LAW- PAGE 14 |
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1. The Supreme Court held in which of the following cases that preamble is not the part of the Constitution of India
(A) Berubari case
(B) A. K. Gopalan case
(C) Balaji Case
(D) Minerva Mill’s case
Ans: A
2. Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
(A) 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(B) 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(C) 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(D) 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
Ans: C
3. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is
(A) Directive Principle of State Policy
(B) Fundamental National Policy
(C) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
(D) Both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
Ans: D
4. Originally the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and
(A) Seven other judges
(B) Twelve other judges
(C) Thirteen other judges
(D) Fifteen other judges
Ans: A
5. A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) Nine months
(D) Twelve months
Ans: D
6. The President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India remains valid in the State for maximum period of
(A) One month
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year
Ans: B
7. The power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution of India is a constituent power laid down in
Article 368 by
(A) Twenty Fourth Amendment Act
(B) Twenty Sixth Amendment Act
(C) Forty Second Amendment Act
(D) Forty Fourth Amendment Act
Ans: A
8. ‘Jurisprudence is as big as law and bigger’. Who said this?
(A) Austin
(B) Lloyds
(C) Lewellyn
(D) Holland
Ans: C
9. “Rousseau is a Janus like figure in the history of national law” – who said this?
(A) Hobbes
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Locke
(D) Barker
Ans: D
9. According to which school, “the purpose of jurisprudence is to analyse and dissect the law of the land as it exists today”?
(A) Analytical Jurisprudence
(B) Historical Jurisprudence
(C) Sociological Jurisprudence
(D) Philosophical Jurisprudence
Ans: A
10. “The one who holds the property is the owner.” Give your correct response from following on the basis of above statement:
(A) The holder of property may be mere possessor or bailed.
(B) The holder of property need not be the owner.
(C) This statement is not correct.
(D) This statement is correct.
Ans: B
11. The sources of law have been divided into two classes. These are
(A) Divine sources and human sources
(B) Formal sources and material sources
(C) Natural sources and universal sources
(D) (A) and (B) both of the above
Ans: A
12. According to whose theory, “Law is not universal in its nature; like language it varies with people and age”?
(A) Bentham’s theory
(B) Austin’s theory
(C) Savigny’s theory
(D) Montesquieu’s theory
Ans: C
13. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Law properly so-called (in regard to notion of law): Which is distinct from morals?
(B) Law improperly so-called (in regard to notion of law): Other laws.
(C) Audi alteram partem: Rule of natural justice.
(D) Conspectus of justice: Justice denied.
Ans: D
14. Assertion (A): The Maneka Gandhi’s case is a landmark decision from the point of human rights and remedial jurisprudence.
Reason (R): From the positivist point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.
Examine the above statements (A) and (R) and select whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
15. Who among the following said that the law of nation is “the body of legal rules which apply between states and such entities as have been granted international personality”?
(A) Fenwick
(B) Oppeheim
(C) Schwarzenberger
(D) Verdoss
Ans: C
16. The main difference between Defacto and De-jure recognition is
1. De-facto recognition may be withdrawn while De-jure recognition is full and final.
2. Only De-jure recognised statescan represent the old states, for the purpose of state succession.
3. In De-jure recognition, formal diplomatic relations are established while in case of Defacto they may not be entered into.
4. Former is legal and the latter is a factual recognition.
(A) 1, 2 & 3
(B) 2, 3 & 4
(C) 2 & 3
(D) 1 & 2
Ans: A
17. A member of the United Nations can be suspended from the exercise of rights and privileges of membership by the
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council
(D) Secretary General on the recommendations of the Security Council
Ans: C
18. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer.
Assertion (A): International Law consists for the most part of customary rules.
Reason (R): Customary rules are the original and oldest source of International Law.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
19. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted on
(A) December 10, 1948
(B) November 10, 1948
(C) October 20, 1948
(D) January 21, 1948
Ans: A
20. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Human Rights occupy a significant place in the UN Charter.
Reason (R): Members of the UN have committed themselves to promote respect for and observance of human rights and fundamental rights.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
21. Adultery by a Hindu husband is
(A) Ground of divorce only
(B) Not a ground of divorce
(C) Ground of judicial separation
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
22. ‘A’ marries ‘B’, the widow of the elder brother. The marriage is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
23. Marriage with an impotent and has not been consummated. The marriage is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Nullity
(D) Irregular
Ans: C
24. ‘Khula’ is a form of divorce by
(A) Sale
(B) Purchase
(C) Agreement
(D) Coercion
Ans: B
25. Muta marriage could not be dissolved
(A) Ipso facto by the efflux of the period
(B) By death
(C) By divorce
(D) By Hiba-i-Mudat
Ans: C
26. The word ‘Secular’ was added in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by
(A) First Amendment Act
(B) Seventh Amendment Act
(C) Forty-Second Amendment Act
(D) Forty-Fourth Amendment Act
Ans: C
27. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of
(A) Religion, race and caste only.
(B) Religion, caste and sex only.
(C) Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only.
(D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Ans: D
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
I. Deletion of fundamental right to freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property. (a) Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act.
II. Insertion of the word ‘integrity’ to the Preamble of the Constitution. (b) Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act.
III. Inclusion of right to education as fundamental right under Article 21A (c) Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act.
IV. Insertion of Clause (5) in Article 15. (d) Constitution (Ninety-Third Amendment) Act.
Codes:
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) (b) (a) (c) (d)
(B) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(D) (c) (b) (a) (d)
Ans: A
29. Which provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 355
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 360
Ans: B
30. ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include ‘right to die’. This observation was made by the Supreme Court in
(A) P. Rathinam V. Union of India
(B) Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab
(C) Both (A) and (B) above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
31. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) In India, consideration must follow…..from promise only.
(B) In India, consideration must follow……from only promisor or only promise.
(C) In India, consideration must follow……from promisor or any other person.
(D) In India, consideration must follow…..promise or any other person.
Ans: D
32. Assertion (A): Collateral transactions to wagering agreements are valid.
Reason (R): Only wagering agreements are declared void under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
Ans: D
33. Liability in torts depends on
(A) Quantum of damages suffered
(B) Involvement of intention
(C) Infringement of legal right
(D) Effect of public interest
Ans: C
34. Which of the following ingredients are essential to make master liable for the acts of the servant?
(1) Tort was committed by the servant.
(2) Tort was committed in the course of employment.
(3) Express authority was given by master.
(4) Master has knowledge of all constituent offers of tort.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 2
Ans: D
35. Which of the following is an essential constituent of negligence?
(1) Defendant was under or legal duty to exercise due care
(2) This duty was owed to plantiff
(3) Defendant committed breach of such duty
(4) That the breach of such duty was the direct and proximate cause of the damage alleged.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: B
36. Which one of the following is not a good defence in suits for damages or negligence?
(A) Contributory Negligence
(B) Express contract with plantiff
(C) Express contract where statute prohibits
(D) Voluntary assumptions of risk
Ans: C
37. Match List –I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
(a) Rayland vs Fletcher 1.
Compensation for pain and suffering
(b) Donoghue V Stevenson 2. Loss caused by Competition in business
(c) Gludster Grammer School Case 3. Strict liability
(d) Rose vs. Ford 4. Liability of minor for tests
5. Liability for negligence
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 5
(C) 3 5 2 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans: C
38. Assertion (A): Tort is a civil wrong redressible by an action for unliquidated damages only.
Reason (R): Law does not provide compensation in the nature of liquidated damages.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
39. ‘Z’ while walking along a deserted road at night during winter saw a just born baby abandoned on a side. Fora moment be realized that he could save the baby without appreciable trouble, expense or loss of his time and also felt that if the baby is left over unprotected, it might die. But he did nothing and went away. ‘P’ another person also passed through that road and saw the baby and acted just like ‘Z’ and went away. Next morning the infant baby died of exposure.
Decide who is responsible?
(A) Only ‘Z’ who saw first
(B) ‘P’ for omitting to be compassionate
(C) Both ‘Z’ and ‘P’ for negligence
(D) Neither ‘Z’ nor ‘P’ is responsible
Ans: D
40. Decide on whom criminal liability can be fixed on the following: The accused ‘P’ caught hold of the victim and exhorted on the main accused ‘L’ to strike the victim; upon which he inflicted a kirpan wound and consequently the victim died.
Assertions:
(i) ‘P’ is liable for punishment.
(ii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both liable for common intention.
(iii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both responsible for victim’s death for having common object.
(iv) ‘P’ is not liable for any offence.
Reasons:
(A) (i) is quite possible
(B) (ii) is reasonable
(C) (iii) is as occasion demands
(D) (iv) is most accurate
Ans: D
41. ‘M’ a quack, an uneducated in matters of surgery, had performed an operation on a man for internal piles with the help of ordinary Knife, unlike previous occasions, for which the man died due to hemorrhage. Decide on ‘M’’s liability.
(i) ‘M’ is a recognised quack and hence not liable.
(ii) ‘M’’s profession is not legally acceptable hence liable.
(iii) ‘M’ is not liable because the man consented for such operation.
(iv) ‘M’ is not liable because it was a post – operational syndrome
The probable answer is:
(A) Statement (i) is correct
(B) Statement (ii) is correct
(C) Statement (iii) is correct
(D) Statement (iii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: B
42. Fill in the gap.
‘P’ in support of a just claim of ‘Q’ has stated against ‘Z’, for a sum of Rupees one thousand and falsely sweared on a trial that he heard ‘Z’ admitted as to the just claim of ‘Q’.
The court decides that it was an affirmation of ________.
(A) Statement of truth
(B) False evidence
(C) Making a declaration
(D) None of them
Ans: B
43. One of the essentials of holding a person responsible for dowry death is
(A) Subjected to harassment by peer groups.
(B) Subjected to harassment for dowry
(C) Subjected to harassment under suspicious circumstances
(D) All of them
Ans: B
44. Fill in the gap:
An act of grievous hurt is always inferred through enormity to ________ and not merely a slight more than a frolic.
(A) Murder
(B) Bodily injury
(C) Amputation
(D) All of them
Ans: A
45. Assertion (A): Before Bangalore Water Supply case educational institutions were excluded from the definition of an industry.
Reason (R): Main purpose of such institutions is to impart education, and not to run business or trade.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
46. An individual dispute becomes industrial dispute when it is taken up by
(A) Union only.
(B) Union or substantial number of workmen.
(C) Continuous support of union.
(D) Subsequent support of union.
Ans: B
47. Which of the following statements are true?
I. All employees are workmen.
II. All employees are not workmen.
III. All workmen are employees.
IV. All managerial staff is workmen.
Codes:
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV
(D) I and III
Ans: B
48. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that medical representative is not workman?
(A) Standard Vacuum Oil Company V. Commissioner of Labour
(B) Anand Bazar Patrika V. Its Workmen
(C) Workmen V. Greaves Cotton & Co.
(D) J & J Dechane V. State of Kerala
Ans: D
49. Which one of the following statement is true?
(A) The general funds of a registered trade union shall not be spent on the payment of salaries.
(B) A registered Trade union may constitute a separate fund for the promotion of the civic and political interests.
(C) No appeal lies against the order of refusal of the Registrar to register a Trade union.
(D) Every registered Trade Union shall not be a body corporate.
Ans: B
50. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Subject) (Provisions of Trade Union Act, 1926)
(i) Appointment of Registrar 1. Section 24
(ii) Appeal 2. Section 10
(iii) Amalgamation of Trade Unions 3. Section 3
(iv) Cancellation of registration 4. Section 11
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 2 1
Ans: C
(A) Berubari case
(B) A. K. Gopalan case
(C) Balaji Case
(D) Minerva Mill’s case
Ans: A
2. Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
(A) 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(B) 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(C) 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(D) 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
Ans: C
3. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is
(A) Directive Principle of State Policy
(B) Fundamental National Policy
(C) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
(D) Both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
Ans: D
4. Originally the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and
(A) Seven other judges
(B) Twelve other judges
(C) Thirteen other judges
(D) Fifteen other judges
Ans: A
5. A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) Nine months
(D) Twelve months
Ans: D
6. The President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India remains valid in the State for maximum period of
(A) One month
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year
Ans: B
7. The power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution of India is a constituent power laid down in
Article 368 by
(A) Twenty Fourth Amendment Act
(B) Twenty Sixth Amendment Act
(C) Forty Second Amendment Act
(D) Forty Fourth Amendment Act
Ans: A
8. ‘Jurisprudence is as big as law and bigger’. Who said this?
(A) Austin
(B) Lloyds
(C) Lewellyn
(D) Holland
Ans: C
9. “Rousseau is a Janus like figure in the history of national law” – who said this?
(A) Hobbes
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Locke
(D) Barker
Ans: D
9. According to which school, “the purpose of jurisprudence is to analyse and dissect the law of the land as it exists today”?
(A) Analytical Jurisprudence
(B) Historical Jurisprudence
(C) Sociological Jurisprudence
(D) Philosophical Jurisprudence
Ans: A
10. “The one who holds the property is the owner.” Give your correct response from following on the basis of above statement:
(A) The holder of property may be mere possessor or bailed.
(B) The holder of property need not be the owner.
(C) This statement is not correct.
(D) This statement is correct.
Ans: B
11. The sources of law have been divided into two classes. These are
(A) Divine sources and human sources
(B) Formal sources and material sources
(C) Natural sources and universal sources
(D) (A) and (B) both of the above
Ans: A
12. According to whose theory, “Law is not universal in its nature; like language it varies with people and age”?
(A) Bentham’s theory
(B) Austin’s theory
(C) Savigny’s theory
(D) Montesquieu’s theory
Ans: C
13. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Law properly so-called (in regard to notion of law): Which is distinct from morals?
(B) Law improperly so-called (in regard to notion of law): Other laws.
(C) Audi alteram partem: Rule of natural justice.
(D) Conspectus of justice: Justice denied.
Ans: D
14. Assertion (A): The Maneka Gandhi’s case is a landmark decision from the point of human rights and remedial jurisprudence.
Reason (R): From the positivist point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.
Examine the above statements (A) and (R) and select whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
15. Who among the following said that the law of nation is “the body of legal rules which apply between states and such entities as have been granted international personality”?
(A) Fenwick
(B) Oppeheim
(C) Schwarzenberger
(D) Verdoss
Ans: C
16. The main difference between Defacto and De-jure recognition is
1. De-facto recognition may be withdrawn while De-jure recognition is full and final.
2. Only De-jure recognised statescan represent the old states, for the purpose of state succession.
3. In De-jure recognition, formal diplomatic relations are established while in case of Defacto they may not be entered into.
4. Former is legal and the latter is a factual recognition.
(A) 1, 2 & 3
(B) 2, 3 & 4
(C) 2 & 3
(D) 1 & 2
Ans: A
17. A member of the United Nations can be suspended from the exercise of rights and privileges of membership by the
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council
(D) Secretary General on the recommendations of the Security Council
Ans: C
18. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer.
Assertion (A): International Law consists for the most part of customary rules.
Reason (R): Customary rules are the original and oldest source of International Law.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
19. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted on
(A) December 10, 1948
(B) November 10, 1948
(C) October 20, 1948
(D) January 21, 1948
Ans: A
20. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below select the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Human Rights occupy a significant place in the UN Charter.
Reason (R): Members of the UN have committed themselves to promote respect for and observance of human rights and fundamental rights.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
21. Adultery by a Hindu husband is
(A) Ground of divorce only
(B) Not a ground of divorce
(C) Ground of judicial separation
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
22. ‘A’ marries ‘B’, the widow of the elder brother. The marriage is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
23. Marriage with an impotent and has not been consummated. The marriage is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Nullity
(D) Irregular
Ans: C
24. ‘Khula’ is a form of divorce by
(A) Sale
(B) Purchase
(C) Agreement
(D) Coercion
Ans: B
25. Muta marriage could not be dissolved
(A) Ipso facto by the efflux of the period
(B) By death
(C) By divorce
(D) By Hiba-i-Mudat
Ans: C
26. The word ‘Secular’ was added in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by
(A) First Amendment Act
(B) Seventh Amendment Act
(C) Forty-Second Amendment Act
(D) Forty-Fourth Amendment Act
Ans: C
27. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of
(A) Religion, race and caste only.
(B) Religion, caste and sex only.
(C) Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only.
(D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Ans: D
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
I. Deletion of fundamental right to freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property. (a) Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act.
II. Insertion of the word ‘integrity’ to the Preamble of the Constitution. (b) Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act.
III. Inclusion of right to education as fundamental right under Article 21A (c) Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act.
IV. Insertion of Clause (5) in Article 15. (d) Constitution (Ninety-Third Amendment) Act.
Codes:
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) (b) (a) (c) (d)
(B) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(D) (c) (b) (a) (d)
Ans: A
29. Which provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 355
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 360
Ans: B
30. ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include ‘right to die’. This observation was made by the Supreme Court in
(A) P. Rathinam V. Union of India
(B) Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab
(C) Both (A) and (B) above.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
31. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) In India, consideration must follow…..from promise only.
(B) In India, consideration must follow……from only promisor or only promise.
(C) In India, consideration must follow……from promisor or any other person.
(D) In India, consideration must follow…..promise or any other person.
Ans: D
32. Assertion (A): Collateral transactions to wagering agreements are valid.
Reason (R): Only wagering agreements are declared void under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
Ans: D
33. Liability in torts depends on
(A) Quantum of damages suffered
(B) Involvement of intention
(C) Infringement of legal right
(D) Effect of public interest
Ans: C
34. Which of the following ingredients are essential to make master liable for the acts of the servant?
(1) Tort was committed by the servant.
(2) Tort was committed in the course of employment.
(3) Express authority was given by master.
(4) Master has knowledge of all constituent offers of tort.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 2
Ans: D
35. Which of the following is an essential constituent of negligence?
(1) Defendant was under or legal duty to exercise due care
(2) This duty was owed to plantiff
(3) Defendant committed breach of such duty
(4) That the breach of such duty was the direct and proximate cause of the damage alleged.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: B
36. Which one of the following is not a good defence in suits for damages or negligence?
(A) Contributory Negligence
(B) Express contract with plantiff
(C) Express contract where statute prohibits
(D) Voluntary assumptions of risk
Ans: C
37. Match List –I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
(a) Rayland vs Fletcher 1.
Compensation for pain and suffering
(b) Donoghue V Stevenson 2. Loss caused by Competition in business
(c) Gludster Grammer School Case 3. Strict liability
(d) Rose vs. Ford 4. Liability of minor for tests
5. Liability for negligence
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 5
(C) 3 5 2 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans: C
38. Assertion (A): Tort is a civil wrong redressible by an action for unliquidated damages only.
Reason (R): Law does not provide compensation in the nature of liquidated damages.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
39. ‘Z’ while walking along a deserted road at night during winter saw a just born baby abandoned on a side. Fora moment be realized that he could save the baby without appreciable trouble, expense or loss of his time and also felt that if the baby is left over unprotected, it might die. But he did nothing and went away. ‘P’ another person also passed through that road and saw the baby and acted just like ‘Z’ and went away. Next morning the infant baby died of exposure.
Decide who is responsible?
(A) Only ‘Z’ who saw first
(B) ‘P’ for omitting to be compassionate
(C) Both ‘Z’ and ‘P’ for negligence
(D) Neither ‘Z’ nor ‘P’ is responsible
Ans: D
40. Decide on whom criminal liability can be fixed on the following: The accused ‘P’ caught hold of the victim and exhorted on the main accused ‘L’ to strike the victim; upon which he inflicted a kirpan wound and consequently the victim died.
Assertions:
(i) ‘P’ is liable for punishment.
(ii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both liable for common intention.
(iii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both responsible for victim’s death for having common object.
(iv) ‘P’ is not liable for any offence.
Reasons:
(A) (i) is quite possible
(B) (ii) is reasonable
(C) (iii) is as occasion demands
(D) (iv) is most accurate
Ans: D
41. ‘M’ a quack, an uneducated in matters of surgery, had performed an operation on a man for internal piles with the help of ordinary Knife, unlike previous occasions, for which the man died due to hemorrhage. Decide on ‘M’’s liability.
(i) ‘M’ is a recognised quack and hence not liable.
(ii) ‘M’’s profession is not legally acceptable hence liable.
(iii) ‘M’ is not liable because the man consented for such operation.
(iv) ‘M’ is not liable because it was a post – operational syndrome
The probable answer is:
(A) Statement (i) is correct
(B) Statement (ii) is correct
(C) Statement (iii) is correct
(D) Statement (iii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: B
42. Fill in the gap.
‘P’ in support of a just claim of ‘Q’ has stated against ‘Z’, for a sum of Rupees one thousand and falsely sweared on a trial that he heard ‘Z’ admitted as to the just claim of ‘Q’.
The court decides that it was an affirmation of ________.
(A) Statement of truth
(B) False evidence
(C) Making a declaration
(D) None of them
Ans: B
43. One of the essentials of holding a person responsible for dowry death is
(A) Subjected to harassment by peer groups.
(B) Subjected to harassment for dowry
(C) Subjected to harassment under suspicious circumstances
(D) All of them
Ans: B
44. Fill in the gap:
An act of grievous hurt is always inferred through enormity to ________ and not merely a slight more than a frolic.
(A) Murder
(B) Bodily injury
(C) Amputation
(D) All of them
Ans: A
45. Assertion (A): Before Bangalore Water Supply case educational institutions were excluded from the definition of an industry.
Reason (R): Main purpose of such institutions is to impart education, and not to run business or trade.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
46. An individual dispute becomes industrial dispute when it is taken up by
(A) Union only.
(B) Union or substantial number of workmen.
(C) Continuous support of union.
(D) Subsequent support of union.
Ans: B
47. Which of the following statements are true?
I. All employees are workmen.
II. All employees are not workmen.
III. All workmen are employees.
IV. All managerial staff is workmen.
Codes:
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV
(D) I and III
Ans: B
48. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that medical representative is not workman?
(A) Standard Vacuum Oil Company V. Commissioner of Labour
(B) Anand Bazar Patrika V. Its Workmen
(C) Workmen V. Greaves Cotton & Co.
(D) J & J Dechane V. State of Kerala
Ans: D
49. Which one of the following statement is true?
(A) The general funds of a registered trade union shall not be spent on the payment of salaries.
(B) A registered Trade union may constitute a separate fund for the promotion of the civic and political interests.
(C) No appeal lies against the order of refusal of the Registrar to register a Trade union.
(D) Every registered Trade Union shall not be a body corporate.
Ans: B
50. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Subject) (Provisions of Trade Union Act, 1926)
(i) Appointment of Registrar 1. Section 24
(ii) Appeal 2. Section 10
(iii) Amalgamation of Trade Unions 3. Section 3
(iv) Cancellation of registration 4. Section 11
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 2 1
Ans: C
51. In Islamic Law, marriage is both ‘Ibadt’ and ‘Mammulat’. Who said this?
(A) Amir Ali Justice
(B) Dr. Fayzee
(C) Abdur-Rahim
(D) Mahmood Justice
Ans: C
52. A Muslim husband can delegate his right of Talaq to
(A) Any other person
(B) Wife only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
53. A Muslim minor wife can cease her right to repudiate the marriage in case:
(A) When she attained the age of puberty.
(B) When the marriage was consummated before attaining the age of puberty.
(C) When she is less than 18 years of age.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
54. Find correct answer using codes given below: Following are main approaches to explain nature and meaning of human rights:
(i) The scientific right theory
(ii) The moral right theory
(iii) The natural right theory
(iv) The legal right theory
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
Ans: C
55. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): The purpose of Human Rights is to provide protection against the abuse of power committed by the organs of State.
Reason (R): Due to absence of Lok Pal the misuse of power by the State cannot be effectively checked.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
56. Match item in Table-A with items in Table-B using codes given below:
Table – A Table – B
(a) The first generation of Human Rights (i) Idealistic Theory of Law
(b) The second generation of Human Rights (ii) Collective Rights
(c) The third generation of Human Rights (iii) Civil and Political Rights
(d) Theoretical approach to Human Rights (iv) Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ans: B
57. In Indian Constitution, Civil and Political Rights given in its
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part IX
Ans: B
58. “No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.” Above law is in
(A) Article 21 of the Indian Constitution
(B) Criminal Procedure Code
(C) Civil Procedure Code
(D) Article 9 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Ans: D
59. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): Advancement of rights of women has been the concern of world community since the end of Second World War.
Reason (R): In Second World War, population of men was significantly decreased.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
60. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): The child must be given the means requisite for his normal development, both materially and spiritually.
Reason (R): Spirituality is material and material is spiritual.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
61. State which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Liability in tort arises from breach of duty primarily fixed by law.
(B) The duty, breach of which results in tortious liability, is towards the public generally.
(C) The duty, breach of which results in liability in tort, is towards some person in particular.
(D) The breach of duty, which results in liability in tort, is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages.
Ans: D
62. The plaintiff was watching a cricket match at a stadium organized by the Cricket Club of India. He wasseriously injured by a mighty hitfrom the batsman. In this case, whois liable to pay the damages to the plaintiff?
(A) The Batsman
(B) The Cricket Club of India
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
63. Which one of the following sets correctly identifies the specific defence available in an action for defamation?
(A) Privilege, Truth, Fair comment.
(B) Privilege, Mistake, Fair comment.
(C) Truth, Mistake, Fair comment.
(D) Truth, Privilege, Mistake.
Ans: A
64. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): Pleading lack of intention to defame someone does not absolve one from liability for defamation.
Reason (R): The essence of defamation lies in the lowering a person in the estimation of the right thinking members of the society, even without intention.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
65. Assertion (A): In India, defendants collecting water in reservoirs have not been held liable for damage caused due to the escape of water from these reservoirs in absence of negligence.
Reason (R): The rule of strict liability laid down in Rylands vs. Fletcher case has been held to be not applicable in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
66. Assertion (A): In tort of nuisance, interference by the defendant may cause damage to the plaintiff’s property or personal discomfort in the enjoyment of property.
Reason (R): Every interference in the use of property is a nuisance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
67. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Composition of the District Forum (i) Section 10, C.P. Act
(b) Complaint to be accompanied by court fee (ii) Section 17, C.P. Act
(c) Jurisdiction of the State Commission (iii) Section 23, C.P. Act
(d) Appeals from National Commission to the Supreme Court (iv) Section 12(2) C.P. Act
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: B
68. Find correct legal principle from following statements:
(A) A company may do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment of its objects or which is otherwise not authorized by the Act.
(B) A company may not do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment of its objects which is otherwise not authorized by the Act.
(C) A company may do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment ofits objects or which is otherwise authorized by the Act.
(D) A company may do an act which is unnecessary for or not incidental to attainment of its goals or which is otherwise barred by the Act.
Ans: C
69. Match items from Table-A with items in Table-B, using codes given below:
Table – A Table – B
(a) Lakshmi Ratan Cotton Mills vs. J.K. Jute Mills Co., AIR1957 AII 311 (i) Director’s duty of care, diligence and skill
(b) Automatic Self-cleansing Filter Syndicate Co. Ltd. vs. Cuninghame, (1906) 2 Ch.34 (ii) Statutory protection to Directors against liability
(c) G. Ramesh vs. ROC, (2007) 135 Comp Cas 655 (iii) Powers of Directors
(d) City Equitable Fire Insurance Company, Re, (1924) AII E Rep 485 (iv) Scope of authority of Directors
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Ans: A
70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): A contract of sale may be absolute or conditional.
Reason (R): There is no absolute condition for a contract of sale.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
71. “Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer, the contract is called a sale, but where the transfer of the property in the goods is to take place at a future time or subject to some condition thereafter to be fulfilled, the contract is called an agreement to sell.”
Read above statement and find correct answer, using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Contract of sale is conditional.
(B) Contract of agreement to sell is conditional.
(C) There is no difference between sale and agreement to sell, as both are contracts.
(D) Sale is a contract; agreement to sell is not a contract.
Ans: B
72. Essential feature of a partnership is
(i) Agreement
(ii) Object to carry on a business
(iii) To share profits
(iv) Business is to be carried by all or any of them acting for all.
Codes:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of above are correct
Ans: D
73. Find the correct legal statement from following statements:
(A) Every partner is liable, severally with all the other partners and jointly for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
(B) Every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and severally for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
(C) Every partner is liable only foracts done by him as acts of thefirm done while he is a partner.
(D) Sleeping partner is not liable for acts done by him as acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
Ans: B
74. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): It is the duty of the banker to be acquainted with the customer’s handwriting.
Reason (R): A banker must be hand writing expert.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
75. When a negotiable instrument is dishonored, the party liable to pay, becomes bound to pay compensation to
(A) The bank
(B) The endorser
(C) Holder or endorsee
(D) The Court
Ans: C
76. In which of the offences the actual commission of offence is not punished but it’s attempt is punished?
(A) When the execution of murder falls short.
(B) Causing miscarriage.
(C) Suicide.
(D) Exposure with intention to abandon the child.
Ans: C
77. An offender claiming exemption of criminal liability under Section 84 of Indian Penal Code must be incapable of knowing
(A) the nature of the act
(B) the act was contrary to law
(C) the act was wrong
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
78. There is no right of private defence against an act done, by any person under the direction of a public servant but is subjected to fulfilment of certain condition like
(A) the act must be done in good faith.
(B) the direction was not strictly justifiable by law.
(C) The directed act has not been generated reasonable apprehension of death.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: D
79. The Indian Penal Code makes a broad distinction between principal wrong doer and an abettor and does not recognize the accessory except in case of harboring when
(A) Instigating a person to commit an offence.
(B) Engaging in a conspiracy to commit an offence.
(C) Intentionally aiding a person to commit an offence.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: D
80. In order to attract application of Sec.304-B of Indian Penal Code it is essential that the death has occurred within ______.
(A) Seven years but as engagement is part of marriage the period of limitation should be counted from that date.
(B) Actual death should have occurred within seven years of her marriage.
(C) Actual cruelty should have been for demand of dowry whether or not death resulted after seven years of marriage.
(D) Depends upon possibility to ruling out an accidental death within the period of seven years.
Ans: B
81. Administration of unwholesome drug is strictly punishable under law even though it may not cause hurt. Under what provision of law punishment can be inflicted?
(A) Section 324
(B) Section 328
(C) Section 326
(D) All of the above
Ans: B
82. A police officer arrested a person without warrant who was drunk and creating disturbance in a public street. The action of police amounts to ______.
(A) Detention
(B) Wrongful confinement
(C) Wrongful restrain
(D) None of them
Ans: B
83. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 shall have precedence over other laws and therefore, the provisions of the Act shall have effect despite the inconsistency with the provisions of any other enactment. However it is subject to
(A) The Mines Act, 1952
(B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
(C) The Factories Act, 1948
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
84. Which of the following is popularly known as “Forest Conservation Case”?
(A) Environment Awareness Forum Vs. State of J & K, 1999 1 SCC 210
(B) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulk Pad Vs. Union of India, 1997 2 SCC 267
(C) M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India, 1992 1 SCC 358
(D) Tata Engineering & Locomotive Co. Ltd Vs State of Bihar, 2000 5 SCC 346
Ans: B
85. Taj Trapezium case is between
(A) Indian Council for Enviro- Legal Action Vs. Union of India, 1996 3 SCC 212
(B) Ramji Patel Vs Nagarik Upbhokta Marg Darshak Manch, 2000 3 SCC 29
(C) Vineet Kumar Mathur Vs. Union of India, 1996 7 SCC 714
(D) M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India, 1997 2 SCC 353
Ans: D
86. The increased noise level can cause loss of hearing and irreversible changes in nervous system. Mention the Safe Noise Level fixed by the World Health Organisation.
(A) 80 decibels
(B) 90 decibels
(C) 60 decibels
(D) 45 decibels
Ans: D
87. The United Nations proclaimed which of the following day as the “International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade”?
(A) 10th Nov. 1980
(B) 12th Sept. 1980
(C) 10th Nov. 1990
(D) 12th Sept. 1990
Ans: A
88. The Central or State Board under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is required to meet at least
(A) every one month
(B) every two months
(C) every three months
(D) every six months
Ans: C
89. The “precautionary principle” and the “polluter pays principle” are part of the Environmental Law of our country.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly true and partly false
(D) None
Ans: A
90. “International Law is defined as Law of Nations or International Law is the name for the body of customary and conventional rules which are considered legally binding by civilized States in their relation with each other.”
Above statement is attributed to
(A) Charles G.Fenwick
(B) J.G. Starke
(C) J.L. Brierly
(D) L. Oppenheim
Ans: D
91. Assertion (A): Custom is a rule of conduct, obligatory on part of those who are within its sphere, established by long usage and practice.
Reason (R): Rule of conduct are obligatory in any established sphere.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
92. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Pacta tertius nec nocent nec prosunt, means the UN Charter cannot bind non members.
(B) The General Assembly has the essential element of binding decision.
(C) The Security Council is an advisory body only.
(D) The Security Council may never take action involving use of armed forces.
Ans: A
93. In which case the following principle was laid down?
“The absence of one party’s consent to jurisdiction when proceedings were instituted was cured by subsequent consent to jurisdiction given outside, and without specific reference to the proceedings before the court.”
(A) Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case (Jurisdiction), PCIJ Series A, No. 2, P. 34.
(B) Corfu Channel case (Preliminary objections), ICJ Rep. 1952, PP. 102 – 03.
(C) Electricity Co. of Sofia case, Series A/B. No. 77, P. 77.
(D) Right of Passage Over Indian Territory case (Preliminary objections), ICJ Rep., 1957, P. 125.
Ans: A
94. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(i) Positive International Morality (a) Treatycontract
(ii) Source of International Law (b) Stepping into shoes of another
(iii) Agreement of States (c) Judicial pronouncements
(iv) Subrogation (d) John Austin
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(B) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (c) (a) (b)
Ans: D
95. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) A recommendation of General Assembly may be without true legal effect, it may have effects of a moral and political character.
(B) A decision of General Assembly may be with true legal effect, it may not be without effects of a moral and political character.
(C) A decision of General Assembly is immoral and unethical, if it is without true legal effect.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A
96. Legal effects of recognition are
(i) Recognised State can sue in municipal courts of recognizing State.
(ii) Recognised State can claim possession of property situated within jurisdiction of the recognizing State which formerly belonged to preceding government.
(iii) The recognized State becomes entitled to claim sovereign immunity from being impleaded in the municipal courts of the recognizing State.
(iv) The recognized State acquires the capacity to enter into diplomatic relations with other States and to conclude treaties with them.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
97. Which one of the following is not condition with regard to the persons who may be adopted, under Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?
(A) He or she must be a Hindu.
(B) He or she must has not already been adopted.
(C) He or she must consent to adoption.
(D) He or she must has not completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is custom.
Ans: C
98. The right to contract a minor in marriage under Muslim Law, belongs, successively to
I. Father
II. Mother
III. Paternal grand father
IV. Brother
Codes:
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) II, III, IV, I
Ans: B
99. Under Section 19 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a petition in a Matrimonial case has to be filed at the place
(A) where the respondent, at the time of the presentation of the petition, resides.
(B) where the parties to the marriage last resided together.
(C) in case the wife is the petitioner, where she is residing on the date of presentation of the petition.
(D) All the above.
Ans: D
100. In which of the following case the question of constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, came for consideration for the first time?
(A) Saroja Rani V. Sundarshan Kumar
(B) Bipin Chandra V. Prabhavati
(C) Savitry Pandey V. Premchandra Pandey
(D) Lachman V. Meena
Ans: A
(A) Amir Ali Justice
(B) Dr. Fayzee
(C) Abdur-Rahim
(D) Mahmood Justice
Ans: C
52. A Muslim husband can delegate his right of Talaq to
(A) Any other person
(B) Wife only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
53. A Muslim minor wife can cease her right to repudiate the marriage in case:
(A) When she attained the age of puberty.
(B) When the marriage was consummated before attaining the age of puberty.
(C) When she is less than 18 years of age.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
54. Find correct answer using codes given below: Following are main approaches to explain nature and meaning of human rights:
(i) The scientific right theory
(ii) The moral right theory
(iii) The natural right theory
(iv) The legal right theory
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
Ans: C
55. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): The purpose of Human Rights is to provide protection against the abuse of power committed by the organs of State.
Reason (R): Due to absence of Lok Pal the misuse of power by the State cannot be effectively checked.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: B
56. Match item in Table-A with items in Table-B using codes given below:
Table – A Table – B
(a) The first generation of Human Rights (i) Idealistic Theory of Law
(b) The second generation of Human Rights (ii) Collective Rights
(c) The third generation of Human Rights (iii) Civil and Political Rights
(d) Theoretical approach to Human Rights (iv) Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ans: B
57. In Indian Constitution, Civil and Political Rights given in its
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part IX
Ans: B
58. “No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.” Above law is in
(A) Article 21 of the Indian Constitution
(B) Criminal Procedure Code
(C) Civil Procedure Code
(D) Article 9 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Ans: D
59. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): Advancement of rights of women has been the concern of world community since the end of Second World War.
Reason (R): In Second World War, population of men was significantly decreased.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
60. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): The child must be given the means requisite for his normal development, both materially and spiritually.
Reason (R): Spirituality is material and material is spiritual.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
61. State which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Liability in tort arises from breach of duty primarily fixed by law.
(B) The duty, breach of which results in tortious liability, is towards the public generally.
(C) The duty, breach of which results in liability in tort, is towards some person in particular.
(D) The breach of duty, which results in liability in tort, is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages.
Ans: D
62. The plaintiff was watching a cricket match at a stadium organized by the Cricket Club of India. He wasseriously injured by a mighty hitfrom the batsman. In this case, whois liable to pay the damages to the plaintiff?
(A) The Batsman
(B) The Cricket Club of India
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
63. Which one of the following sets correctly identifies the specific defence available in an action for defamation?
(A) Privilege, Truth, Fair comment.
(B) Privilege, Mistake, Fair comment.
(C) Truth, Mistake, Fair comment.
(D) Truth, Privilege, Mistake.
Ans: A
64. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): Pleading lack of intention to defame someone does not absolve one from liability for defamation.
Reason (R): The essence of defamation lies in the lowering a person in the estimation of the right thinking members of the society, even without intention.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
65. Assertion (A): In India, defendants collecting water in reservoirs have not been held liable for damage caused due to the escape of water from these reservoirs in absence of negligence.
Reason (R): The rule of strict liability laid down in Rylands vs. Fletcher case has been held to be not applicable in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
66. Assertion (A): In tort of nuisance, interference by the defendant may cause damage to the plaintiff’s property or personal discomfort in the enjoyment of property.
Reason (R): Every interference in the use of property is a nuisance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
67. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Composition of the District Forum (i) Section 10, C.P. Act
(b) Complaint to be accompanied by court fee (ii) Section 17, C.P. Act
(c) Jurisdiction of the State Commission (iii) Section 23, C.P. Act
(d) Appeals from National Commission to the Supreme Court (iv) Section 12(2) C.P. Act
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: B
68. Find correct legal principle from following statements:
(A) A company may do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment of its objects or which is otherwise not authorized by the Act.
(B) A company may not do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment of its objects which is otherwise not authorized by the Act.
(C) A company may do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment ofits objects or which is otherwise authorized by the Act.
(D) A company may do an act which is unnecessary for or not incidental to attainment of its goals or which is otherwise barred by the Act.
Ans: C
69. Match items from Table-A with items in Table-B, using codes given below:
Table – A Table – B
(a) Lakshmi Ratan Cotton Mills vs. J.K. Jute Mills Co., AIR1957 AII 311 (i) Director’s duty of care, diligence and skill
(b) Automatic Self-cleansing Filter Syndicate Co. Ltd. vs. Cuninghame, (1906) 2 Ch.34 (ii) Statutory protection to Directors against liability
(c) G. Ramesh vs. ROC, (2007) 135 Comp Cas 655 (iii) Powers of Directors
(d) City Equitable Fire Insurance Company, Re, (1924) AII E Rep 485 (iv) Scope of authority of Directors
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Ans: A
70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): A contract of sale may be absolute or conditional.
Reason (R): There is no absolute condition for a contract of sale.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
71. “Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer, the contract is called a sale, but where the transfer of the property in the goods is to take place at a future time or subject to some condition thereafter to be fulfilled, the contract is called an agreement to sell.”
Read above statement and find correct answer, using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Contract of sale is conditional.
(B) Contract of agreement to sell is conditional.
(C) There is no difference between sale and agreement to sell, as both are contracts.
(D) Sale is a contract; agreement to sell is not a contract.
Ans: B
72. Essential feature of a partnership is
(i) Agreement
(ii) Object to carry on a business
(iii) To share profits
(iv) Business is to be carried by all or any of them acting for all.
Codes:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of above are correct
Ans: D
73. Find the correct legal statement from following statements:
(A) Every partner is liable, severally with all the other partners and jointly for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
(B) Every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and severally for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
(C) Every partner is liable only foracts done by him as acts of thefirm done while he is a partner.
(D) Sleeping partner is not liable for acts done by him as acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
Ans: B
74. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): It is the duty of the banker to be acquainted with the customer’s handwriting.
Reason (R): A banker must be hand writing expert.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: C
75. When a negotiable instrument is dishonored, the party liable to pay, becomes bound to pay compensation to
(A) The bank
(B) The endorser
(C) Holder or endorsee
(D) The Court
Ans: C
76. In which of the offences the actual commission of offence is not punished but it’s attempt is punished?
(A) When the execution of murder falls short.
(B) Causing miscarriage.
(C) Suicide.
(D) Exposure with intention to abandon the child.
Ans: C
77. An offender claiming exemption of criminal liability under Section 84 of Indian Penal Code must be incapable of knowing
(A) the nature of the act
(B) the act was contrary to law
(C) the act was wrong
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
78. There is no right of private defence against an act done, by any person under the direction of a public servant but is subjected to fulfilment of certain condition like
(A) the act must be done in good faith.
(B) the direction was not strictly justifiable by law.
(C) The directed act has not been generated reasonable apprehension of death.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: D
79. The Indian Penal Code makes a broad distinction between principal wrong doer and an abettor and does not recognize the accessory except in case of harboring when
(A) Instigating a person to commit an offence.
(B) Engaging in a conspiracy to commit an offence.
(C) Intentionally aiding a person to commit an offence.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: D
80. In order to attract application of Sec.304-B of Indian Penal Code it is essential that the death has occurred within ______.
(A) Seven years but as engagement is part of marriage the period of limitation should be counted from that date.
(B) Actual death should have occurred within seven years of her marriage.
(C) Actual cruelty should have been for demand of dowry whether or not death resulted after seven years of marriage.
(D) Depends upon possibility to ruling out an accidental death within the period of seven years.
Ans: B
81. Administration of unwholesome drug is strictly punishable under law even though it may not cause hurt. Under what provision of law punishment can be inflicted?
(A) Section 324
(B) Section 328
(C) Section 326
(D) All of the above
Ans: B
82. A police officer arrested a person without warrant who was drunk and creating disturbance in a public street. The action of police amounts to ______.
(A) Detention
(B) Wrongful confinement
(C) Wrongful restrain
(D) None of them
Ans: B
83. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 shall have precedence over other laws and therefore, the provisions of the Act shall have effect despite the inconsistency with the provisions of any other enactment. However it is subject to
(A) The Mines Act, 1952
(B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
(C) The Factories Act, 1948
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
84. Which of the following is popularly known as “Forest Conservation Case”?
(A) Environment Awareness Forum Vs. State of J & K, 1999 1 SCC 210
(B) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulk Pad Vs. Union of India, 1997 2 SCC 267
(C) M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India, 1992 1 SCC 358
(D) Tata Engineering & Locomotive Co. Ltd Vs State of Bihar, 2000 5 SCC 346
Ans: B
85. Taj Trapezium case is between
(A) Indian Council for Enviro- Legal Action Vs. Union of India, 1996 3 SCC 212
(B) Ramji Patel Vs Nagarik Upbhokta Marg Darshak Manch, 2000 3 SCC 29
(C) Vineet Kumar Mathur Vs. Union of India, 1996 7 SCC 714
(D) M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India, 1997 2 SCC 353
Ans: D
86. The increased noise level can cause loss of hearing and irreversible changes in nervous system. Mention the Safe Noise Level fixed by the World Health Organisation.
(A) 80 decibels
(B) 90 decibels
(C) 60 decibels
(D) 45 decibels
Ans: D
87. The United Nations proclaimed which of the following day as the “International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade”?
(A) 10th Nov. 1980
(B) 12th Sept. 1980
(C) 10th Nov. 1990
(D) 12th Sept. 1990
Ans: A
88. The Central or State Board under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is required to meet at least
(A) every one month
(B) every two months
(C) every three months
(D) every six months
Ans: C
89. The “precautionary principle” and the “polluter pays principle” are part of the Environmental Law of our country.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly true and partly false
(D) None
Ans: A
90. “International Law is defined as Law of Nations or International Law is the name for the body of customary and conventional rules which are considered legally binding by civilized States in their relation with each other.”
Above statement is attributed to
(A) Charles G.Fenwick
(B) J.G. Starke
(C) J.L. Brierly
(D) L. Oppenheim
Ans: D
91. Assertion (A): Custom is a rule of conduct, obligatory on part of those who are within its sphere, established by long usage and practice.
Reason (R): Rule of conduct are obligatory in any established sphere.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
92. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Pacta tertius nec nocent nec prosunt, means the UN Charter cannot bind non members.
(B) The General Assembly has the essential element of binding decision.
(C) The Security Council is an advisory body only.
(D) The Security Council may never take action involving use of armed forces.
Ans: A
93. In which case the following principle was laid down?
“The absence of one party’s consent to jurisdiction when proceedings were instituted was cured by subsequent consent to jurisdiction given outside, and without specific reference to the proceedings before the court.”
(A) Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case (Jurisdiction), PCIJ Series A, No. 2, P. 34.
(B) Corfu Channel case (Preliminary objections), ICJ Rep. 1952, PP. 102 – 03.
(C) Electricity Co. of Sofia case, Series A/B. No. 77, P. 77.
(D) Right of Passage Over Indian Territory case (Preliminary objections), ICJ Rep., 1957, P. 125.
Ans: A
94. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(i) Positive International Morality (a) Treatycontract
(ii) Source of International Law (b) Stepping into shoes of another
(iii) Agreement of States (c) Judicial pronouncements
(iv) Subrogation (d) John Austin
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(B) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (c) (a) (b)
Ans: D
95. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) A recommendation of General Assembly may be without true legal effect, it may have effects of a moral and political character.
(B) A decision of General Assembly may be with true legal effect, it may not be without effects of a moral and political character.
(C) A decision of General Assembly is immoral and unethical, if it is without true legal effect.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A
96. Legal effects of recognition are
(i) Recognised State can sue in municipal courts of recognizing State.
(ii) Recognised State can claim possession of property situated within jurisdiction of the recognizing State which formerly belonged to preceding government.
(iii) The recognized State becomes entitled to claim sovereign immunity from being impleaded in the municipal courts of the recognizing State.
(iv) The recognized State acquires the capacity to enter into diplomatic relations with other States and to conclude treaties with them.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans: D
97. Which one of the following is not condition with regard to the persons who may be adopted, under Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?
(A) He or she must be a Hindu.
(B) He or she must has not already been adopted.
(C) He or she must consent to adoption.
(D) He or she must has not completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is custom.
Ans: C
98. The right to contract a minor in marriage under Muslim Law, belongs, successively to
I. Father
II. Mother
III. Paternal grand father
IV. Brother
Codes:
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) II, III, IV, I
Ans: B
99. Under Section 19 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a petition in a Matrimonial case has to be filed at the place
(A) where the respondent, at the time of the presentation of the petition, resides.
(B) where the parties to the marriage last resided together.
(C) in case the wife is the petitioner, where she is residing on the date of presentation of the petition.
(D) All the above.
Ans: D
100. In which of the following case the question of constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, came for consideration for the first time?
(A) Saroja Rani V. Sundarshan Kumar
(B) Bipin Chandra V. Prabhavati
(C) Savitry Pandey V. Premchandra Pandey
(D) Lachman V. Meena
Ans: A