LAW- PAGE 16 |
|
1. ‘Right to education’ was inserted in Part III of the constitution by :
(A) 86th Amendment Act 2002 (B) 85th Amendment Act 2001 (C) 82nd Amendment Act 2000 (D) None of the above
Ans: A
2. The right guaranteed under Article 32 can be suspended :
(A) by the Parliament (B) by the State Legislature
(C) by the Supreme Court of India (D) When the proclamation of emergency is in operation
Ans: D
3. The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ in Article 20(2) means :
(A) One can be tried and punished for the same offence several times
(B) Punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision
(C) One can be tried more than once but punished only once
(D) No one can be tried and punished more than once for the same offence
Ans: D
4. Article 13(2) :
(A) includes law amending the constitution
(B) states that state shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights
(C) does not include a law amending the constitution
(D) none of the above
Ans: B
5. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to :
(A) All Indian citizens living in India (B) All persons domiciled in India
(C) All persons living within the territory of India (D) All persons natural and artificial
Ans: D
6. The feature ‘power of judicial review’ is borrowed from which of the following country ?
(A) Canada (B) USA (C) UK (D) Ireland
Ans: B
7. The term of President expires :
(A) Five years from the date of entering to the office (B) Five years from the date of declaring the results
(C) Four years from the date of entering the office (D) Till the life time
Ans: A
8. The power to dissolve the Loksabha is vested with :
(A) Speaker of Loksabha (B) Council of Ministers
(C) President of India on the advise of Prime Minister (D) Governors of the union territories
Ans: C
9. The power of the President to issue an ordinance is :
(A) executive power (B) legislative power (C) constituent power (D) quasi judicial power
Ans: B
10. Treaty making power is conferred upon :
(A) The Parliament (B) Prime Minister of India
(C) The President of India (D) President of India but is subject to ratification by the Parliament
Ans: D
11. Article 361 of the constitution of India guarantees the privilege to the President of India that, he shall :
(A) only be answerable to the Chief Justice of India
(B) not participate in Parliamentary proceedings
(C) not answerable to any court proceedings during the term of his office
(D) address both the Houses of Parliament at the time of joint session
Ans: C
12. Representation of House of people is based on :
(A) population (B) area of state (C) community (D) literacy rate
Ans: A
13. An Ordinary Bill becomes a law :
(A) when it is passed by both the Houses and gets the assent of the President
(B) as soon as it is passed by the House in which it originated
(C) as soon as it is passed by the both the Houses
(D) none of the above
Ans: A
14. Article 155-156 of the Indian constitution deal with :
(A) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor (B) Inter-state Relations (C) Legislature Councils (D) Election Commission
Ans: A
15. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of the Parliament :
(A) Three months (B) Six months (C) 9 months (D) 1 year
Ans: B
16. Minimum age of a person to become a member of a Legislative Council :
(A) 40 yrs (B) 35 yrs (C) 30 yrs (D) 25 yrs
Ans: C
17. While the proclamation of emergency is in operation the State Government :
(A) cannot legislate (B) can legislate on the subject of state list (C) can legislate only on lists in concurrent list (D) is suspended
Ans: A
18. Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution provides for the declaration of :
(A) National Emergency (B) State Emergency (C) Financial Emergency (D) All the above
Ans: D
19. The First Constitutional Amendment was challenged in :
(A) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India (B) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(C) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Ans: A
20. The provision for amending the constitution is given in :
(A) Part XIX Article 356 (B) Part XX Article 356 (C) Part XX Article 368 (D) Part XIX Article 368
Ans: C
21. Complaint as provided under Section 2(d) of Cr. P.C. : (A) can be to a Police Officer only (B) can be to a Magistrate only (C) both (A) and (B) (D) can be to the High Court
Ans: B
21. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right :
(A) by the police officer (B) by the court (C) by the police officer or the court (D) none of the above
Ans: C
22. Offences other than those mentioned in Section 320 of Cr. P.C. are :
(A) Compoundable with the permission of the Court (B) Compoundable by the court of Sessions
(C) Compoundable by the High Court (D) Not Compoundable
Ans: D
23. The issuance of summons to a person to produce a document under Section 91 of Cr. P.C. is :
(A) mandatory (B) declaratory (C) discretionary (D) none of the above
Ans: C
24. The investigating officer under Section 160 Cr. P.C. cannot require the attendance of a male at a place other than the place of his residence, who is :
(A) Under the age of 15 yrs (B) Under the age of 16 yrs
(C) Under the age of 18 yrs (D) Under the age of 21 yrs
Ans: A
25. A declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of Cr. P.C. can be set aside by :
(A) High court (B) Court of sessions (C) Chief Judicial Magistrate (D) Magistrate issuing the warrant
Ans: A
26. A person can be summoned as a witness under Section 160 of Cr. P.C. by :
(A) The station House officer (B) Investigating officer (C) Any police officer (D) Any of the above
Ans: B
27. A refusal to answer questions put to a witness under Section 161 Cr. P.C. is an offence under :
(A) Section 176 I.P.C. (B) Section 179 I.P.C. (C) Section 187 (D) None of the above
Ans: B
28. The Magistrate records the confession of an accused or a statement of a witness during investigation under :
(A) Section 164 Cr. P.C. (B) Section 281 Cr. P.C. (C) Section 162 Cr. P.C. (D) Chapter XXIII of Cr. P.C.
Ans: A
29. FIR given by the accused can be used :
(A) for the corroboration of the accused (B) for contradiction of the accused
(C) as an admission if the same is non confessional (D) against the accused as if confession
Ans: C
30. Section 162 Cr. P.C. prohibits a statement from being used in evidence made in the course of :
(A) inquiry (B) investigation (C) trial (D) either (A) or (B)
Ans: B
31. Under Section 167 Cr. P.C. the longest period for which an accused can be remanded to police custody is :
(A) fifteen days (B) ten days (C) fourteen days (D) 28 days
Ans: A
32:-Which among the following is not an essential condition for applying Rule of Res Judicata
A:-Matter in issue in the former suit is substantially and directly in issue in subsequent case
B:-Former Suit and subsequent suit is between same parties or parties under whom they claim
C:-Matter in issue in the former suit is collaterally and incidentally in issue in the subsequent case.
D:-Parties must be litigating under the same title in the former and subsequent case
Ans: C
33:-Suits for Torts to person or movable property cannot be filed in court in whose jurisdiction
A:-defendant resides or carriers on business B:-defendant personally works for gain
C:-Plaintiff resides or works for gain D:-Tort is committed
Ans: C
34:-For filing a 'Representative suit' these conditions is not essential.
A:-Parties must be numerous B:-Parties should belong to same district
C:-There should exist community of interest D:-Permission or direction by the court
Ans: B
35:-A plaint need not contain
A:-Name of the court in which suit is filed B:-Facts constituting cause of action
C:-Reliefs claimed by plaintiff D:-Law and Evidence relied upon by plaintiff
Ans: D
36:-Power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases under civil procedure code is dealt in this section
A:-Sec 24 B:-Sec 25 C:-Sec 34 D:-Sec 35
Ans: B
37:-Section of Civil Procedure Code dealing with 'service of summons' to defendants
A:-Sec 37 B:-Sec 47
C:-Sec 35 D:-Sec 27
Ans: D
38:-For a suit to be filed against government under CPC notice is essential under
A:-Sec 24 B:-Sec 80 C:-Sec 90 D:-Sec 26
Ans: B
39:-Temporary injunctions are issued by Civil Court under
A:-Order 38 rules 1-4 B:-Order 38 rules 5-12 C:-Order 39 rules 1-5 D:-none of the above
Ans: C
40:-In an interpleader Suit the real dispute between
A:-Defendant only plaintiff is not interested B:-Between plaintiff only and defendant is not interested
C:-Between defendant and plaintiff D:-None of the above
Ans: A
41:-Right to Appeal is a
A:-Fundamental right B:- Inherent right C:-Natural right D:-Statutory right
Ans: D
42:-There is no right to appeal against
A:-decree passed by a court of original jurisdiction B:-Exparte decree
C:-Consent decree D:-a preliminary decree
Ans: C
43:-Place of suing with respect to immovable property situated within the jurisdiction of different courts are contained in
A:-Sec 16 B:-Sec 17 C:-Sec 28 D:-Sec 19
Ans: B
44:-In execution of a decree for the maintenance under C.P.C, the extent to which the salary of a person can be attached is
A:-Full salary B:-Half of the salary C:-One third of salary D:-One fourth of salary
Ans: C
45:-Pleadings under civil procedure means
A:-written statements B:-Plaint only C:-Plain and written statement D:-none of the above
Ans: C
46:-The principle of res gestae is included in Indian Evidence Act in
A:-Sec 10 B:-Sec 6 C:-Sec 27 D:-Sec 32
Ans: B
47:-Indian Evidence Act has adopted the rule of
A:- Iegal relevancy B:- Iogical relevancy C:-combination of legal and logical relevancy D:-None of the above
Ans: B
48:-The principle of 'Alibi' is included as a relevant fact under Indian Evidence Act in
A:-Sec 10 B:-Sec 11 C:-Sec 12 D:-Sec 13
Ans: B
49:-Confession made to a police officer is
A:-valid and admissible
B:-inadmissible
C:-valid if not made in the presence of magistrate
D:-inadmissible except in cases covered by sec 27
Ans: D
50:-Mark the statement which is false:
A:-Dying declaration is a statement that deals with cause of death of deceased
B:-Declarant should be in a fit state of mind
C:-Dying declaration may be a statement as to circumstances which led to the death of the deceased
D:-Dying declaration given to police officer is invalid
Ans: D
(A) 86th Amendment Act 2002 (B) 85th Amendment Act 2001 (C) 82nd Amendment Act 2000 (D) None of the above
Ans: A
2. The right guaranteed under Article 32 can be suspended :
(A) by the Parliament (B) by the State Legislature
(C) by the Supreme Court of India (D) When the proclamation of emergency is in operation
Ans: D
3. The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ in Article 20(2) means :
(A) One can be tried and punished for the same offence several times
(B) Punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision
(C) One can be tried more than once but punished only once
(D) No one can be tried and punished more than once for the same offence
Ans: D
4. Article 13(2) :
(A) includes law amending the constitution
(B) states that state shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights
(C) does not include a law amending the constitution
(D) none of the above
Ans: B
5. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to :
(A) All Indian citizens living in India (B) All persons domiciled in India
(C) All persons living within the territory of India (D) All persons natural and artificial
Ans: D
6. The feature ‘power of judicial review’ is borrowed from which of the following country ?
(A) Canada (B) USA (C) UK (D) Ireland
Ans: B
7. The term of President expires :
(A) Five years from the date of entering to the office (B) Five years from the date of declaring the results
(C) Four years from the date of entering the office (D) Till the life time
Ans: A
8. The power to dissolve the Loksabha is vested with :
(A) Speaker of Loksabha (B) Council of Ministers
(C) President of India on the advise of Prime Minister (D) Governors of the union territories
Ans: C
9. The power of the President to issue an ordinance is :
(A) executive power (B) legislative power (C) constituent power (D) quasi judicial power
Ans: B
10. Treaty making power is conferred upon :
(A) The Parliament (B) Prime Minister of India
(C) The President of India (D) President of India but is subject to ratification by the Parliament
Ans: D
11. Article 361 of the constitution of India guarantees the privilege to the President of India that, he shall :
(A) only be answerable to the Chief Justice of India
(B) not participate in Parliamentary proceedings
(C) not answerable to any court proceedings during the term of his office
(D) address both the Houses of Parliament at the time of joint session
Ans: C
12. Representation of House of people is based on :
(A) population (B) area of state (C) community (D) literacy rate
Ans: A
13. An Ordinary Bill becomes a law :
(A) when it is passed by both the Houses and gets the assent of the President
(B) as soon as it is passed by the House in which it originated
(C) as soon as it is passed by the both the Houses
(D) none of the above
Ans: A
14. Article 155-156 of the Indian constitution deal with :
(A) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor (B) Inter-state Relations (C) Legislature Councils (D) Election Commission
Ans: A
15. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of the Parliament :
(A) Three months (B) Six months (C) 9 months (D) 1 year
Ans: B
16. Minimum age of a person to become a member of a Legislative Council :
(A) 40 yrs (B) 35 yrs (C) 30 yrs (D) 25 yrs
Ans: C
17. While the proclamation of emergency is in operation the State Government :
(A) cannot legislate (B) can legislate on the subject of state list (C) can legislate only on lists in concurrent list (D) is suspended
Ans: A
18. Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution provides for the declaration of :
(A) National Emergency (B) State Emergency (C) Financial Emergency (D) All the above
Ans: D
19. The First Constitutional Amendment was challenged in :
(A) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India (B) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(C) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Ans: A
20. The provision for amending the constitution is given in :
(A) Part XIX Article 356 (B) Part XX Article 356 (C) Part XX Article 368 (D) Part XIX Article 368
Ans: C
21. Complaint as provided under Section 2(d) of Cr. P.C. : (A) can be to a Police Officer only (B) can be to a Magistrate only (C) both (A) and (B) (D) can be to the High Court
Ans: B
21. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right :
(A) by the police officer (B) by the court (C) by the police officer or the court (D) none of the above
Ans: C
22. Offences other than those mentioned in Section 320 of Cr. P.C. are :
(A) Compoundable with the permission of the Court (B) Compoundable by the court of Sessions
(C) Compoundable by the High Court (D) Not Compoundable
Ans: D
23. The issuance of summons to a person to produce a document under Section 91 of Cr. P.C. is :
(A) mandatory (B) declaratory (C) discretionary (D) none of the above
Ans: C
24. The investigating officer under Section 160 Cr. P.C. cannot require the attendance of a male at a place other than the place of his residence, who is :
(A) Under the age of 15 yrs (B) Under the age of 16 yrs
(C) Under the age of 18 yrs (D) Under the age of 21 yrs
Ans: A
25. A declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of Cr. P.C. can be set aside by :
(A) High court (B) Court of sessions (C) Chief Judicial Magistrate (D) Magistrate issuing the warrant
Ans: A
26. A person can be summoned as a witness under Section 160 of Cr. P.C. by :
(A) The station House officer (B) Investigating officer (C) Any police officer (D) Any of the above
Ans: B
27. A refusal to answer questions put to a witness under Section 161 Cr. P.C. is an offence under :
(A) Section 176 I.P.C. (B) Section 179 I.P.C. (C) Section 187 (D) None of the above
Ans: B
28. The Magistrate records the confession of an accused or a statement of a witness during investigation under :
(A) Section 164 Cr. P.C. (B) Section 281 Cr. P.C. (C) Section 162 Cr. P.C. (D) Chapter XXIII of Cr. P.C.
Ans: A
29. FIR given by the accused can be used :
(A) for the corroboration of the accused (B) for contradiction of the accused
(C) as an admission if the same is non confessional (D) against the accused as if confession
Ans: C
30. Section 162 Cr. P.C. prohibits a statement from being used in evidence made in the course of :
(A) inquiry (B) investigation (C) trial (D) either (A) or (B)
Ans: B
31. Under Section 167 Cr. P.C. the longest period for which an accused can be remanded to police custody is :
(A) fifteen days (B) ten days (C) fourteen days (D) 28 days
Ans: A
32:-Which among the following is not an essential condition for applying Rule of Res Judicata
A:-Matter in issue in the former suit is substantially and directly in issue in subsequent case
B:-Former Suit and subsequent suit is between same parties or parties under whom they claim
C:-Matter in issue in the former suit is collaterally and incidentally in issue in the subsequent case.
D:-Parties must be litigating under the same title in the former and subsequent case
Ans: C
33:-Suits for Torts to person or movable property cannot be filed in court in whose jurisdiction
A:-defendant resides or carriers on business B:-defendant personally works for gain
C:-Plaintiff resides or works for gain D:-Tort is committed
Ans: C
34:-For filing a 'Representative suit' these conditions is not essential.
A:-Parties must be numerous B:-Parties should belong to same district
C:-There should exist community of interest D:-Permission or direction by the court
Ans: B
35:-A plaint need not contain
A:-Name of the court in which suit is filed B:-Facts constituting cause of action
C:-Reliefs claimed by plaintiff D:-Law and Evidence relied upon by plaintiff
Ans: D
36:-Power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases under civil procedure code is dealt in this section
A:-Sec 24 B:-Sec 25 C:-Sec 34 D:-Sec 35
Ans: B
37:-Section of Civil Procedure Code dealing with 'service of summons' to defendants
A:-Sec 37 B:-Sec 47
C:-Sec 35 D:-Sec 27
Ans: D
38:-For a suit to be filed against government under CPC notice is essential under
A:-Sec 24 B:-Sec 80 C:-Sec 90 D:-Sec 26
Ans: B
39:-Temporary injunctions are issued by Civil Court under
A:-Order 38 rules 1-4 B:-Order 38 rules 5-12 C:-Order 39 rules 1-5 D:-none of the above
Ans: C
40:-In an interpleader Suit the real dispute between
A:-Defendant only plaintiff is not interested B:-Between plaintiff only and defendant is not interested
C:-Between defendant and plaintiff D:-None of the above
Ans: A
41:-Right to Appeal is a
A:-Fundamental right B:- Inherent right C:-Natural right D:-Statutory right
Ans: D
42:-There is no right to appeal against
A:-decree passed by a court of original jurisdiction B:-Exparte decree
C:-Consent decree D:-a preliminary decree
Ans: C
43:-Place of suing with respect to immovable property situated within the jurisdiction of different courts are contained in
A:-Sec 16 B:-Sec 17 C:-Sec 28 D:-Sec 19
Ans: B
44:-In execution of a decree for the maintenance under C.P.C, the extent to which the salary of a person can be attached is
A:-Full salary B:-Half of the salary C:-One third of salary D:-One fourth of salary
Ans: C
45:-Pleadings under civil procedure means
A:-written statements B:-Plaint only C:-Plain and written statement D:-none of the above
Ans: C
46:-The principle of res gestae is included in Indian Evidence Act in
A:-Sec 10 B:-Sec 6 C:-Sec 27 D:-Sec 32
Ans: B
47:-Indian Evidence Act has adopted the rule of
A:- Iegal relevancy B:- Iogical relevancy C:-combination of legal and logical relevancy D:-None of the above
Ans: B
48:-The principle of 'Alibi' is included as a relevant fact under Indian Evidence Act in
A:-Sec 10 B:-Sec 11 C:-Sec 12 D:-Sec 13
Ans: B
49:-Confession made to a police officer is
A:-valid and admissible
B:-inadmissible
C:-valid if not made in the presence of magistrate
D:-inadmissible except in cases covered by sec 27
Ans: D
50:-Mark the statement which is false:
A:-Dying declaration is a statement that deals with cause of death of deceased
B:-Declarant should be in a fit state of mind
C:-Dying declaration may be a statement as to circumstances which led to the death of the deceased
D:-Dying declaration given to police officer is invalid
Ans: D
51:-Secondary evidence is defined in Indian Evidence Act in
A:-Sec 63 B:-Sec 61 C:-Sec 64 D:-Sec 62
Ans: A
52:-Examination after cross examination of a witness by the party who called him is called
A:-Chief examination B:-Cross examination C:-Re-examination D:-None of the above
Ans: C
53:-'Voir dire' test relates to examination of
A:-Expert witness B:-Interested witness C:-Child witness D:-Dumb witness
Ans: C
54:-Maximum sentence that can be passed by Assistant Sessions Judge
A:-7 years imprisonment B:-Any sentence including death penalty
C:-Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine D:- Imprisonment upto 3 years
Ans: C
55:-Which among the following statement is 'false'
A:-A private person can arrest a person committing a non bailable and Cognizable offence
B:-A private person can arrest any proclaimed offencer
C:-A private person can arrest any person seen in suspicious position
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
56:-Inquiry for the purpose of Criminal Procedure Code is conducted by
A:-Police officers B:-Court C:-Police officer above rank of DySP D:-None of the above
Ans: B
57:-Under the code of Criminal Procedure the authority who is authorised to remove public nuisance
A:-Sessions court B:-ChiefJudicial Magistrate
C:-Assistant sessions court D:-Executive magistrate
Ans: D
58:-The provision for anticipatory bail is provided in the Criminal Procedure code under
A:-Sec 445 B:-Sec 438 C:-Sec 465 D:-Sec 338
Ans: B
59:-An offence which is not triable summarily
A:-Theft under Sec 379 where value of property is less than Rs.200 B:-Offences under Sec 454 and Sec 456 IPC
C:-Receiving stolen property under Sec 411 where value is less than Rs.200 D:-Grievous hurt under Sec 320 IPC
Ans: D
60:-Under Sec 227 CrPC an accused can be discharged in a sessions case
A:-After the trial B:-After framing the charge C:-Anytime during trial D:-Before framing the charge
Ans: D
61:-Section 2(1)(b) of SARFAESI Act provides that the net owned fund of an asset reconstruction company should:
A:-Not be less than one crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify
B:-Not be less than two crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify
C:-Not be less than three crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify
D:-Not be less than four crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify
Ans: B
62:-Which of the following is not a ground for cancellation of certificate of registration granted to an asset reconstruction company by Reserve Bank of India:
A:-When the ARC fails to comply with any direction issues by RBI
B:-When the ARC ceases to receive or hold any investment from a qualified buyer
C:-When the ARC fails to maintain accounts in accordance with the requirements of any law
D:-When the ARC has incurred loss for a year
Ans: D
63:-Before which court/ tribunal an asset reconstruction company can file an application for enforcement of its security interest:
A:-Debt Recovery Tribunal B:-High Court C:-District Court D:-National Company Law Tribunal
Ans: A
64:-What is the time limit within which the secured creditor can initiate an action for enforcement of security:
A:-If the liability is not discharged within 30 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor
B:-If the liability is not discharged within 45 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor
C:-If the liability is not discharged within 60 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor
D:-If the liability is not discharged within 90 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor
Ans: C
65:-When does an asset become non performing asset:
A:-When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 60 days
B:-When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 90 days
C:-When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 120 days
D:-When the instalment and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 180 days
Ans: B
66:-Which of the following is not an essential ingredient to initiate action for enforcement of security under the SARFAESI Act:
A:-There must be a security agreement in which borrower is under liability of the secured creditor
B:-There must be a default in repayment of secured debt or instalment thereof
C:-The account must be classified as Non-Performing Asset
D:-The security interest must be a least Rs.20,000
Ans: D
67:-Which of the following does not fall under financial asset as per the SARFAESI Act:
A:-mortgage, charge, hypothecation or pledge of movable property
B:-Any right or interest in the security, whether full or part underlying such debt or receivables
C:-Any financial assistance
D:-Prepaid expenses undertaken with respect to a movable or immovable property
Ans: D
68:-What can a secured creditor do if his dues are not fully satisfied with the sale proceeds of the secured asset:
A:-He cannot take further action. He has to satisfy his claims with the amount received after selling the secure asset
B:-He can proceed against the debtor by filing an application before Debt Recovery Tribunal
C:-He can proceed against the debtor by filing an application before the High Court
D:-He cannot take further action unless the debtor agrees to the payment of the remainder amount
Ans: B
69:-What is the time limit within which any person aggrieved by any measure taken by secured creditors can file an application to the Debt Recovery Tribunal:
A:-Within 15 days from the date on which such measure had been taken
B:-Within 30 days from the date on which such measure had been taken
C:-Within 45 days from the date on which such measure had been taken
D:-Within 60 days from the date on which such measure had been taken
Ans: C
70:-Which court shall try offences punishable under the SARFAESI Act:
A:-A Court not inferior to that of Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of Second Class
B:-A Court not inferior to that of High Court
C:-A Court not inferior to that of Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of First Class
D:-A Court not inferior to that of Principal Junior Civil Judge or a Judicial Magistrate of First Class
Ans: C
71:-The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to
A:-the whole of India except the State ofJammu and Kashmir
B:-the whole of India including the State ofJammu and Kashmir
C:-the whole of India except the North- Eastern States of India
D:-the whole of India except the State ofJammu and Kashmir and the North- Eastern States of India
Ans: A
72:-Under section 2(1) of Limitation Act suit includes
A:-appeal B:-application C:-plaint D:-none of the above
Ans: C
73:-Section 6 of Limitation Act does not apply to
A:-insolvent B:-minor C:-insane D:-idiot
Ans: A
74:-Section 15 of Limitation Act excludes from computation of limitation
A:-A period of notice B:-time taken in granting previous consent
C:-time taken in grant of sanction D:-all the above
Ans: D
75:-Under section 25 of Limitation Act the easement rights are acquired by continuous & uninterrupted user
A:-for 12 years B:-for 20 years C:-for 30 years D:-for 3 years
Ans: B
76:-Which section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949, makes the maintenance of SLR mandatory
A:-Section 24 B:-Section 25 C:-Section 56 D:-Both A and C
Ans: D
77:-Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act deals with restrictions on loans and advances
A:-Section 17 B:-Section l8 C:-Section 19 D:-Section 20
Ans: D
78:-Which of the following Act deals with maintenance of a percentage of assets
A:-Sec.22 of Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
B:-Sec.24 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C:-Sec.22 of Companies Act, 1956
D:-None of these
Ans: B
79:-Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with licensing of banking companies
A:-Sec 20 B:-Sec 21 C:-Sec 22 D:-Sec 24
Ans: C
80:-Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with Reserve Fund?
A:-Sec 15 B:-Sec 16 C:-Sec 17 D:-Sec 18
Ans: C
81:-Which of the following models law was used by the Indian Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
A:-Constitution of India B:-Guidelines of Supreme Court of India
C:-European Commercial Arbitration Procedure D:-UNCITRAL, 1985
Ans: D
82:-Which among the following is the main objective of the Arbitration Act, 1996?
A:-to comprehensively cover international commercial arbitration B:-to ensure that arbitral tribunal within the limits of court's jurisdiction C:-to minimize the supervisory role of courts in the arbitral process D:-none of the above
Ans: C
83:-An arbitral award made under Part 1 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall be considered as a
A:-Domestic Award B:-Foreign Award C:-General Award D:- International Award
Ans: A
84:-Arbitral proceedings commence
A:-On the date on which a request for a dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent
B:-On the date when the respondent gives consent to the appointment of the arbitrator
C:-On the date when the arbitrator issues notice of the parties
D:-On the date when the statement of claim and written submission of defence is made
Ans: A
85:-Which one of the following is incorrect statement:
A:-An arbitral award is a contract B:-An arbitral award must be in writing and signed
C:-An arbitral award includes an interim award D:-None of the above
Ans: A
86:- If there any conflict between Family Court Procedure Rules and Civil Rules of Practice, which would prevail
A:-Family Court Procedure Rules B:-Civil Rules of Practice C:-Civil Procedure Code D:-None of the above
Ans: A
87:-Which provision of Civil Rules of Practice deal with Docketing
A:-Rule 25 B:-Rule 26 C:-Rule 27 D:-Rule 28
Ans: B
88:-Procedure of change of Vakkalath includes
A:-Written consent of the existing pleader B:-Special permission of the court
C:-Either A or B D:-None of the above
Ans: C
89:-As per R.43 of Civil Rules of Practice every ------ shall be drawn up in first person and be divided into paragraph numbered consecutively and each para as nearly as may be shall be confined to a distinct portion of the subject matter.
A:-Plaint B:-Written Statement C:-Affidavit D:- Interlocutory Application
Ans: C
90:-R.128 of Civil Rules of Practice deals with
A:-Preparation of photographic copies B:-Marking Exibits C:-Deposit of Postage D:-Transmission of Records
Ans: B
91:-Where the mortgage is illegal for want of registration but the mortgagee continues in possession of the mortgaged property, a valid mortgage comes in existence after the expiry of:
A:-5 years B:-10 years C:-12 years D:-20 years
Ans: C
92:-Which of the following is not valid consideration for establishing a lease:
A:-Rent partly in money and partly in kind
B:-A stipulation to pay government assessment or taxes payable by the lessor
C:-a personal agreement by a tenant to pay a certain sum or a certain quantity in kind to the landlord
D:-None of these
Ans: C
93:-Which of the following can be transferred under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A:-The right to mesne profits
B:-A decree for mesne profits
C:-A transfer of property to a prostitute for future cohabitation
D:-A sub-Iease of a farm for the retail sale of opium
Ans: B
94:-Which of the following is the definition of the term 'Exchange' as given under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A:-When two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of the one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only
B:-When two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, either thing or both things being money only
C:-When two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, either thing or both things being money only
D:-When two persons mutually transfer the ownership on one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only
Ans: D
95:-Which of the following is the presumption made for lease under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, unless a contract or local usage states otherwise?
A:-The lease of immovable property for agriculture will be assumed to be for a period of three years
B:-The lease of immovable property for purpose other than agriculture and manufacturing will be deemed to be for a period of one month C:-both A and B
D:-neither A nor B
Ans: B
96:-Which of the following properties can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A:-Salary of a public officer B:-Right to sue C:-both A and B D:-neither A nor B
Ans: D
97:- In case a lease is made for a certain period mentioning that it is terminable before its expiration, without mentioning at whose option A:-Only lessee will have the option of termination B:-Only lessor will have the option of termination
C:-The lease will be terminable only in case of mutual agreement D:-Both lessor and lessee will have option of terminating the lease
Ans: A
98:- In English law, a minor cannot hold a legal estate in land, in India, a lease by a minor is _.
A:-Valid B:-Void C:-Voidable D:-Depends on the facts of the case
Ans: B
99:- In which of the following cases will puisne mortgagee has no right to redeem a prior mortgage?
A:-Puisne mortgage is invalid B:-Puisne mortgage is time-barred
C:-Puisne mortgage has lost all remedies of foreclosure D:-All of these
Ans: D
100:-Among the following which is not a suit of civil nature
A:-Suit relating to right to property B:-Suit for damages to civil wrong
C:-Suit for upholding dignity or honour D:-Suit for rent
Ans: C
A:-Sec 63 B:-Sec 61 C:-Sec 64 D:-Sec 62
Ans: A
52:-Examination after cross examination of a witness by the party who called him is called
A:-Chief examination B:-Cross examination C:-Re-examination D:-None of the above
Ans: C
53:-'Voir dire' test relates to examination of
A:-Expert witness B:-Interested witness C:-Child witness D:-Dumb witness
Ans: C
54:-Maximum sentence that can be passed by Assistant Sessions Judge
A:-7 years imprisonment B:-Any sentence including death penalty
C:-Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine D:- Imprisonment upto 3 years
Ans: C
55:-Which among the following statement is 'false'
A:-A private person can arrest a person committing a non bailable and Cognizable offence
B:-A private person can arrest any proclaimed offencer
C:-A private person can arrest any person seen in suspicious position
D:-None of the above
Ans: C
56:-Inquiry for the purpose of Criminal Procedure Code is conducted by
A:-Police officers B:-Court C:-Police officer above rank of DySP D:-None of the above
Ans: B
57:-Under the code of Criminal Procedure the authority who is authorised to remove public nuisance
A:-Sessions court B:-ChiefJudicial Magistrate
C:-Assistant sessions court D:-Executive magistrate
Ans: D
58:-The provision for anticipatory bail is provided in the Criminal Procedure code under
A:-Sec 445 B:-Sec 438 C:-Sec 465 D:-Sec 338
Ans: B
59:-An offence which is not triable summarily
A:-Theft under Sec 379 where value of property is less than Rs.200 B:-Offences under Sec 454 and Sec 456 IPC
C:-Receiving stolen property under Sec 411 where value is less than Rs.200 D:-Grievous hurt under Sec 320 IPC
Ans: D
60:-Under Sec 227 CrPC an accused can be discharged in a sessions case
A:-After the trial B:-After framing the charge C:-Anytime during trial D:-Before framing the charge
Ans: D
61:-Section 2(1)(b) of SARFAESI Act provides that the net owned fund of an asset reconstruction company should:
A:-Not be less than one crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify
B:-Not be less than two crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify
C:-Not be less than three crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify
D:-Not be less than four crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify
Ans: B
62:-Which of the following is not a ground for cancellation of certificate of registration granted to an asset reconstruction company by Reserve Bank of India:
A:-When the ARC fails to comply with any direction issues by RBI
B:-When the ARC ceases to receive or hold any investment from a qualified buyer
C:-When the ARC fails to maintain accounts in accordance with the requirements of any law
D:-When the ARC has incurred loss for a year
Ans: D
63:-Before which court/ tribunal an asset reconstruction company can file an application for enforcement of its security interest:
A:-Debt Recovery Tribunal B:-High Court C:-District Court D:-National Company Law Tribunal
Ans: A
64:-What is the time limit within which the secured creditor can initiate an action for enforcement of security:
A:-If the liability is not discharged within 30 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor
B:-If the liability is not discharged within 45 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor
C:-If the liability is not discharged within 60 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor
D:-If the liability is not discharged within 90 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor
Ans: C
65:-When does an asset become non performing asset:
A:-When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 60 days
B:-When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 90 days
C:-When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 120 days
D:-When the instalment and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 180 days
Ans: B
66:-Which of the following is not an essential ingredient to initiate action for enforcement of security under the SARFAESI Act:
A:-There must be a security agreement in which borrower is under liability of the secured creditor
B:-There must be a default in repayment of secured debt or instalment thereof
C:-The account must be classified as Non-Performing Asset
D:-The security interest must be a least Rs.20,000
Ans: D
67:-Which of the following does not fall under financial asset as per the SARFAESI Act:
A:-mortgage, charge, hypothecation or pledge of movable property
B:-Any right or interest in the security, whether full or part underlying such debt or receivables
C:-Any financial assistance
D:-Prepaid expenses undertaken with respect to a movable or immovable property
Ans: D
68:-What can a secured creditor do if his dues are not fully satisfied with the sale proceeds of the secured asset:
A:-He cannot take further action. He has to satisfy his claims with the amount received after selling the secure asset
B:-He can proceed against the debtor by filing an application before Debt Recovery Tribunal
C:-He can proceed against the debtor by filing an application before the High Court
D:-He cannot take further action unless the debtor agrees to the payment of the remainder amount
Ans: B
69:-What is the time limit within which any person aggrieved by any measure taken by secured creditors can file an application to the Debt Recovery Tribunal:
A:-Within 15 days from the date on which such measure had been taken
B:-Within 30 days from the date on which such measure had been taken
C:-Within 45 days from the date on which such measure had been taken
D:-Within 60 days from the date on which such measure had been taken
Ans: C
70:-Which court shall try offences punishable under the SARFAESI Act:
A:-A Court not inferior to that of Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of Second Class
B:-A Court not inferior to that of High Court
C:-A Court not inferior to that of Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of First Class
D:-A Court not inferior to that of Principal Junior Civil Judge or a Judicial Magistrate of First Class
Ans: C
71:-The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to
A:-the whole of India except the State ofJammu and Kashmir
B:-the whole of India including the State ofJammu and Kashmir
C:-the whole of India except the North- Eastern States of India
D:-the whole of India except the State ofJammu and Kashmir and the North- Eastern States of India
Ans: A
72:-Under section 2(1) of Limitation Act suit includes
A:-appeal B:-application C:-plaint D:-none of the above
Ans: C
73:-Section 6 of Limitation Act does not apply to
A:-insolvent B:-minor C:-insane D:-idiot
Ans: A
74:-Section 15 of Limitation Act excludes from computation of limitation
A:-A period of notice B:-time taken in granting previous consent
C:-time taken in grant of sanction D:-all the above
Ans: D
75:-Under section 25 of Limitation Act the easement rights are acquired by continuous & uninterrupted user
A:-for 12 years B:-for 20 years C:-for 30 years D:-for 3 years
Ans: B
76:-Which section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949, makes the maintenance of SLR mandatory
A:-Section 24 B:-Section 25 C:-Section 56 D:-Both A and C
Ans: D
77:-Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act deals with restrictions on loans and advances
A:-Section 17 B:-Section l8 C:-Section 19 D:-Section 20
Ans: D
78:-Which of the following Act deals with maintenance of a percentage of assets
A:-Sec.22 of Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
B:-Sec.24 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C:-Sec.22 of Companies Act, 1956
D:-None of these
Ans: B
79:-Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with licensing of banking companies
A:-Sec 20 B:-Sec 21 C:-Sec 22 D:-Sec 24
Ans: C
80:-Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with Reserve Fund?
A:-Sec 15 B:-Sec 16 C:-Sec 17 D:-Sec 18
Ans: C
81:-Which of the following models law was used by the Indian Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
A:-Constitution of India B:-Guidelines of Supreme Court of India
C:-European Commercial Arbitration Procedure D:-UNCITRAL, 1985
Ans: D
82:-Which among the following is the main objective of the Arbitration Act, 1996?
A:-to comprehensively cover international commercial arbitration B:-to ensure that arbitral tribunal within the limits of court's jurisdiction C:-to minimize the supervisory role of courts in the arbitral process D:-none of the above
Ans: C
83:-An arbitral award made under Part 1 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall be considered as a
A:-Domestic Award B:-Foreign Award C:-General Award D:- International Award
Ans: A
84:-Arbitral proceedings commence
A:-On the date on which a request for a dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent
B:-On the date when the respondent gives consent to the appointment of the arbitrator
C:-On the date when the arbitrator issues notice of the parties
D:-On the date when the statement of claim and written submission of defence is made
Ans: A
85:-Which one of the following is incorrect statement:
A:-An arbitral award is a contract B:-An arbitral award must be in writing and signed
C:-An arbitral award includes an interim award D:-None of the above
Ans: A
86:- If there any conflict between Family Court Procedure Rules and Civil Rules of Practice, which would prevail
A:-Family Court Procedure Rules B:-Civil Rules of Practice C:-Civil Procedure Code D:-None of the above
Ans: A
87:-Which provision of Civil Rules of Practice deal with Docketing
A:-Rule 25 B:-Rule 26 C:-Rule 27 D:-Rule 28
Ans: B
88:-Procedure of change of Vakkalath includes
A:-Written consent of the existing pleader B:-Special permission of the court
C:-Either A or B D:-None of the above
Ans: C
89:-As per R.43 of Civil Rules of Practice every ------ shall be drawn up in first person and be divided into paragraph numbered consecutively and each para as nearly as may be shall be confined to a distinct portion of the subject matter.
A:-Plaint B:-Written Statement C:-Affidavit D:- Interlocutory Application
Ans: C
90:-R.128 of Civil Rules of Practice deals with
A:-Preparation of photographic copies B:-Marking Exibits C:-Deposit of Postage D:-Transmission of Records
Ans: B
91:-Where the mortgage is illegal for want of registration but the mortgagee continues in possession of the mortgaged property, a valid mortgage comes in existence after the expiry of:
A:-5 years B:-10 years C:-12 years D:-20 years
Ans: C
92:-Which of the following is not valid consideration for establishing a lease:
A:-Rent partly in money and partly in kind
B:-A stipulation to pay government assessment or taxes payable by the lessor
C:-a personal agreement by a tenant to pay a certain sum or a certain quantity in kind to the landlord
D:-None of these
Ans: C
93:-Which of the following can be transferred under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A:-The right to mesne profits
B:-A decree for mesne profits
C:-A transfer of property to a prostitute for future cohabitation
D:-A sub-Iease of a farm for the retail sale of opium
Ans: B
94:-Which of the following is the definition of the term 'Exchange' as given under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A:-When two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of the one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only
B:-When two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, either thing or both things being money only
C:-When two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, either thing or both things being money only
D:-When two persons mutually transfer the ownership on one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only
Ans: D
95:-Which of the following is the presumption made for lease under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, unless a contract or local usage states otherwise?
A:-The lease of immovable property for agriculture will be assumed to be for a period of three years
B:-The lease of immovable property for purpose other than agriculture and manufacturing will be deemed to be for a period of one month C:-both A and B
D:-neither A nor B
Ans: B
96:-Which of the following properties can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A:-Salary of a public officer B:-Right to sue C:-both A and B D:-neither A nor B
Ans: D
97:- In case a lease is made for a certain period mentioning that it is terminable before its expiration, without mentioning at whose option A:-Only lessee will have the option of termination B:-Only lessor will have the option of termination
C:-The lease will be terminable only in case of mutual agreement D:-Both lessor and lessee will have option of terminating the lease
Ans: A
98:- In English law, a minor cannot hold a legal estate in land, in India, a lease by a minor is _.
A:-Valid B:-Void C:-Voidable D:-Depends on the facts of the case
Ans: B
99:- In which of the following cases will puisne mortgagee has no right to redeem a prior mortgage?
A:-Puisne mortgage is invalid B:-Puisne mortgage is time-barred
C:-Puisne mortgage has lost all remedies of foreclosure D:-All of these
Ans: D
100:-Among the following which is not a suit of civil nature
A:-Suit relating to right to property B:-Suit for damages to civil wrong
C:-Suit for upholding dignity or honour D:-Suit for rent
Ans: C