LAW- PAGE 15 |
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1. “It is likely that free India may be federal India, though in any event there would be a great deal of Unitary Control.” This statement was made by
(A) Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyyer
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Ans: C
2. Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on
(A) Precedents and conventions
(B) Rule of law
(C) Due process of law
(D) Procedure established by law
Ans: D
3. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government because:
(A) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
(B) The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(C) The President, the head of the executive, is answerable to Parliament.
(D) The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is accountable to Parliament.
Ans: A
4. The Supreme Court held that Election Commissioners cannot be placed on par with the Chief Election Commissioner in terms of power and authority in the following case:
(A) S.S. Dhannoa Vs Union of India
(B) T.N. Seshan Vs Union of India
(C) A.C. Jose Vs Sivan Pillai
(D) Venkatachalam Vs A. Swamickan
Ans: A
5. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of Parliament is
(A) Three months
(B) Four months
(C) Five months
(D) Six months
Ans: D
6. The Supreme Court observed that “Parliamentary proceedings are not subject to Fundamental Rights” in the following case:
(A) Keshav Singh Vs Speaker, U.P. Assembly
(B) Gunapati Vs Habibul Hasan
(C) M.S.M. Sharma Vs Srikrishna Sinha
(D) State of Punjab Vs Satpal Dang
Ans: C
7. For the purpose of creating a new State in India an amendment to the Constitution of India must be passed by
(A) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament present and voting.
(B) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament and ratification by not less than 2/3rd majority of the States.
(C) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the States.
(D) A simple majority by the Parliament.
Ans: D
8. Match the following:
(a) Perfect right (i) which has correlative positive duty.
(b) Negative right (ii) which has a correlative duty that can be legally enforced.
(c) Imperfect right (iii) A has a right to receive damages.
(d) Positive right (iv) That right which although recognised by State but not enforceable.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Theory) (Subject)
(a) Retributive Theory I. Legal Right
(b) Sociological Theory II. Source of Law
(c) Theory of Precedent III. Punishment
(d) Theory of Property IV. Roscoe Pond
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) I IV III II
(B) III IV II I
(C) III II I IV
(D) IV III I II
Ans: B
10. Hypothesis of Grund norm was propounded by
(A) Austin
(B) Diguit
(C) Hart
(D) Kelson
Ans: D
11. Immanuel Kant is the exponent of
(A) Retributive theory of punishment.
(B) Reformative theory of punishment.
(C) Detterent theory of punishment.
(D) Preventive theory of punishment.
Ans: A
12. Who used the word ‘Sociology’ for the first time?
(A) Auguste Comte
(B) Herbert Spencer
(C) Diguit
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
13. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Animus is necessary for the acquisition or commencement of possession.
(B) Corpus is necessary for the acquisition or commencement of possession.
(C) Animus and Corpus are not necessary from the acquisition or commencement of possession.
(D) Animus and Corpus are necessary for the acquisition or commencement of possession.
Ans: D
14. Which of the following statements is true?
1. An imperfect right may become perfect under certain circumstances.
2. Imperfect right can become a valid defence.
3. Law recognises an imperfect right but not to enforce it.
4. Imperfect right can be reduced as a valid defence.
(A) only 1, 2, 3
(B) only 1, 4
(C) only 2, 3, 4
(D) only 1, 4, 3
Ans: A
15. Assertion (A): The United Nations cannot perform peace keeping or peace making operations.
Reason (R): United Nations has no army, navy or air force of its own.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
16. “The permanent members of Security Council have special privilege in the voting procedure of the Security Council in as much as the decisions of Security Council on nonprocedural matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members including the concurring votes of the permanent members.”
Above statement is attributed to _____ of the Charter of the United Nations.
(A) Article 27, Para 3
(B) Article 27, Para 2
(C) Article 26
(D) Article 28
Ans: A
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(i) Custom begins where usage ends. (a) P.C. Corbett
(ii) The Statute of International Court of Justice, Article 38, Para 1 is about. (b) J.G. Starke, Introduction to International Law, P.40
(iii) ‘Custom’ should be replaced by word ‘evidence’. (c) Treaty and Custom as sources of International Law.
(iv) Law making treaties. (d) Brierly, Law of Nations, P. 58
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (c) (b) (d) (a)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Ans: A
18. Assertion (A): Arbitration is the process of resolving disputes between States by means of an arbitral tribunal appointed by the parties.
Reason (R): Disputes are arbitrary.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) To maintain international peace and security (i) Article 1 of the UN Charter
(b) Principles of UN (ii) Article 2 of the UN Charter
(c) Admission of new members to UN (iii) Article 12 of the UN Charter
(d) Limits on powers of General Assembly in respect of any dispute. (iv) Article 4 of the UN Charter
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(C) (a) (b) (d) (c)
(D) (c) (d) (b) (a)
Ans: C
20. Stimson’s doctrine of Non-Recognition is related to
(A) Duty of non-recognition of some territorial acquisitions brought about in accordance with international law.
(B) Duty of non-recognition of some territorial acquisitions brought about in breach of international law.
(C) Duty of non-recognition of all territorial acquisitions brought about in breach of international law.
(D) Duty of non-recognition of all territorial acquisitions brought about according to international law.
Ans: C
21. Prohibited degree and Spinda relationship are
(A) Mutually exclusive
(B) Dependent on each other
(C) May overlap each other
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
22. In which of the following case, the High Court held that “the presence of Qazi” is not necessary at the time of marriage ceremony under the Muslim Law?
(A) Qazi Mohd. Najmuddin Hussain V. State of A.P.
(B) Mohd. Yunus V. Malooki
(C) Shamim Ara V. State of U.P.
(D) Bai Tahira Vs. Ali Hussain
Ans: B
23. Assertion (A): Marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is dissoluble.
Reason (R): Marriage is a sacrosanct union.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
24. Which of the following is not condition for a marriage under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) Neither should have a living spouse.
(B) If the bride is below 18, the consent of her guardian has been obtained.
(C) They are not within prohibited degrees relationship.
(D) Neither should be subject to recurrent attack of insanity.
Ans: B
25. Sources of Muslim Law are
(a) The Koran
(b) The Ismaa
(c) The Hadis
(d) The Kiyas
Indicate their correct sequence.
(A) (a), (b), (d) and (c)
(B) (a), (c), (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (d), (c) and (b)
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
26. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on the ground(s) of
(A) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
(B) Violation of the Constitution.
(C) Both (A) and (B) above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A
27. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List, provided it is in the
(A) Public interest
(B) National interest
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
28. Assertion (A): Ownership is not only a juridical concept, but also a social concept and an instrument of social policy.
Reason (R): The right of alienation is not a necessary incident of ownership.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
29. Which one of the following features does not support the federal character of Indian Constitution?
(A) Distribution of powers between Centre and States
(B) Authority of Courts
(C) Supremacy of the Constitution
(D) Single citizenship
Ans: D
30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
I. Law declared by the Supreme Court to be binding on all courts. (a) Article 141
II. Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court. (b) Article 143
III. Power of Supreme Court to review its own judgement. (c) Article 137
IV. Appeal by Special Leave (d) Article 136
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (b) (a) (c) (d)
(C) (a) (c) (d) (b)
(D) (b) (c) (a) (d)
Ans: A
31. In which of the following cases free and fair election is recognized as basic structure of Indian Constitution?
(A) Indira Gandhi V. Raj Narayan
(B) Minerva Mills V. Union of India
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
32. Which one of the following cases is not related to the doctrine of severability?
(A) A.K. Gopalan V. State of Madras
(B) R.M.D.C. V. Union of India
(C) Minerva Mills Ltd. V. Union of India
(D) Kihota Holohan V. Zachithu
Ans: C
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
I. Power of Parliament to legislate on State subjects in national interest. (a) Article 249
II. Power of Parliament to legislate on Stat subjects during a proclamation of emergency. (b) Article 250
III. Power of Parliament to legislate for giving effect to treaties and international agreements. (c) Article 252
IV. Power of Parliament to legislate on State subjects with the consent of the States. (d) Article 253
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(C) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Ans: D
34. Which of the following Articles providing for fundamental rights cannot be suspended during the Proclamation of Emergency?
(A) Articles 14 and 15
(B) Articles 19 and 20
(C) Articles 20 and 21
(D) Articles 21 and 22
Ans: C
35. Assertion (A): Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution except the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court has restricted the absolute power of Parliament to amend any provision of the Constitution.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
36. Clause (k) to Article 51-A was added by
(A) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act.
(B) The Constitution (85th Amendment) Act.
(C) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act.
(D) The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act.
Ans: C
37. Doctrine of Separation of Powers was systematically formulated by
(A) Plato
(B) Montesquieu
(C) Dicey
(D) Aristotle
Ans: B
38. ‘Rule of Law’ means
(i) Supremacy of Judiciary
(ii) Supremacy of Law
(iii) Equality before Law
(iv) Supremacy of Parliament
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(a) Abuse of discretion 1. Rule of Law
(b) Equality before law 2. Lack of Power
(c) Delegated legislation 3. Check and Balance
(d) Separation of powers 4. Ultra-vires
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 3 2 1
(D) 4 4 1 2
Ans: A
40. Writ of Mandamus may be issued to
(A) Compel the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities only to act.
(B) Compel the authority to act.
(C) Compel the authority, how to act.
(D) Compel a private person.
Ans: B
41. Doctrine of Locus Standi means
(A) Writ can be filed by any person.
(B) Power of courts for judicial review.
(C) Right of petitioner to file the writ petition.
(D) Discretion of administrative authority.
Ans: C
42 Which one of the following statement is true?
(A) Delegated legislation cannot have retrospective effect.
(B) Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect, if authorized by Act or Statute.
(C) Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect, if not authorized by Act or Statute but have reasonable and rational justification.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
43. “Constitutional law is concerned with the organization and functions of government at rest, while administrative law, is concerned with that organization and those functions in motion.” This statement was given by
(A) Austin
(B) Salmond
(C) M.P. Jain
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
44. Writ of Quo Warranto can be issued
(A) against any person.
(B) against public officer, who wish to assume the office.
(C) against public officer, who is holding public office.
(D) against public officer, who has ceased to hold the office.
Ans: C
45. Who defined “jurisprudence as the formal science of positive law”?
(A) Holland
(B) Ulpanian
(C) Bentham
(D) Blackstone
Ans: A
46. “A legal right is an interest recognized and protected by a rule of legal justice. An interest in the violation of which would be a legal wrong, done to him whose interest it is and respect of which is a legal duly”. It was stated by
(A) Salmond
(B) Starke
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of them
Ans: A
47. “Corporate personality is a mere procedural form which is used to work out a convenient way for immediate purpose”. It was stated by
(A) Holland
(B) Austin
(C) Starke
(D) Honfield
Ans: D
48. Which of the following statement is not true?
(A) Possession is a nine point of law.
(B) Possession is an evidence of ownership.
(C) Possession is protected till someone else provided a better title in himself.
(D) Possession once lost cannot be regained.
Ans: D
49. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of “Absolute duties”?
I. Duties owed to indeterminate persons.
II. Self regarding duties.
III. Duties owed to the sovereign.
IV. Duties owed to the parents.
Select the correct answer by using the codes below:
Codes:
(A) I, III and IV
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II, and IV
(D) I, II and III
Ans: D
50. The physical element of possession is also called as
(A) Ratio decidendi
(B) Corpus decidendi
(C) Corpus possessionis
(D) Animus possidendi
Ans: C
(A) Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyyer
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Ans: C
2. Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on
(A) Precedents and conventions
(B) Rule of law
(C) Due process of law
(D) Procedure established by law
Ans: D
3. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government because:
(A) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
(B) The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(C) The President, the head of the executive, is answerable to Parliament.
(D) The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is accountable to Parliament.
Ans: A
4. The Supreme Court held that Election Commissioners cannot be placed on par with the Chief Election Commissioner in terms of power and authority in the following case:
(A) S.S. Dhannoa Vs Union of India
(B) T.N. Seshan Vs Union of India
(C) A.C. Jose Vs Sivan Pillai
(D) Venkatachalam Vs A. Swamickan
Ans: A
5. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of Parliament is
(A) Three months
(B) Four months
(C) Five months
(D) Six months
Ans: D
6. The Supreme Court observed that “Parliamentary proceedings are not subject to Fundamental Rights” in the following case:
(A) Keshav Singh Vs Speaker, U.P. Assembly
(B) Gunapati Vs Habibul Hasan
(C) M.S.M. Sharma Vs Srikrishna Sinha
(D) State of Punjab Vs Satpal Dang
Ans: C
7. For the purpose of creating a new State in India an amendment to the Constitution of India must be passed by
(A) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament present and voting.
(B) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament and ratification by not less than 2/3rd majority of the States.
(C) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the States.
(D) A simple majority by the Parliament.
Ans: D
8. Match the following:
(a) Perfect right (i) which has correlative positive duty.
(b) Negative right (ii) which has a correlative duty that can be legally enforced.
(c) Imperfect right (iii) A has a right to receive damages.
(d) Positive right (iv) That right which although recognised by State but not enforceable.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Theory) (Subject)
(a) Retributive Theory I. Legal Right
(b) Sociological Theory II. Source of Law
(c) Theory of Precedent III. Punishment
(d) Theory of Property IV. Roscoe Pond
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) I IV III II
(B) III IV II I
(C) III II I IV
(D) IV III I II
Ans: B
10. Hypothesis of Grund norm was propounded by
(A) Austin
(B) Diguit
(C) Hart
(D) Kelson
Ans: D
11. Immanuel Kant is the exponent of
(A) Retributive theory of punishment.
(B) Reformative theory of punishment.
(C) Detterent theory of punishment.
(D) Preventive theory of punishment.
Ans: A
12. Who used the word ‘Sociology’ for the first time?
(A) Auguste Comte
(B) Herbert Spencer
(C) Diguit
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
13. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Animus is necessary for the acquisition or commencement of possession.
(B) Corpus is necessary for the acquisition or commencement of possession.
(C) Animus and Corpus are not necessary from the acquisition or commencement of possession.
(D) Animus and Corpus are necessary for the acquisition or commencement of possession.
Ans: D
14. Which of the following statements is true?
1. An imperfect right may become perfect under certain circumstances.
2. Imperfect right can become a valid defence.
3. Law recognises an imperfect right but not to enforce it.
4. Imperfect right can be reduced as a valid defence.
(A) only 1, 2, 3
(B) only 1, 4
(C) only 2, 3, 4
(D) only 1, 4, 3
Ans: A
15. Assertion (A): The United Nations cannot perform peace keeping or peace making operations.
Reason (R): United Nations has no army, navy or air force of its own.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
16. “The permanent members of Security Council have special privilege in the voting procedure of the Security Council in as much as the decisions of Security Council on nonprocedural matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members including the concurring votes of the permanent members.”
Above statement is attributed to _____ of the Charter of the United Nations.
(A) Article 27, Para 3
(B) Article 27, Para 2
(C) Article 26
(D) Article 28
Ans: A
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(i) Custom begins where usage ends. (a) P.C. Corbett
(ii) The Statute of International Court of Justice, Article 38, Para 1 is about. (b) J.G. Starke, Introduction to International Law, P.40
(iii) ‘Custom’ should be replaced by word ‘evidence’. (c) Treaty and Custom as sources of International Law.
(iv) Law making treaties. (d) Brierly, Law of Nations, P. 58
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (c) (b) (d) (a)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Ans: A
18. Assertion (A): Arbitration is the process of resolving disputes between States by means of an arbitral tribunal appointed by the parties.
Reason (R): Disputes are arbitrary.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) To maintain international peace and security (i) Article 1 of the UN Charter
(b) Principles of UN (ii) Article 2 of the UN Charter
(c) Admission of new members to UN (iii) Article 12 of the UN Charter
(d) Limits on powers of General Assembly in respect of any dispute. (iv) Article 4 of the UN Charter
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(C) (a) (b) (d) (c)
(D) (c) (d) (b) (a)
Ans: C
20. Stimson’s doctrine of Non-Recognition is related to
(A) Duty of non-recognition of some territorial acquisitions brought about in accordance with international law.
(B) Duty of non-recognition of some territorial acquisitions brought about in breach of international law.
(C) Duty of non-recognition of all territorial acquisitions brought about in breach of international law.
(D) Duty of non-recognition of all territorial acquisitions brought about according to international law.
Ans: C
21. Prohibited degree and Spinda relationship are
(A) Mutually exclusive
(B) Dependent on each other
(C) May overlap each other
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
22. In which of the following case, the High Court held that “the presence of Qazi” is not necessary at the time of marriage ceremony under the Muslim Law?
(A) Qazi Mohd. Najmuddin Hussain V. State of A.P.
(B) Mohd. Yunus V. Malooki
(C) Shamim Ara V. State of U.P.
(D) Bai Tahira Vs. Ali Hussain
Ans: B
23. Assertion (A): Marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is dissoluble.
Reason (R): Marriage is a sacrosanct union.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
24. Which of the following is not condition for a marriage under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) Neither should have a living spouse.
(B) If the bride is below 18, the consent of her guardian has been obtained.
(C) They are not within prohibited degrees relationship.
(D) Neither should be subject to recurrent attack of insanity.
Ans: B
25. Sources of Muslim Law are
(a) The Koran
(b) The Ismaa
(c) The Hadis
(d) The Kiyas
Indicate their correct sequence.
(A) (a), (b), (d) and (c)
(B) (a), (c), (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (d), (c) and (b)
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
26. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on the ground(s) of
(A) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
(B) Violation of the Constitution.
(C) Both (A) and (B) above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A
27. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List, provided it is in the
(A) Public interest
(B) National interest
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
28. Assertion (A): Ownership is not only a juridical concept, but also a social concept and an instrument of social policy.
Reason (R): The right of alienation is not a necessary incident of ownership.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
29. Which one of the following features does not support the federal character of Indian Constitution?
(A) Distribution of powers between Centre and States
(B) Authority of Courts
(C) Supremacy of the Constitution
(D) Single citizenship
Ans: D
30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
I. Law declared by the Supreme Court to be binding on all courts. (a) Article 141
II. Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court. (b) Article 143
III. Power of Supreme Court to review its own judgement. (c) Article 137
IV. Appeal by Special Leave (d) Article 136
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (b) (a) (c) (d)
(C) (a) (c) (d) (b)
(D) (b) (c) (a) (d)
Ans: A
31. In which of the following cases free and fair election is recognized as basic structure of Indian Constitution?
(A) Indira Gandhi V. Raj Narayan
(B) Minerva Mills V. Union of India
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
32. Which one of the following cases is not related to the doctrine of severability?
(A) A.K. Gopalan V. State of Madras
(B) R.M.D.C. V. Union of India
(C) Minerva Mills Ltd. V. Union of India
(D) Kihota Holohan V. Zachithu
Ans: C
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
I. Power of Parliament to legislate on State subjects in national interest. (a) Article 249
II. Power of Parliament to legislate on Stat subjects during a proclamation of emergency. (b) Article 250
III. Power of Parliament to legislate for giving effect to treaties and international agreements. (c) Article 252
IV. Power of Parliament to legislate on State subjects with the consent of the States. (d) Article 253
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(C) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Ans: D
34. Which of the following Articles providing for fundamental rights cannot be suspended during the Proclamation of Emergency?
(A) Articles 14 and 15
(B) Articles 19 and 20
(C) Articles 20 and 21
(D) Articles 21 and 22
Ans: C
35. Assertion (A): Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution except the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court has restricted the absolute power of Parliament to amend any provision of the Constitution.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
36. Clause (k) to Article 51-A was added by
(A) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act.
(B) The Constitution (85th Amendment) Act.
(C) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act.
(D) The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act.
Ans: C
37. Doctrine of Separation of Powers was systematically formulated by
(A) Plato
(B) Montesquieu
(C) Dicey
(D) Aristotle
Ans: B
38. ‘Rule of Law’ means
(i) Supremacy of Judiciary
(ii) Supremacy of Law
(iii) Equality before Law
(iv) Supremacy of Parliament
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(a) Abuse of discretion 1. Rule of Law
(b) Equality before law 2. Lack of Power
(c) Delegated legislation 3. Check and Balance
(d) Separation of powers 4. Ultra-vires
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 3 2 1
(D) 4 4 1 2
Ans: A
40. Writ of Mandamus may be issued to
(A) Compel the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities only to act.
(B) Compel the authority to act.
(C) Compel the authority, how to act.
(D) Compel a private person.
Ans: B
41. Doctrine of Locus Standi means
(A) Writ can be filed by any person.
(B) Power of courts for judicial review.
(C) Right of petitioner to file the writ petition.
(D) Discretion of administrative authority.
Ans: C
42 Which one of the following statement is true?
(A) Delegated legislation cannot have retrospective effect.
(B) Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect, if authorized by Act or Statute.
(C) Delegated legislation can have retrospective effect, if not authorized by Act or Statute but have reasonable and rational justification.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
43. “Constitutional law is concerned with the organization and functions of government at rest, while administrative law, is concerned with that organization and those functions in motion.” This statement was given by
(A) Austin
(B) Salmond
(C) M.P. Jain
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
44. Writ of Quo Warranto can be issued
(A) against any person.
(B) against public officer, who wish to assume the office.
(C) against public officer, who is holding public office.
(D) against public officer, who has ceased to hold the office.
Ans: C
45. Who defined “jurisprudence as the formal science of positive law”?
(A) Holland
(B) Ulpanian
(C) Bentham
(D) Blackstone
Ans: A
46. “A legal right is an interest recognized and protected by a rule of legal justice. An interest in the violation of which would be a legal wrong, done to him whose interest it is and respect of which is a legal duly”. It was stated by
(A) Salmond
(B) Starke
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of them
Ans: A
47. “Corporate personality is a mere procedural form which is used to work out a convenient way for immediate purpose”. It was stated by
(A) Holland
(B) Austin
(C) Starke
(D) Honfield
Ans: D
48. Which of the following statement is not true?
(A) Possession is a nine point of law.
(B) Possession is an evidence of ownership.
(C) Possession is protected till someone else provided a better title in himself.
(D) Possession once lost cannot be regained.
Ans: D
49. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of “Absolute duties”?
I. Duties owed to indeterminate persons.
II. Self regarding duties.
III. Duties owed to the sovereign.
IV. Duties owed to the parents.
Select the correct answer by using the codes below:
Codes:
(A) I, III and IV
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II, and IV
(D) I, II and III
Ans: D
50. The physical element of possession is also called as
(A) Ratio decidendi
(B) Corpus decidendi
(C) Corpus possessionis
(D) Animus possidendi
Ans: C
51. Assertion (A): Ownership subject to condition subsequent is vested ownership.
Reason (R): Possession and ownership do not differ in their mode of acquisition.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
52. The interest theory of legal right is propounded by
(A) Durkein
(B) Dicey
(C) Paton
(D) Ihering
Ans: D
53. The application of doctrine of vicarious liability in crimes seems to have been actuated by a necessity rather than desirability. The justification is based on
(A) Public policy
(B) Failure to supervise
(C) Treated as unauthorised
(D) Strict liability
Ans: A
54. A detention of the accused for a total period of 90 days during investigation can be ordered by the Magistrate, in cases where the offence committed is :
(A) punishable for a term not less than 10 years (B) with imprisonment for life
(C) punishable with death penalty (D) all the above
Ans: D
55. Section 125 Cr. P.C. is applicable to :
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims (C) Christians (D) All persons belonging to all religions
Ans: D
56. The Muslim women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with :
(A) Claim of maintenance by a Muslim woman (B) Claim of maintenance by a Muslim divorced woman
(C) Claim of maintenance by the children of such divorced Muslim woman (D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans: B
57. Amount of maintenance under Section 125 Cr. P.C. is ____________Rs. per month
(A) 500 per month (B) 1000 per month (C) 5000 per month (D) without any limit
Ans: D
58. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate, within 24 hours of the arrest, under :
(A) Section 56 Cr. P.C. (B) Section 57 Cr. P.C. (C) Section 58 Cr. P.C. (D) Section 59 Cr. P.C.
Ans: B
59. Special summons under Section 206 of Cr. P.C. can be issued by :
(A) Court of Sessions (B) Magistrate only (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) The High Court
Ans: B
60. Penalty under surety bond :
(A) Can not be remitted (B) Can be remitted in full
(C) Can be remitted in part only (D) Can be remitted in part or in full
Ans: C
61. Under Section 315 Cr. P.C. :
(A) an accused can not be a witness (B) an accused can be compelled to give his own evidence
(C) an accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing (D) either (A) or (B)
Ans: C
62. Relevancy is :
(A) question of law and can be raised at any time (B) question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity
(C) question of law which can be waived (D) question of procedure which can be waived
Ans: A
63. Admissions by agents are :
(A) admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances
(B) admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has authority to make admissions
(C) never admissible in criminal proceedings
(D) both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
64. Plea of alibi is governed by :
(A) Section 6 (B) Section 8 (C) Section 11 (D) Section 12
Ans: C
65. A dying declaration to be admissible :
(A) must be made before a Magistrate (B) must be made before the police officer
(C) may be made before a doctor or any other person (D) all the above
Ans: D
66. Secondary evidence of a document is admissible as a substitute for :
(A) admissible primary evidence (B) inadmissible primary evidence under certain circumstances
(C) inadmissible primary evidence under all circumstances (D) both (A) and (B) are correct
Ans: A
67. For presumption of death under Section 108 of the Evidence Act, the person is shown to be not heard for a period of :
(A) 3 yrs (B) 7 yrs (C) 12 yrs (D) 30 yrs
Ans: B
68. An accomplice is a person :
(A) Who is a prefended confedrate (B) Who is an informer as to the commission of crime
(C) Who participates in the commission of the crime for which the accused has been charged (D) All the above
Ans: C
69. Leading questions can be asked during :
(A) Examination in chief (B) Re-examination (C) Cross examination (D) All the above
Ans: C
70. The presumption under Section 41 of the Evidence Act is a :
(A) Rebuttable presumption of law (B) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(C) Presumption of fact (D) Presumption of fact and law
Ans: B
71. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused :
(A) If they are tried jointly for the same offences (B) If they are tried jointly for different offences
(C) If they are tried for the same offences but not jointly (D) If they are tried for different offences and not jointly
Ans: A
72. Presumption as to the digital signature of the electronic record in proper custody arises if the electronic record produced is :
(A) 20 yrs old (B) 18 yrs old (C) 10 yrs old (D) 5 yrs old
Ans: D
73. In case of will, the period of thirty years shall run :
(A) from the date of the will (B) from the date of death of testator
(C) from the date of registration of will (D) any of the above
Ans: A
74. Maxim ‘omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta’ means :
(A) all acts are presumed to be rightly done (B) all acts are presumed to be wrongly done
(C) all acts are presumed to be rightly done unless otherwise proved (D) none of the above
Ans: A
75. A dumb person is a competent witness as provided under :
(A) Section 117 of Evidence Act (B) Section 118 of Evidence Act (C) Section 119 of Evidence Act (D) Section 120 of Evidence Act
Ans: C
76. Section 121 of the Evidence Act provides for privilege in respect of :
(A) husband and wife (B) judges and magistrates (C) affairs of the state (D) official communication
Ans: B
77. The evidence unearthed by a sniffer dog falls under :
(A) oral evidence (B) documentary evidence (C) hearsay evidence (D) scientific evidence
Ans: D
78. Opinions of experts are relevant :
(A) Under Section 45 Evidence Act (B) Under Section 48 Evidence Act
(C) Under Section 50 Evidence Act (D) Under Section 52 Evidence Act
Ans: A
79. Presumptions under the law of evidence are :
(A) Presumptions of facts (B) Presumptions of law (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Only (B) not (A)
Ans: C
80. Section 13 Evidence Act applies to :
(A) corporal rights (B) incorporal rights (C) both corporal and incorporal rights (D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: C
81. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six
Ans: C
82. Section 73 IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be :
(A) One year (B) Two yrs (C) 6 months (D) Three months
Ans: D
83. General exceptions are contained in :
(A) Chapter III of IPC (B) Chapter IV of IPC (C) Chapter V of IPC (D) Chapter VI of IPC
Ans: B
84. The maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means :
(A) Ignorance of law is no excuse (B) Ignorance of fact is no excuse (C) Ignorance of law is an excuse (D) Ignorance of fact is an excuse
Ans: A
85. ‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided :
(A) Section 81 (B) Section 82 (C) Section 83 (D) Section
Ans: B
86. The doctrine volenti non fit injuria is contained in :
(A) Section 87 (B) Section 88 (C) Section 89 (D) All the above
Ans: A
87. Abettor is a person :
(A) Who commits the offence (B) Who instigates the commission of offence
(C) Against whom the offence is committed (D) Who is innocent
Ans: B
88. For an ‘unlawful assembly’ under Section 141 IPC, the minimum number of persons required is :
(A) five (B) seven (C) ten (D) twenty
Ans: A
89. For an ‘affray’ under Section 159 IPC the minimum number of persons required is :
(A) two (B) four (C) five (D) seven
Ans: A
90. Culpable homicide has been defined under :
(A) Section 299 (B) Section 300 (C) Section 302 (D) Section 304
Ans: A
91. During a scuffle between A and B, A gave a blow on the face of B and consequently two teeth of B' were broken. In these circumstances A has committed an offence of causing :
(A) hurt (B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) grievous hurt (D) no offence at all
Ans: C
92. Robbery becomes dacoity when committed conjointly by :
(A) two persons (B) more than two but less than five (C) five persons or more (D) at least
Ans: C
93. Immovable property can be the subject matter of :
(A) theft (B) extortion (C) robbery (D) dacoity
Ans: B
94. The essential ingredients of crime are :
(A) actus reus and mens rea (B) motive, mens rea, actus reus
(C) knowledge, intention, action (D) motive, intention and knowledge
Ans: A
95. Section 511 does not apply in case of :
(A) Attempt of theft (B) Attempt of murder (C) Attempt of riot (D) Attempt of affray
Ans: B
96. Z dies in possession of some money and other assets. His servant P misappropriates it before the money comes into the possession of any person entitled to such possession. X has committed an offence of :
(A) Section 402 (B) Section 404 (C) Section 406 (D) Section 408
Ans: B
97. A knows that B is suffering from a disease and he gives a blow on his head likely to cause death. As a result B dies. A is :
(A) guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder (B) guilty of murder (C) guilty of causing hurt (D) guilty of no offence
Ans: B
98. X ordered Y to beat Z. Y refuses. Now :
(A) X has committed abetment and Y has committed no offence (B) X has committed abetment and Y assaulted Z
(C) X and Y have committed no offence (D) None of the above
Ans: A
99. Kidnapping from the lawful guardianship under Section 361 IPC can be :
(A) of a person under sixteen years of age if male (B) of a person under eighteen years of age if a female
(C) of a person of unsound mind (D) all the above
Ans: D
100. X gave poisoned halwa to Y with an intention to kill him. Y kept it aside and Z who came there picked it up and ate it. Z died.
(A) X is guilty of murder of Z
(B) X is not guilty of murder of Z
(C) X is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(D) X is guilty neither of murder nor of culpable homicide as he never intended to kill Z
Ans: A
Reason (R): Possession and ownership do not differ in their mode of acquisition.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
52. The interest theory of legal right is propounded by
(A) Durkein
(B) Dicey
(C) Paton
(D) Ihering
Ans: D
53. The application of doctrine of vicarious liability in crimes seems to have been actuated by a necessity rather than desirability. The justification is based on
(A) Public policy
(B) Failure to supervise
(C) Treated as unauthorised
(D) Strict liability
Ans: A
54. A detention of the accused for a total period of 90 days during investigation can be ordered by the Magistrate, in cases where the offence committed is :
(A) punishable for a term not less than 10 years (B) with imprisonment for life
(C) punishable with death penalty (D) all the above
Ans: D
55. Section 125 Cr. P.C. is applicable to :
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims (C) Christians (D) All persons belonging to all religions
Ans: D
56. The Muslim women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with :
(A) Claim of maintenance by a Muslim woman (B) Claim of maintenance by a Muslim divorced woman
(C) Claim of maintenance by the children of such divorced Muslim woman (D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans: B
57. Amount of maintenance under Section 125 Cr. P.C. is ____________Rs. per month
(A) 500 per month (B) 1000 per month (C) 5000 per month (D) without any limit
Ans: D
58. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate, within 24 hours of the arrest, under :
(A) Section 56 Cr. P.C. (B) Section 57 Cr. P.C. (C) Section 58 Cr. P.C. (D) Section 59 Cr. P.C.
Ans: B
59. Special summons under Section 206 of Cr. P.C. can be issued by :
(A) Court of Sessions (B) Magistrate only (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) The High Court
Ans: B
60. Penalty under surety bond :
(A) Can not be remitted (B) Can be remitted in full
(C) Can be remitted in part only (D) Can be remitted in part or in full
Ans: C
61. Under Section 315 Cr. P.C. :
(A) an accused can not be a witness (B) an accused can be compelled to give his own evidence
(C) an accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing (D) either (A) or (B)
Ans: C
62. Relevancy is :
(A) question of law and can be raised at any time (B) question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity
(C) question of law which can be waived (D) question of procedure which can be waived
Ans: A
63. Admissions by agents are :
(A) admissible in civil proceedings under all circumstances
(B) admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has authority to make admissions
(C) never admissible in criminal proceedings
(D) both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
64. Plea of alibi is governed by :
(A) Section 6 (B) Section 8 (C) Section 11 (D) Section 12
Ans: C
65. A dying declaration to be admissible :
(A) must be made before a Magistrate (B) must be made before the police officer
(C) may be made before a doctor or any other person (D) all the above
Ans: D
66. Secondary evidence of a document is admissible as a substitute for :
(A) admissible primary evidence (B) inadmissible primary evidence under certain circumstances
(C) inadmissible primary evidence under all circumstances (D) both (A) and (B) are correct
Ans: A
67. For presumption of death under Section 108 of the Evidence Act, the person is shown to be not heard for a period of :
(A) 3 yrs (B) 7 yrs (C) 12 yrs (D) 30 yrs
Ans: B
68. An accomplice is a person :
(A) Who is a prefended confedrate (B) Who is an informer as to the commission of crime
(C) Who participates in the commission of the crime for which the accused has been charged (D) All the above
Ans: C
69. Leading questions can be asked during :
(A) Examination in chief (B) Re-examination (C) Cross examination (D) All the above
Ans: C
70. The presumption under Section 41 of the Evidence Act is a :
(A) Rebuttable presumption of law (B) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(C) Presumption of fact (D) Presumption of fact and law
Ans: B
71. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused :
(A) If they are tried jointly for the same offences (B) If they are tried jointly for different offences
(C) If they are tried for the same offences but not jointly (D) If they are tried for different offences and not jointly
Ans: A
72. Presumption as to the digital signature of the electronic record in proper custody arises if the electronic record produced is :
(A) 20 yrs old (B) 18 yrs old (C) 10 yrs old (D) 5 yrs old
Ans: D
73. In case of will, the period of thirty years shall run :
(A) from the date of the will (B) from the date of death of testator
(C) from the date of registration of will (D) any of the above
Ans: A
74. Maxim ‘omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta’ means :
(A) all acts are presumed to be rightly done (B) all acts are presumed to be wrongly done
(C) all acts are presumed to be rightly done unless otherwise proved (D) none of the above
Ans: A
75. A dumb person is a competent witness as provided under :
(A) Section 117 of Evidence Act (B) Section 118 of Evidence Act (C) Section 119 of Evidence Act (D) Section 120 of Evidence Act
Ans: C
76. Section 121 of the Evidence Act provides for privilege in respect of :
(A) husband and wife (B) judges and magistrates (C) affairs of the state (D) official communication
Ans: B
77. The evidence unearthed by a sniffer dog falls under :
(A) oral evidence (B) documentary evidence (C) hearsay evidence (D) scientific evidence
Ans: D
78. Opinions of experts are relevant :
(A) Under Section 45 Evidence Act (B) Under Section 48 Evidence Act
(C) Under Section 50 Evidence Act (D) Under Section 52 Evidence Act
Ans: A
79. Presumptions under the law of evidence are :
(A) Presumptions of facts (B) Presumptions of law (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Only (B) not (A)
Ans: C
80. Section 13 Evidence Act applies to :
(A) corporal rights (B) incorporal rights (C) both corporal and incorporal rights (D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: C
81. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six
Ans: C
82. Section 73 IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be :
(A) One year (B) Two yrs (C) 6 months (D) Three months
Ans: D
83. General exceptions are contained in :
(A) Chapter III of IPC (B) Chapter IV of IPC (C) Chapter V of IPC (D) Chapter VI of IPC
Ans: B
84. The maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means :
(A) Ignorance of law is no excuse (B) Ignorance of fact is no excuse (C) Ignorance of law is an excuse (D) Ignorance of fact is an excuse
Ans: A
85. ‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided :
(A) Section 81 (B) Section 82 (C) Section 83 (D) Section
Ans: B
86. The doctrine volenti non fit injuria is contained in :
(A) Section 87 (B) Section 88 (C) Section 89 (D) All the above
Ans: A
87. Abettor is a person :
(A) Who commits the offence (B) Who instigates the commission of offence
(C) Against whom the offence is committed (D) Who is innocent
Ans: B
88. For an ‘unlawful assembly’ under Section 141 IPC, the minimum number of persons required is :
(A) five (B) seven (C) ten (D) twenty
Ans: A
89. For an ‘affray’ under Section 159 IPC the minimum number of persons required is :
(A) two (B) four (C) five (D) seven
Ans: A
90. Culpable homicide has been defined under :
(A) Section 299 (B) Section 300 (C) Section 302 (D) Section 304
Ans: A
91. During a scuffle between A and B, A gave a blow on the face of B and consequently two teeth of B' were broken. In these circumstances A has committed an offence of causing :
(A) hurt (B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) grievous hurt (D) no offence at all
Ans: C
92. Robbery becomes dacoity when committed conjointly by :
(A) two persons (B) more than two but less than five (C) five persons or more (D) at least
Ans: C
93. Immovable property can be the subject matter of :
(A) theft (B) extortion (C) robbery (D) dacoity
Ans: B
94. The essential ingredients of crime are :
(A) actus reus and mens rea (B) motive, mens rea, actus reus
(C) knowledge, intention, action (D) motive, intention and knowledge
Ans: A
95. Section 511 does not apply in case of :
(A) Attempt of theft (B) Attempt of murder (C) Attempt of riot (D) Attempt of affray
Ans: B
96. Z dies in possession of some money and other assets. His servant P misappropriates it before the money comes into the possession of any person entitled to such possession. X has committed an offence of :
(A) Section 402 (B) Section 404 (C) Section 406 (D) Section 408
Ans: B
97. A knows that B is suffering from a disease and he gives a blow on his head likely to cause death. As a result B dies. A is :
(A) guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder (B) guilty of murder (C) guilty of causing hurt (D) guilty of no offence
Ans: B
98. X ordered Y to beat Z. Y refuses. Now :
(A) X has committed abetment and Y has committed no offence (B) X has committed abetment and Y assaulted Z
(C) X and Y have committed no offence (D) None of the above
Ans: A
99. Kidnapping from the lawful guardianship under Section 361 IPC can be :
(A) of a person under sixteen years of age if male (B) of a person under eighteen years of age if a female
(C) of a person of unsound mind (D) all the above
Ans: D
100. X gave poisoned halwa to Y with an intention to kill him. Y kept it aside and Z who came there picked it up and ate it. Z died.
(A) X is guilty of murder of Z
(B) X is not guilty of murder of Z
(C) X is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(D) X is guilty neither of murder nor of culpable homicide as he never intended to kill Z
Ans: A