LAW- PAGE 10
1. “The new Constitution establishes, indeed a system of Government which is at the most quasi-federal, almost devolutionary in character, a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than the federal state with unitary features” said by
(A) Dr. K.C. Wheare
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: A
2. In which of the following case it was held that ‘Right to Life does not include Right to Die’ ?
(A) Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
(B) Chenna Jagdeshwar Vs. State of A.P.
(C) State of U.P. Vs. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
(D) Deena Vs. Union Bank of India
Ans: A
3. Assertion (A) : An accused person cannot be compelled to give his signature or thumb impression.
Reason (R) : An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: B
4. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, within how many days it is transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations ?
(A) Thirty days (B) Twenty four days (C) Sixty days (D) Fourteen days
Ans: D
5. Assertion (A) : Directive Principles are not enforceable by any Court.
Reason (R) : Directive Principles are more or less fundamental in the governance of the country.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Ans: A
6. The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between
(A) a citizen and a State
(B) the Government of India and one State
(C) two States
(D) the Government of India and one State on one side and one State on the other side
Ans: A
7. In the Constitution of India, provision relating to the formation of new States can be amended by
(A) A Parliamentary resolution which should be ratified by majority of State Legislatures.
(B) A simple majority in each House of Parliament.
(C) 3/4th majority in the Parliament
(D) 2/3rd majority in the each House of Parliament provided they also constitute the majority of total members of each House.
Ans: B
8. Holding of periodic, free and fair elections by the Election Commission is part of the basic structure of the Constitution as per the following :
(A) Election Commission of India Vs. AIADMK
(B) S.S. Dhanoa Vs. Union of India
(C) In Gujarat Assembly Election matter
(D) Sadiq Ali Vs. Election Commission of India
Ans: C
9. Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued, where a fundamental right is infringed by
(A) A Statute
(B) A Statutory Order
(C) An Executive Order
(D) Private Body
Ans: D
10. Assertion (A) : The principles of natural justice ensures fair hearing.
Reason (R) : It requires unbiased judge to decide after hearing all parties.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a good explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
11. Prerogative writs to review an administrative action are :
(A) Two : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus.
(B) Three : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition.
(C) Four : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition and Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Quo Warranto.
(D) Five : Writ of Habeas Corpus, Writ of Mandamus, Writ of Quo warranto, Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Prohibition.
Ans: D
12. A mandatory procedural requirement for an administrative tribunal must be
(A) Legal representation
(B) Cross examination
(C) Reasoned decision
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
13. Judicial review of an administrative action means
(A) Review by the Parliament
(B) Review by the Government
(C) Review by the Legislative Assembly
(D) Review by the Judiciary
Ans: D
14. Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II.
List – I List – II Institution of Lokpal and Lokayukta
(A) Law should be able to control the numerous wide discretionary powers
(B) Ensure fair hearing
(C) Evaporate maladministration and corruption to bring good governance
(D) Check and control abuse of power and executive excesses
Ans: C
15. Find correct answer :
(A) Administrative law is a branch of public law and is only a part of Constitutional law. It cannot control the Constitutional law.
(B) Administrative law is a branch of private law.
(C) Administrative law is independent to Constitutional law.
(D) Administrative law is neither the branch of public law nor of private law, but a part of Constitutional law.
Ans: A
16. Bentham’s definition of law is imperative in nature because
(A) law is an assembling of signs.
(B) law is declaration of volition conceived or adopted by sovereign in a State.
(C) because it is adopted by nonsovereign State.
(D) (A) & (B) both
Ans: D
17. The term ‘Legal theory’ has been first time used by
(A) Llewlyne (B) Ihring (C) Salmond (D) W. Friedman
Ans: D
18. Bracket theory of corporate personality is also known as
(A) Concession theory (B) Symbolist theory (C) Fiction theory (D) Will theory
Ans: B
19. ‘A’ says to ‘B’ that he will give a sum of rupees five thousand if ‘B’ marries his daughter, this is
(A) Vested Right (B) Contingent Right (C) Primary Right (D) Secondary Right
Ans: B
20. Assertion (A) : Kelsen follows Kant in distinguishing between ‘is’ and ‘ought’.
Reason (R) : Kelsen is a forerunner of philosophical school.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
21. The possession is the
(A) five point in ownership (B) seven point in ownership
(C) nine point in ownership (D) ten point in ownership
Ans: C
22. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of ‘absolute duties’ ?
I. Duties owed to persons indefinitely
II. Self regarding duties
III. Duties owed to the sovereign
IV. Duties owed to the parents S
elect the correct answer using the codes
Codes :
(A) I, III and IV
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II and III
Ans: D
23. Which one of the following get along correctly ?
(A) Trust and co-ownership (B) Legal and contingent ownership
(C) Sole and limited ownership (D) Legal and equitable ownership
Ans: D
24. A person who causes bodily injury to another who is labouring under a disorder, disease or bodily infirmity and thereby accelerates the death of the person. Under which it shall be deemed to have caused his death ?
(A) Explanation I to Section 299 (B) Explanation I to Section 300
(C) Explanation II to Section 299 (D) Explanation II to Section 300
Ans: A
25. In which provision of Indian Penal Code the definition of ‘valuable security’ is explained ?
(A) Section 29 (B) Section 30 (C) Section 31 (D) Section 13
Ans: B
26. State the age limit prescribed under Section 82 of Indian Penal Code in which if a child commits an overt act is not considered as an offence ?
(A) Under the age of 12 years.
(B) Under the age of 7 years.
(C) Under the age of 16 years.
(D) Under the age of 18 years.
Ans: B
27. When the injury is intentional and sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and death follows. The offence is of the category :
(A) Attempt to murder
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Murder
(D) Attempt to suicide
Ans: C
28. Principle : Theft + Violence or Threat to violence = Robbery. Facts : M meets B and her child on a river bridge. M takes the child and threatens to fling it down to the river unless B delivers her purse. B in consequence delivers her purse. What offence ‘M’ has committed ? (A) M is liable for theft.
(B) M is liable for coercion.
(C) M is liable for robbery.
(D) M is liable for extortion.
Ans: C
29. Fill in the gap : A disability for _________ days constitutes grievous hurt.
(A) A week
(B) A fortnight
(C) A month
(D) A minimum of twenty days
Ans: D
30. Fill in the gap with appropriate word : Wrongful restraint means keeping a person from out of his _________ of his residence.
(A) House (B) Place (C) Hotel (D) Guest House
Ans: B
(A) Dr. K.C. Wheare
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: A
2. In which of the following case it was held that ‘Right to Life does not include Right to Die’ ?
(A) Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
(B) Chenna Jagdeshwar Vs. State of A.P.
(C) State of U.P. Vs. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
(D) Deena Vs. Union Bank of India
Ans: A
3. Assertion (A) : An accused person cannot be compelled to give his signature or thumb impression.
Reason (R) : An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: B
4. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, within how many days it is transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations ?
(A) Thirty days (B) Twenty four days (C) Sixty days (D) Fourteen days
Ans: D
5. Assertion (A) : Directive Principles are not enforceable by any Court.
Reason (R) : Directive Principles are more or less fundamental in the governance of the country.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Ans: A
6. The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between
(A) a citizen and a State
(B) the Government of India and one State
(C) two States
(D) the Government of India and one State on one side and one State on the other side
Ans: A
7. In the Constitution of India, provision relating to the formation of new States can be amended by
(A) A Parliamentary resolution which should be ratified by majority of State Legislatures.
(B) A simple majority in each House of Parliament.
(C) 3/4th majority in the Parliament
(D) 2/3rd majority in the each House of Parliament provided they also constitute the majority of total members of each House.
Ans: B
8. Holding of periodic, free and fair elections by the Election Commission is part of the basic structure of the Constitution as per the following :
(A) Election Commission of India Vs. AIADMK
(B) S.S. Dhanoa Vs. Union of India
(C) In Gujarat Assembly Election matter
(D) Sadiq Ali Vs. Election Commission of India
Ans: C
9. Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued, where a fundamental right is infringed by
(A) A Statute
(B) A Statutory Order
(C) An Executive Order
(D) Private Body
Ans: D
10. Assertion (A) : The principles of natural justice ensures fair hearing.
Reason (R) : It requires unbiased judge to decide after hearing all parties.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a good explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
11. Prerogative writs to review an administrative action are :
(A) Two : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus.
(B) Three : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition.
(C) Four : Writ of Habeas Corpus and Writ of Mandamus and Writ of Prohibition and Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Quo Warranto.
(D) Five : Writ of Habeas Corpus, Writ of Mandamus, Writ of Quo warranto, Writ of Certiorari and Writ of Prohibition.
Ans: D
12. A mandatory procedural requirement for an administrative tribunal must be
(A) Legal representation
(B) Cross examination
(C) Reasoned decision
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
13. Judicial review of an administrative action means
(A) Review by the Parliament
(B) Review by the Government
(C) Review by the Legislative Assembly
(D) Review by the Judiciary
Ans: D
14. Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II.
List – I List – II Institution of Lokpal and Lokayukta
(A) Law should be able to control the numerous wide discretionary powers
(B) Ensure fair hearing
(C) Evaporate maladministration and corruption to bring good governance
(D) Check and control abuse of power and executive excesses
Ans: C
15. Find correct answer :
(A) Administrative law is a branch of public law and is only a part of Constitutional law. It cannot control the Constitutional law.
(B) Administrative law is a branch of private law.
(C) Administrative law is independent to Constitutional law.
(D) Administrative law is neither the branch of public law nor of private law, but a part of Constitutional law.
Ans: A
16. Bentham’s definition of law is imperative in nature because
(A) law is an assembling of signs.
(B) law is declaration of volition conceived or adopted by sovereign in a State.
(C) because it is adopted by nonsovereign State.
(D) (A) & (B) both
Ans: D
17. The term ‘Legal theory’ has been first time used by
(A) Llewlyne (B) Ihring (C) Salmond (D) W. Friedman
Ans: D
18. Bracket theory of corporate personality is also known as
(A) Concession theory (B) Symbolist theory (C) Fiction theory (D) Will theory
Ans: B
19. ‘A’ says to ‘B’ that he will give a sum of rupees five thousand if ‘B’ marries his daughter, this is
(A) Vested Right (B) Contingent Right (C) Primary Right (D) Secondary Right
Ans: B
20. Assertion (A) : Kelsen follows Kant in distinguishing between ‘is’ and ‘ought’.
Reason (R) : Kelsen is a forerunner of philosophical school.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
21. The possession is the
(A) five point in ownership (B) seven point in ownership
(C) nine point in ownership (D) ten point in ownership
Ans: C
22. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of ‘absolute duties’ ?
I. Duties owed to persons indefinitely
II. Self regarding duties
III. Duties owed to the sovereign
IV. Duties owed to the parents S
elect the correct answer using the codes
Codes :
(A) I, III and IV
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II and III
Ans: D
23. Which one of the following get along correctly ?
(A) Trust and co-ownership (B) Legal and contingent ownership
(C) Sole and limited ownership (D) Legal and equitable ownership
Ans: D
24. A person who causes bodily injury to another who is labouring under a disorder, disease or bodily infirmity and thereby accelerates the death of the person. Under which it shall be deemed to have caused his death ?
(A) Explanation I to Section 299 (B) Explanation I to Section 300
(C) Explanation II to Section 299 (D) Explanation II to Section 300
Ans: A
25. In which provision of Indian Penal Code the definition of ‘valuable security’ is explained ?
(A) Section 29 (B) Section 30 (C) Section 31 (D) Section 13
Ans: B
26. State the age limit prescribed under Section 82 of Indian Penal Code in which if a child commits an overt act is not considered as an offence ?
(A) Under the age of 12 years.
(B) Under the age of 7 years.
(C) Under the age of 16 years.
(D) Under the age of 18 years.
Ans: B
27. When the injury is intentional and sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and death follows. The offence is of the category :
(A) Attempt to murder
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Murder
(D) Attempt to suicide
Ans: C
28. Principle : Theft + Violence or Threat to violence = Robbery. Facts : M meets B and her child on a river bridge. M takes the child and threatens to fling it down to the river unless B delivers her purse. B in consequence delivers her purse. What offence ‘M’ has committed ? (A) M is liable for theft.
(B) M is liable for coercion.
(C) M is liable for robbery.
(D) M is liable for extortion.
Ans: C
29. Fill in the gap : A disability for _________ days constitutes grievous hurt.
(A) A week
(B) A fortnight
(C) A month
(D) A minimum of twenty days
Ans: D
30. Fill in the gap with appropriate word : Wrongful restraint means keeping a person from out of his _________ of his residence.
(A) House (B) Place (C) Hotel (D) Guest House
Ans: B
31. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) In India, consideration must follow…..from promisee only.
(B) In India, consideration must follow……from only promisor or only promisee.
(C) In India, consideration must follow……from promisor or any other person.
(D) In India, consideration must follow…..promisee or any other person.
Ans: D
32. Assertion (A) : Collateral transactions to wagering agreements are valid.
Reason (R) : Only wagering agreements are declared void under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
Ans: D
33. Liability in torts depends on
(A) quantum of damages suffered
(B) involvement of intention
(C) infringement of legal right
(D) effect of public interest
Ans: C
34. Which of the following ingredients are essential to make master liable for the acts of the servant ?
(1) Tort was committed by the servant.
(2) Tort was committed in the course of employment.
(3) Express authority was given by master.
(4) Master has knowledge of all constituent offers of tort.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 2
Ans: D
35. Which of the following is an essential constituent of negligence ?
(1) Defendant was under or legal duty to exercise due care
(2) This duty was owed to plantiff
(3) Defendant committed breach of such duty
(4) That the breach of such duty was the direct and proximate cause of the damage alleged.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: B
36. Which one of the following is not a good defence in suits for damages or negligence ?
(A) Contributory Negligence
(B) Express contract with plantiff
(C) Express contract where statute prohibits
(D) Voluntary assumptions of risk
Ans: C
37. Match List –I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
(a) Rayland Vs Fletcher 1. Compensation for pain and suffering
(b) Donoghue V Stevenson 2. Loss caused by Competition in business
(c) Gludster Grammer School Case 3. Strict liability
(d) Rose Vs. Ford 4. Liability of minor for tests 5. Liability for negligence
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 5
(C) 3 5 2 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans: C
38. Assertion (A) : Tort is a civil wrong redressible by an action for unliquidated damages only. Reason (R) : Law does not provide compensation in the nature of liquidated damages.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
39. ‘Z’ while walking along a deserted road at night during winter saw a just born baby abandoned on a side. For a moment be realized that he could save the baby without appreciable trouble, expense or loss of his time and also felt that if the baby is left over unprotected, it might die. But he did nothing and went away. ‘P’ another person also passed through that road and saw the baby and acted just like ‘Z’ and went away. Next morning the infant baby died of exposure. Decide who is responsible ?
(A) Only ‘Z’ who saw first
(B) ‘P’ for omitting to be compassionate
(C) Both ‘Z’ and ‘P’ for negligence
(D) Neither ‘Z’ nor ‘P’ is responsible
Ans: D
40. Decide on whom criminal liability can be fixed on the following : The accused ‘P’ caught hold of the victim and exhorted on the main accused ‘L’ to strike the victim; upon which he inflicted a kirpan wound and consequently the victim died.
Assertions :
(i) ‘P’ is liable for punishment.
(ii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both liable for common intention.
(iii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both responsible for victims death for having common object.
(iv) ‘P’ is not liable for any offence.
Reasons :
(A) (i) is quite possible
(B) (ii) is reasonable
(C) (iii) is as occasion demands
(D) (iv) is most accurate
Ans: B
41. ‘M’ a quack, an uneducated in matters of surgery, had performed an operation on a man for internal piles with the help of ordinary Knife, unlike previous occasions, for which the man died due to haemorrhage. Decide on ‘M’’s liability.
(i) ‘M’ is a recognised quack and hence not liable.
(ii) ‘M’’s profession is not legally acceptable hence liable.
(iii) ‘M’ is not liable because the man consented for such operation.
(iv) ‘M’ is not liable because it was a post – operational syndrome
The probable answer is :
(A) Statement (i) is correct
(B) Statement (ii) is correct
(C) Statement (iii) is correct
(D) Statement (iii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: B
42. Fill in the gap. ‘P’ in support of a just claim of ‘Q’ has stated against ‘Z’, for a sum of Rupees one thousand and falsely sweared on a trial that he heard ‘Z’ admitted as to the just claim of ‘Q’. The court decides that it was an affirmation of ________.
(A) Statement of truth (B) False evidence
(C) Making a declaration (D) None of them
Ans: B
43. One of the essentials of holding a person responsible for dowry death is
(A) subjected to harassment by peer groups. (B) subjected to harassment for dowry
(C) subjected to harassment under suspicious circumstances (D) All of them
Ans: B
44. Fill in the gap : An act of grievous hurt is always inferred through enormity to ________ and not merely a slight more than a frolic.
(A) Murder (B) Bodily injury
(C) Amputation (D) All of them
Ans: A
45. Assertion (A) : Before Bangalore Water Supply case educational institutions were excluded from the definition of an industry.
Reason (R) : Main purpose of such institutions is to impart education, and not to run business or trade.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
46. An individual dispute becomes industrial dispute when it is taken up by
(A) Union only.
(B) Union or substantial number of workmen.
(C) Continuous support of union.
(D) Subsequent support of union.
Ans: B
47. Which of the following statements are true ? I. All employees are workmen. II. All employees are not workmen. III. All workmen are employees. IV. All managerial staff are workmen.
Codes :
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV
(D) I and III
Ans: B
48. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that medical representative is not workman ?
(A) Standard Vacuum Oil Company V. Commissioner of Labour
(B) Anand Bazar Patrika V. Its Workmen
(C) Workmen V. Greaves Cotton & Co.
(D) J & J Dechane V. State of Kerala
Ans: D
49. Which one of the following statement is true ?
(A) The general funds of a registered trade union shall not be spent on the payment of salaries.
(B) A registered Trade union may constitute a separate fund for the promotion of the civic and political interests.
(C) No appeal lies against the order of refusal of the Registrar to register a Trade union.
(D) Every registered Trade Union shall not be a body corporate.
Ans: B
50. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I (Subject) List – II (Provisions of Trade Union Act, 1926)
(i) Appointment of Registrar 1. Section 24
(ii) Appeal 2. Section 10
(iii) Amalgamation of Trade Unions 3. Section 3
(iv) Cancellation of registration 4. Section 11
Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 2 1
Ans: C
(A) In India, consideration must follow…..from promisee only.
(B) In India, consideration must follow……from only promisor or only promisee.
(C) In India, consideration must follow……from promisor or any other person.
(D) In India, consideration must follow…..promisee or any other person.
Ans: D
32. Assertion (A) : Collateral transactions to wagering agreements are valid.
Reason (R) : Only wagering agreements are declared void under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
Ans: D
33. Liability in torts depends on
(A) quantum of damages suffered
(B) involvement of intention
(C) infringement of legal right
(D) effect of public interest
Ans: C
34. Which of the following ingredients are essential to make master liable for the acts of the servant ?
(1) Tort was committed by the servant.
(2) Tort was committed in the course of employment.
(3) Express authority was given by master.
(4) Master has knowledge of all constituent offers of tort.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 2
Ans: D
35. Which of the following is an essential constituent of negligence ?
(1) Defendant was under or legal duty to exercise due care
(2) This duty was owed to plantiff
(3) Defendant committed breach of such duty
(4) That the breach of such duty was the direct and proximate cause of the damage alleged.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: B
36. Which one of the following is not a good defence in suits for damages or negligence ?
(A) Contributory Negligence
(B) Express contract with plantiff
(C) Express contract where statute prohibits
(D) Voluntary assumptions of risk
Ans: C
37. Match List –I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
(a) Rayland Vs Fletcher 1. Compensation for pain and suffering
(b) Donoghue V Stevenson 2. Loss caused by Competition in business
(c) Gludster Grammer School Case 3. Strict liability
(d) Rose Vs. Ford 4. Liability of minor for tests 5. Liability for negligence
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 5
(C) 3 5 2 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans: C
38. Assertion (A) : Tort is a civil wrong redressible by an action for unliquidated damages only. Reason (R) : Law does not provide compensation in the nature of liquidated damages.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
39. ‘Z’ while walking along a deserted road at night during winter saw a just born baby abandoned on a side. For a moment be realized that he could save the baby without appreciable trouble, expense or loss of his time and also felt that if the baby is left over unprotected, it might die. But he did nothing and went away. ‘P’ another person also passed through that road and saw the baby and acted just like ‘Z’ and went away. Next morning the infant baby died of exposure. Decide who is responsible ?
(A) Only ‘Z’ who saw first
(B) ‘P’ for omitting to be compassionate
(C) Both ‘Z’ and ‘P’ for negligence
(D) Neither ‘Z’ nor ‘P’ is responsible
Ans: D
40. Decide on whom criminal liability can be fixed on the following : The accused ‘P’ caught hold of the victim and exhorted on the main accused ‘L’ to strike the victim; upon which he inflicted a kirpan wound and consequently the victim died.
Assertions :
(i) ‘P’ is liable for punishment.
(ii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both liable for common intention.
(iii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both responsible for victims death for having common object.
(iv) ‘P’ is not liable for any offence.
Reasons :
(A) (i) is quite possible
(B) (ii) is reasonable
(C) (iii) is as occasion demands
(D) (iv) is most accurate
Ans: B
41. ‘M’ a quack, an uneducated in matters of surgery, had performed an operation on a man for internal piles with the help of ordinary Knife, unlike previous occasions, for which the man died due to haemorrhage. Decide on ‘M’’s liability.
(i) ‘M’ is a recognised quack and hence not liable.
(ii) ‘M’’s profession is not legally acceptable hence liable.
(iii) ‘M’ is not liable because the man consented for such operation.
(iv) ‘M’ is not liable because it was a post – operational syndrome
The probable answer is :
(A) Statement (i) is correct
(B) Statement (ii) is correct
(C) Statement (iii) is correct
(D) Statement (iii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: B
42. Fill in the gap. ‘P’ in support of a just claim of ‘Q’ has stated against ‘Z’, for a sum of Rupees one thousand and falsely sweared on a trial that he heard ‘Z’ admitted as to the just claim of ‘Q’. The court decides that it was an affirmation of ________.
(A) Statement of truth (B) False evidence
(C) Making a declaration (D) None of them
Ans: B
43. One of the essentials of holding a person responsible for dowry death is
(A) subjected to harassment by peer groups. (B) subjected to harassment for dowry
(C) subjected to harassment under suspicious circumstances (D) All of them
Ans: B
44. Fill in the gap : An act of grievous hurt is always inferred through enormity to ________ and not merely a slight more than a frolic.
(A) Murder (B) Bodily injury
(C) Amputation (D) All of them
Ans: A
45. Assertion (A) : Before Bangalore Water Supply case educational institutions were excluded from the definition of an industry.
Reason (R) : Main purpose of such institutions is to impart education, and not to run business or trade.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
46. An individual dispute becomes industrial dispute when it is taken up by
(A) Union only.
(B) Union or substantial number of workmen.
(C) Continuous support of union.
(D) Subsequent support of union.
Ans: B
47. Which of the following statements are true ? I. All employees are workmen. II. All employees are not workmen. III. All workmen are employees. IV. All managerial staff are workmen.
Codes :
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV
(D) I and III
Ans: B
48. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that medical representative is not workman ?
(A) Standard Vacuum Oil Company V. Commissioner of Labour
(B) Anand Bazar Patrika V. Its Workmen
(C) Workmen V. Greaves Cotton & Co.
(D) J & J Dechane V. State of Kerala
Ans: D
49. Which one of the following statement is true ?
(A) The general funds of a registered trade union shall not be spent on the payment of salaries.
(B) A registered Trade union may constitute a separate fund for the promotion of the civic and political interests.
(C) No appeal lies against the order of refusal of the Registrar to register a Trade union.
(D) Every registered Trade Union shall not be a body corporate.
Ans: B
50. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I (Subject) List – II (Provisions of Trade Union Act, 1926)
(i) Appointment of Registrar 1. Section 24
(ii) Appeal 2. Section 10
(iii) Amalgamation of Trade Unions 3. Section 3
(iv) Cancellation of registration 4. Section 11
Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 2 1
Ans: C
51. The Supreme Court held in which of the following cases that preamble is not the part of the Constitution of India
(A) Berubari case (B) A. K. Gopalan case (C) Balaji Case (D) Minerva Mill’s case
Ans: A
52. Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
(A) 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India. (B) 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(C) 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India. (D) 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
Ans: C
53. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is
(A) Directive Principle of State Policy (B) Fundamental National Policy
(C) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen (D) Both Directive Principle of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
Ans: D
54. Originally the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and
(A) Seven other judges (B) Twelve other judges (C) Thirteen other judges (D) Fifteen other judges
Ans: A
55. A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
(A) Three months (B) Six months (C) Nine months (D) Twelve months
Ans: D
56. The President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India remains valid in the State for maximum period of
(A) One month (B) Three months (C) Six months (D) One year
Ans: C
57. The power of the Parliament to a mend the Constitution of India is a constituent power laid down in Article 368 by
(A) Twenty Fourth Amendment Act (B) Twenty Sixth Amendment Act
(C) Forty Second Amendment Act (D) Forty Fourth Amendment Act
Ans: A
58. ‘Jurisprudence is as big as law and bigger’. who said this ?
(A) Austin (B) Lloyds (C) Lewellyn (D) Holland
Ans: C
59. “Rousseau is a Janus like figure in the history of national law” – who said this ?
(A) Hobbes (B) J. S. Mill (C) Locke (D) Barker
Ans: D
60. Match List-I (Jurist) with List-II (Assumption) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List – I List – II
I. Acquinars (a) Jural postulates
II. Pound (b) Spirit of people
III. Kelsen (c) Ground norm
IV. Savigny (d) Reason and will in law
Codes : I II III IV
(A) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(B) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(C) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(D) (d) (b) (a) (c)
Ans: A
61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
I. Law in a changing society (a) Fuller
II. Human Law and Human Justice (b) Friedmann
III. The morality of law (c) Stone
IV. Ancient law (d) Main
Codes : I II III IV
(A) (a) (c) (b) (d)
(B) (c) (a) (b) (d)
(C) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Ans: B
62. Which one of the following schools of Jurisprudence considers that “a reasoned scale of values can be discovered as a basis for legal development” ?
(A) Sociological (B) Historical (C) Analytical (D) Philosophical
Ans: D
63. According to Salmond, the correlative of liberty is
(A) Duty (B) No rights (C) Subjection (D) Disabilities
Ans: B
64. Assertion (A) : Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R) : Custom represents common consciousness of people.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
65. Assertion (A) : International Court of Justice has power to decide cases on the basis of equity
Reason (R) : Equity is one of the General Principles of Law recognized by Civilized Nations.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
66. Match List-I with List-II : List – I (Subject Matter) List – II (Cases)
(a) International Custom (i) S. S. Lotus (France v. Turkey) PCIJ, Series A, No. 10
(b) Res Judicata (ii) U. N. Administrative Tribunal case, International Law Reports, 1954, P. 310
(c) Legal status of General Assembly Resolutions on decolonization and self determination (iii) Western Sahara Case, Advisory Opinion, ICJ Rep., 1975, P. 12
(d) Human Rights (iv) Lawless Case, American Journal of International Law, Vol. 56, 1962, P. 187
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: A
67. U. N. Commission on Human Rights has been discarded and replaced by
(A) Economic, Social and Cultural Rights Committee (B) Amnesty International
(C) Human Rights Committee (D) Human Rights Council
Ans: D
68. Which of the following is not a primary source of International Law ?
(A) International Treaty (B) Decision of International Court of Justice
(C) International Custom (D) General Principle of Law recognized by Civilized Nations
Ans: B
69. Which of the following cases relates to retroactive nature of the act of recognition of government ?
(A) Aksionairnoye Obschestro A. M. Luthar V. James Sagor & Co., (1921) 3 K.B. P. 532
(B) Trendtex Trading Corporation V. Central Bank of Nigeria, (1977) B. P. 529
(C) Central Air Transport Inc. V. Central Air Transport Corporation, (1953) A. C. P. 70
(D) Nicaragua V. U.S.A., ICJ Rep., 1984, P. 169.
Ans: C
70. In a case concerning the legality of the Threat or use of Nuclear Weapons, the International Court of Justice gave advisory opinion at the request of :
(A) U.N. Security Council
(B) U. N. General Assembly
(C) World Health Organization
(D) United Nations Educational and Cultural Organization
Ans: B
71. Which is not the modern source of Hindu Law ?
(A) Equity, Justice and Good Conscience (B) Precedent (C) Sruti (D) Legislation
Ans: C
72. Consider the following propositions and give the correct answer
I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is regarded as a valid marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
Codes :
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I and III are correct
Ans: C
73. Assertion (A) : Break down of marriage as such is not a ground for Divorce.
Reason (R) : It may result into an easy way of dissolution of marriage and shall result into instability in the society.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (B)
(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.
Ans: A
74. Dastane Vs. Dastane is a case decided by the Supreme Court relating to :
(A) Adultery (B) Dessertion (C) Cruelty (D) None of the above
Ans: C
75. Marriages of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should by made compulsory registrable in their respective States where the marriage is solemnised. This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of :
(A) Githa Hariharn Vs. RBI (B) Seema Vs. Ashwani Kumar
(C) John Vallamathom Vs. Union of India (D) None of the above
Ans: B
76. Assertion (A) : The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 brought changes like prohibition of polygamy and prigamy and permission for inter-caste marriages.
Reason (R) : The changes were brought under social pressure.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
77. An agreement made by mistake is
(A) Void (B) Voidable (C) Illegal (D) Immoral
Ans: A
78. Which of the following statements are true ?
(i) Minor’s contract can be ratified on attaining majority.
(ii) Minor’s contract cannot be ratified on attaining majority.
(iii) Minor’s contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract.
(iv) Minor is not liable under minor’s contract.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: B
79. Assertion (A) : Damages must be related to damage.
Reason (R) : Damage is damaging and damages are compensating.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
80. Arrange the following concepts in sequence in which they appeared. Use the codes given below :
(i) Offer by x to y
(ii) Undue influence of x over y
(iii) Demand of damages by y from x
(iv) Acceptance of the offer by y.
Codes :
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: C
(A) Berubari case (B) A. K. Gopalan case (C) Balaji Case (D) Minerva Mill’s case
Ans: A
52. Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
(A) 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India. (B) 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(C) 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India. (D) 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
Ans: C
53. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is
(A) Directive Principle of State Policy (B) Fundamental National Policy
(C) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen (D) Both Directive Principle of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
Ans: D
54. Originally the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and
(A) Seven other judges (B) Twelve other judges (C) Thirteen other judges (D) Fifteen other judges
Ans: A
55. A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
(A) Three months (B) Six months (C) Nine months (D) Twelve months
Ans: D
56. The President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India remains valid in the State for maximum period of
(A) One month (B) Three months (C) Six months (D) One year
Ans: C
57. The power of the Parliament to a mend the Constitution of India is a constituent power laid down in Article 368 by
(A) Twenty Fourth Amendment Act (B) Twenty Sixth Amendment Act
(C) Forty Second Amendment Act (D) Forty Fourth Amendment Act
Ans: A
58. ‘Jurisprudence is as big as law and bigger’. who said this ?
(A) Austin (B) Lloyds (C) Lewellyn (D) Holland
Ans: C
59. “Rousseau is a Janus like figure in the history of national law” – who said this ?
(A) Hobbes (B) J. S. Mill (C) Locke (D) Barker
Ans: D
60. Match List-I (Jurist) with List-II (Assumption) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List – I List – II
I. Acquinars (a) Jural postulates
II. Pound (b) Spirit of people
III. Kelsen (c) Ground norm
IV. Savigny (d) Reason and will in law
Codes : I II III IV
(A) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(B) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(C) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(D) (d) (b) (a) (c)
Ans: A
61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
I. Law in a changing society (a) Fuller
II. Human Law and Human Justice (b) Friedmann
III. The morality of law (c) Stone
IV. Ancient law (d) Main
Codes : I II III IV
(A) (a) (c) (b) (d)
(B) (c) (a) (b) (d)
(C) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Ans: B
62. Which one of the following schools of Jurisprudence considers that “a reasoned scale of values can be discovered as a basis for legal development” ?
(A) Sociological (B) Historical (C) Analytical (D) Philosophical
Ans: D
63. According to Salmond, the correlative of liberty is
(A) Duty (B) No rights (C) Subjection (D) Disabilities
Ans: B
64. Assertion (A) : Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R) : Custom represents common consciousness of people.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: D
65. Assertion (A) : International Court of Justice has power to decide cases on the basis of equity
Reason (R) : Equity is one of the General Principles of Law recognized by Civilized Nations.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
66. Match List-I with List-II : List – I (Subject Matter) List – II (Cases)
(a) International Custom (i) S. S. Lotus (France v. Turkey) PCIJ, Series A, No. 10
(b) Res Judicata (ii) U. N. Administrative Tribunal case, International Law Reports, 1954, P. 310
(c) Legal status of General Assembly Resolutions on decolonization and self determination (iii) Western Sahara Case, Advisory Opinion, ICJ Rep., 1975, P. 12
(d) Human Rights (iv) Lawless Case, American Journal of International Law, Vol. 56, 1962, P. 187
Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: A
67. U. N. Commission on Human Rights has been discarded and replaced by
(A) Economic, Social and Cultural Rights Committee (B) Amnesty International
(C) Human Rights Committee (D) Human Rights Council
Ans: D
68. Which of the following is not a primary source of International Law ?
(A) International Treaty (B) Decision of International Court of Justice
(C) International Custom (D) General Principle of Law recognized by Civilized Nations
Ans: B
69. Which of the following cases relates to retroactive nature of the act of recognition of government ?
(A) Aksionairnoye Obschestro A. M. Luthar V. James Sagor & Co., (1921) 3 K.B. P. 532
(B) Trendtex Trading Corporation V. Central Bank of Nigeria, (1977) B. P. 529
(C) Central Air Transport Inc. V. Central Air Transport Corporation, (1953) A. C. P. 70
(D) Nicaragua V. U.S.A., ICJ Rep., 1984, P. 169.
Ans: C
70. In a case concerning the legality of the Threat or use of Nuclear Weapons, the International Court of Justice gave advisory opinion at the request of :
(A) U.N. Security Council
(B) U. N. General Assembly
(C) World Health Organization
(D) United Nations Educational and Cultural Organization
Ans: B
71. Which is not the modern source of Hindu Law ?
(A) Equity, Justice and Good Conscience (B) Precedent (C) Sruti (D) Legislation
Ans: C
72. Consider the following propositions and give the correct answer
I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is regarded as a valid marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
Codes :
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I and III are correct
Ans: C
73. Assertion (A) : Break down of marriage as such is not a ground for Divorce.
Reason (R) : It may result into an easy way of dissolution of marriage and shall result into instability in the society.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (B)
(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.
Ans: A
74. Dastane Vs. Dastane is a case decided by the Supreme Court relating to :
(A) Adultery (B) Dessertion (C) Cruelty (D) None of the above
Ans: C
75. Marriages of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should by made compulsory registrable in their respective States where the marriage is solemnised. This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of :
(A) Githa Hariharn Vs. RBI (B) Seema Vs. Ashwani Kumar
(C) John Vallamathom Vs. Union of India (D) None of the above
Ans: B
76. Assertion (A) : The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 brought changes like prohibition of polygamy and prigamy and permission for inter-caste marriages.
Reason (R) : The changes were brought under social pressure.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: C
77. An agreement made by mistake is
(A) Void (B) Voidable (C) Illegal (D) Immoral
Ans: A
78. Which of the following statements are true ?
(i) Minor’s contract can be ratified on attaining majority.
(ii) Minor’s contract cannot be ratified on attaining majority.
(iii) Minor’s contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract.
(iv) Minor is not liable under minor’s contract.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: B
79. Assertion (A) : Damages must be related to damage.
Reason (R) : Damage is damaging and damages are compensating.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: A
80. Arrange the following concepts in sequence in which they appeared. Use the codes given below :
(i) Offer by x to y
(ii) Undue influence of x over y
(iii) Demand of damages by y from x
(iv) Acceptance of the offer by y.
Codes :
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: C
81. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the crime of
a) House breaking
b) Dishonest misappropriation of property
c) Forgery
d) Forgery with cheating
Ans: C
82. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under
a) Section 503 to 506
b) Section 509 to 516
c) Section 319 to 329
d) None of the above
Ans: A
83. Under Section16 CPC a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a court whose local jurisdiction is
a) Where the property is situated
b) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: A
84. Pleading means
a) Plaint and written statement
b) Plaint only
c) Written statement
d) Oral statement by the pleader
Ans: A
85. On failure to file a written statement, under order VIII Rule 10 of CPC, the court may
a) pass any other order
b) Order for striking off the decree
c) May pronounce the judgement at once
d) Any of the above
Ans: D
86. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides
a)Possession of driving license while driving
b)Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
c) Revoking driving license if drunk driving is detected
d) State government’s power to control the road transport
Ans: D
87. A decree can be
a) Final
b) Preliminary
c) Only Preliminary not final
d) Either preliminary or final
Ans: D
88. Foreign Judgement is defined in CPC
a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC
b) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
c) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
d) None of the above.
Ans: A
89. Which of the following is not of civil nature
a) Right to take out procession
b) Right to Worship in a temple
c) Right to Caste and Religion
d)All of the above
Ans: C
90. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata applies
a) The suit is liable to be dismissed
b) The suit is liable to be stayed
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: A
91. The term ‘Tort’ is a
a)Latin Word
b)French Word
c)English word
d)Italian word
Ans: B
92. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
a) A person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
b) A person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person
c) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
d) None of the above
Ans: B
93. Under Section 2(1) (f) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, ‘defect’ is meant by any fault, imperfection or shortcomings in ………………………in relation to the goods
a) Quality and Quantity
b) Potency
c) Purity or standard
d) All of the above
Ans: D
94. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act
a) By the opinion of Experts
b) By the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
c) After police verification
d) (a) and (b)
Ans: D
95. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides
a) No confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
b) Confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
c) Confession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
d) (a) and (c)
Ans: D
96. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes
a) Oral evidence
b) Documentary evidence
c) Electronic records produced for the inspection of the court
d) All of the above
Ans: D
97. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with
a) Qualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the Bar
b) Qualification to become the Advocate General
c) Qualification to become the Solicitor General of India
d) (b) and (c)
Ans: A
98. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury for compensation
a) Insurance certificate
b) Medical examination
c) Medical Certificate
d) (b) and (c)
Ans: D
99. Which of the following falls under the categories of Act of God
a) Storm and cyclone
b) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
c) Lightning and thunder
d) All of the above
Ans: D
100. Income Tax Act was enacted in
a) 1951
b) 1961
c) 1971
d) None of the above
Ans: B
a) House breaking
b) Dishonest misappropriation of property
c) Forgery
d) Forgery with cheating
Ans: C
82. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under
a) Section 503 to 506
b) Section 509 to 516
c) Section 319 to 329
d) None of the above
Ans: A
83. Under Section16 CPC a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a court whose local jurisdiction is
a) Where the property is situated
b) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: A
84. Pleading means
a) Plaint and written statement
b) Plaint only
c) Written statement
d) Oral statement by the pleader
Ans: A
85. On failure to file a written statement, under order VIII Rule 10 of CPC, the court may
a) pass any other order
b) Order for striking off the decree
c) May pronounce the judgement at once
d) Any of the above
Ans: D
86. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides
a)Possession of driving license while driving
b)Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
c) Revoking driving license if drunk driving is detected
d) State government’s power to control the road transport
Ans: D
87. A decree can be
a) Final
b) Preliminary
c) Only Preliminary not final
d) Either preliminary or final
Ans: D
88. Foreign Judgement is defined in CPC
a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC
b) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
c) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
d) None of the above.
Ans: A
89. Which of the following is not of civil nature
a) Right to take out procession
b) Right to Worship in a temple
c) Right to Caste and Religion
d)All of the above
Ans: C
90. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata applies
a) The suit is liable to be dismissed
b) The suit is liable to be stayed
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
Ans: A
91. The term ‘Tort’ is a
a)Latin Word
b)French Word
c)English word
d)Italian word
Ans: B
92. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
a) A person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
b) A person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person
c) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
d) None of the above
Ans: B
93. Under Section 2(1) (f) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, ‘defect’ is meant by any fault, imperfection or shortcomings in ………………………in relation to the goods
a) Quality and Quantity
b) Potency
c) Purity or standard
d) All of the above
Ans: D
94. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act
a) By the opinion of Experts
b) By the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
c) After police verification
d) (a) and (b)
Ans: D
95. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides
a) No confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
b) Confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
c) Confession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
d) (a) and (c)
Ans: D
96. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes
a) Oral evidence
b) Documentary evidence
c) Electronic records produced for the inspection of the court
d) All of the above
Ans: D
97. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with
a) Qualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the Bar
b) Qualification to become the Advocate General
c) Qualification to become the Solicitor General of India
d) (b) and (c)
Ans: A
98. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury for compensation
a) Insurance certificate
b) Medical examination
c) Medical Certificate
d) (b) and (c)
Ans: D
99. Which of the following falls under the categories of Act of God
a) Storm and cyclone
b) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
c) Lightning and thunder
d) All of the above
Ans: D
100. Income Tax Act was enacted in
a) 1951
b) 1961
c) 1971
d) None of the above
Ans: B