LAW- PAGE 13 |
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1. In E.P. Royappa case which of the Supreme Court Judge propounded the new concept of Equality as “Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be ‘crippled, combined and confined’ within traditional and doctrinaire limits”?
(A) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagawati
(C) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(D) Justice O.P. Chinnapa Reddy
Ans: B
2. The State shall make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief is found
(A) As a part of the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
(B) As a Fundamental Right under Art 21 of the Constitution of India.
(C) As a Directive Principle of the State Policy.
(D) As a Fundamental Duty of the State.
Ans: C
3. Fundamental duties under Part IVA was inserted in the Constitution by
(A) 17th Amendment
(B) 25th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
Ans: C
4. The powers of the President of India are
(A) Supra-Constitutional
(B) Beyond the Constitution
(C) In accordance with the Parliament of India
(D) In accordance with the Constitution of India
Ans: D
5. Which one of the following has been considered as authority of power?
(A) The Constitution of India
(B) The President of India
(C) The Parliament of India
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Ans: A
6. In which of the following judgmentsit was held that according to Art. 226, Courts are flooded with large number of PIL, so it is desirable for Courts to filter out frivolous petitions and dismiss them with costs?
(A) Deepak Sharma vs. Vineeta Sharma
(B) Dharampal vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(C) Holicow Pictures Pvt. Ltd. vs. Premchandra Mishra
(D) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
Ans: C
7. A resolution for the revocation of the proclamation of National Emergency may be moved by
(A) Ten members of Lok Sabha
(B) One-fifth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
(C) One-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
(D) One-fifteenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
Ans: C
8. Answer the following using the codes given below:
Administrative Law deals with:
(i) Composition, powers and functions of the administrative authorities.
(ii) Procedures to be followed by the administrative authorities in the exercise of their powers and functions.
(iii) Methods of control of powers of the administrative authorities.
(iv) Remedies available to a person in case of violation of his rights by the administrative authorities.
Code:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of the above are correct.
Ans: D
9. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation:
Assertion (A): One of the principles of natural justice is, ‘No man shall be judge in his own cause’.
Reason (R): Principles of natural justice require fair play in action.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: A
10. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) A.K. Kraipak vs. Union of India (i) Post decisional hearing
(b) ManakLal vs. Dr. Prem Chand (ii) Personal bias
(c) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (iii) Pecuniary bias
(d) Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation (iv) Reasonable opportunity of hearing
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Ans: C
11. Answer the following using the codes given below:
Which of the following doctrines were developed by the Court to control the administrative actions?
(i) Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel.
(ii) Doctrine of Legitimate Expectations.
(iii) Doctrine of Separation of Power and Rule of Law.
(iv) Judicial Activism.
Codes:
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of the above are correct.
Ans: D
12. Answer the following using the codes given below:
In which of the following grounds the judicial review of an administrative action be made?
(i) Abuse of discretion
(ii) Mala fide or bad faith
(iii) Irrelevant consideration
(iv) Unreasonableness
Codes:
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
13. A writ of mandamus will not lie against
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Local authorities
(D) Courts and Tribunals
Ans: A
14. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Bring the body before the Court (i) Writ of Mandamus
(b) Petitioner’s legal right to compel the performance of public duty (ii) Writ of Certiorari
(c) By what authority a person is holding the public post (iii) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(d) Action ofsubordinate Courtin violation of theprinciples ofnatural justice (iv) Writ of Quowarranto
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Ans: B
15. Which one of the following States has not yet established the institution of Lokayukta?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
16. “A legal person is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality.” Who said these words?
(A) Savigny
(B) Bentham
(C) Austin
(D) Salmond
Ans: D
17. “Pure theory of Law is an exercise in logic and not life.” This observation was made by
(A) Pound
(B) Savigny
(C) Maine
(D) Harold Laski
Ans: D
18. “Law is derived from social facts and not dependent on State authority but on social compulsion.” Who said this?
(A) Putchta
(B) Ehrlich
(C) Friedman
(D) Pound
Ans: B
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Sieuteretero out alierum non laedas: To use your own property as not to injure your neighbour’s right
(B) Re Legitima Portis: A person cannot dispose of his entire property
(C) Jus turtii: To set up title of a third person other than himself or the plaintiff
(D) Nec vi neccalurprecario: Possession must show to the competitor
Ans: D
20. Assertion (A): In India the distinction between legal and equitable ownership is not recognized.
Reason (R): The trustees are, subject to the law relating to trust and trustees, bound to carry out the trust according to the dictates of the maker of the trust.
Examine the above statements (A) and Reason (R) and select whether the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion using the codes given below:
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
21. The purpose theory is based on the assumption that “person is applicable only to human beings; they alone can be the subjects of rural relations”. Who developed this theory of Brinz in England?
(A) Barker
(B) Duguit
(C) Salmond
(D) Hoffman
Ans: A
22. “Ownership in its comprehensive signification denotes the relation between a person and any right that is vested in him. That which a man owns in this sense is in all cases a right.”
Who is the exponent of this theory?
(A) Miss Tay
(B) Maitland
(C) Salmond
(D) Fuller
Ans: C
23. “Legal rights are institutional rights to decisions in Courts. Institutions about justice presuppose a fundamental right, namely, the right to equality, which I call the right to equal concern and respect.”
Who propounded this theory in relation to natural rights?
(A) Dworkin
(B) Fuller
(C) Jerome Hall
(D) Professor Hart
Ans: A
24. Fill in the gap that is mostappropriate.
Whoever entices a girl child of less than 16 years has said to have caused kidnapping out of the keeping of the lawful ______.
(A) Parents
(B) Foster parents
(C) Adopted parents
(D) Guardians
Ans: D
25. Fill in the gap with the offence that the accused has committed. Whoever dishonestly uses any moveable property to his own advantage has committed the offence of ______.
(A) Breach of trust
(B) Wrongful gain
(C) Misappropriation
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
26. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Moral derangement is a state of will and turns to be the vehicle of vicious actions.
Reason II: Crime is committed under the influence of instructive and irresistible impulse.
Codes:
(A) Moral insanity or imbecility is not exempted from criminal liability as per Section 53 of IPC.
(B) Both I and II are correct statements to attract criminal liability as per Section 53 IPC as both are diabolical criminal conduct.
(C) Only by II criminal responsibility can be fixed but not with the help of I.
(D) Mc Naghten’s Rule can be applied in I but not in II.
Ans: B
27. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of given codes point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Consent of husband or wife of the victim does not grant immunity from the offence of bigamy.
Reason II: Sexual offence with the consent of one spouse does not fix liability for adultery.
Codes:
(A) I is correct, but not with the reason of II.
(B) I is correct, but with the support of II.
(C) II is only the correct proposition while I is void.
(D) II is valid when I is not admissible.
Ans: A
28. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: To establish a charge of conspiracy, knowledge about indulgence in an illegal act by certain legal means, is necessary.
Reason II: The normal rule is that when a particular unlawful use being intended has to be inferred from the chain ofactions.
Codes:
(A) I is the judicious cause of conspiracy, because II is the correct explanation.
(B) II is more appropriate explanation than merely fixing charge as per I.
(C) I is the correct proposition as II is optional.
(D) I is not correct because as per II there must be pre-meditation.
Ans: A
29. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Publishing a report of proceedings of a Court will not amount to defamation.
Reason II: It is an exception to the principle of defamation.
Codes:
(A) I is true, because II is the specific objective.
(B) I is true, but II is not the correct proposition.
(C) II is always true, because I isnot dependent.
(D) II is false, because I is always independent of criminal liability.
Ans: A
30. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Independently putting a person in fear of injury to another is extortion.
Reason II: It is an exception to the rule of delivering the valuable security.
Codes:
(A) I istrue, but II is not the correct statement.
(B) I is true, because II is the correct proposition.
(C) Both I and II are independent of proof.
(D) Both I and II are false.
Ans: B
31. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below find out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Disorder of mind which impairs the mental faculties is known as unsoundness of mind as such it acts as defence to a criminal charge.
Reason II: Insanity is the mental abnormality and when it impairs the cognitive faculty and if an act results during that period criminal liability could be exempted.
Codes:
(A) By I there is transgression of harmful acts while II refers to established rules of society for which no prosecution stands.
(B) Both I and II are correct explanations as per Section 84 of IPC.
(C) II is more precise while I isonly a supportive factor.
(D) The true test of I and II is to apply Mc Naghten’s Rule.
Ans: B
32. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, were passed by the Parliament under:
(A) Article 252 of the Constitutionof India.
(B) Article 253 of the Constitution of India.
(C) Article 250 of the Constitution of India.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
33. Which of the following Judges of the Supreme Court is famously known as the “Green Judge”?
(A) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyyar
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Justice Kuldip Singh
(D) Justice B.N. Kirpal
Ans: C
34. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India have been mostly used by the Supreme Court to protect environment?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 21
(C) Both Articles 21 and 32
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
35. What is the period of notice required to be served upon the Central Government for filing a criminal complaint by any person, under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
(A) Not less than 30 days
(B) Not less than 60 days
(C) Not less than 90 days
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
36. Which one of the following cases is considered as “High Water-mark case in Forest Protection” decided by the Supreme Court?
(A) Salebhai Mulla Mohmadali vs. State of Gujarat.
(B) T.N. Godavarman Tirumulkpad vs. Union of India.
(C) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India.
(D) Samatha vs. State of Andhra Pradesh.
Ans: B
37. The Parliament enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 for the control of water pollution:
(A) On the request from States.
(B) Of his own.
(C) On the direction of United Nations.
(D) On the direction of Supreme Court.
Ans: A
38. Under which of the following Articleof the Constitution of India, theprovisions regarding duty of the State “to protect and improvement of environment and safeguard the forest and wildlife”, exist?
(A) Article 51(g)
(B) Article 47
(C) Article 48-A
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
39. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below write the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Under International law extradition is mostly a matter of bilateral treaties.
Reason (R): There is no general duty of States in respect of extradition of criminals.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
40. Which of the following case does not concern with the judgement that a non-recognized State cannot sue in the courts of the State which was not recognized?
(A) Russian Socialist Federated Soviet Republic vs. Cibraria.
(B) Guarantee Trust Company of New York vs. United States.
(C) U.S. vs. Pink.
(D) Bank of Ethiopia vs. National Bank of Egypt and Liquori.
Ans: D
41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List – I List – II
(Name of the Case) (Principle Propounded)
(a) The Caroline case (i) Self- Defence
(b) The Nottebohm case (ii) Effective Nationality
(c) Re Castioni case (iii) Non- Extradition of Political Criminals
(d) U.S. vs. Rouscher (iv) Rule of Specialty
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: A
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List – I List – II
(a) Australia and Prussia exercised joint sovereignty over (i) New Helarides
(b) Great Britain and France exercised joint sovereignty over (ii) Schleswig Holstein Anenburg
(c) Great Britain exercised sovereignty over (iii) Germany
(d) In 1898 China leased the district of Kiaochow to (iv) Turkish Island
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ans: A
43. Which of the following statements is correct? A de-facto government is government:
(A) Whose origin and existence is contrary to the Constitutional law of the State concerned and legality is challenged in International law.
(B) Whose origin and existence is in conformity with the Constitutional law of the State represented and whose legality is uncontested in International law.
(C) Which exercise control over a Foreign State?
(D) Which has been forced to leave the territory of its State due to enemy occupation or civil war?
Ans: A
44. Under which of the following Article of the U.N. Charter there is an obligation to inform the Security Council if the regional arrangements take any enforcement action for maintenance of peace and security?
(A) Article 51
(B) Article 54
(C) Article 107
(D) Article 108
Ans: B
45. In which one of the following cases the permanent court of International justice held, “it is a generally acceptable principle of international law that in relations, between powers, who are contracting parties to a treaty, the provisions of the municipal law cannot prevail over the treaty”?
(A) Navlilaa Incident Case
(B) Greco, Bulgarian Communities Case.
(C) Panevezys Saldutiskis Railway Case
(D) Polish Postal Service Case
Ans: B
46. The wife’s sister’s daughter’s son can be adopted. The adoption is
(A) Void
(B) Valid
(C) Voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
47. Kritrima Adoption is prevalent in which areas of India?
(A) Madras
(B) Banaras
(C) Avadh
(D) Mithila
Ans: D
48. In which case the Supreme Court held that “Cohabitation leads to presumption that person are living as husband and wife”?
(A) Balasubramaniyam vs. Suruttayan AIR 1992 SC 756
(B) Seema vs. Ashwin Kumar AIR 2006 SC 1158
(C) Vishnu Prakash vs. Sheela Devi (2001) 4 SCC 729
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A
49. In which of the case, the Supreme Court held that it is desirable that “all marriages should be Compulsorily Registered in the State, where they are solemnized”?
(A) S. Nagalingamvs. Sivagani AIR (2001) SC 3576
(B) Shanti Dev Berma vs. K.P. Devi AIR (1991) SC 816
(C) SeemaVs Ashwin Kumar AIR 2006 SC 1158
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
50. Rules relating to prohibited degrees are based on the principle of
(A) Monogamy
(B) Polygamy
(C) Exogamy
(D) Endogamy
Ans: C
(A) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagawati
(C) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(D) Justice O.P. Chinnapa Reddy
Ans: B
2. The State shall make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief is found
(A) As a part of the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
(B) As a Fundamental Right under Art 21 of the Constitution of India.
(C) As a Directive Principle of the State Policy.
(D) As a Fundamental Duty of the State.
Ans: C
3. Fundamental duties under Part IVA was inserted in the Constitution by
(A) 17th Amendment
(B) 25th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
Ans: C
4. The powers of the President of India are
(A) Supra-Constitutional
(B) Beyond the Constitution
(C) In accordance with the Parliament of India
(D) In accordance with the Constitution of India
Ans: D
5. Which one of the following has been considered as authority of power?
(A) The Constitution of India
(B) The President of India
(C) The Parliament of India
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Ans: A
6. In which of the following judgmentsit was held that according to Art. 226, Courts are flooded with large number of PIL, so it is desirable for Courts to filter out frivolous petitions and dismiss them with costs?
(A) Deepak Sharma vs. Vineeta Sharma
(B) Dharampal vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(C) Holicow Pictures Pvt. Ltd. vs. Premchandra Mishra
(D) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
Ans: C
7. A resolution for the revocation of the proclamation of National Emergency may be moved by
(A) Ten members of Lok Sabha
(B) One-fifth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
(C) One-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
(D) One-fifteenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
Ans: C
8. Answer the following using the codes given below:
Administrative Law deals with:
(i) Composition, powers and functions of the administrative authorities.
(ii) Procedures to be followed by the administrative authorities in the exercise of their powers and functions.
(iii) Methods of control of powers of the administrative authorities.
(iv) Remedies available to a person in case of violation of his rights by the administrative authorities.
Code:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of the above are correct.
Ans: D
9. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation:
Assertion (A): One of the principles of natural justice is, ‘No man shall be judge in his own cause’.
Reason (R): Principles of natural justice require fair play in action.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans: A
10. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) A.K. Kraipak vs. Union of India (i) Post decisional hearing
(b) ManakLal vs. Dr. Prem Chand (ii) Personal bias
(c) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (iii) Pecuniary bias
(d) Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation (iv) Reasonable opportunity of hearing
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Ans: C
11. Answer the following using the codes given below:
Which of the following doctrines were developed by the Court to control the administrative actions?
(i) Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel.
(ii) Doctrine of Legitimate Expectations.
(iii) Doctrine of Separation of Power and Rule of Law.
(iv) Judicial Activism.
Codes:
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of the above are correct.
Ans: D
12. Answer the following using the codes given below:
In which of the following grounds the judicial review of an administrative action be made?
(i) Abuse of discretion
(ii) Mala fide or bad faith
(iii) Irrelevant consideration
(iv) Unreasonableness
Codes:
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
13. A writ of mandamus will not lie against
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Local authorities
(D) Courts and Tribunals
Ans: A
14. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Bring the body before the Court (i) Writ of Mandamus
(b) Petitioner’s legal right to compel the performance of public duty (ii) Writ of Certiorari
(c) By what authority a person is holding the public post (iii) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(d) Action ofsubordinate Courtin violation of theprinciples ofnatural justice (iv) Writ of Quowarranto
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Ans: B
15. Which one of the following States has not yet established the institution of Lokayukta?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) None of the above
Ans: D
16. “A legal person is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality.” Who said these words?
(A) Savigny
(B) Bentham
(C) Austin
(D) Salmond
Ans: D
17. “Pure theory of Law is an exercise in logic and not life.” This observation was made by
(A) Pound
(B) Savigny
(C) Maine
(D) Harold Laski
Ans: D
18. “Law is derived from social facts and not dependent on State authority but on social compulsion.” Who said this?
(A) Putchta
(B) Ehrlich
(C) Friedman
(D) Pound
Ans: B
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Sieuteretero out alierum non laedas: To use your own property as not to injure your neighbour’s right
(B) Re Legitima Portis: A person cannot dispose of his entire property
(C) Jus turtii: To set up title of a third person other than himself or the plaintiff
(D) Nec vi neccalurprecario: Possession must show to the competitor
Ans: D
20. Assertion (A): In India the distinction between legal and equitable ownership is not recognized.
Reason (R): The trustees are, subject to the law relating to trust and trustees, bound to carry out the trust according to the dictates of the maker of the trust.
Examine the above statements (A) and Reason (R) and select whether the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion using the codes given below:
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
21. The purpose theory is based on the assumption that “person is applicable only to human beings; they alone can be the subjects of rural relations”. Who developed this theory of Brinz in England?
(A) Barker
(B) Duguit
(C) Salmond
(D) Hoffman
Ans: A
22. “Ownership in its comprehensive signification denotes the relation between a person and any right that is vested in him. That which a man owns in this sense is in all cases a right.”
Who is the exponent of this theory?
(A) Miss Tay
(B) Maitland
(C) Salmond
(D) Fuller
Ans: C
23. “Legal rights are institutional rights to decisions in Courts. Institutions about justice presuppose a fundamental right, namely, the right to equality, which I call the right to equal concern and respect.”
Who propounded this theory in relation to natural rights?
(A) Dworkin
(B) Fuller
(C) Jerome Hall
(D) Professor Hart
Ans: A
24. Fill in the gap that is mostappropriate.
Whoever entices a girl child of less than 16 years has said to have caused kidnapping out of the keeping of the lawful ______.
(A) Parents
(B) Foster parents
(C) Adopted parents
(D) Guardians
Ans: D
25. Fill in the gap with the offence that the accused has committed. Whoever dishonestly uses any moveable property to his own advantage has committed the offence of ______.
(A) Breach of trust
(B) Wrongful gain
(C) Misappropriation
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
26. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Moral derangement is a state of will and turns to be the vehicle of vicious actions.
Reason II: Crime is committed under the influence of instructive and irresistible impulse.
Codes:
(A) Moral insanity or imbecility is not exempted from criminal liability as per Section 53 of IPC.
(B) Both I and II are correct statements to attract criminal liability as per Section 53 IPC as both are diabolical criminal conduct.
(C) Only by II criminal responsibility can be fixed but not with the help of I.
(D) Mc Naghten’s Rule can be applied in I but not in II.
Ans: B
27. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of given codes point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Consent of husband or wife of the victim does not grant immunity from the offence of bigamy.
Reason II: Sexual offence with the consent of one spouse does not fix liability for adultery.
Codes:
(A) I is correct, but not with the reason of II.
(B) I is correct, but with the support of II.
(C) II is only the correct proposition while I is void.
(D) II is valid when I is not admissible.
Ans: A
28. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: To establish a charge of conspiracy, knowledge about indulgence in an illegal act by certain legal means, is necessary.
Reason II: The normal rule is that when a particular unlawful use being intended has to be inferred from the chain ofactions.
Codes:
(A) I is the judicious cause of conspiracy, because II is the correct explanation.
(B) II is more appropriate explanation than merely fixing charge as per I.
(C) I is the correct proposition as II is optional.
(D) I is not correct because as per II there must be pre-meditation.
Ans: A
29. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Publishing a report of proceedings of a Court will not amount to defamation.
Reason II: It is an exception to the principle of defamation.
Codes:
(A) I is true, because II is the specific objective.
(B) I is true, but II is not the correct proposition.
(C) II is always true, because I isnot dependent.
(D) II is false, because I is always independent of criminal liability.
Ans: A
30. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Independently putting a person in fear of injury to another is extortion.
Reason II: It is an exception to the rule of delivering the valuable security.
Codes:
(A) I istrue, but II is not the correct statement.
(B) I is true, because II is the correct proposition.
(C) Both I and II are independent of proof.
(D) Both I and II are false.
Ans: B
31. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below find out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Disorder of mind which impairs the mental faculties is known as unsoundness of mind as such it acts as defence to a criminal charge.
Reason II: Insanity is the mental abnormality and when it impairs the cognitive faculty and if an act results during that period criminal liability could be exempted.
Codes:
(A) By I there is transgression of harmful acts while II refers to established rules of society for which no prosecution stands.
(B) Both I and II are correct explanations as per Section 84 of IPC.
(C) II is more precise while I isonly a supportive factor.
(D) The true test of I and II is to apply Mc Naghten’s Rule.
Ans: B
32. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, were passed by the Parliament under:
(A) Article 252 of the Constitutionof India.
(B) Article 253 of the Constitution of India.
(C) Article 250 of the Constitution of India.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: B
33. Which of the following Judges of the Supreme Court is famously known as the “Green Judge”?
(A) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyyar
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Justice Kuldip Singh
(D) Justice B.N. Kirpal
Ans: C
34. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India have been mostly used by the Supreme Court to protect environment?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 21
(C) Both Articles 21 and 32
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
35. What is the period of notice required to be served upon the Central Government for filing a criminal complaint by any person, under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
(A) Not less than 30 days
(B) Not less than 60 days
(C) Not less than 90 days
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
36. Which one of the following cases is considered as “High Water-mark case in Forest Protection” decided by the Supreme Court?
(A) Salebhai Mulla Mohmadali vs. State of Gujarat.
(B) T.N. Godavarman Tirumulkpad vs. Union of India.
(C) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India.
(D) Samatha vs. State of Andhra Pradesh.
Ans: B
37. The Parliament enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 for the control of water pollution:
(A) On the request from States.
(B) Of his own.
(C) On the direction of United Nations.
(D) On the direction of Supreme Court.
Ans: A
38. Under which of the following Articleof the Constitution of India, theprovisions regarding duty of the State “to protect and improvement of environment and safeguard the forest and wildlife”, exist?
(A) Article 51(g)
(B) Article 47
(C) Article 48-A
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
39. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below write the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Under International law extradition is mostly a matter of bilateral treaties.
Reason (R): There is no general duty of States in respect of extradition of criminals.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: B
40. Which of the following case does not concern with the judgement that a non-recognized State cannot sue in the courts of the State which was not recognized?
(A) Russian Socialist Federated Soviet Republic vs. Cibraria.
(B) Guarantee Trust Company of New York vs. United States.
(C) U.S. vs. Pink.
(D) Bank of Ethiopia vs. National Bank of Egypt and Liquori.
Ans: D
41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List – I List – II
(Name of the Case) (Principle Propounded)
(a) The Caroline case (i) Self- Defence
(b) The Nottebohm case (ii) Effective Nationality
(c) Re Castioni case (iii) Non- Extradition of Political Criminals
(d) U.S. vs. Rouscher (iv) Rule of Specialty
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: A
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List – I List – II
(a) Australia and Prussia exercised joint sovereignty over (i) New Helarides
(b) Great Britain and France exercised joint sovereignty over (ii) Schleswig Holstein Anenburg
(c) Great Britain exercised sovereignty over (iii) Germany
(d) In 1898 China leased the district of Kiaochow to (iv) Turkish Island
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ans: A
43. Which of the following statements is correct? A de-facto government is government:
(A) Whose origin and existence is contrary to the Constitutional law of the State concerned and legality is challenged in International law.
(B) Whose origin and existence is in conformity with the Constitutional law of the State represented and whose legality is uncontested in International law.
(C) Which exercise control over a Foreign State?
(D) Which has been forced to leave the territory of its State due to enemy occupation or civil war?
Ans: A
44. Under which of the following Article of the U.N. Charter there is an obligation to inform the Security Council if the regional arrangements take any enforcement action for maintenance of peace and security?
(A) Article 51
(B) Article 54
(C) Article 107
(D) Article 108
Ans: B
45. In which one of the following cases the permanent court of International justice held, “it is a generally acceptable principle of international law that in relations, between powers, who are contracting parties to a treaty, the provisions of the municipal law cannot prevail over the treaty”?
(A) Navlilaa Incident Case
(B) Greco, Bulgarian Communities Case.
(C) Panevezys Saldutiskis Railway Case
(D) Polish Postal Service Case
Ans: B
46. The wife’s sister’s daughter’s son can be adopted. The adoption is
(A) Void
(B) Valid
(C) Voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
47. Kritrima Adoption is prevalent in which areas of India?
(A) Madras
(B) Banaras
(C) Avadh
(D) Mithila
Ans: D
48. In which case the Supreme Court held that “Cohabitation leads to presumption that person are living as husband and wife”?
(A) Balasubramaniyam vs. Suruttayan AIR 1992 SC 756
(B) Seema vs. Ashwin Kumar AIR 2006 SC 1158
(C) Vishnu Prakash vs. Sheela Devi (2001) 4 SCC 729
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A
49. In which of the case, the Supreme Court held that it is desirable that “all marriages should be Compulsorily Registered in the State, where they are solemnized”?
(A) S. Nagalingamvs. Sivagani AIR (2001) SC 3576
(B) Shanti Dev Berma vs. K.P. Devi AIR (1991) SC 816
(C) SeemaVs Ashwin Kumar AIR 2006 SC 1158
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
50. Rules relating to prohibited degrees are based on the principle of
(A) Monogamy
(B) Polygamy
(C) Exogamy
(D) Endogamy
Ans: C
51. The term ‘Hindu’ denotes the person
(i) Professing Hindu Religion
(ii) Professing Buddh, Jain or Sikh Religion
(iii) Who are not professing Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew Religion?
In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is incorrect.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct and (i) is incorrect.
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are all correct.
Ans: D
52. Match the List – I with List – II using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Void Marriages (i) Section 9
(b) Voidable marriages (ii) Section 11
(c) Divorce (iii) Section 13
(d) Restitution of Conjugal Rights (iv) Section 12
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
53. In which of the following case the Court held that Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act was constitutionally violative of right to Human dignity and privacy?
(A) Bipin Chandra vs. Prabhavati
(B) T. Sareetha vs. T. Venkatasubah
(C) Lachman vs. Meena
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
54. Match the List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Pre-Marriage Pregnancy (i) Divorce
(b) Marriage within Prohibited Degree Relationship (ii) Voidable Marriage
(c) Cruelty (iii) Void Marriage
(d) When any spouse without reasonable excuse withdraws from the society of the other (iv) Restitution of Conjugal Rights
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
55. International Women’s Day is celebrated every year on
(A) 2nd March
(B) 4th March
(C) 6th March
(D) 8th March
Ans: D
56. Which one of the following is correct according to Art I of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948?
(A) All human beings are born free and equal in rights.
(B) All human beings are born free, equal and dignity
(C) All human beings are equal in dignity and rights.
(D) All human beings are born free and equal in rights and dignity.
Ans: C
57. Regional Human Rights Court does not exist in
(A) Africa
(B) Europe
(C) America
(D) Asia
Ans: D
58. Which protocol to the European Convention on Human Rights has abolished European Commission of Human Rights?
(A) Protocol 1
(B) Protocol 2
(C) Protocol 3
(D) Protocol 11
Ans: D
59. Which one of the following convention has neither interstate communication procedure nor individual communication procedure?
(A) International Convention on Civil and Political Rights
(B) International Convention on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
(C) Convention on the Rights of Child.
(D) Convention on the Rights of persons with Disabilities.
Ans: C
60. The term of the office of the Chairperson and Members of the NHRC under Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 is
(A) 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
(B) 4 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
(C) 3 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.
(D) 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.
Ans: A
61. The Chairperson of National Commission on Minorities shall be deemed member of
(A) Human Rights Council
(B) Law Commission of India
(C) National Human Rights Commission
(D) International Law Commission
Ans: C
62. Which one of the following is an ‘actionable’ wrong?
(A) Injuria sine damnum
(B) Damnum sine injuria
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
63. Which of the following is the gist of tortious liability?
(A) Legal damages
(B) Violation of legal right
(C) Availability of legal duty
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
64. The Rule of Absolute Liability is subject to
(A) All the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(B) Half of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(C) None of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(D) All the exceptions mentioned in rule of M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
Ans: C
65. Assertion (A): If a person speaks ill of the business which X is doing, it amounts to defamation.
Reason (R): Slander is actionable per se.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
66. In res Ipsa Loquitor:
(1) Presumption of negligence is there.
(2) Plaintiff has to bring direct evidence.
(3) Plaintiff is discharged from the duty of proving negligence on the part of the defendant.
(4) Court does not give chance to defendant to avoid his liability.
Codes:
(A) (1) and (2) are correct.
(B) (1), (2) and (4) are correct.
(C) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
(D) (1) and (3) are correct.
Ans: D
67. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Both public as well as private nuisance are punishable under criminal law.
(B) Only private nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while there is no punishment for general nuisance.
(C) Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law while private nuisance is a moral wrong only.
(D) Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while private nuisance under civil law.
Ans: C
68. For constituting tort of nuisance, there should be
(A) Unreasonable interference
(B) Interference should be with the use of enjoyment of land.
(C) Damage
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
69. Partnership is based on
(A) Mutual trust
(B) Mutual benefit
(C) Mutual interest
(D) Mutual agency
Ans: D
70. Which statements are correct?
(i) An undisclosed principal can intervene against express terms.
(ii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene against express terms.
(iii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
(iv) An undisclosed principal can intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
Ans: B
71. Read the following passage, and match the column:
A negotiable instrument contains a contract and therefore must be supported by consideration. In order to be a holder in due course, the holder must have obtained the instrument before its maturity. An instrument payable on demand is current at least as long as no demand for payment is made. To make a holder in due course, the instrument must be complete and regular. A postdated cheque may not be complete and regular.
Column – P Column – Q
(a) Negotiable instrument (i) Before maturity
(b) Holder in due course (ii) Demand for payment
(c) Currency of instrument (iii) Postdated cheque
(d) Complete and regular (iv) Consideration
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans: C
72. Assertion (A): Every public company shall have at least three and every private company at least two Directors.
Reason (R): Directors are trustees for the company and not for individual shareholders.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an explanation for (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is an explanation for (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
73. Arrange the following concepts in a sequence in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
(i) Right of an unpaid seller to stop goods in transit.
(ii) Agreement to sell goods.
(iii) Damages for breach of contract of sale of goods.
(iv) Conditions and warranties.
Codes:
(A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Ans: B
74. Which statements are correct?
(i) Partner has a duty of good faith.
(ii) Partner has duty not to compete.
(iii) Partner has duty of due diligence.
(iv) Partner has duty to indemnify for fraud.
Codes:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
75. Match an item in List P with an item in List Q:
List – P List – Q
(a) Removal of Directors by Company Law Board (i) Section 318
(b) Duty of Directors to disclose interest (ii) Sections 299 – 300
(c) Compensation for loss of office of Director (iii) Section 402
(d) Director with unlimited liability (iv) Sections 322 – 323
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
76. According to Muslim Law, marriage is not solemnised of only for the sexual enjoyment between two spouses, it is an act of Ibadat.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly true, partly false
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
77. X invites his friend Y on dinner but later on declined to arrange it on specified day.
(A) X is liable for breach of contract.
(B) X is liable, if Y goes to the house of X and returns withoutdinner.
(C) X is liable for breach of contract, if Y gets dinner in hotel.
(D) X is not liable for breach of contract.
Ans: D
78. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List – I List – II
(a) Breach of contract 1. Impossible to perform
(b) Revocation of offer 2. Same thing in the same sense
(c) Consent 3. Compensation
(d) Frustration 4. Lapse of stipulated time
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans: D
79. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Contract Act deals with the reciprocal promise to do things legal and also other things illegal?
(A) Section 56
(B) Section 57
(C) Section 58
(D) Section 17
Ans: B
80. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act declares the agreement void on the ground of
(A) Absolute restraint only
(B) Partial restraint only
(C) Both absolute or partial restraint
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
81. No customer in a thousand ever read the conditions. If he had stopped to do, he would have missed the train or the boat. This observation was made by
(A) Anson
(B) Donaldson
(C) Lord Denning
(D) Pearson
Ans: C
82. When consent is given due to mistake, an agreement will be
(A) Voidable
(B) Legal
(C) Illegal
(D) Void
Ans: D
83. A person is responsible in law of tort for
(A) all the consequences of his act.
(B) all the consequences which are not remote.
(C) all the consequences which directly flow from his act.
(D) all the consequences which are reasonably foreseeable.
Ans: D
84. There is a school by the side of the road. Three children of nursery class stray away from the school on to the road. A truck driver, who was driving the truck at a normal speed, notices the children. While trying to save the children, the truck hits a shop and an injury is caused to one person. Which of the following assertions correctly represent the law?
(A) The school management is liable as they are negligent in not keeping the children within the school premises.
(B) The truck driver is liable as he did not take proper care.
(C) The children are liable as they contributed to the accident.
(D) None is liable as it is a pure accident.
Ans: A
85. Match List-I with List-II. Use the code below to select the right answer.
List – I List – II
a. Donoghue V. Stevenson 1. Remoteness of damages
b. In re Polemis 2. Absolute liability
c. M.C. Mehta V. Union of India 3. Neighbour principle
d. Lloyd V. Grace Smith & Co. 4. Vicarious liability
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans: D
86. When an injury is caused by the act of an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity, the enterprise is absolutely liable for the injury because
1. it has not taken reasonable care.
2. the enterprise owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results from the activity.
3. it is considered as a part of the social cost for carrying on the hazardous or inherently dangerous activity.
4. it is difficult to prove lack of care on the part of enterprise.
Select the right code:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct.
(B) 1 and 4 are correct.
(C) 1 and 3 are correct.
(D) 2 and 3 are correct.
Ans: D
87. D employs a driver Z to drive his car. D specifically instructs the driver not to drive fast and in no case exceed the speed of 50 kms per hour. Z exceeds the limit and causes the accident in which P is injured. In an action against D for damages
(A) D is not vicariously liable for the act of the driver because the driver acted against the express instructions of his master.
(B) D is not liable as the act of the driver was not done during the course of employment.
(C) D is liable as the driver was doing an authorised act in an unauthorised manner.
(D) D is not liable as there was contract for service between D and the driver.
Ans: C
88. Due to the negligence of the owners of a well, it was filled with poisonous gases and two of the employees were trapped inside the well. B, an expert in disaster management in such situation, was called to rescue the two employees. B decided to go inside the well with the help of a rope in order to save the employees trapped in the well. He was warned of the risk involved. Despite all this B went inside the well and was overcome by the gases. He was taken to hospital where he died. B’s wife sued the owners of the well for compensation.
(A) Owners are not liable because maxim volunti non fit injuria applies.
(B) Owners are not liable because B was an expert and master of his trade.
(C) Owners are liable because the act of B was the natural and probable consequence of owner’s negligent act.
(D) Owners are liable because B died while being engaged by them.
Ans: C
89. Malignantly and maliciously are synonyms. There is only one provision of Indian Penal Code which covers both the aspect.
Provide the correct answer:
(A) Section 153
(B) Section 270
(C) Section 219
(D) Section 220
Ans: B
90. The Indian Penal Code no more denote a positive evil intent for fixing liability, however there are certain type of act which signifies want of care as culpable resulting out of breach of duty. What it is known as?
(A) Rashly
(B) Negligently
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of them
Ans: C
91. Assertion (A): Common intention implies a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of minds and prior consultation between all the persons committing the crime.
Reason (R): The law makes no distinction between the persons or the part played by them in doing the criminal act.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B) (A) and (R) are both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is most nearest explanation of (A).
Ans: D
92. Assertion (A): Culpable homicide becomes murder when the act causes death and is done with the intention of causing death.
Reason (R): One of the conditions to be satisfied for treating it murder provide the injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is not the reason.
(B) (A) and (R) are both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the reasonable explanation of (A).
Ans: D
93. An agreement of which either the object or the means employed are illegal, but does not itself constitute an offence is known as ______.
(A) Intimidation
(B) Conspiracy
(C) Abetment
(D) All of them
Ans: C
94. The act of causing death to a person who has committed or attempted to commit house breaking by night is known as ______.
(A) Marginal excess of right to private defence.
(B) Purported exercise of right of self defence.
(C) Murder
(D) No detached objectivity would be possible to weigh the culpability.
Ans: B
95. A Seven Judges Bench of the Supreme Court considered the scope of Industry and laid down a Triple Test Formula in one of the following cases:
(A) State of Bombay Vs Bombay Hospital Mazdoor Sabha, AIR 1960 SC.
(B) Bangalore Water Supply Vs. A. Rajappa, AIR 1978 SC.
(C) D.N. Bannerji Vs. P.R. Mukherjee, AIR 1953 SC.
(D) University of Delhi Vs. Ramnath, AIR 1963 SC.
Ans: B
96. Out of the following one of the modes is not a dispute settlement under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947.
(A) Conciliation
(B) Adjudication
(C) Alternate Dispute Resolution
(D) Arbitration
Ans: C
97. The qualifications of a person who cannot be appointed as presiding officer of the Labour Court.
(A) He is or has been a Judge of a High Court.
(B) He has for a period of not less than three years, been a District Judge or an Additional District Judge.
(C) He has been Civil Judge for 2 years.
(D) He has held any Judicial Office in India for not less than seven years.
Ans: C
98. The Registrar cannot withdraw or cancel registration of a Trade Union if
(A) the application of the Trade Union is in the proper form on verification.
(B) the certificate of registration has been obtained by fraud or mistake.
(C) the Trade Union has ceased to exist.
(D) the Trade Union has wilfully after a notice from the Registrar contravened the Provisions of the Act.
Ans: A
99. Any person who has attained the following age may be a member of a registered Trade Union.
(A) 18 years
(B) 17 years
(C) 16 years
(D) 15 years
Ans: D
100. The workmen are not entitled to lay off compensation in one of the following cases:
(A) An industrial establishment in which less than fifty workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
(B) An industrial establishment in which less than one hundred workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
(C) An industrial establishment in which less than two hundred and fifty workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
(D) An industrial establishment in which less than five hundred workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
Ans: A
(i) Professing Hindu Religion
(ii) Professing Buddh, Jain or Sikh Religion
(iii) Who are not professing Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew Religion?
In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is incorrect.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct and (i) is incorrect.
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are all correct.
Ans: D
52. Match the List – I with List – II using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Void Marriages (i) Section 9
(b) Voidable marriages (ii) Section 11
(c) Divorce (iii) Section 13
(d) Restitution of Conjugal Rights (iv) Section 12
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
53. In which of the following case the Court held that Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act was constitutionally violative of right to Human dignity and privacy?
(A) Bipin Chandra vs. Prabhavati
(B) T. Sareetha vs. T. Venkatasubah
(C) Lachman vs. Meena
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
54. Match the List – I with List – II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Pre-Marriage Pregnancy (i) Divorce
(b) Marriage within Prohibited Degree Relationship (ii) Voidable Marriage
(c) Cruelty (iii) Void Marriage
(d) When any spouse without reasonable excuse withdraws from the society of the other (iv) Restitution of Conjugal Rights
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: B
55. International Women’s Day is celebrated every year on
(A) 2nd March
(B) 4th March
(C) 6th March
(D) 8th March
Ans: D
56. Which one of the following is correct according to Art I of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948?
(A) All human beings are born free and equal in rights.
(B) All human beings are born free, equal and dignity
(C) All human beings are equal in dignity and rights.
(D) All human beings are born free and equal in rights and dignity.
Ans: C
57. Regional Human Rights Court does not exist in
(A) Africa
(B) Europe
(C) America
(D) Asia
Ans: D
58. Which protocol to the European Convention on Human Rights has abolished European Commission of Human Rights?
(A) Protocol 1
(B) Protocol 2
(C) Protocol 3
(D) Protocol 11
Ans: D
59. Which one of the following convention has neither interstate communication procedure nor individual communication procedure?
(A) International Convention on Civil and Political Rights
(B) International Convention on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
(C) Convention on the Rights of Child.
(D) Convention on the Rights of persons with Disabilities.
Ans: C
60. The term of the office of the Chairperson and Members of the NHRC under Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 is
(A) 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
(B) 4 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier.
(C) 3 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.
(D) 5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier.
Ans: A
61. The Chairperson of National Commission on Minorities shall be deemed member of
(A) Human Rights Council
(B) Law Commission of India
(C) National Human Rights Commission
(D) International Law Commission
Ans: C
62. Which one of the following is an ‘actionable’ wrong?
(A) Injuria sine damnum
(B) Damnum sine injuria
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
63. Which of the following is the gist of tortious liability?
(A) Legal damages
(B) Violation of legal right
(C) Availability of legal duty
(D) None of the above
Ans: B
64. The Rule of Absolute Liability is subject to
(A) All the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(B) Half of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(C) None of the exceptions mentioned in the rule of Rylands vs. Fletcher
(D) All the exceptions mentioned in rule of M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
Ans: C
65. Assertion (A): If a person speaks ill of the business which X is doing, it amounts to defamation.
Reason (R): Slander is actionable per se.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
66. In res Ipsa Loquitor:
(1) Presumption of negligence is there.
(2) Plaintiff has to bring direct evidence.
(3) Plaintiff is discharged from the duty of proving negligence on the part of the defendant.
(4) Court does not give chance to defendant to avoid his liability.
Codes:
(A) (1) and (2) are correct.
(B) (1), (2) and (4) are correct.
(C) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
(D) (1) and (3) are correct.
Ans: D
67. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Both public as well as private nuisance are punishable under criminal law.
(B) Only private nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while there is no punishment for general nuisance.
(C) Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law while private nuisance is a moral wrong only.
(D) Public nuisance is punishable under criminal law, while private nuisance under civil law.
Ans: C
68. For constituting tort of nuisance, there should be
(A) Unreasonable interference
(B) Interference should be with the use of enjoyment of land.
(C) Damage
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
69. Partnership is based on
(A) Mutual trust
(B) Mutual benefit
(C) Mutual interest
(D) Mutual agency
Ans: D
70. Which statements are correct?
(i) An undisclosed principal can intervene against express terms.
(ii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene against express terms.
(iii) An undisclosed principal cannot intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
(iv) An undisclosed principal can intervene when he knows that the other party would not have dealt with him.
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
Ans: B
71. Read the following passage, and match the column:
A negotiable instrument contains a contract and therefore must be supported by consideration. In order to be a holder in due course, the holder must have obtained the instrument before its maturity. An instrument payable on demand is current at least as long as no demand for payment is made. To make a holder in due course, the instrument must be complete and regular. A postdated cheque may not be complete and regular.
Column – P Column – Q
(a) Negotiable instrument (i) Before maturity
(b) Holder in due course (ii) Demand for payment
(c) Currency of instrument (iii) Postdated cheque
(d) Complete and regular (iv) Consideration
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans: C
72. Assertion (A): Every public company shall have at least three and every private company at least two Directors.
Reason (R): Directors are trustees for the company and not for individual shareholders.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not an explanation for (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is an explanation for (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: A
73. Arrange the following concepts in a sequence in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
(i) Right of an unpaid seller to stop goods in transit.
(ii) Agreement to sell goods.
(iii) Damages for breach of contract of sale of goods.
(iv) Conditions and warranties.
Codes:
(A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Ans: B
74. Which statements are correct?
(i) Partner has a duty of good faith.
(ii) Partner has duty not to compete.
(iii) Partner has duty of due diligence.
(iv) Partner has duty to indemnify for fraud.
Codes:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Ans: D
75. Match an item in List P with an item in List Q:
List – P List – Q
(a) Removal of Directors by Company Law Board (i) Section 318
(b) Duty of Directors to disclose interest (ii) Sections 299 – 300
(c) Compensation for loss of office of Director (iii) Section 402
(d) Director with unlimited liability (iv) Sections 322 – 323
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Ans: A
76. According to Muslim Law, marriage is not solemnised of only for the sexual enjoyment between two spouses, it is an act of Ibadat.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly true, partly false
(D) None of the above
Ans: A
77. X invites his friend Y on dinner but later on declined to arrange it on specified day.
(A) X is liable for breach of contract.
(B) X is liable, if Y goes to the house of X and returns withoutdinner.
(C) X is liable for breach of contract, if Y gets dinner in hotel.
(D) X is not liable for breach of contract.
Ans: D
78. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List – I List – II
(a) Breach of contract 1. Impossible to perform
(b) Revocation of offer 2. Same thing in the same sense
(c) Consent 3. Compensation
(d) Frustration 4. Lapse of stipulated time
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans: D
79. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Contract Act deals with the reciprocal promise to do things legal and also other things illegal?
(A) Section 56
(B) Section 57
(C) Section 58
(D) Section 17
Ans: B
80. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act declares the agreement void on the ground of
(A) Absolute restraint only
(B) Partial restraint only
(C) Both absolute or partial restraint
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
81. No customer in a thousand ever read the conditions. If he had stopped to do, he would have missed the train or the boat. This observation was made by
(A) Anson
(B) Donaldson
(C) Lord Denning
(D) Pearson
Ans: C
82. When consent is given due to mistake, an agreement will be
(A) Voidable
(B) Legal
(C) Illegal
(D) Void
Ans: D
83. A person is responsible in law of tort for
(A) all the consequences of his act.
(B) all the consequences which are not remote.
(C) all the consequences which directly flow from his act.
(D) all the consequences which are reasonably foreseeable.
Ans: D
84. There is a school by the side of the road. Three children of nursery class stray away from the school on to the road. A truck driver, who was driving the truck at a normal speed, notices the children. While trying to save the children, the truck hits a shop and an injury is caused to one person. Which of the following assertions correctly represent the law?
(A) The school management is liable as they are negligent in not keeping the children within the school premises.
(B) The truck driver is liable as he did not take proper care.
(C) The children are liable as they contributed to the accident.
(D) None is liable as it is a pure accident.
Ans: A
85. Match List-I with List-II. Use the code below to select the right answer.
List – I List – II
a. Donoghue V. Stevenson 1. Remoteness of damages
b. In re Polemis 2. Absolute liability
c. M.C. Mehta V. Union of India 3. Neighbour principle
d. Lloyd V. Grace Smith & Co. 4. Vicarious liability
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans: D
86. When an injury is caused by the act of an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity, the enterprise is absolutely liable for the injury because
1. it has not taken reasonable care.
2. the enterprise owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no harm results from the activity.
3. it is considered as a part of the social cost for carrying on the hazardous or inherently dangerous activity.
4. it is difficult to prove lack of care on the part of enterprise.
Select the right code:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct.
(B) 1 and 4 are correct.
(C) 1 and 3 are correct.
(D) 2 and 3 are correct.
Ans: D
87. D employs a driver Z to drive his car. D specifically instructs the driver not to drive fast and in no case exceed the speed of 50 kms per hour. Z exceeds the limit and causes the accident in which P is injured. In an action against D for damages
(A) D is not vicariously liable for the act of the driver because the driver acted against the express instructions of his master.
(B) D is not liable as the act of the driver was not done during the course of employment.
(C) D is liable as the driver was doing an authorised act in an unauthorised manner.
(D) D is not liable as there was contract for service between D and the driver.
Ans: C
88. Due to the negligence of the owners of a well, it was filled with poisonous gases and two of the employees were trapped inside the well. B, an expert in disaster management in such situation, was called to rescue the two employees. B decided to go inside the well with the help of a rope in order to save the employees trapped in the well. He was warned of the risk involved. Despite all this B went inside the well and was overcome by the gases. He was taken to hospital where he died. B’s wife sued the owners of the well for compensation.
(A) Owners are not liable because maxim volunti non fit injuria applies.
(B) Owners are not liable because B was an expert and master of his trade.
(C) Owners are liable because the act of B was the natural and probable consequence of owner’s negligent act.
(D) Owners are liable because B died while being engaged by them.
Ans: C
89. Malignantly and maliciously are synonyms. There is only one provision of Indian Penal Code which covers both the aspect.
Provide the correct answer:
(A) Section 153
(B) Section 270
(C) Section 219
(D) Section 220
Ans: B
90. The Indian Penal Code no more denote a positive evil intent for fixing liability, however there are certain type of act which signifies want of care as culpable resulting out of breach of duty. What it is known as?
(A) Rashly
(B) Negligently
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of them
Ans: C
91. Assertion (A): Common intention implies a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of minds and prior consultation between all the persons committing the crime.
Reason (R): The law makes no distinction between the persons or the part played by them in doing the criminal act.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B) (A) and (R) are both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is most nearest explanation of (A).
Ans: D
92. Assertion (A): Culpable homicide becomes murder when the act causes death and is done with the intention of causing death.
Reason (R): One of the conditions to be satisfied for treating it murder provide the injury intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.
Codes:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is not the reason.
(B) (A) and (R) are both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the reasonable explanation of (A).
Ans: D
93. An agreement of which either the object or the means employed are illegal, but does not itself constitute an offence is known as ______.
(A) Intimidation
(B) Conspiracy
(C) Abetment
(D) All of them
Ans: C
94. The act of causing death to a person who has committed or attempted to commit house breaking by night is known as ______.
(A) Marginal excess of right to private defence.
(B) Purported exercise of right of self defence.
(C) Murder
(D) No detached objectivity would be possible to weigh the culpability.
Ans: B
95. A Seven Judges Bench of the Supreme Court considered the scope of Industry and laid down a Triple Test Formula in one of the following cases:
(A) State of Bombay Vs Bombay Hospital Mazdoor Sabha, AIR 1960 SC.
(B) Bangalore Water Supply Vs. A. Rajappa, AIR 1978 SC.
(C) D.N. Bannerji Vs. P.R. Mukherjee, AIR 1953 SC.
(D) University of Delhi Vs. Ramnath, AIR 1963 SC.
Ans: B
96. Out of the following one of the modes is not a dispute settlement under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947.
(A) Conciliation
(B) Adjudication
(C) Alternate Dispute Resolution
(D) Arbitration
Ans: C
97. The qualifications of a person who cannot be appointed as presiding officer of the Labour Court.
(A) He is or has been a Judge of a High Court.
(B) He has for a period of not less than three years, been a District Judge or an Additional District Judge.
(C) He has been Civil Judge for 2 years.
(D) He has held any Judicial Office in India for not less than seven years.
Ans: C
98. The Registrar cannot withdraw or cancel registration of a Trade Union if
(A) the application of the Trade Union is in the proper form on verification.
(B) the certificate of registration has been obtained by fraud or mistake.
(C) the Trade Union has ceased to exist.
(D) the Trade Union has wilfully after a notice from the Registrar contravened the Provisions of the Act.
Ans: A
99. Any person who has attained the following age may be a member of a registered Trade Union.
(A) 18 years
(B) 17 years
(C) 16 years
(D) 15 years
Ans: D
100. The workmen are not entitled to lay off compensation in one of the following cases:
(A) An industrial establishment in which less than fifty workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
(B) An industrial establishment in which less than one hundred workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
(C) An industrial establishment in which less than two hundred and fifty workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
(D) An industrial establishment in which less than five hundred workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
Ans: A