facto (c) Precipitate recognition (d) None of these
28. Which of the following Amendment to the Constitution is related with reservation of seats in Educational Institutions for the economically weaker section of citizens ? (a) 123rd (b) 101st (c) 103rd (d) 102nd
29. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has discussed the Constitutional Validity of Triple Talaq ? (a) Shayara Bano Vs. Union of India (b) Naz Foundation Vs. Union of India (c) Daniel Latifi Vs. Union of India (d) Shabnam Hashmi Vs. Union of India
30. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats for women in Panchayats ? (a) Article 243A (b) Article 243B (c) Article 243C (d) Article 243D
31. ‘Right in rem’ is available against (a) Particular person only (b) Every one (c) Government only (d) None of these
32. Who among the following put the International Law as positive morality ? (a) Bentham (b) Austin (c) Savigny (d) Holland
33. As per Indian Patents Act, 1970, criteria of Patentability in India are (a) Novelty (b) Inventive step (c) Capable of industrial application (d) All of these
34. Who is not member of ‘SAARC’ in the following ? (a) Singapore (b) India (c) Pakistan (d) Bhutan
35. How many Articles are in Indian Constitution ? (a) 365 (b) 394 (c) 395 (d) 379
36. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution is related to (a) Literacy (b) Health (c) Untouchability removal (d) Food Guarantee
37. Which State of India has made rain water harvesting compulsory for every houses ? (a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
38. The sixth schedule of the Constitution of India does not provide for the administration of the Tribal Areas in (a) Assam (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Mizoram
39. Which is the 25th High Court of India ? (a) Shillong High Court (b) Imphal High Court (c) Agartala High Court (d) Amravati High Court
40. ‘Procedure established by law’, the terminology is taken from the Constitution of which country ? (a) America (b) Japan (c) Canada (d) Australia
41. Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the proclamation of emergency ? (a) Article 366(16) (b) Article 366(17) (c) Article 366(18) (d) Article 366(19)
42. Union Public Service Commission Members have tenure of office for (a) Two years (b) Three years (c) Five years (d) Six years
43. Neuremberg Trial, Tokyo Trial, Peleus Trial and Eichmann Trial related to whom ? (a) Laws of Aerial Warfare (b) War Crimes (c) Laws of Land Warfare (d) Laws of Maritime Warfare
44. Which one of the following principles are not related to recognition ? (a) Trobar Doctrine (b) Munro Doctrine (c) Stimpson Doctrine (d) Estrada Doctrine
45. Justice Dalveer Bhandari has a re-elected term as Justice in the International Court of Justice for a term of (a) 2017 – 2026 (b) 2018 – 2027 (c) 2019 – 2028 (d) 2020 – 2029
46. Which city of India received the cleanest city award on March 6, 2019 ? (a) Ambikapur (b) Mysore (c) Indore (d) Chandigarh
47. Which Justice has been appointed as the first Ombudsman of India ? (a) Justice Pradeep Kumar Mohanti (b) Justice D.B. Bhosle (c) Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghosh (d) Justice Ajay Kumar Tripathi
48. Which is the 43rd member of the Australia group ? (a) China (b) Pakistan (c) India (d) Brazil
49. Which of the following State Legislatures has one house ? (a) Bihar (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
50. In which case it was decided that the preamble is not a part of the Constitution ? (a) In re Berubari case (b) Keshavanand Bharti case (c) Maneka Gandhi case (d) S.R. Bommai case
Answer Key:
1 B
2 C
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 C
7 C
8 D
9 C
10 B
11 A
12 D
13 D
14 A
15 B
16 B
17 A
18 C
19 B
20 D
21 B
22 A
23 C
24 D
25 C
26 D
27 B
28 C
29 A
30 D
31 B
32 B
33 D
34 A
35 C
36 C
37 D
38 B
39 D
40 B
41 C
42 D
43 B
44 B
45 B
46 C
47 C
48 C
49 C
50 A
2. Which of the following case has been decided by the International Permanent Court of Justice ?
(a) Corfu Channel Case (b) Paquete Habana Case (c) S.S. Lotus Case (d) Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case
3. ‘Ex Acqua et bono’ maxim is related to
(a) Source of International Law (b) Law of Extradition (c) Law of Recognition (d) Law of State Succession
4. In which year World Health Organisation had been constituted ?
(a) 1942 (b) 1944 (c) 1945 (d) 1946
5. Who is the writer of the book ‘Theory of Justice’ ?
(a) John Rawls (b) Stammler (c) Kalson (d) Dwarkin
6. The Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018 came into effect from
(a) 1st July, 2018 (b) 1st October, 2018 (c) 26th July, 2018 (d) 26th October, 2018
7. The decision of the International Court of Justice is signed by whom ? (a) The Chairman (b) The Registrar (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
8. Who among the following can not sale and purchase an actionable claim ? (a) only judge (b) only legal practitioner (c) only any judicial officer (d) All of these
9. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (Act 17 of 2018) shall be deemed to have come into force on (a) 20th March, 2018 (b) 20th April, 2018 (c) 21st April, 2018 (d) 22nd April, 2018
10. ‘The Indian Constitution Corner Stone of a Nation’ book was authored by (a) John Austin (b) Granville Austin (c) A.L. Good Heart (d) H.L.A. Hart
11. Which one of the Chief Justice of India was Vice President of India from 1979 to 1984 ? (a) M. Hidayatullah (b) S.M. Sikri (c) A.N. Ray (d) K. Subba Rao
12. Which one of the following is a Neutralized State ? (a) India (b) Pakistan (c) Japan (d) Switzerland
13. What is the width of the excluded economic zone in International Law ? (a) 12 nautical miles (b) 24 nautical miles (c) 100 nautical miles (d) 200 nautical miles
14. A person born not in the country of his parents, would be the national of the country where he is born on the basis of the principle of (a) Jus Soli (b) Jus Sanguinis (c) Jus Jury (d) Jus Terti
15. “Asylum stops where extradition begins”. Above statement was made by (a) Kelsen (b) Starke (c) Schwarzenberger (d) Cobbett
16. Declaring a diplomat “persona non-grata” is a right of the (a) Sending State (b) Receiving State (c) Both sending and receiving State (d) None of these
17. The term ‘United Nations’ was suggested by (a) Roosevelt (b) Churchill (c) T.V. Soong (d) M. Litinov
18. The Principal organs of the United Nations are those whose names are mentioned in (a) Article 5 of the United Nations Charter (b) Article 6 of the United Nations Charter (c) Article 7 of the United Nations Charter (d) Article 8 of the United Nations Charter
19. In which Supreme Court case it was held that preamble is the basic structure of the Constitution ? (a) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India (b) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala (c) Chandra Bhavan Vs. State of Mysore (d) Nakara Vs. Union of India
20. Out of the following who has not been elected as Judge of International Court of Justice ? (a) Dr. Nagendra Singh (b) Dalveer Bhandari (c) R.S. Pathak (d) Ranganath Misra
21. Which one of the following is known as “Earth Summit ? (a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate change. (b) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development. (c) Convention on Biological Diversity (d) None of these
22. Which is not a peaceful means of settlement of dispute under International Law ? (a) Retortion (b) Conciliation (c) Negotiation (d) Good Offices
23. How many members are in Security council ? (a) 5 Permanent (b) 10 Permanent (c) 5 Permanent and 10 Temporary (d) None of these
24. Which of the following statement is correct ? (a) The concept of citizenship is relevant to International Law. (b) The concept of citizenship is irrelevant to Municipal Law. (c) The concept of citizenship is relevant to both International Law as well as Municipal Law. (d) The concept of citizenship is irrelevant to International Law.
25. Criminal procedure code has been included in which of the following lists ? (a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent list (d) All of these
26. Total number of Fundamental Duties provided under the Constitution of India are (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11
27. When a new State is formed through revolt, recognition usually granted is (a) De Jure (b) De Facto (c) Precipitate recognition (d) None of these
28. Which of the following Amendment to the Constitution is related with reservation of seats in Educational Institutions for the economically weaker section of citizens ? (a) 123rd (b) 101st (c) 103rd (d) 102nd
29. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has discussed the Constitutional Validity of Triple Talaq ? (a) Shayara Bano Vs. Union of India (b) Naz Foundation Vs. Union of India (c) Daniel Latifi Vs. Union of India (d) Shabnam Hashmi Vs. Union of India
30. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats for women in Panchayats ? (a) Article 243A (b) Article 243B (c) Article 243C (d) Article 243D
31. ‘Right in rem’ is available against (a) Particular person only (b) Every one (c) Government only (d) None of these
32. Who among the following put the International Law as positive morality ? (a) Bentham (b) Austin (c) Savigny (d) Holland
33. As per Indian Patents Act, 1970, criteria of Patentability in India are (a) Novelty (b) Inventive step (c) Capable of industrial application (d) All of these
34. Who is not member of ‘SAARC’ in the following ? (a) Singapore (b) India (c) Pakistan (d) Bhutan
35. How many Articles are in Indian Constitution ? (a) 365 (b) 394 (c) 395 (d) 379
36. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution is related to (a) Literacy (b) Health (c) Untouchability removal (d) Food Guarantee
37. Which State of India has made rain water harvesting compulsory for every houses ? (a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
38. The sixth schedule of the Constitution of India does not provide for the administration of the Tribal Areas in (a) Assam (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Mizoram
39. Which is the 25th High Court of India ? (a) Shillong High Court (b) Imphal High Court (c) Agartala High Court (d) Amravati High Court
40. ‘Procedure established by law’, the terminology is taken from the Constitution of which country ? (a) America (b) Japan (c) Canada (d) Australia
41. Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the proclamation of emergency ? (a) Article 366(16) (b) Article 366(17) (c) Article 366(18) (d) Article 366(19)
42. Union Public Service Commission Members have tenure of office for (a) Two years (b) Three years (c) Five years (d) Six years
43. Neuremberg Trial, Tokyo Trial, Peleus Trial and Eichmann Trial related to whom ? (a) Laws of Aerial Warfare (b) War Crimes (c) Laws of Land Warfare (d) Laws of Maritime Warfare
44. Which one of the following principles are not related to recognition ? (a) Trobar Doctrine (b) Munro Doctrine (c) Stimpson Doctrine (d) Estrada Doctrine
45. Justice Dalveer Bhandari has a re-elected term as Justice in the International Court of Justice for a term of (a) 2017 – 2026 (b) 2018 – 2027 (c) 2019 – 2028 (d) 2020 – 2029
46. Which city of India received the cleanest city award on March 6, 2019 ? (a) Ambikapur (b) Mysore (c) Indore (d) Chandigarh
47. Which Justice has been appointed as the first Ombudsman of India ? (a) Justice Pradeep Kumar Mohanti (b) Justice D.B. Bhosle (c) Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghosh (d) Justice Ajay Kumar Tripathi
48. Which is the 43rd member of the Australia group ? (a) China (b) Pakistan (c) India (d) Brazil
49. Which of the following State Legislatures has one house ? (a) Bihar (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
50. In which case it was decided that the preamble is not a part of the Constitution ? (a) In re Berubari case (b) Keshavanand Bharti case (c) Maneka Gandhi case (d) S.R. Bommai case
Answer Key:
1 B
2 C
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 C
7 C
8 D
9 C
10 B
11 A
12 D
13 D
14 A
15 B
16 B
17 A
18 C
19 B
20 D
21 B
22 A
23 C
24 D
25 C
26 D
27 B
28 C
29 A
30 D
31 B
32 B
33 D
34 A
35 C
36 C
37 D
38 B
39 D
40 B
41 C
42 D
43 B
44 B
45 B
46 C
47 C
48 C
49 C
50 A
51. The principle that ‘possession is prima facie proof of ownership’ is contained under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act ? (a) Section 106 (b) Section 109 (c) Section 111 (d) Section 110
52. In case of gift if the donor dies before acceptance of the gift. The gift will be : (a) valid (b) void (c) voidable (d) subject to decision of the court
53. Within the meaning of Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act, a charge : (a) requires attestation and proved in the same way as a mortgage. (b) requires attestation and does not prove as a mortgage. (c) does not require to be attested and proves in the same way as a mortgage. (d) does not prove as a mortgage.
54. In the following three cases, which lease of immovable property can be made only by a registered instrument ? (a) only a lease from year to year (b) only a lease for a term exceeding one year (c) only a lease reserving a yearly rent (d) All of these
55. The provisions regarding transfer of actionable claims are mention under Transfer of Property Act in (a) Section 130 (b) Section 122 (c) Section 127 (d) Section 128
56. In which one of the following cases it was held that surrender by tenant is not transfer ? (a) Bachchu Vs. Harbansh (b) Makhanlal Saha Vs. N.N. Adhikari (c) Sharada Devi Vs. Chandwala (d) None of these
57. ‘A’ makes an absolute gift of a house to ‘B’ with a direction that ‘B’ shall reside in it. The gift : (a) is not valid and direction is void (b) is valid and direction is also valid (c) is valid but direction is void (d) None of these
58. ‘Double possibility rule’ was laid down in which one of the following cases ? (a) Whitby Vs. Mitchell (b) Indu Kakkar Vs. Haryana State (c) Chamaru Sahu Vs. Soma Kuer (d) None of these
59. Doctrine of acceleration is given under which Section of the Transfer of Property Act ? (a) Section 25 (b) Section 24 (c) Section 27 (d) Section 30
60. The provision regarding ‘apportionment by time’ is given under which of the following Sections of the T.P. Act ? (a) Section 35 (b) Section 36 (c) Section 37 (d) Section 38
61. A co-owner of immovable property under Transfer of Property may make a (a) valid transfer of property (b) only can give possession (c) only can give right to use for a short period (d) cannot make transfer of that property
62. Right of redemption can be exercised (a) only by paying the mortgage money to the mortgagee. (b) only by depositing the mortgage money in court. (c) only by a regular suit for redemption. (d) All of these
63. ‘He who seeks equity must do equity’ is the juristic basis of which one of the following Sections of the T.P. Act ? (a) Section 49 (b) Section 50 (c) Section 51 (d) Section 53
64. The case of Arif Vs. Yadunath is related which of the following ? (a) Apportionment (b) Fraudulent transfer (c) Part performance (d) None of these
65. How many types of mortgage are given in Section 58 of the T.P. Act ? (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
66. ‘Once a mortgage always a mortgage’ was laid down in which one of the following cases ? (a) In Nokes & Co. Vs. Rice (b) In Alderson Vs. White (c) In Hunter Vs. Abdul Ali (d) None of these
67. A lease can be determined by : (a) By Efflux of time (b) By Implied surrender (c) By Forfeiture (d) All of these
68. Dhulabhai Vs. State of M.P. is related to which of the following under CPC ? (a) Jurisdiction of Civil Court (b) Pleadings (c) Interim Orders (d) First Appeal
69. Which of the following judgements of the Supreme Court deals with the applicability of Res-judicata in writ petitions ? (a) L.I.C. Vs. India Automobiles & Company (b) Daryao Vs. State of U.P. (c) Bhula Bhai Vs. State of M.P. (d) Premier Automobile Vs. Kamlakar
70. The object of oral examination under Order X Rule 2 of Civil Procedure Code, is (a) to record evidence. (b) to secure admissions. (c) Both (a) and (b). (d) to elucidate the matter in controversy in the suit.
71. Which of the following remedies may be sought against ex-parte decree ? (a) only application under Order IX Rule 13 CPC (b) only appeal under Section 96(2) CPC (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
72. If the order to amend the pleadings does not contain time limit to amend, party can made the amendment within (a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 14 days (d) 7 days
73. Period of detention in civil imprisonment as a consequence of disobedience or breach of any injunction, shall not exceed (a) 1 month (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year
74. The principle of ‘feeding the grant by estoppel’ is given in which one Section of the T.P. Act ? (a) Section 40 (b) Section 42 (c) Section 43 (d) Section 44
75. Where a suit is wholly or partly dismissed under Orders IX rule 8 of CPC, the plantiff (a) may bring a fresh suit. (b) shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit. (c) may bring fresh suit with the permission of court. (d) None of these
76. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with which one of the followings ? (a) Appointment of receiver (b) Interpleader suit (c) Settlement of disputes outside the court (d) Execution of decree
77. ‘Judgement’ means (a) Part of the decree (b) Statement of judges on the grounds of a decree or order (c) Adjudication of rights (d) None of these
78. Under which of the following provisions of C.P.C., a plaint is rejected by the court in absence of cause of action ? (a) Order VII rule 11 (f) (b) Order VII rule 11 (b) (c) Order VII rule 11 (e) (d) Order VII rule 11 (a)
79. Which one of the following statement is not true in relation to power of appellate court under Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) It can determine a case finally. (b) It can remand a case. (c) It cannot take additional evidence. (d) It can frame issue and refer them for trial.
80. An appeal shall not lie from which of the following order under the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) Section 35 A (b) Section 35 B (c) Section 95 (d) Section 91
81. Who amongst the following may sue for public nuisance and other wrongful acts affecting the public ? (a) The Advocate General only. (b) With the leave of the court by two or more persons only. (c) Anybody who is affected by it. (d) (a) and (b) both
82. “A bundle of facts which taken with the law applicable to them gives the plaintiff the right to relief against the defendant.” It is called as (a) Plaint (b) Written statement (c) Cause of action (d) None of these
83. What shall be status a suit on party’s death ? (a) The death of plaintiff will abate the suit. (b) The death of the defendant will abate the suit. (c) Both (a) and (b) above (d) The death of plaintiff or defendant will not cause the suit to abate if the right to sue survives.
84. Place of suing is mentioned in which part of Civil Procedure Code ? (a) Part I (b) Part II (c) Part III (d) Part IV
85. A situation where a person who is either a necessary party or proper party has not been joined in the suit, is called (a) Non-joinder (b) Mis-joinder (c) Adjoinder (d) None of these
86. ‘A’ deposits a box of jewels with ‘B’, who is a well reputed person of his area. ‘C’ alleges that the jewels were wrongfully obtained from him by ‘A’, and claims them from ‘B’. Legally ‘B’ has which of the following options ? (a) to return the jewels to ‘A’ (b) to deposit the jewels with police (c) to institute an interpleader suit against ‘A’ and ‘C’ (d) None of these
87. Which one of the following is not a dispute settlement procedure referred under Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) Arbitration (b) Negotiation (c) Conciliation (d) Mediation
88. Which of the following is/are the fundamental rules of pleading as set forth under order 6, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) Every pleading must state facts and not law only. (b) It must state material facts only. (c) It must state such facts in a concise form only. (d) All of these
89. A suit for partition contains which of the following decree ? (a) Only preliminary decree (b) Only Intermediate decree (c) Final decree (d) Both (a) and (c)
90. Which of the following deals with the exemption of members of legislative bodies from arrest and detention under the Code of Civil Procedure : (a) Section 139 B (b) Section 132 A (c) Section 135 A (d) Section 140 A
91. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with stay of suit ? (a) Section 16 (b) Section 10 (c) Section 13 (d) Section 12
92. Which of the following deals with service of process on pleader in the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) Order 3, Rule 5 (b) Order 2, Rule 2 (c) Order 7, Rule 3 (d) Order 4, Rule 8
93. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that, “where the witness became confused in the course of his examination, the court could put questions to him to elicit the truth ? (a) State of Rajasthan Vs. Eni (b) D.C. Wadhwa Vs. State of Bihar (c) Shankari Pradad Vs. Union of India (d) Lila Dhar Vs. State of Rajasthan
94. Which of the following grounds is not a appropriate ground for temporary injunction under the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) That any property in dispute is in danger of being wasted. (b) That the defendant threatens to dispose of his property. (c) That the property in dispute is likely to be acquired by the government. (d) None of these
95. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act makes relevant the opinion of the certifying authority which issued the electronic signature ? (a) Section 45-A (b) Section 47-A (c) Section 53-A (d) Section 73-A
96. Confession of one accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under which following sections of the Indian Evidence Act ? (a) Section 26 (b) Section 27 (c) Section 30 (d) Section 29
97. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with secondary evidence ? (a) Section 60 (b) Section 62 (c) Section 63 (d) Section 65
98. Dying declaration to be admissible in evidence which one of the following is not necessary ? (a) That it should relate to the cause of death of the person making such statement. (b) That the person making of the statement was under the expectation of death. (c) That it relates to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death. (d) All of these
99. In respect of digital signature, which of the following is a relevant fact ? (a) The court may direct that person or authority to produce the digital signature certificate. (b) That he himself recognizes his signature before the court. (c) Any other person recognizes his signature before the court. (d) Such digital signature is not admissible in any proceeding before the court.
100. When can prosecution be allowed to ask leading question to its own witness ? (a) In examination in chief (b) In re-examination (c) When the witness is declared hostile (d) In all circumstances
Answer Key:
51 D
52 B
53 C
54 D
55 A
56 B
57 C
58 A
59 C
60 B
61 A
62 D
63 C
64 C
65 B
66 A
67 D
68 A
69 B
70 D
71 C
72 C
73 B
74 C
75 B
76 C
77 B
78 D
79 C
80 B
81 D
82 C
83 D
84 A
85 A
86 C
87 B
88 D
89 D
90 C
91 B
92 A
93 A
94 C
95 B
96 C
97 C
98 B
99 A
100 C
52. In case of gift if the donor dies before acceptance of the gift. The gift will be : (a) valid (b) void (c) voidable (d) subject to decision of the court
53. Within the meaning of Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act, a charge : (a) requires attestation and proved in the same way as a mortgage. (b) requires attestation and does not prove as a mortgage. (c) does not require to be attested and proves in the same way as a mortgage. (d) does not prove as a mortgage.
54. In the following three cases, which lease of immovable property can be made only by a registered instrument ? (a) only a lease from year to year (b) only a lease for a term exceeding one year (c) only a lease reserving a yearly rent (d) All of these
55. The provisions regarding transfer of actionable claims are mention under Transfer of Property Act in (a) Section 130 (b) Section 122 (c) Section 127 (d) Section 128
56. In which one of the following cases it was held that surrender by tenant is not transfer ? (a) Bachchu Vs. Harbansh (b) Makhanlal Saha Vs. N.N. Adhikari (c) Sharada Devi Vs. Chandwala (d) None of these
57. ‘A’ makes an absolute gift of a house to ‘B’ with a direction that ‘B’ shall reside in it. The gift : (a) is not valid and direction is void (b) is valid and direction is also valid (c) is valid but direction is void (d) None of these
58. ‘Double possibility rule’ was laid down in which one of the following cases ? (a) Whitby Vs. Mitchell (b) Indu Kakkar Vs. Haryana State (c) Chamaru Sahu Vs. Soma Kuer (d) None of these
59. Doctrine of acceleration is given under which Section of the Transfer of Property Act ? (a) Section 25 (b) Section 24 (c) Section 27 (d) Section 30
60. The provision regarding ‘apportionment by time’ is given under which of the following Sections of the T.P. Act ? (a) Section 35 (b) Section 36 (c) Section 37 (d) Section 38
61. A co-owner of immovable property under Transfer of Property may make a (a) valid transfer of property (b) only can give possession (c) only can give right to use for a short period (d) cannot make transfer of that property
62. Right of redemption can be exercised (a) only by paying the mortgage money to the mortgagee. (b) only by depositing the mortgage money in court. (c) only by a regular suit for redemption. (d) All of these
63. ‘He who seeks equity must do equity’ is the juristic basis of which one of the following Sections of the T.P. Act ? (a) Section 49 (b) Section 50 (c) Section 51 (d) Section 53
64. The case of Arif Vs. Yadunath is related which of the following ? (a) Apportionment (b) Fraudulent transfer (c) Part performance (d) None of these
65. How many types of mortgage are given in Section 58 of the T.P. Act ? (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
66. ‘Once a mortgage always a mortgage’ was laid down in which one of the following cases ? (a) In Nokes & Co. Vs. Rice (b) In Alderson Vs. White (c) In Hunter Vs. Abdul Ali (d) None of these
67. A lease can be determined by : (a) By Efflux of time (b) By Implied surrender (c) By Forfeiture (d) All of these
68. Dhulabhai Vs. State of M.P. is related to which of the following under CPC ? (a) Jurisdiction of Civil Court (b) Pleadings (c) Interim Orders (d) First Appeal
69. Which of the following judgements of the Supreme Court deals with the applicability of Res-judicata in writ petitions ? (a) L.I.C. Vs. India Automobiles & Company (b) Daryao Vs. State of U.P. (c) Bhula Bhai Vs. State of M.P. (d) Premier Automobile Vs. Kamlakar
70. The object of oral examination under Order X Rule 2 of Civil Procedure Code, is (a) to record evidence. (b) to secure admissions. (c) Both (a) and (b). (d) to elucidate the matter in controversy in the suit.
71. Which of the following remedies may be sought against ex-parte decree ? (a) only application under Order IX Rule 13 CPC (b) only appeal under Section 96(2) CPC (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
72. If the order to amend the pleadings does not contain time limit to amend, party can made the amendment within (a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 14 days (d) 7 days
73. Period of detention in civil imprisonment as a consequence of disobedience or breach of any injunction, shall not exceed (a) 1 month (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year
74. The principle of ‘feeding the grant by estoppel’ is given in which one Section of the T.P. Act ? (a) Section 40 (b) Section 42 (c) Section 43 (d) Section 44
75. Where a suit is wholly or partly dismissed under Orders IX rule 8 of CPC, the plantiff (a) may bring a fresh suit. (b) shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit. (c) may bring fresh suit with the permission of court. (d) None of these
76. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with which one of the followings ? (a) Appointment of receiver (b) Interpleader suit (c) Settlement of disputes outside the court (d) Execution of decree
77. ‘Judgement’ means (a) Part of the decree (b) Statement of judges on the grounds of a decree or order (c) Adjudication of rights (d) None of these
78. Under which of the following provisions of C.P.C., a plaint is rejected by the court in absence of cause of action ? (a) Order VII rule 11 (f) (b) Order VII rule 11 (b) (c) Order VII rule 11 (e) (d) Order VII rule 11 (a)
79. Which one of the following statement is not true in relation to power of appellate court under Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) It can determine a case finally. (b) It can remand a case. (c) It cannot take additional evidence. (d) It can frame issue and refer them for trial.
80. An appeal shall not lie from which of the following order under the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) Section 35 A (b) Section 35 B (c) Section 95 (d) Section 91
81. Who amongst the following may sue for public nuisance and other wrongful acts affecting the public ? (a) The Advocate General only. (b) With the leave of the court by two or more persons only. (c) Anybody who is affected by it. (d) (a) and (b) both
82. “A bundle of facts which taken with the law applicable to them gives the plaintiff the right to relief against the defendant.” It is called as (a) Plaint (b) Written statement (c) Cause of action (d) None of these
83. What shall be status a suit on party’s death ? (a) The death of plaintiff will abate the suit. (b) The death of the defendant will abate the suit. (c) Both (a) and (b) above (d) The death of plaintiff or defendant will not cause the suit to abate if the right to sue survives.
84. Place of suing is mentioned in which part of Civil Procedure Code ? (a) Part I (b) Part II (c) Part III (d) Part IV
85. A situation where a person who is either a necessary party or proper party has not been joined in the suit, is called (a) Non-joinder (b) Mis-joinder (c) Adjoinder (d) None of these
86. ‘A’ deposits a box of jewels with ‘B’, who is a well reputed person of his area. ‘C’ alleges that the jewels were wrongfully obtained from him by ‘A’, and claims them from ‘B’. Legally ‘B’ has which of the following options ? (a) to return the jewels to ‘A’ (b) to deposit the jewels with police (c) to institute an interpleader suit against ‘A’ and ‘C’ (d) None of these
87. Which one of the following is not a dispute settlement procedure referred under Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) Arbitration (b) Negotiation (c) Conciliation (d) Mediation
88. Which of the following is/are the fundamental rules of pleading as set forth under order 6, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) Every pleading must state facts and not law only. (b) It must state material facts only. (c) It must state such facts in a concise form only. (d) All of these
89. A suit for partition contains which of the following decree ? (a) Only preliminary decree (b) Only Intermediate decree (c) Final decree (d) Both (a) and (c)
90. Which of the following deals with the exemption of members of legislative bodies from arrest and detention under the Code of Civil Procedure : (a) Section 139 B (b) Section 132 A (c) Section 135 A (d) Section 140 A
91. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with stay of suit ? (a) Section 16 (b) Section 10 (c) Section 13 (d) Section 12
92. Which of the following deals with service of process on pleader in the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) Order 3, Rule 5 (b) Order 2, Rule 2 (c) Order 7, Rule 3 (d) Order 4, Rule 8
93. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that, “where the witness became confused in the course of his examination, the court could put questions to him to elicit the truth ? (a) State of Rajasthan Vs. Eni (b) D.C. Wadhwa Vs. State of Bihar (c) Shankari Pradad Vs. Union of India (d) Lila Dhar Vs. State of Rajasthan
94. Which of the following grounds is not a appropriate ground for temporary injunction under the Code of Civil Procedure ? (a) That any property in dispute is in danger of being wasted. (b) That the defendant threatens to dispose of his property. (c) That the property in dispute is likely to be acquired by the government. (d) None of these
95. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act makes relevant the opinion of the certifying authority which issued the electronic signature ? (a) Section 45-A (b) Section 47-A (c) Section 53-A (d) Section 73-A
96. Confession of one accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under which following sections of the Indian Evidence Act ? (a) Section 26 (b) Section 27 (c) Section 30 (d) Section 29
97. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with secondary evidence ? (a) Section 60 (b) Section 62 (c) Section 63 (d) Section 65
98. Dying declaration to be admissible in evidence which one of the following is not necessary ? (a) That it should relate to the cause of death of the person making such statement. (b) That the person making of the statement was under the expectation of death. (c) That it relates to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death. (d) All of these
99. In respect of digital signature, which of the following is a relevant fact ? (a) The court may direct that person or authority to produce the digital signature certificate. (b) That he himself recognizes his signature before the court. (c) Any other person recognizes his signature before the court. (d) Such digital signature is not admissible in any proceeding before the court.
100. When can prosecution be allowed to ask leading question to its own witness ? (a) In examination in chief (b) In re-examination (c) When the witness is declared hostile (d) In all circumstances
Answer Key:
51 D
52 B
53 C
54 D
55 A
56 B
57 C
58 A
59 C
60 B
61 A
62 D
63 C
64 C
65 B
66 A
67 D
68 A
69 B
70 D
71 C
72 C
73 B
74 C
75 B
76 C
77 B
78 D
79 C
80 B
81 D
82 C
83 D
84 A
85 A
86 C
87 B
88 D
89 D
90 C
91 B
92 A
93 A
94 C
95 B
96 C
97 C
98 B
99 A
100 C